All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the Kisan drones, consider the following statements:
1. The government is providing a 50 percent subsidy to SC-ST, small and marginal, women and farmers of north-eastern states to buy drones.
2. Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs) are provided grants @ 75% for purchase of drones for its demonstration on the farmers’ fields.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kajal Chopra answered
Both statements are correct.

1. The government is indeed providing a 50 percent subsidy to certain categories of farmers, including SC-ST, small and marginal farmers, women, and farmers from the north-eastern states, to purchase drones. This subsidy aims to make the technology more accessible and affordable for these farmers.

2. Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs) are eligible for grants of 75 percent for the purchase of drones. This grant is provided to FPOs specifically for the purpose of demonstrating the use of drones in agriculture to benefit farmers. This initiative encourages FPOs to adopt drone technology and showcase its potential benefits to the farming community.

With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), consider the following statements:
1. Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to achieve the goals specified in the RBI Act.
2. MPC shall determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation target.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
  • Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to achieve the goals specified in the RBI Act.
  • The primary objective of the RBI’s monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
  • In May 2016, the RBI Act was amended to provide a legislative mandate to the central bank to operate the country’s monetary policy framework.
  • This amendment lays down that
  • MPC shall determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation target”,
  • that the decision of the MPC shall be binding on the Bank.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA Act), consider the following statements:
1. The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 “to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas”.
2. Under the PESA Act, Scheduled Areas are those referred to in Article 244(1), which says that the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) leader Arvind Kejriwal on August 7 declared a six-point “guarantee” for tribals in Gujarat’s Chhota Udepur district, including the “strict implementation” of The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA Act).
  • The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 “to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas”.
  • Under the PESA Act, Scheduled Areas are those referred to in Article 244(1), which says that the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Fifth Schedule provides for a range of special provisions for these areas.
  • The PESA Act was enacted to ensure self-governance through Gram Sabhas (village assemblies) for people living in the Scheduled Areas.
  • It recognises the right of tribal communities, who are residents of the Scheduled Areas, to govern themselves through their own systems of self-government, and also acknowledges their traditional rights over natural resources.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP) Regime, consider the following statements:
1. These are announced by Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
2. It is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices during bumper production years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare recently notified a committee to promote zero-budget based farming and to make the MSP more effective and transparent.
  • MSP is a form of market intervention (a policy decision not enforceable by law) by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices during bumper production years.
  • These are announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (Chaired by the Prime Minister of India).
  • The recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops forms the basis of these announcements.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Competition Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. It has the power to regulate its own procedures.
2. It has the power to impose monetary penalties upon violation of the Competition Act, 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Joshi answered
1. Power to regulate its own procedures:
The first statement is correct. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has the power to regulate its own procedures. As an independent regulatory authority, the CCI is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002. It has the authority to determine its own rules and procedures for conducting investigations, hearings, and inquiries. The CCI has framed regulations such as the Competition Commission of India (General) Regulations, 2009, which outline the procedures to be followed by the commission.

2. Power to impose monetary penalties:
The second statement is also correct. The CCI has the power to impose monetary penalties for violations of the Competition Act, 2002. The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position, and regulates combinations (mergers and acquisitions) that may have an adverse impact on competition in the market. If the CCI finds any individual or entity to be in violation of these provisions, it can impose penalties.

The Competition Act, 2002 provides for penalties up to 10% of the average turnover of the party involved in the violation for each year of the continuance of the violation, or a fixed sum, whichever is higher. The penalties imposed by the CCI aim to deter anti-competitive behavior, promote fair competition, and protect the interests of consumers.

The CCI's power to impose penalties is exercised through a quasi-judicial process. It conducts investigations, hearings, and inquiries to gather evidence and ascertain whether there has been a violation of the Competition Act. Once a violation is established, the CCI can pass orders imposing penalties, directing the parties to cease and desist from their anti-competitive practices, and taking any other measures necessary to restore competition in the market.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The CCI has the power to regulate its own procedures and impose monetary penalties upon violation of the Competition Act, 2002. These powers enable the CCI to effectively enforce competition laws, promote fair competition, and protect the interests of consumers in the Indian market.

With reference to the Somnath temple, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in Kashmir.
2. The present Somnath temple was reconstructed in the Māru-Gurjara style of Hindu temple architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: The Somnath temple is located in Kashmir.
Statement 2: The present Somnath temple was reconstructed in the Mru-Gurjara style of Hindu temple architecture.

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Somnath temple is not located in Kashmir.
The Somnath temple is one of the most revered and ancient temples in India. It is located in the state of Gujarat, not in Kashmir. The temple is situated on the western coast of Gujarat, near Veraval.

Statement 2: The present Somnath temple was reconstructed in the Mru-Gurjara style of Hindu temple architecture.
This statement is correct.
The Somnath temple has a rich history of destruction and reconstruction. The original temple was believed to have been built by the Moon God, Soma, in gold. However, the temple was destroyed and rebuilt several times due to invasions by foreign rulers.

The present Somnath temple was reconstructed in the Mru-Gurjara style of Hindu temple architecture. The Mru-Gurjara style is a blend of architectural elements from both the Maru (Rajasthan) and Gurjara (Gujarat) regions. This style is characterized by intricate carvings, elaborate motifs, and the use of sandstone.

The reconstruction of the Somnath temple was initiated by Vallabhbhai Patel, the first Deputy Prime Minister and first Minister of Home Affairs of India, after India gained independence. The temple was rebuilt using the donations received from the public and completed in 1951. The present structure of the Somnath temple is an architectural marvel and attracts millions of devotees every year.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'B' - Statement 2 only. The Somnath temple is not located in Kashmir but in Gujarat, and it was reconstructed in the Mru-Gurjara style of Hindu temple architecture.

With reference to the Sanskritisation, consider the following statements:
1. The term Sanskritisation was Coined and popularised by M.N. Srinivas.
2. Initially, ‘Sanskritisation’ referred to the lower castes’ adoption of the “Brahmanical” ways of life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The term Sanskritisation was Coined and popularised by M.N. Srinivas, an eminent social anthropologist in his book Religion and Society Among the Coorgs of South India (Oxford, 1952).
  • Sanskritisation refers to a change in the hierarchical caste system when certain castes that are ranked low in the caste hierarchy are able to elevate and enhance their position by adopting and emulating the socio-cultural beliefs, values, habits, customs and rituals of castes that are ranked higher than them.
  • Based on his ethnographic research in Rampura village in Karnataka, Srinivas produced a detailed explanation of the phenomenon of Sanskritisation in ‘A Note on Sanskritisation and Westernisation (Far Eastern Quarterly, 1956)’.
  • Initially, ‘Sanskritisation’ referred to the lower castes’ adoption of the “Brahmanical” ways of life.
  • But gradually, the process also involved the adoption of the practices and rites of the locally dominant caste in a particular region, which included non-Brahmin castes which were politically powerful, socio-economically influential and ritually higher in the local caste hierarchy.
The rise of anti-caste politics
  • Unlike the Sanskritisation model that reifies the unequal and differential caste relations that upholds the Hindu caste order and advances the interests of the ‘caste privileged’, the discourse of anti-caste/casteless socio-politics emphasises the destruction of the caste system and all the other undemocratic/inegalitarian values, customs and institutions associated with it.
  • Indian society continues to witness movements of both the types – Sanskritisation as well as anti-caste struggles. Each of these processes requires a separate and also integrated study and analysis, taking into consideration socio-economic, cultural and political factors.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the International Space Station, consider the following statements:
1. The space station is jointly run by the space agencies of India, the U.S., South Korea, Japan and Canada.
2. The first piece was put in orbit in 1998, and the outpost has been continuously inhabited for nearly 22 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Singh answered

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The statement is incorrect. The International Space Station (ISS) is jointly run by five space agencies: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada). India and South Korea are not part of the core group of countries involved in the ISS program.

Statement 2:
- The statement is correct. The first piece of the ISS was put in orbit in 1998, and since then, the outpost has been continuously inhabited for nearly 22 years. The ISS serves as a space environment research laboratory where scientific research is conducted in astrobiology, astronomy, meteorology, physics, and other fields.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only.

With reference to the Nutraceuticals, consider the following statements:
1. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) Kendras have added nutraceuticals products, including protein powder and bar, malt-based food supplements and immunity bar for its customers.
2. A nutraceutical product may be defined as a substance, which has physiological benefit or provides protection against chronic disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aimed at providing accessible, standardised and affordable generic medicines, the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) Kendras have added nutraceuticals products, including protein powder and bar, malt-based food supplements and immunity bar for its customers.
  • Nutraceuticals are products, which other than nutrition are also used as medicine.
  • A nutraceutical product may be defined as a substance, which has physiological benefit or provides protection against chronic disease.
PMBJP Kendras
  • Currently, 8,675 PMBJP Kendras function in districts across the country with three IT-enabled warehouses in Gurugram, Chennai and Guwahati and another one ready to start operations in Surat.
  • Under the PMBJP being implemented by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, a medicine is priced on the principle of maximum of 50% of the average price of the top three brands of the said medicine. Thus, the prices of Jan Aushadhi medicines are cheaper at least by 50% and in some cases, by 80% to 90% of the market price of the branded medicines.
  • In India, the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority under the Department of Pharmaceuticals regulates the prices of all drugs, whether branded or generic.
  • While it fixes the ceiling price of scheduled medicines specified in the first schedule of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, in case of non-scheduled medicines, the manufactures are free to fix the maximum retail price (MRP) of the drug.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Juvenile Justice (Care or Protection of Children) Act/JJ Act, 2015, consider the following statements:
1. The Act replaced the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000.
2. One of the main provisions of the Act is allowing the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 12-18 years as adults.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The Juvenile Justice (Care or Protection of Children) Act/JJ Act, 2015:
  • The Act was introduced (by the Ministry of Women and Child Development) and passed in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000.
  • One of the main provisions of the Act is allowing the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults.
    • Under the Act, offences committed by juveniles are categorised as heinous (with minimum or maximum sentence of 7 years), serious (with 3-7 years of imprisonment) and petty offences.
    • According to the Act, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and between the ages of 16-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system.
    • The nature of the crime and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board.
  • The second major provision is with regards to
    • The Act streamlined adoption procedures for orphans, abandoned and surrendered children and the existing Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) has been made a statutory body to enable it to perform its function more effectively.
  • The State Government may, by notification, establish one or more Child Welfare Committees (CWC) for each district or group of districts to exercise the powers conferred under this Act.
    • The Committee shall be composed of a Chairperson and four other members, at least one of whom shall be a woman and another a child expert.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022, consider the following statements:
1. The Bill seeks to amend the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
2. It provides for the regulation of energy consumption by equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Das answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 seeks to amend the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and provides for the regulation of energy consumption by equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries. Let's discuss each statement in detail:

1. The Bill seeks to amend the Energy Conservation Act, 2001:
The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 is an important legislation in India that aims to promote energy efficiency and conservation. The amendment bill proposes changes to strengthen the existing provisions of the Act and make it more effective in achieving its objectives.

The amendment bill may include various provisions such as enhancing the scope of the Act, introducing stricter penalties for non-compliance, promoting energy-efficient technologies, and expanding the regulatory framework for energy conservation.

2. It provides for the regulation of energy consumption by equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries:
Energy conservation is crucial for sustainable development and reducing the carbon footprint. The amendment bill recognizes the need to regulate energy consumption across various sectors to ensure efficient use of energy resources.

The bill may include provisions that require equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries to adhere to energy efficiency standards. This can be achieved through the implementation of energy labeling schemes, mandatory energy audits, setting energy performance standards, and promoting energy-efficient practices.

Regulating energy consumption in equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries can lead to significant energy savings, reduce greenhouse gas emissions, and contribute to a more sustainable and environmentally friendly energy sector.

In conclusion, the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 seeks to amend the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and aims to regulate energy consumption by equipment, appliances, buildings, and industries. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

With reference to the Chinook helicopters, consider the following statements:
1. They are medium-lift, multi-role helicopters manufactured by Boeing who perform a variety of tasks in support of Army operations.
2. The Chinooks were inducted into the Indian Air Force in 2009.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The US Army has grounded its fleet of CH-47 Chinook helicopters after finding the helicopter to be at risk of engine fires. The Indian Air Force (IAF) also operates a fleet of Chinook Helicopters.
  • The US Army operates around 400 Chinook helicopters which are medium-lift, multi-role helicopters manufactured by Boeing who perform a variety of tasks in support of Army operations.
  • The Chinook fleet has been grounded by the US Army as it is suspected that some engine fires broke out on an unspecified number of helicopters.
What implications does this development have for IAF?
  • The IAF operates a fleet of 15 Chinook helicopters and it has not grounded them as it awaits more word on the US development.
  • The Chinooks were inducted into the IAF in 2019 in a ceremony at Chandigarh. One Helicopter Unit of Chinooks is based in Chandigarh while the other is based at Mohanbari airbase in Assam.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the GSAT-24, consider the following statements:
1. It was built by ISRO for NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), was launched by French company Arianespace.
2. It is a 24-Ku band communication satellite weighing 4180 kg with pan-India coverage for meeting DTH application needs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully launched communication satellite GSAT-24. The satellite was flown by Ariane-5 rocket from the spaceport in Kourou, French Guiana.
  • GSAT-24, built by ISRO for NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), was launched by French company Arianespace.
  • GSAT-24 is a 24-Ku band communication satellite weighing 4180 kg with pan-India coverage for meeting DTH application needs. It was the first demand driven communication satellite mission undertaken by NSIL post space sector reforms.
  • NSIL, a Government of India company under the Department of Space, has leased the entire satellite capacity to Tata Play.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the National Geospatial Policy (NGP) 2021, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It aims to boost geospatial entrepreneurship for the socio-economic development of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Rao answered
Google has launched a 360-degree interactive panorama feature for 10 Indian cities as part of its Street View services, which is also known as Project Gullify.
This has been made possible by the new National Geospatial Policy 2021.
The policy allows local companies to collect this type of data and license it to others, making it the first country where Street View is primarily enabled by partners.
  • NGP was launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and Technology.
  • It provides a framework for the DST and its state and central partnering agencies (e.g., government departments, regulatory authorities, etc.) to enable access to and promote the use of geospatial data.
  • It aims to boost geospatial entrepreneurship for the socio-economic development of India.
  • It also aims to promote the use of geospatial products and services, generate useful insights from geospatial data and strengthen India's geospatial infrastructure and capabilities.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), consider the following statements:
1. Article 49 of the Constitution, lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
2. The code would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The expert committee formed by the Uttarakhand government to examine ways for the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) has launched a website, seeking public opinion on the plan.
  • Headed by retired Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai (who is also the head of the Delimitation Commission), the committee has sought suggestions and recommendations from residents.
  • The Committee will also prepare a report on implementing a UCC in Uttarakhand.
  • Article 44 of the Constitution, lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for the citizens throughout the territory of India. The code would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Minority status, consider the following statements:
1. Every person in India can be a minority in one State or the other.
2. According to the Supreme Court the Minority status of religious and linguistic communities is not “State-dependent”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Every person in India can be a minority in one State or the other. Minority status of religious and linguistic communities is “State-dependent”, the Supreme Court said.
  • A Marathi can be a minority outside his home State e.g. Maharashtra. Similarly, a Kannada-speaking person may be in minority in States other than Karnataka.
  • The court was hearing a petition complaining that followers of Judaism, Bahaism and Hinduism, who are the real minorities in Ladakh, Mizoram, Lakshadweep, Kashmir, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Punjab and Manipur, cannot establish and administer educational institutions of their choice because of non-identification of ‘minority’ at the State level.
  • But the court indicated that a religious or linguistic community which is a minority in a particular State, can inherently claim protection and the right to administer and run its own educational institutions under Articles 29 and 30 of the Constitution.
  • The petition has argued that the recognition of Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Parsis nationally by the Centre as ‘minorities’ ignored the fact that religious communities such as Hindus were “socially, economically, politically non-dominant and numerically inferior” in several States.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Hemkosh, consider the following statements:
1. It is the first etymological dictionary of the Assamese language based on Sanskrit spellings, compiled by Hemchandra Barua.
2. It was first published in the early 20th century and is considered to be the "standard" reference of the Assamese orthography.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirban Datta answered
Most comprehensive dictionary of the Assamese language.3. The dictionary includes words from different dialects of Assamese and provides detailed explanations of their meanings and origins.4. Hemkosh has been widely used by scholars, writers, and language enthusiasts to study and understand the Assamese language.

Which of the statements are true?

With reference to the e-invoice, consider the following statements:
1. Businesses with annual turnover of Rs 10 crore or more will have to generate e-invoices for business-to-business (B2B) transactions from October 1 this year.
2. The existing threshold for this is Rs 50 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
In a step to ensure better flow of data on taxpayers to the authorities and higher compliance, the turnover threshold for e-invoicing has been halved to Rs 10 crore effective October 1 this year under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime.
  • Businesses with annual turnover of Rs 10 crore or more will have to generate e-invoices for business-to-business (B2B) transactions from October 1 this year. The existing threshold for this is Rs 20 crore.
  • Pursuant to the GST Council’s decision to introduce e-invoicing in a phased manner, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) on August 1 notified lowering the e-invoice threshold to Rs 10 crore.
  • The GST Council approved the standard of e-invoice in its 37th meeting held on September 20, 2019. E-invoicing for B2B transactions was made mandatory for companies with turnover of over Rs 500 crore from October 1, 2020, which was then extended to those with turnover of over Rs 100 crore effective January 1, 2021.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Ethanol, consider the following statements:
1. It is an agricultural by-product which is mainly obtained from the processing of sugar from sugarcane, but also from other sources such as rice husk or maize.
2. Ethanol blending is the process of combining ethanol and petrol to use less fossil fuel while driving a vehicle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Chopra answered
Ethanol is an important biofuel that is widely used as an alternative to fossil fuels. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their correctness.

1. It is an agricultural by-product which is mainly obtained from the processing of sugar from sugarcane, but also from other sources such as rice husk or maize.

This statement is correct. Ethanol is primarily obtained as a by-product during the processing of sugar from sugarcane. It is derived from the fermentation of sugars present in sugarcane juice or molasses. However, ethanol can also be produced from other agricultural sources such as rice husk or maize. These sources contain carbohydrates that can be converted into ethanol through a fermentation process.

2. Ethanol blending is the process of combining ethanol and petrol to use less fossil fuel while driving a vehicle.

This statement is also correct. Ethanol blending refers to the process of mixing ethanol with petrol (gasoline) in specific proportions. The purpose of this blending is to reduce the consumption of fossil fuels and lower greenhouse gas emissions. Ethanol is a renewable fuel that can be produced from agricultural sources, unlike petrol which is derived from crude oil. By blending ethanol with petrol, the overall carbon footprint of the fuel is reduced, making it a more environmentally friendly option for vehicles.

The correct answer, therefore, is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

In summary:
- Ethanol is an agricultural by-product obtained from the processing of sugar from sugarcane, as well as other sources such as rice husk or maize.
- Ethanol blending involves combining ethanol and petrol to reduce the use of fossil fuels while driving a vehicle.

With reference to the Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter aircraft, consider the following statements:
1. It is a twinjet multirole air superiority fighter developed by Russia's Sukhoi and built under licence by India's Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
2. A variant of the Sukhoi Su-30, it is a heavy, all-weather, long-range fighter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Having taken delivery of all Su-30MKI fighter aircraft and the deal for contracting 12 more Su-30s meant to replace those lost over the years deferred against the backdrop of the Ukraine war, the Indian Air Force (IAF) is working to speed up the long-delayed upgrade of these frontline fighters.
  • The Sukhoi Su-30MKI is a twinjet multirole air superiority fighter developed by Russia's Sukhoi and built under licence by India's Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF). A variant of the Sukhoi Su-30, it is a heavy, all-weather, long-range fighter.
  • The IAF is looking to add new weapons, avionics and sensors and engines on the Su-30MKIs to keep them contemporary for the next few decades.
  • India had procured 272 Su-30s from Russia, a majority of which were assembled by HAL and around 11 jets were lost. The IAF has 12 Su-30 squadrons in service, and 40-50 aircraft are at HAL for overhaul repairs, officials said.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Global Entrepreneurship Monitor (GEM), consider the following statements:
1. It is an international project which seeks to provide information on the entrepreneurial landscape of countries.
2. It carries out survey-based research on entrepreneurship and entrepreneurship ecosystems around the world and is being led by Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India, Ahmedabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Global Entrepreneurship Monitor (GEM)
- GEM is an international project that aims to provide information on the entrepreneurial landscape of different countries.
- It conducts survey-based research on entrepreneurship and entrepreneurship ecosystems worldwide.

Correctness of Statements:
- Statement 1: It is an international project that seeks to provide information on the entrepreneurial landscape of countries, which is correct.
- Statement 2: It is not led by the Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India, Ahmedabad. The correct organization leading GEM is Babson College in the United States.
Therefore, both statements are correct as per the explanation provided.

With reference to the East Asia Summit (EAS), consider the following statements:
1. It has 18 members.
2. India is not member of the group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

East Asia Summit (EAS) is a regional forum comprising of 18 member countries. Let's analyze the given statements:

1. It has 18 members:
The first statement is correct. The East Asia Summit (EAS) currently consists of 18 member countries. These countries are 10 ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) member states (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam), as well as 8 non-ASEAN countries (Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, and the United States).

2. India is not a member of the group:
The second statement is incorrect. India is indeed a member of the East Asia Summit. India has been a part of the EAS since its inception in 2005. As a major regional power and an important player in East Asia, India's inclusion in the forum reflects its growing strategic and economic engagement with the region.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - only statement 1 is correct.

The East Asia Summit is a significant platform for dialogue and cooperation on political, security, and economic issues among the member countries. It brings together the leaders of the participating nations annually to discuss and address regional challenges and opportunities. The EAS aims to promote peace, stability, and prosperity in the region through open and inclusive dialogue.

The forum covers a wide range of issues, including regional security, counterterrorism, disaster management, energy security, economic integration, and sustainable development. It is an important platform for fostering cooperation and building trust among the diverse nations of East Asia.

In addition to the 18 member countries, the EAS also includes the ASEAN Secretariat as a permanent member. This ensures the continuity and coordination of ASEAN's efforts within the forum.

In conclusion, the East Asia Summit (EAS) has 18 members, and India is one of them. The EAS serves as a platform for dialogue and cooperation among the participating countries on various regional issues.

With reference to the Arctic amplification, consider the following statements:
1. It is the increasingly ramped-up warming that’s taking place in the area of the world north of 67 degrees N latitude.
2. For more than four decades, temperatures in the Arctic have risen at two to three times the pace of the rest of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshika Basak answered
Is occurring in the Arctic region compared to the rest of the planet.
2. It is primarily driven by positive feedback mechanisms, such as the reduction of ice and snow cover, which leads to increased absorption of solar radiation.
3. It has significant implications for global climate patterns, including changes in weather patterns and sea level rise.

All of the statements are correct.

Arctic amplification refers to the phenomenon of the Arctic region warming at a faster rate than the global average. This is supported by numerous scientific studies and observations. The warming in the Arctic is estimated to be two to three times faster than the global average temperature increase. This is due to various positive feedback mechanisms that amplify the warming effect.

One of the primary mechanisms is the reduction of ice and snow cover in the Arctic. As ice and snow melt, the exposed dark surfaces absorb more solar radiation, leading to further warming. This creates a positive feedback loop, where increased warming leads to more ice melt, which in turn leads to more warming.

Arctic amplification has significant implications for global climate patterns. The melting of Arctic ice contributes to sea level rise, which can impact coastal communities and ecosystems. Changes in temperature gradients between the Arctic and lower latitudes can also affect weather patterns, potentially leading to more extreme weather events.

Overall, Arctic amplification is an important aspect of climate change that has far-reaching consequences for both the Arctic region and the rest of the planet.

With reference to the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC), consider the following statements:
1. It is an autonomous body under the University Grants Commission (UGC).
2. It assesses and certifies Indian Higher-level Educational Institutions (HEIs) with gradings as part of accreditation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Mishra answered
Overview of NAAC
The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality of higher education in India. It was established in 1994 by the University Grants Commission (UGC).
Statement Analysis
1. Autonomous Body under UGC
- NAAC is indeed an autonomous body.
- It operates under the aegis of the UGC, which provides it with the necessary framework and guidelines for functioning.
- This means that while it is independent in its operations, it is still linked to the UGC for regulatory purposes.
2. Assessment and Certification of HEIs
- NAAC assesses and certifies Indian Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs).
- The accreditation process involves evaluating various parameters such as teaching and learning, research, infrastructure, and student support.
- Upon assessment, institutions are awarded grades, which serve as a benchmark for quality assurance in higher education.
Conclusion
Both statements about NAAC are correct:
- Statement 1 is accurate as it highlights NAAC’s autonomous status under the UGC.
- Statement 2 correctly describes its function of assessing and certifying institutions with gradings.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C', as both statements are true.

With reference to the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework, consider the following statements:
1. India was the only one of the 14 IPEF countries, which include South East Asian countries, Australia, New Zealand, South Korea and Japan, not to join the declaration on trade.
2. Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is an economic initiative launched by United States President Joe Biden.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
India stayed out of the joint declaration on the trade pillar of the U.S.-led Indo-Pacific Economic Framework ministerial meet in Los Angeles, with Union Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal citing concerns over possible discrimination against developing economies.
  • India was the only one of the 14 IPEF countries, which include South East Asian countries, Australia, New Zealand, South Korea and Japan, not to join the declaration on trade.
  • Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is an economic initiative launched by United States President Joe Biden on May 23, 2022.
  • IPEF has fourteen member states: Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, United States and Vietnam.
  • The four themes of the proposed IPEF are:
    • Fair and resilient trade
    • Supply chain resilience
    • Infrastructure, clean energy, and decarbonization
    • Tax and anti-corruption
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the EWS reservation, consider the following statements:
1. EWS reservation was granted based on the recommendations of a commission headed by Major General (retd) S R Sinho.
2. Constitution (103rd Amendment) provided reservation to EWS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Ahuja answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
EWS reservation, which stands for Economically Weaker Section reservation, was introduced in India to provide reservation benefits to individuals belonging to economically weaker sections of the society who are not covered under existing reservation categories.

1. EWS reservation was granted based on the recommendations of a commission headed by Major General (retd) S R Sinho:
The statement is correct. The EWS reservation was granted based on the recommendations of a commission headed by Major General (retd) S R Sinho. The commission was appointed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to examine the issue of reservation for economically weaker sections of the society. The commission submitted its report to the government, which formed the basis for the introduction of EWS reservation.

2. Constitution (103rd Amendment) provided reservation to EWS:
The statement is correct. The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 provided for the reservation of seats for economically weaker sections of society in educational institutions and public employment. The amendment inserted Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) in the Constitution to enable the provision of reservation for EWS.

The EWS reservation provides for 10% reservation in educational institutions and public employment for individuals belonging to economically weaker sections who are not covered under any existing reservation categories such as SC/ST/OBC.

The introduction of EWS reservation was aimed at providing equal opportunities to individuals from economically weaker sections and addressing the issue of economic inequality. However, there have been debates and discussions regarding the implementation and effectiveness of EWS reservation, including concerns about the exclusion of certain sections of society and the impact on existing reservation categories.

In conclusion, both statements given in the question are correct. The EWS reservation was granted based on the recommendations of a commission headed by Major General (retd) S R Sinho, and the Constitution (103rd Amendment) provided for the reservation of seats for economically weaker sections of society.

With reference to the INS Vikrant, consider the following statements:
1. INS Vikrant is set to be the seventh largest among the carriers or carrier classes in the world.
2. It is having a displacement of 83,000 tonnes when fully loaded.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Kumar answered
INS Vikrant: Statement Analysis


Statement 1: INS Vikrant is set to be the seventh largest among the carriers or carrier classes in the world.


Statement 2: It has a displacement of 83,000 tonnes when fully loaded.


Analysis:




  1. Statement 1: INS Vikrant is set to be the seventh largest among the carriers or carrier classes in the world.

    This statement is correct.

    The INS Vikrant, India's first indigenous aircraft carrier, is indeed set to be the seventh largest among carriers or carrier classes in the world.

    With a length of 262 meters, beam of 62 meters, and a height of 59 meters, it will be quite large in size.

    It is designed to carry a variety of aircraft, including fighter jets, helicopters, and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs).





  2. Statement 2: It has a displacement of 83,000 tonnes when fully loaded.

    This statement is incorrect.

    The INS Vikrant actually has a displacement of around 40,000 tonnes when fully loaded.

    Displacement refers to the weight of water displaced by a ship when it is floating, and it is an important measure of a ship's size and carrying capacity.

    While the INS Vikrant is still a significant and capable aircraft carrier, its displacement is not as high as mentioned in the statement.




Conclusion:


Based on the analysis of the statements, it can be concluded that only statement 1 is correct. The INS Vikrant is indeed set to be the seventh largest among carriers or carrier classes in the world. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the INS Vikrant has a displacement of around 40,000 tonnes when fully loaded, not 83,000 tonnes as mentioned.

With reference to the Particulate Matter, consider the following statements:
1. Particulate matter is the sum of all solid and liquid particles suspended in air many of which are hazardous.
2. This complex mixture includes both organic and inorganic particles, such as dust, pollen, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Particulate Matter:
  • Particulate matter is the sum of all solid and liquid particles suspended in air many of which are hazardous.
  • This complex mixture includes both organic and inorganic particles, such as dust, pollen, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets.
  • These particles vary greatly in size, composition, and origin.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the ‘Yuan Wang 5’, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Chinese research and survey vessel.
2. ‘Yuan Wang’-class ships are used to track satellite, rocket and intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) launches.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
India is closely monitoring the movement of a Chinese “spy ship” that is on its way to Sri Lanka and will dock at its Hambantota port around August 11.
  • The vessel’s visit to the Lankan port comes at a time when the country is battling a severe economic crisis, and India is learnt to have already lodged a verbal protest against the ship’s visit.
  • The ‘Yuan Wang 5’, a Chinese research and survey vessel, is en route to Hambantota, a strategically important deep-sea port developed mostly using loans from Beijing.
  • ‘Yuan Wang’-class ships are used to track satellite, rocket and intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) launches.
  • China has around seven of these tracking ships that are capable of operating throughout the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans. The ships supplement Beijing’s land-based tracking stations.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Indian Virtual Herbarium, consider the following statements:
1. It is the biggest virtual database of flora in the country.
2. It was developed by scientists of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Roy answered
Explanation:

The Indian Virtual Herbarium is a virtual database of flora in India. It was developed by scientists of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI). Let's analyze the given statements:

Statement 1: It is the biggest virtual database of flora in the country.

This statement is correct. The Indian Virtual Herbarium is indeed the largest virtual database of flora in India. It contains a vast collection of digitized plant specimens from different herbaria across the country. These specimens include botanical details, images, and other relevant information about the plants. The database is constantly updated and serves as a valuable resource for researchers, botanists, and students interested in studying and identifying plant species in India.

Statement 2: It was developed by scientists of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).

This statement is also correct. The Indian Virtual Herbarium was developed by scientists of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI). The BSI is an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. It is responsible for exploring, surveying, and documenting the plant resources of the country. The development of the Indian Virtual Herbarium was a significant initiative by the BSI to digitize and make accessible the large collection of plant specimens maintained by various herbaria across India.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Indian Virtual Herbarium is the biggest virtual database of flora in the country and it was developed by scientists of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).

With reference to the BrahMos, consider the following statements:
1. It is subsonic cruise missile.
2. BrahMos Aerospace is the joint venture between DRDO and NPOM, Russia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Ahuja answered
Statement 1: It is subsonic cruise missile.
Statement 2: BrahMos Aerospace is the joint venture between DRDO and NPOM, Russia

To determine the correctness of the statements, let's analyze each one:

Statement 1: It is subsonic cruise missile.
The BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile, not a subsonic one. It is a two-stage missile that operates at supersonic speeds of Mach 2.8 to 3.0 (around 3,450 to 3,700 km/h). It is considered one of the fastest cruise missiles in the world. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: BrahMos Aerospace is the joint venture between DRDO and NPOM, Russia
This statement is correct. BrahMos Aerospace is indeed a joint venture between the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) of India and the Federal State Unitary Enterprise NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM) of Russia. The name "BrahMos" is a combination of the names of two rivers - Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia. The joint venture was established in 1998 with the aim of designing, developing, and producing the BrahMos missile system. It is responsible for the production, marketing, and support of the missile system. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct. The BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile, not a subsonic one. It is developed and produced by BrahMos Aerospace, which is a joint venture between DRDO of India and NPOM of Russia.

With reference to the Dark Sky Reserve, consider the following statements:
1. By the end of 2022, India will establish the country’s first Dark Sky Reserve in the cold desert regions of Ladakh.
2. A Dark Sky Reserve is public or private land with a distinguished nocturnal environment and starry nights that has been developed responsibly to prevent light pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Kumar answered
Explanation:

1. Statement 1 is correct:
- India is indeed planning to establish its first Dark Sky Reserve by the end of 2022 in the cold desert regions of Ladakh. This initiative aims to protect the area's pristine night skies and promote astrotourism.
2. Statement 2 is correct:
- A Dark Sky Reserve refers to public or private land that has a distinguished nocturnal environment with starry nights. Such reserves are developed responsibly to prevent light pollution, thus preserving the natural darkness of the night sky for stargazing and astronomical observations.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. India's establishment of a Dark Sky Reserve in Ladakh aligns with the global efforts to protect dark skies and promote sustainable tourism practices.

With reference to the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Amendment Bill, 2022, consider the following statements:
1. The bill seeks to amend the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005.
2. The 2005 Act prohibits unlawful activities such as manufacturing, transport, or transfer related to weapons of mass destruction and their means of delivery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Amendment Bill, 2022 was moved today in the Rajya Sabha amid din.
  • The bill seeks to amend the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005.
  • The 2005 Act prohibits unlawful activities such as manufacturing, transport, or transfer related to weapons of mass destruction and their means of delivery.
  • Weapons of mass destruction are biological, chemical, or nuclear weapons. The bill bars persons from financing any prohibited activity related to weapons of mass destruction and their delivery systems.
  • The house could not take up discussion on the bill due to the opposition's protest over the inflation and GST hike.
​​​​​​​Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the El Niño-Southern Oscillation system, or ENSO, consider the following statements:
1. ENSO conditions can alter both temperatures and rainfall globally, due to their strong interference on global atmospheric circulations.
2. El Nino is more frequent than La Nina.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The Australian Bureau of Meteorology on September 13 confirmed the occurrence of La Niña phenomenon for the third consecutive year in the Pacific Ocean.
  • The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) on August 31 had stated that the oceanic and atmospheric phenomenon would last until at least the end of the year, and for the first time this century, span three consecutive northern hemisphere winters to become a ‘triple dip’ La Nina.
  • El Nino and La Nina, which mean ‘the boy’ and ‘the girl’ in Spanish, are mutually opposite phenomena, during which an abnormal warming or cooling of sea surface temperatures is observed in the Pacific Ocean along the equator, off the coast of South America.
  • Together they constitute what is known as the El Niño-Southern Oscillation system, or ENSO for short.
  • ENSO conditions can alter both temperatures and rainfall globally, due to their strong interference on global atmospheric circulations.
  • It is a recurring phenomenon and the change in temperature is accompanied by changes in the patterns of upper and lower level winds, sea level pressure, and tropical rainfall across the Pacific Basin.
  • Normally, El Nino and La Nina occur every four to five years. El Nino is more frequent than La Nina.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), consider the following statements:
1. The scheme was launched to aid Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector in view of the economic distress caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.
2. The scheme is under the operational domain of Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services (DFS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Kumar answered
Overview of ECLGS
The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) was introduced by the Government of India to provide financial support to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector during the economic turmoil caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.
Statement 1: ECLGS for MSMEs
- The ECLGS was specifically designed to assist MSMEs, which were severely impacted by the lockdowns and economic disruptions due to COVID-19.
- It aimed to provide them with access to additional credit, thereby ensuring business continuity and protecting jobs.
Statement 2: Operational Domain
- The scheme falls under the Ministry of Finance, specifically the Department of Financial Services (DFS).
- This department is responsible for the implementation and oversight of the scheme, ensuring that the funds reach the intended beneficiaries efficiently.
Conclusion: Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements are accurate.
- Statement 1 correctly identifies the purpose of the ECLGS, while Statement 2 rightly points out its operational jurisdiction under the Ministry of Finance, DFS.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': Both 1 and 2 are correct.

With reference to the East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Ramsar site.
2. It is spread over 37 mouzas of the West Bengal’s South and North 24 Parganas districts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanchita Bose answered
Overview of East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW)
The East Kolkata Wetlands is a significant ecological region located in West Bengal, India, known for its rich biodiversity and crucial role in water management.
Statement 1: It is a Ramsar site.
- The East Kolkata Wetlands is indeed designated as a Ramsar site.
- This designation recognizes it as a wetland of international importance, primarily for its role in biodiversity conservation and ecosystem services.
Statement 2: It is spread over 37 mouzas of the West Bengal’s South and North 24 Parganas districts.
- The EKW does cover multiple mouzas, specifically in the South 24 Parganas district.
- It includes 37 mouzas, confirming its spread across these regions.
Conclusion
Both statements about the East Kolkata Wetlands are correct:
- Ramsar Site Status: The EKW's international recognition as a Ramsar site highlights its ecological significance.
- Geographical Spread: The information regarding its spread over 37 mouzas in the South 24 Parganas district is accurate.
Thus, the correct answer is option C: Both 1 and 2. This emphasizes the importance of EKW in both ecological conservation and local geography, making it a vital area for environmental studies and conservation efforts.

With reference to the gluten-free diet (GFD), consider the following statements:
1. A gluten-free diet (GFD) is a nutritional plan that strictly excludes gluten, which is a mixture of proteins found in wheat as well as barley, rye, and oats.
2. Gluten may cause both gastrointestinal and systemic symptoms for those with gluten-related disorders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has launched a gluten-free millet products for all age groups at affordable prices.
  • A gluten-free diet (GFD) is a nutritional plan that strictly excludes gluten, which is a mixture of proteins found in wheat (and all of its species and hybrids, such as spelt, kamut, and triticale), as well as barley, rye, and oats.
  • Gluten may cause both gastrointestinal and systemic symptoms for those with gluten-related disorders, including coeliac disease (CD), non-coeliac gluten sensitivity (NCGS), gluten ataxia, dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), and wheat allergy.
  • Gluten proteins have low nutritional and biological value and the grains that contain gluten are not essential in the human diet.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Mark-III, consider the following statements:
1. It is indigenously developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL), in Chennai.
2. It will be the first aircraft of the newly created “840 Squadron” of The Indian Coast Guard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Samarth Unni answered
Explanation:

1. Indigenously developed by HAL, Chennai:
- The Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Mark-III is indeed indigenously developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) in Bengaluru, not Chennai.
- HAL is a premier aerospace company in India and has been involved in the design and development of various aircraft for the Indian armed forces.

2. First aircraft of the newly created "840 Squadron" of The Indian Coast Guard:
- The ALH Mark-III will indeed be the first aircraft of the newly created "840 Squadron" of The Indian Coast Guard.
- The Indian Coast Guard plays a crucial role in safeguarding India's maritime interests and the addition of ALH Mark-III helicopters will enhance their operational capabilities.

Therefore, both statements are not entirely correct, as the first statement regarding the development location is inaccurate. However, the second statement about the deployment of ALH Mark-III with the Indian Coast Guard is correct.

With reference to the single-use plastic (SUP), consider the following statements:
1. Since July 1, 2022, India has banned the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale, and use of single-use plastic (SUP) items with low utility and high littering potential.
2. India is not a party to the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jyoti Mehta answered
Explanation:
India has indeed banned the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale, and use of single-use plastic (SUP) items with low utility and high littering potential since July 1, 2022. This decision is in line with the country's efforts to reduce plastic pollution and promote environmental sustainability.

Reasoning:
- The first statement is correct as India has taken a significant step towards reducing single-use plastic consumption by implementing this ban.
- The ban covers a wide range of SUP items that are often used for short periods before being discarded, contributing to environmental pollution.
- By enforcing this ban, India aims to promote the use of sustainable alternatives and curb the harmful impact of plastic waste on the environment.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

With reference to the sugarcane, consider the following statements:
1. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently approved Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for sugar season 2022-23 (October - September) at ₹305 per quintal.
2. The FRP for last season was ₹290 per quintal with a basic recovery rate of 10%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), at its meeting chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for sugar season 2022-23 (October - September) at ₹305 per quintal.
  • The amount is for sugarcane with a basic sugar recovery rate of 10.25%. The Centre has also announced a premium of ₹3.05 per quintal for each 0.1% increase in recovery of sugar over and above 10.25% and reduction in FRP by ₹3.05 per quintal for every 0.1% decrease in recovery.
  • The FRP for last season was ₹290 per quintal with a basic recovery rate of 10%.
  • While the Centre claimed the increase will protect the interest of sugarcane farmers, the farmers’ organisations said the FRP is too low when compared to the increase in input cost and the increase of 0.25% in recovery rate is a blow to them.
  • The Centre has also decided that there shall not be any deduction in case of sugar mills where recovery is below 9.5%.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Indo-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA), consider the following statements:
1. The current Indo-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) came into effect in 2000.
2. Since 2015 both countries have comprehensive economic and technological partnership.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'A', i.e. statement 1 only is correct.

Explanation:
The Indo-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) is a bilateral trade agreement between India and Sri Lanka. Let's evaluate each statement separately:

1. The current Indo-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) came into effect in 2000: This statement is correct. The ISFTA was signed on December 28, 1998, and it came into effect on March 1, 2000. The agreement aimed to promote bilateral trade and economic cooperation between the two countries.

2. Since 2015 both countries have a comprehensive economic and technological partnership: This statement is incorrect. As of the current information available, there is no comprehensive economic and technological partnership between India and Sri Lanka since 2015. It is possible that there might be other forms of cooperation or agreements between the two countries, but it is not related to the ISFTA.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.

Which of the following country is/are part of Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD)?
1. Australia
2. Japan
3. China
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Foreign Ministers of the Quad group of countries – India, the U.S., Australia, and Japan – met on the fringes of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) to sign a Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) partnership into effect.
  • The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD), commonly known as the Quad, is a strategic security dialogue between Australia, India, Japan, and the United States that is maintained by talks between member countries.
  • In a joint statement in March 2021, "The Spirit of the Quad," the Quad members described "a shared vision for a Free and Open Indo-Pacific”.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Special Marriage Act, 1954, consider the following statements:
1. The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries, irrespective of religion or faith followed by either party.
2. The Act lays down the procedure for both solemnization and registration of marriage, where either of the husband or wife or both are not Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, or Sikhs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Chavan answered
Statement 1: The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries, irrespective of religion or faith followed by either party.

The first statement is correct. The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act enacted by the Parliament of India with the purpose of providing a special form of marriage for people of India and Indian nationals residing in foreign countries. Under this Act, individuals can choose to have a civil marriage, irrespective of their religion or faith. This Act allows individuals to marry outside the traditional religious ceremonies and rituals, providing an alternative option for interfaith and inter-caste marriages.

Statement 2: The Act lays down the procedure for both solemnization and registration of marriage, where either of the husband or wife or both are not Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, or Sikhs.

The second statement is also correct. The Special Marriage Act, 1954 lays down the procedure for both solemnization and registration of marriage when either the husband or wife or both do not belong to the Hindu, Buddhist, Jain, or Sikh religions. This Act provides a secular framework for marriage registration and solemnization, ensuring that couples from different religions or no religion can legally marry and have their marriage recognized by law.

Explanation:
The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is a progressive legislation that allows individuals from different religions and faiths to marry under civil law. It provides an alternative to the traditional religious ceremonies and rituals for marriage, giving individuals the freedom to choose their partner regardless of their religion or faith. The Act ensures that individuals have the right to marry the person of their choice and protects them from any religious or societal restrictions that may prevent interfaith or inter-caste marriages.

The Act not only provides for the solemnization of marriage but also requires couples to register their marriage. The registration of marriage provides legal proof of the marriage and is essential for various legal purposes such as obtaining passports, visas, and other government documents. The Act lays down the procedure for marriage registration, including the documents required, the authorities responsible for registration, and the time frame for registration.

Overall, the Special Marriage Act, 1954 plays a crucial role in promoting equality, individual freedom, and the right to choose one's life partner. It ensures that couples from different religions or no religion can marry under civil law and have their marriages legally recognized. This Act has been instrumental in breaking down barriers and promoting harmonious relationships between people of different religions and faiths in India.

With reference to the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, consider the following statements:
1. An NEP is a comprehensive framework to guide the development of education in the country.
2. The first education policy came in 1986 on the recommendation of the Education Commission, headed by D S Kothari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Joshi answered
National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
  • An NEP is a comprehensive framework to guide the development of education in the country.
  • The first education policy came in 1968 on the recommendation of the Education Commission, headed by D S Kothari.
  • The second education policy came in 1986, which was replaced by the third education policy - NEP 2020
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the India-Bangladesh relations, consider the following statements:
1. Seven MoUs, including on water resources, railways, science and technology, space technology were recently exchanged.
2. An agreement on water sharing from the Kushiyara River has been signed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanchita Gupta answered
India-Bangladesh Relations: Recent Developments

Statement 1: Seven MoUs, including on water resources, railways, science and technology, space technology were recently exchanged.
Statement 2: An agreement on water sharing from the Kushiyara River has been signed.

Explanation:
India and Bangladesh share a close and multifaceted relationship, encompassing a wide range of areas such as trade, security, connectivity, and people-to-people ties. In recent times, there have been significant developments in the bilateral relations between the two countries.

Statement 1: Seven MoUs, including on water resources, railways, science and technology, space technology were recently exchanged.
- This statement is correct.
- India and Bangladesh recently exchanged several MoUs to enhance cooperation in various sectors.
- The MoUs cover areas such as water resources, railways, science and technology, and space technology.
- These agreements reflect the commitment of both countries to deepen bilateral ties and promote mutual cooperation.

Statement 2: An agreement on water sharing from the Kushiyara River has been signed.
- This statement is also correct.
- India and Bangladesh have signed a historic agreement on water sharing from the Kushiyara River.
- The Kushiyara River flows through both countries, and the agreement aims to ensure equitable distribution of water resources between them.
- This agreement is a significant step towards resolving water-related issues and promoting cooperation in the region.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. India and Bangladesh have exchanged several MoUs covering various sectors, and they have also signed an agreement on water sharing from the Kushiyara River. These recent developments reflect the growing warmth and cooperation between the two countries, and signify their joint efforts to strengthen bilateral ties and promote mutual prosperity.

With reference to the Namaste scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. It is under the Union Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:


The Namaste scheme is a recently launched Central Sector Scheme by the Government of India. It aims to provide financial support to the micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) sector in the country. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).

Statement 1: The Namaste scheme is a Central Sector Scheme.

Correct. A Central Sector Scheme is a scheme that is fully funded and implemented by the central government. The Namaste scheme falls under this category as it is initiated and implemented by the Government of India.

Statement 2: The Namaste scheme is under the Union Ministry of Finance.

Incorrect. The Namaste scheme is not under the Union Ministry of Finance. It is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). The Ministry of Finance is responsible for matters related to finance and taxation in the country.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

In summary:
- The Namaste scheme is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
- It is not under the Union Ministry of Finance.
- The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

With reference to the National Culture Fund (NCF), consider the following statements:
1. Government of India has set up National Culture Fund (NCF) as a Trust in 2015 under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890.
2. NCF is managed by a (Governing) Council and an Executive Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Since inception, NCF has completed 52 projects with various donors.
  • Government of India has set up National Culture Fund (NCF) as a Trust on 28th November, 1996 under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890.
  • NCF is managed by a (Governing) Council and an Executive Committee.
  • The Council is chaired by the Union Minister of Culture and has a strength of 21 including 15 non-official members representing various fields including corporate sector, private foundations and not-for-profit voluntary organizations.
  • The aim of National Culture Fund (NCF) is to establish and nurture partnerships in the field of Culture and Heritage with private and public sectors, government, non-government agencies, private institutions and foundations and mobilize resources for the restoration, conservation, protection and development of India’s rich, natural, tangible and intangible heritage.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Gallium nitride (GaN), consider the following statements:
1. It is a very hard, mechanically stable wide bandgap semiconductor.
2. Gallium nitride crystals can be grown on a variety of substrates, including sapphire, silicon carbide (SiC) and silicon (Si).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagarika Desai answered
Explanation:
Statement 1:
- Gallium nitride (GaN) is indeed a very hard and mechanically stable wide bandgap semiconductor.
- GaN has a wide bandgap of 3.4 eV, making it suitable for high-power and high-frequency devices.
- Its mechanical stability allows GaN to be used in various applications, including power electronics, RF amplifiers, and LEDs.
Statement 2:
- Gallium nitride crystals can be grown on a variety of substrates, including sapphire, silicon carbide (SiC), and silicon (Si).
- GaN can be grown using techniques such as metal-organic chemical vapor deposition (MOCVD) or hydride vapor phase epitaxy (HVPE) on these substrates.
- The choice of substrate can impact the performance and characteristics of the GaN material.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct as they accurately describe the properties and growth capabilities of Gallium nitride (GaN).

With reference to the UN High Seas treaty, consider the following statements:
1. The treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction has been under discussion for several years.
2. It is also known that Geneva Agreement for the Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Background:
The UN High Seas treaty aims to address the issue of biodiversity beyond national jurisdiction. It has been under discussion for several years and is also known as the Geneva Agreement for the Ocean. Let us analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.

Analysis:
Statement 1: The treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction has been under discussion for several years.
This statement is correct. The UN High Seas treaty, also known as the treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction, has indeed been under discussion for several years. The negotiations for this treaty began in 2004 at the United Nations and have been ongoing since then. The aim of the treaty is to establish a legally binding framework to protect marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction, such as the high seas.

Statement 2: It is also known as the Geneva Agreement for the Ocean.
This statement is incorrect. The treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction is not known as the Geneva Agreement for the Ocean. The term "Geneva Agreement for the Ocean" is not commonly used to refer to this treaty. It may be a confusion or misinterpretation of the information.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis of the given statements, we can conclude that only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

Correct answer: a) 1 only

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