All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the National Credit Framework, consider the following statements:
1. It is a next generation, multidimensional instrument under National Education Policy (NEP).
2. It is an umbrella framework for skilling, re-skilling, up-skilling, accreditation & evaluation encompassing our people in educational & skilling institutions and workforce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Union Minister of Education and Minister of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Shri Dharmendra Pradhan recently launched the draft of National Credit Framework (NCrF) for public consultation.
  • National Credit Framework is a next generation, multidimensional instrument under National Education Policy (NEP).
  • National Credit Framework (NCrF) aims to enable the integration of academic and vocational domains to ensure flexibility and mobility between the two.
  • It is an umbrella framework for skilling, re-skilling, up-skilling, accreditation & evaluation encompassing our people in educational & skilling institutions and workforce.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Great Indian Bustard, consider the following statements:
1. It is one of the largest flying birds in the world, and India’s heaviest flying bird.
2. It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The recent sighting of three Great Indian Bustards (GIBs) deep in Pakistan’s Cholistan desert has given rise to speculation that the endangered birds might have flown across the international border from India’s Desert National Park (DNP).
  • The Great Indian Bustard, found mainly in the Indian subcontinent, is the flagship grassland species of India.
  • It is one of the largest flying birds in the world, and India’s heaviest flying bird.
  • The male bird weighs upto 12-15 kg and female bird up to 5-8 kg.
  • Physical description: 
    • Black crown on the forehead contrasting with the pale neck and head.
    • The body is brownish and the wings are marked with black, brown and grey.
  • Diet: 
    • They feed on grass seeds, insects like grasshoppers and beetles, and sometimes even small rodents and reptiles. The species primarily feed on meswak, sewan grass.
  • Distribution:
    • Its population of about 150 in Rajasthan accounts for 95% of its total world population.
    • They are mainly in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan, including the Desert National Park which is the natural habitat of the species.
    • Grasslands of Kutch in Gujarat which is home to second-largest bustard population in India.
    • Arid regions of Maharashtra (Solapur), Karnataka (Bellary and Haveri) and Andhra Pradesh (Kurnool)
    • It is the State bird of Rajasthan.
  • Conservation status:
    • Listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972,
    • Listed in Appendix I of CITES,
    • Listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
  • Breeding season:
    • The breeding season spans from March to October.
  • Captive breeding:
    • The captive breeding of GIBs was taken up in the DNP through a project executed by the Dehradun-based Wildlife Institute of India in 2019.
    • As many as 24 GIB chicks are being reared in DNP by a team supported by the International Fund for Houbara Conservation of United Arab Emirates.
  • Threats: 
    • Occasional poaching outside Protected Areas,
    • Habitat loss due to widespread agricultural expansion, infrastructural development such as irrigation, roads, electric poles, as well as mining and industrialization,
    • Bustards, with their poor frontal vision and heavy bodies, have also died due to collision with high tension electric wires.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the 4th Heli-India Summit 2022, consider the following statements:
1. The theme is ‘Helicopters for Last Mile Connectivity’.
2. Fractional Ownership Model helps to grow the non-scheduled operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kirti Pillai answered
"Reigniting Helicopter Operations in India"
2. The summit is being organized by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and FICCI
3. The summit will focus on the use of helicopters in areas such as tourism, disaster management, and medical evacuation

All three statements are correct.

With reference to the Mission DefSpace, consider the following statements:
1. The space programme aims to develop innovative solutions for the Defence Forces through industry & startups.
2. Under Mission DefSpace, 75 challenges are being opened to get innovative solutions, based on the defence requirements in the space domain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Krishan Kumar answered
Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi recently launched Mission DefSpace in Gandhinagar.
  • The space programme aims to develop innovative solutions for the Defence Forces through industry & startups.
  • Importantly, the initiative will prepare India for future possibilities in space domain and will also increase the country’s preparation further.
  • Under Mission DefSpace, 75 challenges are being opened to get innovative solutions, based on the defence requirements in the space domain.
  • The programme will focus on various challenges in this area that have been reviewed and identified by the three defence services.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Jal Jeevan Mission, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to ensure HarGharJal (piped water supply) to all rural households by 2024
2. NITI Aayog is the executing agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Vice President, Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar recently described “quality, quantity and continuity” as the core principles for the success of Jal Jeevan Mission.
  • Mission Objective: To ensure HarGharJal (piped water supply) to all rural households by 2024 under the Jal Jeevan Mission.
  • Executing agency: Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Jal Shakti Mantralaya.
  • Strategy:
    • This Mission will focus on integrated demand and supply side management of water at the local level, including creation of local infrastructure for source sustainability like rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge and management of household wastewater for reuse in agriculture.
    • The  Mission will converge with other Central and State Government Schemes to achieve its objectives of sustainable water supply management across the country.
  • Funding Pattern:
  • The fund sharing pattern is in the proportion of:
    • 50:50 between Centre and States,
    • 90:10 for Himalayan and North-Eastern States.
      In case of UTs, 100% funding is provided by the Central government.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Foreign exchange reserves, consider the following statements:
1. Forex reserves are assets such as foreign currencies, gold reserves, treasury bills, etc retained by a central bank or other monetary authority.
2. SEBI is the custodian of the Foreign exchange reserves in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Foreign exchange reserves fell by $7. 5 billion to $572 billion during the week ended July 15, according to data released by the RBI.
Foreign exchange reserves (Forex Reserve)
  • Foreign Exchange reserves or Forex reserves are assets such as foreign currencies, gold reserves, treasury bills, etc retained by a central bank or other monetary authority.
  • RBI is the custodian of the Foreign exchange reserves in India.
  • It checks the balance payments and influences the foreign exchange rate of its currency and maintains stability in financial markets.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Nord Stream pipelines, consider the following statements:
1. Nord Stream 1 is a 1,224 km underwater gas pipeline running from Vyborg in northwest Russia to Lubmin in northeastern Germany via the Baltic Sea.
2. The 1,200-km Nord Stream 2 pipeline was to run from Ust-Luga in Russia to Greifswald in Germany through the Baltic Sea and carry 55 billion cubic metres of gas per year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Recently it has been discovered the fourth leak in the two damaged offshore pipelines that comprise the crucial Nord Stream pipelines (Nord Stream 1 and Nord Stream 2).
  • Nord Stream 1 is a 1,224 km underwater gas pipeline running from Vyborg in northwest Russia to Lubmin in northeastern Germany via the Baltic Sea.
  • The majority owned by the Russian energy giant Gazprom, it is the primary network through which gas reaches Germany.
  • Most of the gas goes directly to Germany, while the rest travels west and southwards through onshore links to other countries and into storage caverns.
  • The 1,200-km Nord Stream 2 pipeline was to run from Ust-Luga in Russia to Greifswald in Germany through the Baltic Sea and carry 55 billion cubic metres of gas per year.
  • It was meant to run along with the Nord Stream 1 system. Germany is Russia’s biggest European gas consumer, and most of it comes through the Nord Stream.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, consider the following statements:
1. The SCO Summit 2022 was first held in Shanghai in June 2002.
2. India is not part of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Prime Minister Narendra Modi along with leaders of SCO nations participated in the 22nd SCO Summit at Samarkand in Uzbekistan.
  • Besides leaders of SCO member states, observer states, Secretary General of the SCO, Executive Director of the SCO Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), President of Turkmenistan and other invited guests attended the meet.
  • India has been working closely with Uzbekistan towards the success of their Chairship.
  • On the side-lines of the SCO Summit, Prime Minister Modi held informal meetings with a number of leaders on matters of mutual interest. He also took part in bilateral meetings held after the summit with Russia, Uzbekistan and Iran.
  • The SCO Summit 2022 was first held in Shanghai in June 2002. There are eight members, out of which six are founding members. The last two countries – India and Pakistan – joined as full members in 2017.
  • Member countries are: China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India and Pakistan.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the M777 Ultra Light Howitzer, consider the following statements:
1. The M777s are a key component of the army’s field artillery rationalisation plan (FARP), cleared in 1999.
2. It has a range of up to 300km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The Indian Army is inducting the M777 Ultra Light Howitzer on the northern borders.
  • In the next five years, the Army’s Regiment of Artillery will see major force accretion with the induction of several guns, including indigenous ones. 
  • It includes the Dhanush, Sharang, M777 Ultra Light Howitzer (ULH), additional K9-Vajra howitzers and the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS).
M777 Ultra Light Howitzer
  • The M777s are a key component of the army’s field artillery rationalisation plan (FARP), cleared in 1999.
  • The 155 mm/39-caliber M777 howitzers have a range of up to 30km, but it is capable of striking targets at ranges of more than 40 km in some areas where the geography allows the shells to fly in rarefied air.
  • Built with titanium and aluminum alloys, the howitzers weigh 4,218 kg.
  • In contrast, 155mm towed guns weigh twice as much.
  • The Indian Air Force’s CH-47F Chinook helicopters can carry the howitzers as underslung load for swift deployment in high-altitude areas.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Purchasing Managers’ Index, consider the following statements:
1. The index shows trends in both the manufacturing and services sector.
2. A PMI number greater than 50 indicates contraction in business activity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1: The index shows trends in both the manufacturing and services sector.
- The Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) is a widely recognized leading economic indicator that surveys purchasing managers in various sectors.
- The PMI provides insights into the health of the manufacturing and services sectors by measuring factors such as new orders, production, employment, supplier deliveries, and inventories.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct as the PMI covers trends in both the manufacturing and services sector.

Statement 2: A PMI number greater than 50 indicates contraction in business activity.
- This statement is incorrect. In fact, a PMI number greater than 50 indicates expansion in business activity, while a number below 50 indicates contraction.
- A PMI reading above 50 suggests that the economy is expanding, while a reading below 50 indicates a contraction.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect as a PMI number greater than 50 signifies expansion, not contraction.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
a) 1 only

Consider the following statements with respect to Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report on weapons imports:
1. India was the largest importer of arms for its armed forces in 2016-20.
2. Domestic arms companies provide more than 50 per cent of India’s total volume of defence procurement in 2016-20.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
India ranks fourth among 12 Indo-Pacific nations in self-reliant arms production capabilities, according to a study released this month by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI).
About:
  • The 12 countries in the study were selected because they have the highest military spending in the region — Australia, China, India, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, Singapore, Taiwan, Thailand and Vietnam.
  • The study, which measures self-reliance until 2020, is based on three indicators of self-reliance in each country:
    • Arms procurement
    • Arms industry
    • Uncrewed maritime vehicles
China
  • China was the world’s fifth largest arms importer in 2016-20.
  • Its self-reliance policies, and its high economic growth in that period meant that the Chinese arms industry now increasingly fulfills the requirements of the People’s Liberation Army (PLA).
  • Its high volume of imports in absolute terms accounts for only 8 per cent of total procurement for the period, the lowest share for any of the 12 governments.
India
  • India is ranked as the second largest importer of arms for its armed forces in 2016-20. India is highly dependent on imports of complete foreign major arms, including many produced under licence or as components for its domestic production.
  • Of India’s total volume of procurement in 2016–20, 84 per cent was of foreign origin. Domestic arms companies provide only 16 per cent of its total procurement.
  • Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd, Indian Ordnance Factories, Bharat Electronics, Mazagaon Docks and Cochin Shipyard are among the major Indian arms servicing companies. Ashok Leyland, one of the largest suppliers of trucks to the Indian Army, is the only company ranked in the top 50 in the Indo-Pacific.
  • India has seven Uncrewed Maritime Vessel projects ongoing. In the private sector, Larsen & Toubro has been developing AUV prototypes on its own and in collaboration with foreign partners, such as Italy’s EdgeLab.
Hence both statements are not correct.

With reference to the child mortality rates, consider the following statements:
1. Under 5 Mortality Rate (U5MR) for the country has shown significant decline of 3 points from 2019 (32 per 1000 live births in 2020 against 35 per 1000 live births in 2019).
2. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) has also registered 2-point decline to 28 per 1000 live births in 2020 from 30 per 1000 live births in 2019
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaavya Dey answered
Understanding Child Mortality Rates
Child mortality rates are critical indicators of a country's health system and socio-economic conditions. The two main metrics often discussed are the Under 5 Mortality Rate (U5MR) and the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR).
Statement 1: U5MR Decline
- The Under 5 Mortality Rate (U5MR) has shown a significant decline, dropping from 35 per 1000 live births in 2019 to 32 per 1000 live births in 2020.
- This represents a decline of 3 points, indicating improvements in healthcare access and child health interventions.
Statement 2: IMR Decline
- The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) also experienced a decline, decreasing from 30 per 1000 live births in 2019 to 28 per 1000 live births in 2020.
- This 2-point decline reflects advancements in maternal and neonatal care, which are essential for reducing infant deaths.
Conclusion
- Both statements accurately reflect the trends in child mortality rates, showcasing positive developments in health outcomes for children in the country.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', as both statements are correct.
These reductions in U5MR and IMR indicate progress towards achieving global health targets and improving child survival rates.

With reference to the Green crackers, consider the following statements:
1. It reduces the emission of up to 30%.
2. It emits noise in the range of 160-200 deciBels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Only green firecrackers will be sold in the Delhi for Diwali, in accordance with the Supreme Court (SC) orders.
  • Green crackers are low-emission crackers, free of harmful chemicals such as sulphur, nitrates, arsenic, magnesium, sodium, lead, and barium, which reduce the emission of up to 30%.
  • Emit noise in the range of 100-130 deciBels.
  • Come with a green logo and Quick Response (QR) code to differentiate from conventional firecrackers.
  • The crackers developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) under three categories:
    • SWAS:
      • SWAS is safe water releaser, which suppresses the dust released by releasing water vapour in the air. It does not comprise potassium nitrate and sulphur and the particulate dust released will reduce approximately by 30 per cent.
    • STAR:
      • STAR is the safe thermite cracker, which does not comprise potassium nitrate and sulphur, emits reduced particulate matter disposal and reduced sound intensity. 
    • SAFAL:
      • SAFAL is safe minimal aluminium which has minimum usage of aluminium, and used magnesium instead. It ensures reduction in sound in comparison to traditional crackers.
Conventional firecrackers:
  • Composed of charcoal or thermite in combination with oxidizing agents such as nitrates or chlorates, sulfur agents, and coloring agents.
  • Include salts of strontium, sodium, barium, calcium, and copper as well as white metals, which produce more particulate matter (PM).
  • Emit sound between 160-200 deciBels.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Chief of Defence Staff, consider the following statements:
1. CDS is the military head and permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) of the Indian Armed Forces.
2. The Chief heads the Department of Military Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirudh Joshi answered
Overview of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) plays a pivotal role in the Indian Armed Forces. The statements provided regarding the CDS can be evaluated for their accuracy.
Statement 1: CDS as the Military Head
- The CDS is indeed recognized as the military head of the Indian Armed Forces.
- He serves as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC), which includes the heads of the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- This role enables the CDS to facilitate joint military operations and promote synergy among the three services.
Statement 2: Head of the Department of Military Affairs
- The CDS also heads the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence.
- This department is responsible for the overall management of the armed forces and policy formulation, further enhancing the CDS's authority and responsibilities.
Conclusion
- Both statements about the CDS are correct.
- Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 'C': Both 1 and 2.
This structure confirms the significant role of the CDS in enhancing operational efficiency and strategic coordination among the Indian Armed Forces.

With reference to the Diving Support Vessels (DSVs), consider the following statements:
1. DSVs are first of the kind, ships indigenously designed and built at HSL for the Indian Navy.
2. These ships will be capable of sustained patrolling, conducting Search & Rescue operations and carrying out Helicopter Operations at high seas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Two Diving Support Vessels (Nistar & Nipun) being built by Hindustan Shipyard Ltd, Vishakapatnam for the Indian Navy, are scheduled to be launched on 22 September 2022.
  • The Diving Support Vessels (DSVs) are first of the kind, ships indigenously designed and built at HSL for the Indian Navy.
  • The vessels are 118.4 metres long, 22.8 metres at the broadest point and will have a displacement of 9,350 tons.
  • These ships would be deployed for deep sea diving operations. Additionally, with Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicle (DSRV) embarked, the DSVs are designed to undertake submarine rescue operations, in case requirement exists.
  • Furthermore, these ships will be capable of sustained patrolling, conducting Search & Rescue operations and carrying out Helicopter Operations at high seas.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Automatic Exchange Of Information (AEOI), consider the following statements:
1. AEOI 2022 exchange exercise aims to bring in transparency and restrict money laundering.
2. Under the OECD umbrella of AEOI, India presently shares bulk financial and banking information with 78 countries and receives the same from 107 countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
India has received the fourth set of Swiss bank account details of its nationals and organisations as part of an annual information exchange, under which Switzerland has shared particulars of nearly 34 lakh financial accounts with 101 countries.
  • This is the fourth tranche of information that India has received from Switzerland since the two countries entered into an Automatic Exchange Of Information (AEOI) agreement in January 2018.
  • The first such exchange with India took place in 2019.
Automatic Exchange Of Information (AEOI):
  • AEOI 2022 exchange exercise aims to bring in transparency and restrict money laundering.
  • Some countries which have been added to the Swiss AEOI list for the first time are Turkey, Peru and Nigeria.
  • The guidelines and parameters for the AEOI are set by the Paris-based international body, the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
  • The annual exercise of AEOI exchange, such as the current Swiss bonanza of banking details, is strictly meant for “tax only” purposes and in India, kept in the custody of and for action by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
  • Under the OECD’s guidelines, no details of the quantum of funds or the names of account holders are to be publicised.
  • In 2014, the OECD developed the Common Reporting Standard (CRS) which allows every country to obtain data from Financial Institutions (FIs) and “automatically” exchange it with countries with which AEOI agreements are in order every year.
  • Under the OECD umbrella of AEOI, India presently shares bulk financial and banking information with 78 countries and receives the same from 107 countries.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Maharishi Valmiki Jayanti, consider the following statements:
1. He is credited with writing the Ramayana.
2. It is celebrated every year on the full moon day of the month of Ashwin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: He is credited with writing the Ramayana.
Explanation:
Maharishi Valmiki is indeed credited with writing the Ramayana. The Ramayana is an ancient Hindu epic that tells the story of Lord Rama, his wife Sita, and his loyal devotee Hanuman. Valmiki is considered to be the author or the "adikavi" (first poet) of the Ramayana. He composed the epic in Sanskrit, and it consists of about 24,000 verses. The Ramayana is divided into seven books, also known as Kandas, and it is a revered scripture in Hinduism.

Statement 2: It is celebrated every year on the full moon day of the month of Ashwin.
Explanation:
Maharishi Valmiki Jayanti is indeed celebrated every year on the full moon day of the month of Ashwin. Ashwin is the seventh month of the Hindu calendar, and it usually falls between September and October in the Gregorian calendar. The full moon day of Ashwin is known as Purnima, and it holds great significance in Hindu culture. On this day, devotees pay tribute to Maharishi Valmiki and celebrate his birth anniversary.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Maharishi Valmiki is credited with writing the Ramayana, and his birth anniversary, known as Maharishi Valmiki Jayanti, is celebrated every year on the full moon day of the month of Ashwin.

With reference to the US-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (USISCEP), consider the following statements:
1. A new India-US Task Force on Biofuels was announced to build on the scope of work on cooperation in biofuels sector.
2. (PACE)-R initiative include smart grid and grid storage as part of the second phase of the Partnership to Advance Clean Energy (PACE)-R initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. India-US Task Force on Biofuels
The first statement is correct. As part of the US-India Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (USISCEP), a new India-US Task Force on Biofuels was announced. This task force aims to build on the existing cooperation in the biofuels sector between the two countries. It will focus on areas such as research and development, capacity building, and facilitating trade and investment in the biofuels sector. This collaboration is important as both India and the United States are keen to promote the use of biofuels as a sustainable and low-carbon alternative to fossil fuels.

2. PACE-R Initiative and Smart Grid/Grid Storage
The second statement is also correct. The Partnership to Advance Clean Energy (PACE)-R initiative is a bilateral effort between the United States and India to promote clean energy development and deployment. The initiative aims to accelerate the transition to a low-carbon economy by fostering innovation, supporting research and development, and facilitating access to financing for clean energy projects.

As part of the second phase of the PACE-R initiative, smart grid and grid storage have been included. Smart grid technology enables efficient and reliable electricity delivery, while grid storage refers to the ability to store energy for later use. Both smart grid and grid storage are crucial components of a modern and resilient energy system, as they help integrate renewable energy sources, improve grid stability, and enhance energy efficiency.

Including smart grid and grid storage in the PACE-R initiative highlights the importance of these technologies in achieving the clean energy goals of both countries. It also provides a platform for collaboration and knowledge-sharing between Indian and US institutions, industry stakeholders, and policymakers in these areas.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The US-India Task Force on Biofuels aims to enhance cooperation in the biofuels sector, while the inclusion of smart grid and grid storage in the PACE-R initiative reflects the importance of these technologies in advancing clean energy development.

With reference to the UN Peacekeeping, consider the following statements:
1. UN peacekeepers provide security and the political and peacebuilding support to help countries make the difficult, early transition from conflict to peace.
2. UN peacekeepers are often referred to as Red Berets or Red Helmets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The United Nations peacekeeping chief Jean-Pierre Lacroix is undertaking a visit to India, among the largest troop contributing countries for its operations.
  • Jean-Pierre Lacroix will visit India, the United Arab Emirates, Pakistan and Japan starting from October 6. He will participate in a two-day meeting organised by the Challenges Forum, the event CAF22, which brings together leading policymakers, practitioners and academics on key issues linked to peace operations.
  • The CAF22 will be co-hosted by the organisation’s Indian partner the United Service Institution of India (USI). Under the overarching theme "Future of Peace Operations".
  • India is one of the largest troop and police contributing countries to U.N. peacekeeping missions and more than 5,700 Indian peacekeepers are deployed in nine out of 12 U.N. peacekeeping missions at present.
UN Peacekeeping
  • UN peacekeepers provide security and the political and peacebuilding support to help countries make the difficult, early transition from conflict to peace.
  • There are three basic principles that continue to set UN peacekeeping operations apart as a tool for maintaining international peace and security.
  1. Consent of the parties:
  2. Impartiality
  3. Non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate.
  • Role of Security Council: The United Nations Charter gives the United Nations Security Council the responsibility to maintain international peace. The Security Council authorize peacekeeping operations through Chapter VII authorizations.
  • Financing: As all UN Member States share the costs of peacekeeping, the General Assembly apportions these expenses based on a special scale of assessments, taking into account the relative economic wealth of Member States, with the permanent members of the Security Council required to pay a larger share.
  • For its services, UN Peacekeeping has also received the Nobel Peace Prize.
  • UN peacekeepers are often referred to as Blue Berets or Blue Helmets because of their light blue berets or helmets.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the MiG-21 Bison, consider the following statements:
1. The MiG-21 Bison is an upgraded version of the MiG-21bis which had been first inducted into service in 1976.
2. These four squadrons will retire from service, one by one, by the end of 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: The MiG-21 Bison is an upgraded version of the MiG-21bis which had been first inducted into service in 1976.

Statement 2: These four squadrons will retire from service, one by one, by the end of 2025.

Explanation:

Statement 1: The MiG-21 Bison is an upgraded version of the MiG-21bis which had been first inducted into service in 1976.

The MiG-21 Bison is indeed an upgraded version of the MiG-21bis. The MiG-21bis was a Soviet-era fighter jet that was inducted into service in 1976. It was widely used by various countries, including India, during the Cold War era. The MiG-21 Bison, on the other hand, is an upgraded version of the MiG-21bis. It features several improvements and modifications, including upgraded avionics, radar systems, and electronic warfare capabilities. The Indian Air Force (IAF) has been operating the MiG-21 Bison since its induction in the early 2000s. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: These four squadrons will retire from service, one by one, by the end of 2025.

There is no mention of four squadrons or their retirement in the given information. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:

Out of the given statements, only statement 1 is correct. The MiG-21 Bison is an upgraded version of the MiG-21bis, which was first inducted into service in 1976. However, statement 2 is incorrect as there is no information provided about the retirement of four squadrons. Therefore, the correct answer is option C - Both 1 and 2.

With reference to the Conference on Interaction and Confidence Building Measures in Asia (CICA), consider the following statements:
1. It was founded by the first Prime Minister of India.
2. To be a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Minister of State for External Affairs Meenakshi Lekhi recently rejected the Pakistan PM Sharif’s statement on the Kashmir issue at the Conference on Interaction and Confidence Building Measures in Asia (CICA) held in Astana.
  • The Conference on Interaction and Confidence Building Measures in Asia (CICA) is a multi-national forum for strengthening cooperation towards promoting peace, security and stability in Asia.
  • It was founded by the first President of the Republic of Kazakhstan Elbasy Nursultan Nazarbayev, on 5 October 1992, at the 47th Session of the United Nations General Assembly.
  • India is one of the founding members of Conference on Interaction and Confidence Building Measures in Asia (CICA).
  • To be a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia.
  • The CICA Summit is convened every four years. The Meeting of the Ministers of Foreign Affairs is required to be held every two years.
  • The CICA Secretariat - administrative body of CICA - is located in Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Eco-Sensitive Zones, consider the following statements:
1. Land within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are to be notified as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ).
2. The permitted activities are commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Supreme Court recently indicated it may consider taking up Kerala’s review of the Supreme Court’s judgment to have a one-km eco-sensitive zone ringing protected forests, national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
  • Land within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are to be notified as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ).
  • While the 10-km rule is implemented as a general principle, the extent of its application can vary.
  • Areas beyond 10-km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs, if they hold larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors”.
  • Activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees.
  • There are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, among others.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Government e Marketplace (GeM), consider the following statements:
1. It is an online platform for public procurement in India which was envisaged by the Hon’ble Prime Minister.
2. All states have already signed MoUs with GeM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Commerce and Industry Minister Sh. Piyush Goyal emphasized that Hon’ble Prime Minister has set a target of 75% procurement to be made through GeM by 15th of August and 100% procurement to be made through GeM by the end of the current financial year.
  • Government e Marketplace (GeM) is an online platform for public procurement in India which was envisaged by the Hon’ble Prime Minister.
  • The initiative was launched on August 9, 2016 by Ministry of Commerce and Industry, with an objective to create an open and transparent procurement platform for government buyers.
  • The portal has transformed public procurement in India by driving its three pillars viz. inclusivity, transparency, and efficiency.
  • GeM has about 61,440 Government Buyer Organizations and about 47.99 Lakh Sellers & Service Providers with a rich listing of over 41.44 lakh Product Offerings and 1.9 lakh Service offerings.
  • All states (except Sikkim) have already signed MoUs with GeM. As many as 239 CPSUs are also registered on GeM and making significant procurement through GeM Portal.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) is the operational name of NavIC.
2. It is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Nair answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
1. The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) is the operational name of NavIC:
- The statement is correct. The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) is the operational name of NavIC. NavIC stands for Navigation with Indian Constellation. It is the indigenous regional satellite navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- IRNSS consists of a constellation of seven satellites, namely IRNSS-1A, IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1C, IRNSS-1D, IRNSS-1E, IRNSS-1F, and IRNSS-1G. These satellites are in geosynchronous and geostationary orbits, covering the entire Indian subcontinent and surrounding regions up to 1500 km.
- The purpose of IRNSS/NavIC is to provide accurate positioning and timing services to users in India and the region.

2. It is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services:
- The statement is correct. NavIC is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services.
- NavIC is designed to provide positioning services in India and up to 1500 km beyond its borders, covering an area of approximately 1.5 billion square kilometers.
- It provides two types of services: Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for civilian users and Restricted Service (RS) for authorized users.
- The system works by calculating the user's position based on the signals received from multiple satellites. It provides highly accurate positioning information, with an accuracy of less than 20 meters in the primary service area.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. NavIC, also known as the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services in India and the surrounding region.

With reference to the Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3) -M2, consider the following statements:
1. The rocket is a two-stage launch vehicle.
2. It is the dedicated commercial satellite mission of New Space India Limited (NSIL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Devansh Yadav answered
Statement 1: The rocket is a two-stage launch vehicle.
Statement 2: It is the dedicated commercial satellite mission of New Space India Limited (NSIL).

Explanation:
The given statements are related to the Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3)-M2. Let's analyze each statement individually:

Statement 1: The rocket is a two-stage launch vehicle.
This statement is incorrect. The Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3)-M2 is not a two-stage launch vehicle. It is a three-stage launch vehicle. The LVM3-M2 is the development version of the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark III, which is designed to carry heavy satellites into geostationary transfer orbit. It consists of a solid rocket booster (S200), a liquid core stage (L110), and a cryogenic upper stage (C25). Each stage has its own specific function and contributes to the overall performance of the rocket.

Statement 2: It is the dedicated commercial satellite mission of New Space India Limited (NSIL).
This statement is incorrect. The Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3)-M2 is not a dedicated commercial satellite mission of New Space India Limited (NSIL). NSIL is a commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) responsible for commercializing the products and services of ISRO. While NSIL may utilize launch services provided by ISRO, the LVM3-M2 is not specifically associated with NSIL or any particular commercial satellite mission.

Conclusion:
Both the statements given in the question are incorrect. The Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3)-M2 is a three-stage launch vehicle, and it is not a dedicated commercial satellite mission of New Space India Limited (NSIL). Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

With reference to the United Nations World Geospatial Information Congress (UNWGIC), consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Global Geospatial Information Management (UN-GGIM) convened the conference on UNWGIC 2022 and was organised by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs.
2. The first UNWGIC was organized by China in October 2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
PM Narendra Modi recently addressed 2nd UN World Geospatial International Congress. It is being held in Hyderabad.
  • The goal of this year's UNWGIC is to promote a broad dialogue on global geospatial information management with all relevant governments, non-governmental organisations, academia, and the private sector.
  • Theme: The theme of UNWGIC 2022 is 'Geo-Enabling the Global Village: No one should be left behind'.
  • It was hosted by the ministry of science and technology of the government of India.
United Nations World Geospatial Information Congress (UNWGIC)
  • The United Nations Global Geospatial Information Management (UN-GGIM) convened the conference on UNWGIC 2022 and was organised by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs.
  • It is conducted every four years with the objectives of enhancing international collaboration among the Member States and relevant stakeholders in Geospatial information management and capacities.
  • The first UNWGIC was organized by China in October 2018.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Central Vista Redevelopment Project, consider the following statements:
1. It refers to the ongoing redevelopment to revamp the Central Vista, India's central administrative area located near Raisina Hill, New Delhi.
2. The area was originally designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker during British colonial rule and was retained by Government of India after independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
  • Central Vista Redevelopment Project refers to the ongoing redevelopment to revamp the Central Vista, India's central administrative area located near Raisina Hill, New Delhi.
  • The area was originally designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker during British colonial rule and was retained by Government of India after independence.
  • In 2019, the Central government announced the redevelopment project to give a new identity to the ‘power corridor’ of India.
  • The project aims to –
    • Revamp a 3 km long Rajpath (now renamed as Kartavya Path) between Rashtrapati Bhavan and India Gate,
    • Convert North and South Blocks to publicly accessible museums by creating a new common Central Secretariat to house all ministries,
    • A new Parliament building near the present one with increased seating capacity for future expansion,
    • New residence and office for the Vice-President and the Prime Minister near the North Block and South Block and
    • Convert some of the older structures into museums.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Indian Army’s Emergency Procurements (EP), consider the following statements:
1. Under which Indian Army could procure weapons systems up to ₹3000 crores on an “urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
2. It also gives them an opportunity to test various systems in the field before going in for larger acquisition through the capital budget route.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Indian Army’s 4th round of emergency procurement is to be from India
  • The Indian Army, which has made three tranches of Emergency Procurements (EP) in the last few years, is preparing for a fourth round of EP which will be entirely from the domestic industry.
  • Three tranches of EPs were executed under which 68 contracts worth ₹6,000 crore were placed.
Emergency financial powers:
  • Emergency financial powers were granted to the armed forces by the Defence Ministry in the past under which they could procure weapons systems up to ₹300 crores on an “urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
  • It also gives them an opportunity to test various systems in the field before going in for larger acquisition through the capital budget route.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Scorched earth tactics, consider the following statements:
1. The strategy seeks to deplete the enemy’s resources to sustain warfare, and also break their morale by inflicting heavy hardships on combatants and non-combatants alike.
2. Harming civilians as part of this strategy has been banned under the 1977 Geneva Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
German Chancellor recently said that Russia is using ‘scorched-earth tactics’ in Ukraine.
  • Scorched earth tactics form part of a military strategy which seeks to destroy anything that could be of use to the enemy, including energy supplies, bridges, provision stores, agricultural fields, road and railway links, etc.
  • The destruction could be carried out by the enemy, or by the retreating army of a country which does not want invaders to use its resources.
  • Harming civilians as part of this strategy has been banned under the 1977 Geneva Convention.
  • The strategy seeks to deplete the enemy’s resources to sustain warfare, and also break their morale by inflicting heavy hardships on combatants and non-combatants alike.
  • According to the Oxford Reference, the “term was first used in English in 1937 in a report of the Sino-Japanese conflict, and is apparently a translation of Chinese jiāotŭ”.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Vande Bharat express, consider the following statements:
1. The coaches of this train are indigenously manufactured at the Chennai Rail coach factory.
2. Vande Bharat Express can run upto maximum speed of 500 kmph on passenger service.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Yash Sen answered
Statement 1: The coaches of this train are indigenously manufactured at the Chennai Rail coach factory.
Statement 2: Vande Bharat Express can run up to a maximum speed of 500 kmph on passenger service.

Explanation:

Statement 1: The coaches of the Vande Bharat Express are indeed indigenously manufactured at the Chennai Rail coach factory. The Integral Coach Factory (ICF), Chennai, which is a production unit of Indian Railways, is responsible for manufacturing these coaches. The ICF has expertise in manufacturing coaches and has been producing various types of coaches for Indian Railways for several decades. The coaches of the Vande Bharat Express are built with state-of-the-art technology and modern amenities to provide a comfortable and safe travel experience to passengers. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The maximum speed of Vande Bharat Express is 180 kmph, not 500 kmph. The train is designed to run at a maximum speed of 180 kmph, making it one of the fastest trains in India. It is equipped with advanced features like aerodynamic nose design, automatic doors, and a regenerative braking system to ensure a smooth and efficient journey. However, it is important to note that the train has not been tested or certified to run at a speed of 500 kmph. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. The coaches of the Vande Bharat Express are manufactured at the Chennai Rail coach factory, but the train can only run at a maximum speed of 180 kmph, not 500 kmph.

With reference to the Human Development Index (HDI) 2021, consider the following statements:
1. India ranks 130 out of 191 countries in the Human Development Index (HDI) 2021.
2. It measures average achievement of a country in three basic dimensions of human development, a long and healthy life, education and a decent standard of living.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anuj Nair answered
Explanation:

Human Development Index (HDI) measures the average achievement of a country in three basic dimensions of human development, namely, a long and healthy life, education and a decent standard of living. It is a composite index that was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 1990.

India's Rank in HDI 2021:

According to the Human Development Index (HDI) 2021, India has been ranked 131 out of 191 countries. This is a one rank drop from India's position in the previous year's HDI rankings.

The Three Dimensions of Human Development:

As mentioned earlier, the Human Development Index measures the average achievement of a country in three basic dimensions of human development, which are as follows:

1. A long and healthy life: This dimension is measured by life expectancy at birth. In other words, it measures the number of years a newborn infant is expected to live.

2. Education: This dimension is measured by the mean years of schooling and the expected years of schooling. Mean years of schooling is the average number of years of education received by people aged 25 years and above. Expected years of schooling is the number of years of education a child of school-entry age can expect to receive if prevailing patterns of age-specific enrolment rates stay the same throughout the child's life.

3. Decent standard of living: This dimension is measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita. GNI is the sum of value added by all resident producers plus any product taxes (less subsidies) not included in the valuation of output plus net receipts of primary income (compensation of employees and property income) from abroad.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, the correct statement regarding the Human Development Index (HDI) 2021 is option 'B', which states that it measures the average achievement of a country in three basic dimensions of human development, namely, a long and healthy life, education and a decent standard of living. India's rank in HDI 2021 is 131 out of 191 countries.

With reference to the herSTART, consider the following statements:
1. It is the initiative of Gujarat University Startup and Entrepreneurship Council aims at supporting women-led startups.
2. The platform has been launched with the aim that it will not only boost innovation and start-up efforts of women entrepreneurs but also help them connect with government as well as private enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
President Draupadi Murmu launches 'herSTART' - a start-up platform of Gujarat University for women entrepreneurs
  • herSTART' is the initiative of Gujarat University Startup and Entrepreneurship Council aims at supporting women-led startups.
  • The platform has been launched with the aim that it will not only boost innovation and start-up efforts of women entrepreneurs but also help them connect with government as well as private enterprises.
  • Through this platform, free resources and training modules free will be provided to aspiring women entrepreneurs. It will build a digital community and also a digital publication to spread their success stories.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), consider the following statements:
1. It is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. Currently, NCDC has branches in all States with focus on one or few disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Union Health Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya virtually laid the foundation stone for National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) branches in 6 States namely Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh.
  • The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  • Currently, NCDC has eight branches in States with focus on one or few diseases, these will be repurposed and new branches are being added with the mandate for integrated disease surveillance activities, dealing with Anti-Microbial Resistance (AMR), multi-sectoral and entomological investigations etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the e-Rupee, consider the following statements:
1. e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless instrument for digital payment.
2. It is a QR code or SMS string-based e-Voucher.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will soon commence pilot launches of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), referred to as Digital Rupee (e₹), for specific use cases.
  • The RBI in its concept note detailed various aspects including the technological measures to operationalise its electronic currency, its underlying digital infrastructure and various technological options the central bank is exploring.
E-Rupee
  • e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless instrument for digital payment.
  • It is a QR code or SMS string-based e-Voucher, which is delivered to the mobile of the beneficiaries.
  • The users of this seamless one-time payment mechanism will be able to redeem the voucher without a card, digital payments app or internet banking access, at the service provider.
  • It has been developed by National Payments Corporation of India on its UPI platform, in collaboration with the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and National Health Authority.
Hence both statements are correct.

The India Cooling Action seeks to:
1. reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25% by 2037-38,
2. reduce refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by 2037-38,
3. Reduce cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by 2037-38,
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

India Cooling Action Plan

The India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP) was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2019. The plan aims to address the cooling requirements of the country in a sustainable and efficient manner. The ICAP has set specific targets that need to be achieved by 2037-38.

Targets of ICAP

The targets of ICAP are as follows:

1. Reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25% by 2037-38: The ICAP aims to reduce the cooling demand across various sectors like buildings, transport, and industry. This can be achieved by adopting energy-efficient cooling technologies, promoting the use of natural cooling systems, and implementing building codes and standards.

2. Reduce refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by 2037-38: The ICAP aims to reduce the demand for refrigerants that are harmful to the environment. This can be achieved by promoting the use of refrigerants with low global warming potential (GWP), implementing regulations to phase out the use of high-GWP refrigerants, and promoting the use of natural refrigerants.

3. Reduce cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by 2037-38: The ICAP aims to reduce the energy requirement for cooling by adopting energy-efficient cooling technologies, promoting the use of renewable energy for cooling, and implementing energy efficiency measures in buildings and industries.

Conclusion

The India Cooling Action Plan seeks to address the cooling requirements of the country in a sustainable and efficient manner. The plan has set specific targets that need to be achieved by 2037-38. By achieving these targets, India can reduce its carbon footprint and contribute towards global efforts to combat climate change.

With reference to International Monetary and Finance Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:
1. It advises and reports to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) Board of Governors.
2. It has 24 members, drawn from the governors of the Fund’s 190 member countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhijeet Shah answered
1. The first statement is true. The International Monetary and Finance Committee (IMFC) advises and reports to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) Board of Governors. The IMFC is responsible for providing guidance and direction to the IMF on issues related to international monetary and financial stability.

2. The second statement is false. The IMFC has 24 members, but they are not drawn from the governors of the Fund. Instead, the IMFC is composed of finance ministers or central bank governors of the member countries. Each member country appoints one representative to the IMFC. These representatives are usually high-ranking officials responsible for economic and financial matters in their respective countries.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U), consider the following statements:
1. In the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U) awards 2021, Kerala bagged the first position.
2. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

In the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U) awards 2021, Uttar Pradesh bagged the first position followed by Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu at second and third place, respectively. Gujarat won five special category awards.
  • Implementation: 
    • The Mission will be implemented during 2015-2022.
    • It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
  • Mission: To achieve the goal of Housing for All in Urban areas by 2022, when the Nation completes 75 years of its Independence.
  • Features: Under it, central assistance will be provided to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and other implementing agencies through States/UTs for:
    • In-situ Rehabilitation of existing slum dwellers using land as a resource through private participation
    • Credit Linked Subsidy
    • Affordable Housing in Partnership
    • Subsidy for Beneficiary-led individual house construction/enhancement.
  • Funding: Credit linked subsidy component will be implemented as a Central Sector Scheme while other three components will be implemented as Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
  • Eligibility: All statutory towns as per Census 2011 and towns notified subsequently would be eligible for coverage under the Mission.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), a demand promotion and conditional cash transfer scheme for promoting institutional delivery.
2. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides pregnant women a fixed day, free of cost assured and quality Antenatal Care on the 9th day of every month.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Patel answered
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) are two important schemes implemented by the Government of India to promote maternal healthcare and ensure safe deliveries. Let's analyze each statement to understand why option C is the correct answer.

1. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY):
- JSY is a demand promotion and conditional cash transfer scheme aimed at reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery.
- Under this scheme, eligible pregnant women are provided financial assistance to cover the cost of delivery and related expenses.
- The scheme encourages pregnant women to give birth in healthcare institutions rather than at home or in unhygienic conditions.
- By promoting institutional delivery, the scheme aims to ensure that women receive skilled medical care during childbirth, reducing the risk of complications and improving maternal and infant health outcomes.

2. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA):
- PMSMA is a program launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to provide free and quality antenatal care to pregnant women.
- Under this scheme, pregnant women are given a fixed day, which is the 9th day of every month, to avail of antenatal care services.
- The services provided under PMSMA include comprehensive health check-ups, blood tests, ultrasound examinations, and counseling sessions.
- The aim of PMSMA is to identify and manage any pregnancy-related complications at an early stage, ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes institutional delivery through conditional cash transfers, while Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides free and quality antenatal care on the 9th day of every month. These schemes are important initiatives by the government to improve maternal and infant health in the country.

With reference to the CyberKnife, consider the following statements:
1. The CyberKnife System is a non-invasive treatment for cancerous and non-cancerous tumors and other conditions where radiation therapy is indicated.
2. It can be an alternative to surgery or for patients who have inoperable or surgically complex tumors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
PM Modi recently lays the foundation stone of various healthcare facilities in Civil Hospital Asarwa, Ahmedabad. The new Civil Hospital Asarwa will be the first government hospital in the country where state-of-the-art technology like Cyber-Knife will be available.
  • The CyberKnife System is a non-invasive treatment for cancerous and non-cancerous tumors and other conditions where radiation therapy is indicated.
  • CyberKnife treatments are typically performed in 1 to 5 sessions. 
  • It is used to treat conditions throughout the body, including the prostate, lung, brain, spine, head and neck, liver, pancreas and kidney.
  • It can be an alternative to surgery or for patients who have inoperable or surgically complex tumors.
  • It offers several advantages to patients, including rapid relief from pain and other symptoms.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:
1. It amends the Citizenship Act, 1955.
2. It seeks to grant citizenship to a class of migrants belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh or Pakistan who entered India on or before December 31, 2014. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The Madurai Bench of Madras High Court recently observed that the principles of Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, could be applied to the Hindu Tamils of Sri Lanka.
  • The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 amends the Citizenship Act, 1955.
  • It seeks to grant citizenship to a class of migrants belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh or Pakistan who entered India on or before December 31, 2014. 
  • It exempts the members of the six communities from any criminal case under the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920. The two Acts specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and permits.
  • It was passed by Parliament on December 11, 2019 and the Act was notified within 24 hours on December 12.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) App, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
2. The NMMS App permits taking real time attendance of workers at Mahatma Gandhi NREGA worksites along with geo-tagged photograph.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Basak answered
Statement 1: It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Statement 2: The NMMS App permits taking real-time attendance of workers at Mahatma Gandhi NREGA worksites along with geo-tagged photographs.

The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Explanation:
The National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) App is an initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, and not NITI Aayog. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

The NMMS App is designed to facilitate the real-time monitoring of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) worksites. It allows for the recording of attendance of workers at these worksites along with geo-tagged photographs. This helps in ensuring transparency, accountability, and effective implementation of the MGNREGA program. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

The MGNREGA is a flagship program implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development to provide employment opportunities to rural households. It guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

The NMMS App is an important tool in the monitoring and evaluation of the MGNREGA program. It enables real-time tracking of workers' attendance and ensures that they are present at the designated worksites. The app also captures geo-tagged photographs, which provide visual evidence of the work being done and the conditions at the worksites.

By using the NMMS App, the government can monitor the progress of work, prevent leakages, and address any issues or challenges faced during the implementation of the MGNREGA program. It helps in improving the efficiency, transparency, and accountability of the program.

In conclusion, the NMMS App is an initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development and not NITI Aayog. It allows for real-time attendance tracking of workers at MGNREGA worksites along with geo-tagged photographs. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

With reference to the 'Agni Prime', consider the following statements:
1. The Agni Prime missile, the smallest and lightest among the entire Agni series of ballistic missiles.
2. The surface-to-air ballistic missile has a range of 5000 to 7000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Kumar answered
Statement 1: The Agni Prime missile is the smallest and lightest among the entire Agni series of ballistic missiles.
Statement 2: The surface-to-air ballistic missile has a range of 5000 to 7000 km.

Explanation:
Statement 1: The Agni Prime missile is the smallest and lightest among the entire Agni series of ballistic missiles.
This statement is correct. The Agni Prime missile is indeed the smallest and lightest missile in the Agni series. It is a new generation, advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles developed by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) in India. It is designed to be highly maneuverable and compact, making it suitable for deployment in various terrains and launch platforms.

Statement 2: The surface-to-air ballistic missile has a range of 5000 to 7000 km.
This statement is incorrect. The Agni Prime missile is not a surface-to-air ballistic missile, but a surface-to-surface ballistic missile. It is designed for long-range strikes on land targets. The actual range of the Agni Prime missile has not been officially disclosed, but it is expected to have a range of around 2000 to 2500 km, which falls within the Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) category.

Hence, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Summary:
The Agni Prime missile is the smallest and lightest among the Agni series of ballistic missiles. It is a surface-to-surface missile with an expected range of 2000 to 2500 km. The given statements are evaluated and the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

With reference to the Quality Council of India, consider the following statements:
1. Quality Council of India was set up in 2015.
2. QCI was established as a National body for Accreditation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The Quality Council of India is set to celebrate its Silver Jubilee at the Ambedkar International Centre in New Delhi
  • Quality Council of India was set up in 1997, jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), with Mr Ratan Tata as its first Chairman.
  • QCI was established as a National body for Accreditation. It is a non-profit organization registered under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860.
  • QCI has launched a marquee campaign–Gunvatta Se Atmanirbharta: India’s quality movement. The campaign aims to celebrate India’s quality hubs, create awareness about India’s landmark achievements and inform people about the many initiatives that India is embracing with an aim to enhance the quality of lives of all our citizens.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC), consider the following statements:
1. NMHC is to be developed as a first of its kind in the country dedicated to the legacy of Maritime Heritage of India, to showcase India’s rich and diverse maritime glory. 
2. It will be located in Kochi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Chavan answered
's rich maritime history and culture.
2. The NMHC will consist of a museum, research center, and a training center for maritime studies.
3. The complex will also have facilities for the preservation and restoration of maritime artifacts and vessels.
4. The NMHC will be located in Mumbai, due to its historical significance as a major port city.
5. The development of the NMHC is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Shipping and the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statements are true?

1. True: The statement accurately describes the purpose of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) as a first-of-its-kind complex dedicated to showcasing India's maritime heritage.
2. True: The statement accurately describes the components of the NMHC, which includes a museum, research center, and training center for maritime studies.
3. True: The statement accurately describes the inclusion of facilities for the preservation and restoration of maritime artifacts and vessels in the NMHC.
4. False: The location of the NMHC is not specified in the given information. It is not mentioned whether it will be located in Mumbai or any other city.
5. True: The statement accurately describes the collaborative effort between the Ministry of Shipping and the Ministry of Culture in the development of the NMHC.

With reference to the District Legal Services Authorities, consider the following statements:
1. The first-ever national-level meet of District Legal Services Authorities (DLSAs) is being organized at Vigyan Bhawan by National Legal Services Authority.
2. They are headed by the Chief Justice of respective High Courts who acts as Chairman of the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will address the inaugural session of the first All India District Legal Services Authorities Meet in New Delhi on July 30, 2022.
  • The first-ever national-level meet of District Legal Services Authorities (DLSAs) is being organized at Vigyan Bhawan by National Legal Services Authority. The meeting will deliberate on the creation of an integrated procedure to bring homogeneity and synchronization across DLSAs.
  • There are a total of 676 District Legal Services Authorities in the country. They are headed by the District Judge who acts as Chairman of the authority.
  • Through DLSAs and State Legal Services Authorities, various legal aid and awareness programs are implemented by National Legal Services Authority. The DLSAs also contribute towards reducing the burden on courts by regulating the Lok Adalats conducted by NALSA.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Ethanol Blending with Petrol (EBP) Programme, consider the following statements:
1. The EBP programme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2003, to promote the use of alternative and environment friendly fuels.
2. The Government has 10% blending target for mixing ethanol with petrol by 2022 & 20% blending target by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
India emerges as the world’s largest producer and consumer of sugar and world’s 2nd largest exporter of sugar.
  • In Sugar Season (Oct-Sep) 2021-22, a record of more than 5000 Lakh Metric Tons (LMT) sugarcane was produced in the country. Out of this, 35 LMT sugar was diverted to ethanol production and 359 LMT sugar was produced by sugar mills.
  • Ethanol production capacity of molasses/sugar-based distilleries has increased to 605 crore litres per annum and the progress is still continuing to meet targets of 20% blending by 2025 under Ethanol Blending with Petrol (EBP) Programme.
Ethanol Blending with Petrol (EBP) Programme
  • The EBP programme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2003, to promote the use of alternative and environment friendly fuels.
  • The Government has 10% blending target for mixing ethanol with petrol by 2022 & 20% blending target by 2030. However, considering the encouraging performance, due to various interventions made by the Government since 2014, the target of 20% ethanol blending was advanced from 2030 to 2025-26.
Hence both statements are correct.

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