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All questions of May 2025 for UPSC CSE Exam

What major challenge is contributing to India's economic growth being described as a "6% GDP growth trap"?
  • a)
    Excessive foreign investment
  • b)
    Increasing rural poverty
  • c)
    High inflation rates
  • d)
    Low investment and job creation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The "6% GDP growth trap" in India is largely attributed to low investment and job creation, where the investment-to-GDP ratio has significantly declined in recent years. This stagnation prevents the economy from achieving higher growth rates necessary for substantial poverty alleviation and middle-class expansion. Additionally, the fiscal constraints faced by the government limit its ability to invest in growth-promoting sectors. A noteworthy point is that a sustained growth rate of over 8% is crucial for lifting a larger segment of the population into the middle class.
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Consider the following pairs:
1. Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) Themes
- Health and Sanitation
2. Performance Categories in PAI
- Achiever: Score above 90
3. Key Challenge for Panchayats
- Complete Devolution of Powers
4. Measure to Enhance PRIs
- Gender Inclusion with Resource Centres
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Shah answered
Understanding Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) Matching
The question presents four pairs related to the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) and requires us to identify how many are correctly matched. Let's evaluate each pair.
1. PAI Themes - Health and Sanitation
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched. Health and sanitation are critical themes under the PAI, as they directly impact community well-being and quality of life.
2. Performance Categories in PAI - Achiever: Score above 90
- Correctness: This pair is also correctly matched. The PAI categorizes performance, and a score above 90 typically indicates an "Achiever" status, reflecting high performance in panchayat governance.
3. Key Challenge for Panchayats - Complete Devolution of Powers
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched too. One of the significant challenges faced by Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) is the need for complete devolution of powers from higher levels of government to ensure effective local governance.
4. Measure to Enhance PRIs - Gender Inclusion with Resource Centres
- Correctness: This pair is not entirely correct. While gender inclusion is vital for enhancing PRIs, the specific mention of "Resource Centres" may not accurately reflect common measures associated with promoting gender inclusivity.
Conclusion
- After evaluating each pair, we find that:
- Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.
- Pair 4 is not accurately matched.
Thus, the total number of correctly matched pairs is three, making option 'C' the correct answer.
In summary, the response evaluates the accuracy of each pair and confirms that three out of four are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. TR1 cells are a type of CD4 helper T-cells that help maintain immune tolerance by reducing inflammation in response to pathogens.
2. The primary function of TR1 cells is to directly attack and destroy the malaria parasite, Plasmodium falciparum.
3. Understanding the role of TR1 cells can lead to new strategies for controlling malaria by balancing immune responses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Innovative Classes answered
To determine the correct statements, let us analyze each one:
Statement 1: TR1 cells are indeed a type of CD4 helper T-cells known for maintaining immune tolerance by reducing inflammation. This aligns with the description that TR1 cells control and balance immune responses, preventing excessive immune reactions. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. TR1 cells do not primarily attack and destroy the malaria parasite. Their role is not direct pathogen destruction but rather to regulate the immune response to avoid excessive inflammation, which helps in maintaining a balance between fighting the parasite and preventing immune damage.
Statement 3: This statement is correct. Recognizing the function of TR1 cells can indeed lead to new strategies for controlling malaria, as it involves modulating the immune response to prevent severe illness while managing the parasite load.
Thus, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

What is the primary purpose of the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) mentioned in the provided content?
  • a)
    To rank cities based on population density
  • b)
    To evaluate the performance and progress of Gram Panchayats
  • c)
    To assess the literacy rates in rural areas
  • d)
    To measure the GDP growth at the village level
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Iyer answered
Primary Purpose of the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI)
The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) serves as a vital tool for assessing the performance and progress of Gram Panchayats in India.
Understanding Gram Panchayats
- Gram Panchayats are the rural local government bodies responsible for governance at the village level.
- They play a crucial role in implementing development programs and delivering essential services to rural communities.
Evaluation of Performance
- The PAI is designed to evaluate various parameters related to the functioning of Gram Panchayats.
- It assesses factors such as governance, public service delivery, and community participation, which are essential for effective local administration.
Indicators of Progress
- The index includes indicators that reflect the socio-economic development of the villages.
- It helps in identifying strengths and weaknesses within the Panchayat system, allowing for targeted improvements.
Facilitating Accountability
- By measuring performance, PAI promotes accountability among local leaders and encourages transparency in governance.
- This ultimately leads to better decision-making and resource allocation for rural development.
Impact on Policy Making
- The insights gained from the PAI can inform policymakers about the effectiveness of existing policies and programs.
- It aids in the formulation of strategies to enhance the overall development of rural areas.
In conclusion, the primary purpose of the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) is to systematically evaluate the performance and progress of Gram Panchayats, ensuring they effectively contribute to the development of rural communities in India.

Consider the following statements regarding India's engagement and strategy in the Arctic region:
1. India became an Observer nation in the Arctic Council in 2013.
2. The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) is responsible for leading India's Arctic studies.
3. India's 2022 Arctic Policy emphasizes the establishment of military bases in the Arctic region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
1. India became an Observer nation in the Arctic Council in 2013: This statement is correct. India was granted Observer status in the Arctic Council in 2013, which marked a significant step in its engagement with the Arctic region, primarily to enhance its scientific research and understanding of climate change impacts.
2. The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) is responsible for leading India's Arctic studies: This statement is correct. NCPOR, based in Goa, is the nodal agency for polar research in India, and it leads the country's scientific expeditions and studies in the Arctic. NCPOR manages India's research station in Svalbard and coordinates various scientific projects related to biological sciences, glaciology, and climate studies in the Arctic.
3. India's 2022 Arctic Policy emphasizes the establishment of military bases in the Arctic region: This statement is incorrect. India's 2022 Arctic Policy primarily focuses on strengthening scientific research, enhancing maritime cooperation, and understanding climate change impacts. There is no mention or emphasis on establishing military bases in the Arctic region as part of India's policy.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India's growth forecast has been adjusted slightly from 6.5% to 6.2% for 2025, yet it remains the fastest-growing major economy globally.
Statement-II:
India's private consumption nearly doubled to Rs. 1.83 lakh crore in 2024, growing at a 7.2% CAGR and is a vital driver of growth.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered

Statement-I correctly highlights the adjustment in India's growth forecast and its position as the fastest-growing major economy. Statement-II accurately describes the significant growth in India's private consumption, emphasizing its role as a crucial driver of economic growth. The information presented in both statements aligns cohesively, with Statement-II providing a supportive explanation for the assertions made in Statement-I. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

What is a key factor contributing to India's economic resilience as highlighted in the passage?
  • a)
    Technological Innovation
  • b)
    Aging Economies
  • c)
    Global Inflation Rates
  • d)
    US Economic Growth
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
Technological innovation plays a pivotal role in shaping India's economic resilience by boosting productivity and creating new job opportunities. The adoption of digital technologies not only enhances efficiency but also fosters growth across various sectors, contributing significantly to India's economic development.

Which of the following measures is NOT part of India's approach to tackle Climate Physical Risks?
  • a)
    Implementing climate-resilient building codes
  • b)
    Promoting drought-resistant crops
  • c)
    Enhancing coastal resilience through mangrove restoration
  • d)
    Increasing fossil fuel dependency
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Among the listed options, increasing fossil fuel dependency contradicts the strategies aimed at mitigating Climate Physical Risks. The focus is on promoting sustainable practices such as drought-resistant crops and enhancing coastal resilience. This approach aims to reduce reliance on fossil fuels and transition towards cleaner energy sources, which is vital for addressing the challenges posed by climate change and achieving long-term sustainability.

Consider the following pairs regarding the challenges faced by deep-tech startups in India:
1. Incubation Support - Only 1 in 4 public-funded R&D organizations provide incubation support for deep-tech startups.
2. Foreign Collaboration - 50% of institutions engage in partnerships with foreign industry partners.
3. Budget Allocation - Significant spending is directed towards strategic sectors, limiting resources for non-strategic sectors.
4. R&D Investment - India's gross expenditure on R&D is 2% of GDP.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Innovative Classes answered
1. Incubation Support - Correct. The statement accurately reflects the challenge that only 1 in 4 public-funded R&D organizations provide incubation support, with even less focusing on deep-tech startups.
2. Foreign Collaboration - Incorrect. Only 15% of institutions engage in partnerships with foreign industry partners, not 50%.
3. Budget Allocation - Correct. There is a skewed budget allocation with significant spending directed towards strategic sectors, which indeed limits resources available for non-strategic sectors.
4. R&D Investment - Incorrect. India's gross expenditure on R&D is 0.64% of GDP, not 2%.
Thus, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, corresponding to Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Parliamentary oversight mechanisms in India include tools like Question Hour and Standing Committees to strengthen democratic accountability.
Statement-II:
Constitutional provisions in India, such as Article 111, grant the President the power to assent, withhold, or return a Bill (except Money Bills) for reconsideration.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered

Statement-I is correct as it highlights the important parliamentary oversight mechanisms in India like Question Hour and Standing Committees. Statement-II is also correct as it mentions a constitutional provision (Article 111) that empowers the President regarding Bills. While both statements are factually accurate, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to Statement-I. The two statements address different aspects of India's parliamentary system without one elaborating on the other, hence Option B is the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs regarding environmental challenges and efforts related to climate change and ecosystems:
1. Cyclone Intensity Increase - Warmer ocean temperatures
2. Mangrove Vulnerability - Increased salinity from freshwater influx
3. Electric Vehicle Impact - Increased tyre wear due to heavier vehicles
4. Himalayan Climate Regulation - Acts as a shield against cold winds
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Cyclone Intensity Increase - Warmer ocean temperatures: Correctly matched. Warmer ocean temperatures provide more energy for cyclones, leading to increased intensity and higher wind speeds.
2. Mangrove Vulnerability - Increased salinity from freshwater influx: Incorrectly matched. Mangrove vulnerability is primarily due to stronger cyclones causing soil erosion and increased saltwater intrusion, not freshwater influx.
3. Electric Vehicle Impact - Increased tyre wear due to heavier vehicles: Correctly matched. Electric vehicles are heavier due to their batteries, leading to increased tyre wear and microplastic pollution.
4. Himalayan Climate Regulation - Acts as a shield against cold winds: Correctly matched. The Himalayas influence weather patterns and act as a barrier to cold winds from Central Asia, impacting the climate of the Indian subcontinent.
Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making three pairs correct.

What is the significance of Zero Hour in the context of parliamentary proceedings in India?
  • a)
    It allows MPs to raise urgent matters without prior notice.
  • b)
    It designates an hour for no parliamentary discussions.
  • c)
    It is a period where only non-urgent matters can be discussed.
  • d)
    It is a term used to describe the final hour of a parliamentary session.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
Zero Hour in the Indian parliamentary system allows Members of Parliament (MPs) to raise important matters without prior notice. It typically follows the Question Hour and provides an opportunity to raise urgent issues that require immediate attention. This segment is crucial for addressing unforeseen developments and concerns that may not have been scheduled for discussion, enabling MPs to bring attention to pressing matters affecting the nation or their constituencies.

Consider the following statements regarding Climate Physical Risks (CPRs) in India:
1. Acute Physical Risks refer to long-term changes in climate, such as rising sea levels and increasing temperatures, which affect agriculture and health.
2. Rising temperatures in India have led to an increase of approximately 0.7°C from 1901 to 2018.
3. India relies on coal for electricity production, with 77% of its electricity generated from coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Acute Physical Risks involve short-term, high-impact events such as hurricanes, floods, and heatwaves that lead to immediate infrastructure damage and loss of life. Chronic Physical Risks, on the other hand, refer to long-term changes in climate, such as rising sea levels and increasing temperatures, which affect agriculture and health.
- Statement 2 is correct. Rising temperatures in India have indeed increased by approximately 0.7°C from 1901 to 2018, contributing to significant climate-related challenges, including prolonged heatwaves expected by 2100.
- Statement 3 is correct. India is heavily dependent on coal for its electricity production, with 77% of its electricity generated from coal sources. This reliance poses challenges to reducing emissions and transitioning to cleaner energy sources.
Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3, making Option D the accurate choice.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Kani Tribe - Conservation of Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve
2. Bishnoi Community - Protection of Asiatic Lion in Gir Forest
3. Soliga Tribe - Coexistence with wildlife in Biligiri Rangana Hills
4. Tribes in Odisha - Practice of jhum cultivation for soil fertility
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
1. Kani Tribe - Conservation of Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve: This pair is correctly matched. The Kani Tribe in Kerala is known for their traditional practices that contribute to the conservation of the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve. They possess deep traditional knowledge about medicinal plants and sustainable resource use.
2. Bishnoi Community - Protection of Asiatic Lion in Gir Forest: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Bishnoi community is renowned for its protection of the Khejri tree and wildlife such as blackbucks, not the Asiatic Lion which is found in Gir Forest, Gujarat. The Asiatic Lion is primarily conserved in the Gir National Park by state efforts and other local communities.
3. Soliga Tribe - Coexistence with wildlife in Biligiri Rangana Hills: This pair is correctly matched. The Soliga Tribe in Karnataka is known for their peaceful coexistence with wildlife, including tigers and elephants, in the Biligiri Rangana Hills (BRT) Tiger Reserve.
4. Tribes in Odisha - Practice of jhum cultivation for soil fertility: This pair is correctly matched. Tribes in Odisha, as well as in Nagaland, practice jhum (shifting) cultivation, which includes long fallow periods that help in maintaining soil fertility.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making a total of two correctly matched pairs out of four.

Consider the following statements regarding the early onset of the southwest monsoon in India:
1. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) declares the monsoon onset over Kerala based on specific criteria, including 60% of 14 designated weather stations recording at least 2.5 mm of rainfall for two consecutive days.
2. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a low-pressure area over the Indian subcontinent that directly causes early monsoon onset.
3. The early monsoon onset positively impacts water resource management by recharging groundwater and filling reservoirs.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The IMD uses specific criteria to declare the monsoon onset, including the requirement that 60% of 14 designated weather stations in Kerala must record a minimum of 2.5 mm of rainfall for two consecutive days.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is not a low-pressure area over India. Instead, it is an atmospheric phenomenon that travels eastward around the globe and can enhance rainfall activity by influencing the atmospheric conditions conducive to monsoon development.
- Statement 3 is correct. The early onset of the monsoon positively impacts water resource management by helping to recharge groundwater levels and fill reservoirs, which are crucial for sustaining agriculture and other water needs.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Gangetic dolphins are exclusively saltwater creatures and are often found in large groups.
Statement-II:
The Gangetic dolphin population has been steadily increasing over the years due to conservation efforts.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered

Statement-I correctly identifies the Gangetic dolphins as exclusively freshwater creatures, not saltwater. They are primarily found in freshwater river systems like the Ganges. On the other hand, Statement-II is incorrect as the Gangetic dolphin population has been decreasing rather than increasing, based on the information provided in the text. This decline is due to various threats like pollution, habitat loss, and human activities impacting their survival. Therefore, Statement-I is accurate while Statement-II is inaccurate, making option (c) the correct answer.

What is a significant challenge faced by India's civil services according to the text provided?
  • a)
    Lack of political interference
  • b)
    Absence of corruption
  • c)
    Erosion of Neutrality
  • d)
    Excessive use of technology
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The growing trend of political interference compromising bureaucratic independence, leading to a spoils system where loyalty to ruling parties supersedes merit, is a significant challenge faced by India's civil services. This erosion of neutrality can hinder effective governance and service delivery, highlighting the importance of maintaining an impartial and merit-based civil service system.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 in India legally recognizes the rights of Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs) to manage and protect their lands.
2. The Biological Diversity Act (BDA) of 2002 mandates the integration of technology in civil services to enhance biodiversity conservation efforts.
3. The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) of 1996 empowers local communities with rights over forest lands and natural resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 is indeed designed to legally recognize and support the rights of Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs) in India, allowing them to manage and protect their lands. This act is a significant legislative measure aimed at correcting historical injustices faced by forest-dwelling communities.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Biological Diversity Act (BDA) of 2002 is primarily focused on the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. It does not specifically mandate the integration of technology in civil services for biodiversity conservation; rather, it sets a framework for the conservation and sustainable management of biodiversity.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) of 1996 extends the provisions of the Panchayat system to the scheduled areas of India and empowers local communities, particularly those in tribal regions, with greater control over their resources, including forest lands and natural resources.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of social media on young people:
1. Social media platforms have disrupted traditional media by enabling real-time news sharing and amplifying marginalized voices.
2. The rise of social media has led to an increase in anxiety and distorted self-image among young individuals.
3. Social media has significantly contributed to the economic growth of India by supporting small businesses and startups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Social media platforms have indeed disrupted traditional media by allowing individuals to share real-time news and opinions, which has been particularly impactful during events like the Covid-19 pandemic and social movements such as #MeTooIndia. This highlights social media's role in amplifying marginalized voices.
- Statement 2 is correct. The rise of social media has been linked to increased anxiety and issues related to self-image among young individuals, as they often seek online validation which can lead to mental health challenges.
- Statement 3 is correct. Social media has contributed to the economic growth of India by supporting small businesses and startups, as evidenced by the surge in the creator economy and the visibility gained by brands such as Patanjali and boAt through effective social media marketing strategies.
All three statements accurately reflect the described impact of social media on society, making Option D the correct answer.

What is a key driver of India's economic growth as highlighted in the text?
  • a)
    Boosting private investment
  • b)
    Implementing stringent fiscal austerity measures
  • c)
    Encouraging over-reliance on imports
  • d)
    Ignoring infrastructure development
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
A significant driver of India's economic growth, as highlighted in the text, is the focus on boosting private investment. This strategy involves incentivizing labor-intensive industries and promoting domestic manufacturing, which can contribute to economic expansion and job creation. By encouraging private investment, the economy can diversify, innovate, and expand, leading to sustainable growth and development.

What environmental impact is associated with the heavier weight of electric vehicles (EVs)?
  • a)
    Increased air pollution
  • b)
    Release of microplastic pollution from tyre wear
  • c)
    Soil erosion
  • d)
    Noise pollution
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The heavier weight of electric vehicles (EVs) leads to increased tyre wear, resulting in the release of microplastic pollution. This pollution arises from both primary fragmentation due to sudden braking and sequential fragmentation from routine wear, contributing to air and soil pollution. It's essential to consider these environmental consequences while evaluating the overall sustainability of EVs.

Consider the following statements regarding consumer protection in India:
1. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 expanded coverage to include e-commerce and unfair trade practices.
2. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Act, 2016 mandates certification for all consumer products to ensure safety and quality.
3. The Legal Metrology Act, 2009 is primarily focused on protecting consumer rights through accurate pricing of goods and services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Innovative Classes answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 indeed expanded the scope of consumer protection by including e-commerce and addressing unfair trade practices. This was a significant update from the earlier Consumer Protection Act of 1986, reflecting the evolving marketplace and the need for broader consumer rights protection, particularly in the digital domain.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Act, 2016 does ensure product safety and quality, it does not mandate certification for all consumer products. Instead, it requires certification for certain critical products to ensure they meet specific safety and quality standards. The focus is on critical sectors where safety is a significant concern rather than a blanket requirement for all consumer products.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Legal Metrology Act, 2009 is concerned with the accurate weights and measures in commercial transactions to promote fair trade practices, protecting consumers from being cheated by incorrect measurements. While it indirectly supports consumer rights, its primary focus is not on pricing accuracy but on ensuring that quantity measurements are precise and not misleading.
Thus, only statement 1 is correct, making Option A the right choice.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Judicial despotism occurs when the judiciary exercises excessive or unchecked power, often exceeding its constitutional authority and undermining the roles of the legislature and the executive.
Statement-II:
Judicial review is the power of constitutional courts to assess the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive actions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered

Statement-I correctly defines judicial despotism as the judiciary's exercise of excessive power beyond its constitutional limits. This involves undermining the roles of the legislature and the executive, highlighting the issue of unchecked authority.
Statement-II accurately describes judicial review as the power of constitutional courts to evaluate the constitutionality of laws and actions taken by the legislative and executive branches. It aligns with the fundamental function of courts to ensure that laws and actions adhere to the constitution, thereby providing a system of checks and balances within a democratic framework.

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution ensures the Council of Ministers is collectively accountable to the Rajya Sabha.
2. Article 113 requires that government expenditure must be approved by Parliament through an Appropriation Bill.
3. Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament allows MPs to raise urgent matters without prior notice, commencing after the Question Hour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution ensures the Council of Ministers is collectively accountable to the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. This is a crucial aspect of the parliamentary system in India, where the executive is responsible to the lower house of Parliament.
2. Statement 2 is correct. Article 113 of the Indian Constitution does indeed require that government expenditure must be approved by Parliament through an Appropriation Bill. This is part of the financial oversight function of the Parliament, ensuring that government spending is subject to legislative approval.
3. Statement 3 is correct. Zero Hour is a feature of the Indian parliamentary system that allows Members of Parliament to raise urgent matters without prior notice. It commences immediately after the Question Hour, providing a platform for MPs to discuss pressing issues.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only. This option accurately reflects the correctness of the statements based on the constitutional provisions and parliamentary practices in India.

What is the primary reason for the decline in the population of Gangetic dolphins according to recent studies?
  • a)
    High levels of chemical pollution in their environment
  • b)
    Natural predation from other species
  • c)
    Changes in water flow patterns due to dam construction
  • d)
    Increased tourism in river habitats
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The decline in the population of Gangetic dolphins is primarily attributed to high levels of chemical pollution in their habitat. The presence of harmful Endocrine-Disrupting Chemicals (EDCs) in the fish they consume poses significant health risks, disrupting their hormonal and reproductive systems. This situation highlights the critical need for pollution control measures in river ecosystems. An interesting fact is that the decline of a keystone species like the Gangetic dolphin can serve as an indicator of the overall health of the river ecosystem, emphasizing the interconnectedness of species and environmental health.

What is a key natural cause contributing to urban flooding in India according to the provided information?
  • a)
    Cyclones and hurricanes
  • b)
    Heavy monsoon rainfall
  • c)
    Industrial pollution
  • d)
    Construction of dams
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Heavy monsoon rainfall in India, particularly in regions like the Western Ghats and northeastern parts, overwhelms drainage systems, contributing significantly to urban flooding. This intense precipitation often leads to waterlogging and inundation in densely populated areas, exacerbating the risk of flooding.

Consider the following pairs based on the April 2025 World Economic Outlook Report:
1. India surpassing Japan to become the fourth-largest economy - 2025
2. Global growth forecast for 2025 - 3.0%
3. US economy growth expectation for 2025 - 1.8%
4. India's GDP growth forecast for 2025 - 6.5%
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. India surpassing Japan to become the fourth-largest economy - 2025: Correct. The April 2025 World Economic Outlook (WEO) predicts that India will surpass Japan to become the fourth-largest economy in 2025.
2. Global growth forecast for 2025 - 3.0%: Incorrect. The global growth forecast for 2025 is 2.8%, not 3.0%. The projection for 2026 is an increase to 3.0%.
3. US economy growth expectation for 2025 - 1.8%: Correct. The report expects the US economy to grow by 1.8% in 2025 due to policy uncertainties and trade tensions.
4. India's GDP growth forecast for 2025 - 6.5%: Incorrect. India's GDP growth forecast for 2025 has been adjusted to 6.2%, not 6.5%.
Two pairs are correctly matched: Pair 1 and Pair 3.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The surge in non-performing assets among Microfinance Institutions reflects deeper structural issues in India's rural credit delivery model.
Statement-II:
Microfinance, also known as microcredit, provides essential financial services, such as small loans and savings accounts, to underserved populations, particularly in rural areas. It plays a crucial role in empowering marginalized communities, especially women, promoting financial self-sufficiency and socio-economic development.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered

Statement-I suggests that the surge in non-performing assets among Microfinance Institutions indeed reflects deeper structural issues in India's rural credit delivery model. This is corroborated by the fact that the text highlights the rise in defaults, regulatory pressures, over-leveraging of borrowers, and issues with the Joint Liability Group model, all pointing to structural concerns within the microfinance sector.
Statement-II provides relevant background information about microfinance, emphasizing its role in providing financial services to underserved populations, especially in rural areas, and its impact on empowering marginalized communities and promoting socio-economic development. This statement supports Statement-I by contextualizing the significance of microfinance in the broader discussion of rural credit delivery models in India. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the underlying principles and functions of microfinance that contribute to the structural issues highlighted in Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs related to the Northeast Region (NER) of India and its strategic importance:
1. Assam - Known for bamboo-based industries
2. Arunachal Pradesh - Renowned for tea production
3. Meghalaya - Famous for living root bridges
4. Siliguri Corridor - Vital link connecting Northeast to the rest of India
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
1. Assam - Known for bamboo-based industries: Incorrect. Assam is renowned for tea production, not bamboo-based industries. Bamboo-based industries are more prominent in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Arunachal Pradesh - Renowned for tea production: Incorrect. Arunachal Pradesh is known for its bamboo-based industries. Tea production is significant in Assam.
3. Meghalaya - Famous for living root bridges: Correct. Meghalaya is indeed famous for its unique living root bridges, which are a significant attraction and an example of sustainable tourism.
4. Siliguri Corridor - Vital link connecting Northeast to the rest of India: Correct. The Siliguri Corridor, also known as the Chicken's Neck, is a narrow stretch of land that connects the Northeast Region to the rest of India and is crucial for transportation and national security.
Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.

What percentage of India's services sector enterprises were Private Limited Companies according to the pilot study findings mentioned in the text?
  • a)
    82.4%
  • b)
    8%
  • c)
    55%
  • d)
    30%
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The text highlights that 82.4% of the surveyed enterprises in India's services sector were Private Limited Companies, showcasing a dominant presence of this business structure in the sector. This statistic underlines the significant proportion of Private Limited Companies within the incorporated service sector, indicating a prevalent business model in this industry segment.

What does the term "judicial despotism" primarily refer to?
  • a)
    Exercising unchecked power beyond constitutional limits
  • b)
    Upholding democratic decisions made by elected officials
  • c)
    Ensuring transparency in judicial processes
  • d)
    Limiting the power of the judiciary within constitutional boundaries
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
"Judicial despotism" pertains to the judiciary, particularly higher courts, exerting excessive or unchecked power, often surpassing its constitutional authority and encroaching on the functions of the legislature and the executive. This term highlights the concern of the judiciary overstepping its designated boundaries and wielding undue influence, potentially undermining the democratic system.

How has social media impacted the economic landscape in India?
  • a)
    Boosted the creator economy and e-commerce
  • b)
    Increased government censorship
  • c)
    Decreased employment opportunities
  • d)
    Strengthened traditional media channels
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Social media has significantly boosted India's digital economy by fostering the growth of the creator economy and enhancing e-commerce. The number of creators has surged, contributing to a substantial portion of the workforce. Moreover, businesses leverage social media for marketing and customer engagement, which has been instrumental for brands like Patanjali and boAt in gaining visibility. An interesting aspect is how social media has transformed marketing strategies, leading to a more dynamic and accessible marketplace for small businesses and startups.

Consider the following statements regarding the current status of microfinance institutions (MFIs) in India:
1. The gross non-performing assets (NPAs) in India's MFIs rose to 16% by March 2025, nearly doubling from 8.8% in 2024.
2. The Joint Liability Group (JLG) model has become more effective due to increased borrower accountability.
3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has implemented stricter norms to stabilize the microfinance sector, resulting in short-term liquidity challenges for MFIs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The gross non-performing assets (NPAs) in India's microfinance institutions (MFIs) indeed rose to 16% by March 2025, which is nearly double the 8.8% recorded in 2024. This indicates a significant increase in defaults, signaling a potential crisis in the sector.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The effectiveness of the Joint Liability Group (JLG) model has actually been declining due to changing borrower demographics and increased individual defaults, not becoming more effective. This weakening of the JLG model is contributing to the rising NPAs in the sector.
- Statement 3 is correct. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced stricter norms to stabilize the microfinance sector. These regulations have led to short-term liquidity challenges for MFIs as they adapt to the new requirements.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only. This accurately reflects the current challenges faced by MFIs in India, including rising NPAs and regulatory pressures affecting liquidity.

Consider the following pairs concerning the Services Sector and the Cultural Influence of India in Southeast Asia:
1. Contribution to GDP - Services sector accounted for 50% of India's GVA in FY24-25.
2. Skill Gaps - Only 5% of India's workforce is formally skilled according to WEF.
3. Emperor Ashoka - Sent Buddhist missionaries to Southeast Asia, including his son Mahinda and daughter Sanghamitta to Sri Lanka.
4. Gupta Period - Promoted Theravāda Buddhism in Southeast Asia through trade.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Contribution to GDP - Services sector accounted for 55% (not 50%) of India's GVA in FY24-25. So, this pair is not correctly matched.
2. Skill Gaps - Correct. According to the World Economic Forum, only 5% of India's workforce is considered formally skilled.
3. Emperor Ashoka - Correct. Ashoka indeed sent his son Mahinda and daughter Sanghamitta to Sri Lanka to establish Buddhism, which laid the foundation for Theravāda Buddhism.
4. Gupta Period - Incorrect. The Gupta period is known for promoting Mahayana Buddhism (not Theravāda) in Southeast Asia through scholarly exchanges and trade.
Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. By 2100, up to 56% of global mangroves may face high to severe risk due to increasing cyclone intensity and geographical expansion.
2. The expansion of the Hadley Cell contributes to the migration of tropical cyclone belts towards higher latitudes.
3. Human activities like deforestation for aquaculture have no impact on the vulnerability of mangroves to cyclones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The text indicates that by the year 2100, due to climate change, up to 56% of global mangroves are projected to face high to severe risk, particularly due to intensified cyclones and their expansion into new geographical areas. This heightened risk is a result of increased cyclone intensity and a change in their geographical reach.
2. Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The expansion of the Hadley Cell is mentioned as a factor that influences the migration of tropical cyclone belts towards higher latitudes. This change in wind patterns helps push storm tracks further north or south, impacting regions that were previously unaffected by such weather disturbances.
3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Human activities such as deforestation for aquaculture and coastal development significantly contribute to the vulnerability of mangroves. These activities lead to habitat loss and increased susceptibility to cyclone damage, which means they indeed have a considerable impact on mangrove vulnerability.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B, as statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

What is the significance of the early onset of the southwest monsoon in India in 2025?
  • a)
    It has no impact on agricultural productivity.
  • b)
    It helps in timely sowing of Kharif crops.
  • c)
    It leads to decreased water availability for farming.
  • d)
    It results in increased spoilage of agricultural produce.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
The early onset of the southwest monsoon in India in 2025 is significant as it allows for the timely sowing of Kharif crops like rice and maize, which ultimately leads to higher yields. This early arrival is crucial for agricultural productivity and economic stability in the region, highlighting the importance of monsoon onset timings in agricultural practices.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Type-1 Regulatory T-cells (TR1 cells) - Primary drivers of immune response to malaria.
2. Plasmodium falciparum - Virus causing malaria.
3. Near-Earth Asteroids (NEAs) - Include asteroids with orbits that bring them close to Earth.
4. Quasi-satellites - Asteroids that are influenced gravitationally by Earth and can shift orbits over periods of 100-300 years.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Type-1 Regulatory T-cells (TR1 cells) - Primary drivers of immune response to malaria: Correct. TR1 cells are indeed highlighted as the primary drivers of the immune response to malaria by regulating the immune system to balance fighting the parasite and preventing excessive immune reactions.
2. Plasmodium falciparum - Virus causing malaria: Incorrect. Plasmodium falciparum is not a virus; it is a protozoan parasite responsible for malaria. This pair is incorrectly matched because malaria is caused by protozoa, not a virus.
3. Near-Earth Asteroids (NEAs) - Include asteroids with orbits that bring them close to Earth: Correct. Near-Earth Asteroids are defined as those whose orbits bring them close to Earth's orbit, which is accurately matched.
4. Quasi-satellites - Asteroids that are influenced gravitationally by Earth and can shift orbits over periods of 100-300 years: Correct. Quasi-satellites are indeed asteroids that are influenced by Earth's gravity and their orbits can shift over long periods, as stated.
Thus, three out of the four pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. India's GDP growth was consistently above 8% during the period from 2006 to 2010.
2. The investment-to-GDP ratio in India fell from 39-42% during 2006-2010 to 33% in 2023.
3. A significant portion of India's government revenue, approximately 25%, is allocated to interest payments, limiting investment capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
- Statement 1 is incorrect. While India experienced a period of higher GDP growth, it was not consistently above 8% for the entire duration from 2006 to 2010. The growth rate was notable but not consistently above this threshold throughout the period.
- Statement 2 is correct. The investment-to-GDP ratio indeed fell from the levels of 39-42% during the high-growth period of 2006-2010 to 33% in 2023, indicating a decline in investment levels relative to GDP.
- Statement 3 is correct. A substantial portion of government revenue being allocated to interest payments (approximately 25%) does indeed limit the government’s capacity to invest in other areas, which is a significant fiscal constraint.
Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Northeast India:
1. The Northeast Region (NER) contributes approximately 40% of India's total hydropower potential, but only 6.9% of this potential has been harnessed.
2. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is a key connectivity project under the Act East Policy aimed at linking the Northeast with ASEAN markets.
3. Assam's tea production and Arunachal Pradesh's bamboo industries are the primary contributors to India's bio-economy.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. The Northeast Region (NER) is indeed significant for hydropower potential, contributing about 40% of India's total potential (around 62,000 MW), with only about 6.9% of this potential currently being harnessed. This highlights the untapped energy resources of the region, which are critical for India's energy strategy.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is an important part of India's Act East Policy, aimed at enhancing connectivity between the Northeast and Southeast Asian markets, particularly ASEAN, thereby facilitating trade and regional integration.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Assam's tea production and Arunachal Pradesh's bamboo industries are indeed vital to the regional economy and contribute to India's bio-economy, they are not the sole or primary contributors. The bio-economy of the Northeast also involves other sectors like renewable energy, agro-based industries, and eco-tourism.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as both these statements accurately reflect the strategic significance and infrastructure developments in the Northeast Region of India.

Consider the following pairs:
1. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) : Over 5.5 lakh pending cases.
2. PM E-DRIVE Scheme: Effective from October 2025 to March 2027.
3. Consumer Protection Act, 2019: Replaced the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
4. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): Directly enforceable in courts for consumer protection.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): Over 5.5 lakh pending cases.
- This statement is correctly matched. The NCDRC has reported over 5.5 lakh pending cases due to various systemic issues such as vacant posts and inadequate digital infrastructure.
2. PM E-DRIVE Scheme: Effective from October 2025 to March 2027.
- This statement is incorrectly matched. The PM E-DRIVE Scheme is set to be effective from October 2024 until March 2026, not from October 2025 to March 2027.
3. Consumer Protection Act, 2019: Replaced the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
- This statement is correctly matched. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, indeed replaced the earlier Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and expanded its scope to include e-commerce and other contemporary issues.
4. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): Directly enforceable in courts for consumer protection.
- This statement is incorrectly matched. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not directly enforceable in courts; they serve as guiding principles for the state to frame policies and laws, including those related to consumer protection.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) is designed to evaluate the performance of Gram Panchayats (GPs) using 435 unique local indicators across 9 LSDG-aligned themes.
Statement-II:
The PAI is a composite index that ranks 2.16 lakh panchayats based on themes linked to Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered

- Statement-I is correct as the PAI indeed evaluates Gram Panchayats using 435 unique local indicators across 9 LSDG-aligned themes.
- Statement-II is also correct as the PAI ranks 2.16 lakh panchayats based on themes linked to SDGs. Furthermore, Statement-II explains the purpose and methodology behind the PAI, providing additional context to Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Northern Sea Route (NSR) - Russia
2. Himadri Research Station - Svalbard, Norway
3. Bhakra Nangal Dam - Yamuna River
4. Satluj-Yamuna Link (SYL) Canal - Haryana and Punjab
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
1. Northern Sea Route (NSR) - Russia
- Correct. The Northern Sea Route is primarily a shipping route that runs along the Russian Arctic coast from the Kara Sea, along Siberia, to the Bering Strait. It is managed and heavily utilized by Russia.
2. Himadri Research Station - Svalbard, Norway
- Correct. Himadri is India's first Arctic research station, located in the Svalbard archipelago of Norway. It is managed by the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
3. Bhakra Nangal Dam - Yamuna River
- Incorrect. The Bhakra Nangal Dam is actually located on the Satluj River, not the Yamuna River. It is a prominent dam in northern India and is crucial for water and power supply in the region.
4. Satluj-Yamuna Link (SYL) Canal - Haryana and Punjab
- Correct. The Satluj-Yamuna Link canal is a proposed canal intended to connect the Satluj River to the Yamuna River, facilitating water sharing between Haryana and Punjab, among other states.
The correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 4. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Digital Banking Units (DBUs) aim to enhance financial inclusion by providing digital banking services in remote areas.
Statement-II:
DBUs have faced challenges such as high operational costs and low digital adoption rates.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

Statement-I is correct as Digital Banking Units (DBUs) indeed aim to enhance financial inclusion by providing digital banking services in remote areas. Statement-II is also correct as DBUs have faced challenges such as high operational costs and low digital adoption rates. The challenges mentioned in Statement-II provide an explanation for why the goal mentioned in Statement-I might face hurdles, making (a) the correct answer.

What is a major operational challenge faced by Digital Banking Units (DBUs) in India?
  • a)
    Low digital adoption and high operational costs
  • b)
    Overstaffing and excessive costs
  • c)
    High customer demand
  • d)
    Effective planning and local adaptation
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Digital Banking Units (DBUs) face significant challenges primarily due to low digital adoption rates and high operational costs. Many DBUs were established without adequate consideration of local needs, leading to ineffective planning. Additionally, the high costs associated with maintaining infrastructure in low-traffic areas further deter their expansion. It is crucial to enhance financial literacy and connectivity in remote regions to improve the effectiveness of DBUs. Interestingly, initiatives aimed at boosting digital literacy can potentially transform these units into vital resources for financial inclusion.

What is the primary aim of the Tapti Basin Mega Recharge Project?
  • a)
    To construct new roads in Madhya Pradesh
  • b)
    To ensure optimal utilization of river water resources for irrigation
  • c)
    To promote tourism in the Tapti River region
  • d)
    To develop urban infrastructure in Maharashtra
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The Tapti Basin Mega Recharge Project is primarily aimed at ensuring the optimal utilization of river water resources for irrigation across Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. This initiative is designed to address water scarcity issues and enhance agricultural productivity, particularly in regions that have been affected by irregular rainfall patterns. An interesting fact about this project is that it is recognized as the world’s largest groundwater recharge scheme, which underscores its significance in managing water resources effectively.

What is a key driver transforming the Arctic region into a geopolitical and military frontier?
  • a)
    Economic stability
  • b)
    Technological advancements
  • c)
    Climate change
  • d)
    Political alliances
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Climate change is a crucial factor driving the transformation of the Arctic region into a geopolitical and military frontier. The melting ice in the Arctic due to climate change is opening up new sea routes, particularly the Northern Sea Route (NSR), leading to increased commercial interests and military activities in the region. This shift poses challenges and opportunities for various countries, impacting global trade, security, and environmental dynamics.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Only 1 in 4 public-funded R&D organizations provide incubation support for startups, with just 1 in 6 focusing on deep-tech startups.
Statement-II: Collaboration with foreign industry partners is minimal, with only 15% of institutions engaging in such partnerships.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Innovative Classes answered
Statement-I indicates that a limited number of public-funded R&D organizations offer incubation support for startups, with a focus on deep-tech startups being even scarcer. This aligns with the information provided in the text, highlighting the challenges faced by startups in accessing support. Statement-II states that there is minimal collaboration with foreign industry partners, with a low percentage of institutions engaging in such partnerships. This also corresponds to the details presented in the text regarding the lack of collaborative efforts in the R&D ecosystem. Both statements are individually correct based on the information provided, but they are independent of each other and do not explain or relate to each other directly, hence option (b) is the correct choice.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle is a species categorized as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Statement-II:
The Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle is one of the 24 species that are endemic to India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered

Statement-I correctly states that the Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle is a species categorized as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is indeed protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. This is accurate information regarding the conservation status and legal protection of the species.
Statement-II correctly mentions that the Red-Crowned Roofed Turtle is one of the 24 species that are endemic to India. This signifies that this species is native to India and not found elsewhere, aligning with the concept of endemism.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II provides additional information about the species being endemic to India, which supports and explains Statement-I.

What trend has been observed in the non-performing assets (NPAs) of microfinance institutions (MFIs) in India by March 2025?
  • a)
    NPAs remained stable at 8.8%
  • b)
    NPAs decreased to 5.0%
  • c)
    NPAs surged to 16%
  • d)
    NPAs increased slightly to 10%
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Innovative Classes answered
By March 2025, the NPAs of microfinance institutions in India surged to 16%, indicating a significant rise in defaults among borrowers. This dramatic increase nearly doubled from 8.8% in the previous year, highlighting ongoing challenges within the sector. The surge is often attributed to economic factors, over-leveraging of borrowers, and increasing regulatory pressures. Interestingly, MFIs typically experience such crises every 3-5 years due to cyclical economic patterns, suggesting a need for sustainable financial practices.

Consider the following statements regarding urban flooding in India:
1. Urban flooding in India is primarily caused by natural factors such as heavy monsoon rainfall and topography.
2. Rapid urbanization and inadequate drainage infrastructure significantly contribute to urban flooding in Indian cities.
3. The introduction of Sustainable Urban Drainage Systems (SUDS) has completely eradicated the problem of urban flooding in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. Urban flooding in India is indeed significantly influenced by natural factors. Heavy monsoon rainfall, particularly in regions such as the Western Ghats and the northeastern parts of India, overwhelms the existing drainage systems. Additionally, the topography of many Indian cities, which are often located in floodplains or low-lying areas, exacerbates the accumulation of runoff, leading to flooding.
2. Statement 2 is also correct. Anthropogenic factors such as rapid urbanization and inadequate drainage infrastructure are significant contributors to urban flooding. Unplanned urban growth leads to the loss of natural drainage channels and wetlands, while many cities rely on outdated drainage systems that are insufficient to handle the volume of water during heavy rainfall events.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the introduction of Sustainable Urban Drainage Systems (SUDS) is a step towards better flood management, it has not completely eradicated urban flooding in India. SUDS, which include the use of permeable surfaces and rain gardens, help in managing runoff but need to be integrated with other measures and require widespread implementation to be fully effective in mitigating urban flooding.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

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