All questions of October 2022 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC).
  1. Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a government-backed project aimed at enabling small merchants in parts of India to access processes and technologies that are typically deployed by large e-commerce platforms.
  2. It is an initiative aimed at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks.
  3. It is the initiative of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a government-backed project aimed at enabling small merchants and mom-and-pop stores in parts of the country to access processes and technologies that are typically deployed by large e-commerce platforms such as Amazon and Flipkart.
It is an initiative aimed at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform. It is being developed as a counter to the current stranglehold of two big players in the Indian e-commerce market, which is largely dictated by Amazon and Walmart-owned Flipkart. In May this year, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) went live with a test run of ONDC in cities like Delhi-NCR, Bengaluru, Coimbatore, Bhopal, and Shillong where it plans to onboard 150 sellers.
The ONDC platform lies in the middle of the interfaces hosting the buyers and the sellers.

With reference to Sultanpur National Park, Thol Wildlife Sanctuary and Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements.
  1. All of them are birding sites
  2. All of them are Ramsar sites
  3. All of them are naturally formed wetlands
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shilpa Yadav answered
Birding sites and Ramsar Sites in India

Sultanpur National Park:

- Sultanpur National Park is a bird sanctuary located in Gurgaon, Haryana.
- It is spread over an area of 1.43 square kilometers and is home to over 250 species of birds.
- The park was declared a National Park in 1991 and a Ramsar site in 2020.
- It is a popular destination for birdwatchers and nature lovers, especially during the winter months when migratory birds flock to the park.

Thol Wildlife Sanctuary:

- Thol Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Mehsana district of Gujarat.
- It is spread over an area of 7.19 square kilometers and is home to over 150 species of birds.
- Thol lake, which is the main attraction of the sanctuary, is a naturally formed wetland and is a breeding ground for several bird species.
- The sanctuary was declared a Ramsar site in 2021.

Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary:

- Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Jhajjar district of Haryana.
- It is spread over an area of 690 hectares and is home to over 250 species of birds.
- The sanctuary is situated around Bhindawas Lake, which is a natural wetland formed by the Jui dam.
- It is a popular birding destination and was declared a Ramsar site in 2021.

Conclusion:

- From the above information, we can conclude that all three sites - Sultanpur National Park, Thol Wildlife Sanctuary, and Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary - are birding sites.
- However, only Sultanpur National Park and Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary are Ramsar sites.
- All three sites have naturally formed wetlands, which provide a habitat for several bird species.

Consider the following statements regarding Outer Space Treaty.
  1. Outer Space Treaty is a multilateral treaty drafted outside the auspices of the United Nations and forms the basis of international space law.
  2. According to the treaty, Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States.
  3. States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in outer space.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The Outer Space Treaty, formally the Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, is a multilateral treaty that forms the basis of international space law. Negotiated and drafted under the auspices of the United Nations.
Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967.
The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:
  • Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
  • Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
  • Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;
  • States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;

Consider the following statements regarding National E-Governance Services Ltd (NeSL).
  1. NeSL is India’s first Information Utility that has been set up by leading banks and public institutions.
  2. It is incorporated as a union government company.
  3. It is registered with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under the aegis of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).
  4. NeSL works towards time-bound resolution by providing verified information to creditors and to Adjudicating Authorities that do not require further authentication.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct? 
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
NeSL is India’s first Information Utility and is registered with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under the aegis of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC). The company has been set up by leading banks and public institutions and is incorporated as a union government company. The primary role of NeSL is to serve as a repository of legal evidence holding the information pertaining to any debt/claim, as submitted by the financial or operational creditor and verified and authenticated by the parties to the debt.
NeSL works towards:
  • Time-bound resolution by providing verified information to creditors and to Adjudicating Authorities that do not require further authentication.
  • Default intimation to Creditors linked to a debtor when any creditor files a default against a debtor
  • Mitigation of information asymmetry between parties to a debt
  • Superior credit monitoring by creditors
  • An agreed statement of outstanding balance between parties to a debt
  • Facilitate all stakeholders of the IBC ecosystem by leveraging Information Technology to achieve objective of code

Consider the following statements regarding “Neo banks” sometimes seen in news.
  1. Neo banks are financial institutions with only an online presence and function digitally.
  2. Neo banks have to apply for a banking license with RBI.
  3. Neo banks offer banking services like savings accounts, small loans and debit cards.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Partho Goyal answered
The importance of sleep:

1. Sleep is essential for proper brain function and cognitive performance. During sleep, the brain processes information, consolidates memories, and restores energy levels.

2. Lack of sleep can lead to a variety of negative effects, including impaired concentration and decision-making abilities, decreased productivity, and increased risk of accidents and errors.

3. Adequate sleep is crucial for maintaining physical health. It supports immune function, hormone regulation, and tissue repair.

4. Chronic sleep deprivation has been linked to an increased risk of developing various health conditions, such as obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and mental health disorders.

5. Sleep also plays a role in regulating mood and emotional well-being. Insufficient sleep can contribute to irritability, mood swings, and increased susceptibility to stress and anxiety.

Overall, getting enough quality sleep is essential for overall health, cognitive function, and emotional well-being. It is important to prioritize sleep and establish healthy sleep habits to optimize overall well-being.

Consider the following statements regarding International Criminal Court (ICC).
  1. It is commonly referred to as World Court.
  2. It does not have the capacity to arrest suspects of war crimes.
  3. It is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide and crimes against humanity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2 only 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
It does not have the capacity to arrest suspects
and depends on member states for their cooperation.
The International Court of Justice, also known as the World Court, is the main judicial organ of the UN.

Consider the following statements regarding Chola Kingdom.
  1. The Brihadeeswara temple of Thanjavur, was built by the Cholas.
  2. The famous bronze Nataraja idol was commissioned by Cholas.
  3. One of the biggest setbacks for the Chola dynasty was its lack of naval force.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
One of the biggest achievements of the Chola dynasty was its naval power, allowing them to go as far as Malaysia and the Sumatra islands of Indonesia in their conquests.
The grand Brihadeeswara temple of Thanjavur, built by the Cholas, was the largest building in India in that period. Additionally, artworks and sculptures were commissioned by Chola kings and queens, including the famous bronze Nataraja idols. Earlier, the Rashtrakutas had built the Kailasanatha temple in Maharashtra’s Aurangabad — the largest monolith structure (carved from a single rock) of its time.

United Nations Global Compact is associated with
  • a)
    Management of global commons 
  • b)
    Refugee Crisis 
  • c)
    Prevention of ocean pollution by ships 
  • d)
    Encourage businesses to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Shah answered
The correct answer is option 'D', which states that the United Nations Global Compact encourages businesses to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies.

The United Nations Global Compact (UNGC) is a voluntary initiative that aims to mobilize businesses and organizations to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies and practices. It was launched in 2000 by then-UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan and is the largest corporate sustainability initiative in the world, with over 13,000 participants from more than 170 countries.

The UNGC operates on the principle that businesses have a crucial role to play in addressing global challenges such as climate change, poverty, inequality, and human rights abuses. By committing to the ten principles of the UNGC, businesses pledge to align their strategies and operations with these principles and to take actions that advance sustainable development.

The ten principles of the UNGC are derived from international agreements, including the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Labour Organization's Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work, the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, and the United Nations Convention Against Corruption. These principles cover a wide range of areas, including human rights, labor rights, environmental sustainability, and anti-corruption.

By joining the UNGC, businesses commit to integrating these principles into their strategies and operations and to reporting on their progress. They are also encouraged to take action in support of the UN's Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), a set of 17 global goals aimed at addressing the world's most pressing social, economic, and environmental challenges by 2030.

The UNGC provides a platform for businesses to share best practices, learn from each other, and collaborate on initiatives that contribute to sustainable development. It also offers guidance and resources to help businesses implement the ten principles and measure their impact. Through its various initiatives and programs, the UNGC seeks to foster a global network of businesses that are committed to making a positive contribution to society and the environment.

In summary, the United Nations Global Compact encourages businesses to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies by providing a platform for collaboration, sharing best practices, and offering guidance and resources. By committing to the ten principles of the UNGC, businesses can contribute to the achievement of the UN's Sustainable Development Goals and help address global challenges.

Consider the following statements regarding Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
  1. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions under the administrative control of Union Ministry of Science & Technology.
  2. It is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.
  3. GEAC has representation from Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
  • The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials.
  • GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

Meghadūta is a lyric poem composed by
  • a)
    Brahmagupta 
  • b)
    Bhaskaracharya 
  • c)
    Kalidasa 
  • d)
    Chandragupta
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The Mahakal temple finds a mention in several ancient Indian poetic texts. In the early part of the Meghadūta composed in the 4th century, Kalidasa gives a description of the Mahakal temple. It is described as one with a stone foundation, with the ceiling on wooden pillars. There would be no shikharas or spires on the temples prior to the Gupta period.
The city of Ujjain was also one of the primary centres of learning for Hindu scriptures, called Avantika in the 6th and 7th centuries BC. Later, astronomers and mathematicians such as Brahmagupta and Bhaskaracharya made Ujjain their home.

Consider the following pairs of Blue Flag certified beaches and their location.
  1. Kadmat beach: Puducherry
  2. Kovalam: Tamil Nadu
  3. Radhanagar Swarajdeep: Andaman and Nicobar
  4. Rushikonda: Odisha
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
  • a)
    1, 2, 4 
  • b)
    2, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Megha Kumar answered
The correct pairs of Blue Flag certified beaches and their locations are option 'C', which includes Kovalam in Tamil Nadu and Radhanagar Swarajdeep in Andaman and Nicobar.

Let's break down the options and analyze each pair:

a) 1, 2, 4:
- Kadmat beach is listed as being in Puducherry, which is incorrect. Kadmat beach is actually located in the Lakshadweep Islands, not in Puducherry.
- Kovalam is indeed a Blue Flag certified beach, but it is located in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu.
- Radhanagar Swarajdeep is also a Blue Flag certified beach, but it is located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, not Odisha.

b) 2, 3, 4:
- Kovalam is a Blue Flag certified beach, but it is not in Tamil Nadu as mentioned in this option.
- Radhanagar Swarajdeep is correctly listed as being in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
- Rushikonda is a popular beach in Visakhapatnam, which is in Andhra Pradesh, not Odisha.

c) 2, 3:
- Kovalam is a Blue Flag certified beach and it is located in Kerala, making this pair correct.
- Radhanagar Swarajdeep is also a Blue Flag certified beach and it is located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, making this pair correct.

d) 1, 3, 4:
- Kadmat beach is listed as being in Puducherry, which is incorrect. Kadmat beach is actually located in the Lakshadweep Islands, not in Puducherry.
- Radhanagar Swarajdeep is a Blue Flag certified beach, but it is not located in Odisha as mentioned in this option. It is situated in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
- Rushikonda is a popular beach in Visakhapatnam, which is in Andhra Pradesh, not Odisha.

Therefore, the correct pairs of Blue Flag certified beaches and their locations are option 'C', which includes Kovalam in Tamil Nadu and Radhanagar Swarajdeep in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Consider the following statements regarding Blue Flag certification.
  1. The Blue Flag is an exclusive eco-label or certification that is given to coastal locations around the world as a badge of environmental honour.
  2. The Blue Flag programme is run by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in association with International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  3. It is awarded for beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • The Blue Flag is an exclusive eco-label or certification that is given to coastal locations around the world as a badge of environmental honour. The Blue Flag programme is run by the Copenhagen, Denmark-headquartered Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), a nonprofit which, through its work, contributes to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of the United Nations.
  • According to the FEE, “the iconic Blue Flag is one of the world’s most recognised voluntary awards for beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators. In order to qualify for the Blue Flag, a series of stringent environmental, educational, safety, and accessibility criteria must be met and maintained.”
  • The Blue Flag programme started in 1987, initially in Europe. Certification is awarded annually. A total 5,042 beaches, marinas, and tourism boats in 48 countries have been awarded the label so far. A marina is a small harbour where mainly pleasure boats and yachts dock.
  • The certification is given by an international jury comprising members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO), and International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN), besides FEE.

Consider the following statements regarding the term ‘pleasure of the Governor’.
  1. The Governor can have his pleasure as long as the government enjoys majority in the House.
  2. The Governor can withdraw his pleasure only when the government loses majority but refuses to quit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Saha answered
"algorithm":

1. An algorithm is a step-by-step procedure for solving a problem or accomplishing a task.

2. Algorithms can be expressed in natural language, pseudocode, or programming language.

3. Algorithms can be used in a variety of fields, including computer science, mathematics, and management.

4. The efficiency of an algorithm is determined by its speed and memory usage.

5. Algorithms can be classified as deterministic or non-deterministic.

6. The study of algorithms is an important part of computer science.

7. The development of algorithms is an iterative process that involves testing and refining.

8. Algorithms can be used to analyze data, make predictions, and automate tasks.

9. The effectiveness of an algorithm depends on the quality and accuracy of its inputs.

10. Algorithms can be designed to solve specific problems or to be general-purpose.

Consider the following statements regarding Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) mission.
  1. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has renamed the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle(PSLV) as Launch Vehicle Mark-III.
  2. It does not have a fixed orbit and can go anywhere—GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon and sun.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Sarkar answered
The first statement is incorrect. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has not renamed the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) as Launch Vehicle Mark-III. PSLV and LVM3 are two different launch vehicles developed by ISRO.

The second statement is also incorrect. Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) does have a fixed orbit. It is primarily designed for launching heavy satellites into geostationary transfer orbit (GTO) or for interplanetary missions.

Which of the following were the port towns of the Indus Valley Civilization?
  1. Balakot
  2. Khirasa
  3. Kuntasi
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Port Towns of the Indus Valley Civilization

The Indus Valley Civilization, also known as the Harappan Civilization, was one of the earliest urban civilizations in the world, flourishing from approximately 2600 BCE to 1900 BCE. It was located in the northwestern region of the Indian subcontinent, primarily in present-day Pakistan and western India.

During the height of the Indus Valley Civilization, there were several port towns that played a crucial role in trade and commerce. These port towns were strategically located along the major rivers and trade routes, providing access to the Arabian Sea and facilitating maritime trade with other regions.

The port towns of the Indus Valley Civilization were:

1. Balakot: Balakot was an important port town situated on the western bank of the Indus River in present-day Pakistan. It served as a key trading hub, connecting the Harappan cities to the Arabian Sea. Excavations at Balakot have revealed evidence of a well-planned urban settlement with advanced drainage systems and dock facilities.

2. Khirasara: Khirasara, located in present-day Gujarat, India, was another significant port town of the Indus Valley Civilization. It was situated near the Bhadar River, which provided access to the Gulf of Kutch. Archaeological excavations at Khirasara have uncovered remnants of a dockyard and evidence of maritime trade activities.

3. Kuntasi: Kuntasi, also located in present-day Gujarat, was a coastal town that served as a major port during the Indus Valley Civilization. It was situated near the mouth of the Sabarmati River, providing access to the Gulf of Khambhat. Excavations at Kuntasi have revealed traces of a dockyard and evidence of trade with Mesopotamia.

All three of these port towns played a crucial role in the maritime trade network of the Indus Valley Civilization. They facilitated the transportation of goods, including pottery, beads, metals, and agricultural produce, to distant regions. The presence of well-developed dockyards and advanced urban planning in these port towns indicates the importance of trade and commerce in the Indus Valley Civilization.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option D (1, 2, 3), as Balakot, Khirasara, and Kuntasi were all port towns of the Indus Valley Civilization. These towns played a vital role in connecting the Harappan cities to the Arabian Sea and facilitating maritime trade with other regions.

Consider the following statements regarding Share Buyback
  1. It is a mechanism through which a listed company buys back shares from the market
  2. Both Institutional investors and retail shareholders take part in a buy back offer
  3. It can be done only through open market purchases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
A buyback is a mechanism through which a listed company buys back shares from the market.
It can be done either through open market purchases or through the tender offer route.
Under the open market mechanism, the company buys back the shares from the secondary market while under tender offer, shareholders can tender their shares during the buyback offer. In a tender offer, the company fixes a fixed price for the buyback and investors can tender their shares by placing a bid with the broker.
Both Institutional investors and retail shareholders take part in a buy back offer.

Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act.
  1. The law was enacted during the Economic Reforms in 1991.
  2. The Act prohibits receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists and media broadcast companies and organisations of a political nature.
  3. Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for one year and NGOs have to apply for renewal before the expiry of registration.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) is a law enacted in India to regulate the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions or funds by individuals, associations, and companies. It was enacted in 2010 and has been amended several times since then.

Statement 1: The law was enacted during the Economic Reforms in 1991.
This statement is incorrect. The FCRA was enacted in 2010, not during the Economic Reforms in 1991. The law was introduced to regulate the receipt and utilization of foreign contributions, and it replaced the earlier FCRA of 1976.

Statement 2: The Act prohibits receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists and media broadcast companies and organisations of a political nature.
This statement is correct. The FCRA prohibits candidates for elections, journalists, media broadcast companies, and organizations of a political nature from receiving foreign funds. The aim is to prevent foreign interference in the political process and maintain the integrity of elections and media organizations.

Statement 3: Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for one year and NGOs have to apply for renewal before the expiry of registration.
This statement is incorrect. Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for a period of five years, not one year. NGOs are required to apply for renewal within six months before the expiry of their registration to ensure continuity of their foreign funding.

Therefore, the correct statements are:
2. The Act prohibits receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists and media broadcast companies, and organisations of a political nature.

Consider the following statements regarding International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC).
  1. The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system.
  2. The size and the composition of the IMFC mirrors that of the Executive Board of IMF.
  3. The IMFC operates by consensus, including on the selection of its chair.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Saini answered
Statement 1: The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system.
This statement is correct. The International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) is a committee of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and its main role is to provide advice and report to the IMF Board of Governors on matters related to the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system. The IMFC discusses global economic issues and provides guidance on policies that can help promote global economic stability.

Statement 2: The size and the composition of the IMFC mirrors that of the Executive Board of IMF.
This statement is correct. The IMFC consists of 24 members who are typically finance ministers or central bank governors of member countries or groups of countries. The size and composition of the IMFC are designed to mirror that of the Executive Board of the IMF, which is responsible for the day-to-day management of the IMF's operations. This ensures that the IMFC represents a diverse range of member countries and provides a platform for discussions on global economic issues.

Statement 3: The IMFC operates by consensus, including on the selection of its chair.
This statement is correct. The IMFC operates by consensus, which means that decisions are made after all members agree. This includes the selection of the chair of the IMFC. The chair is typically appointed for a period of two years and represents one of the member countries or groups of countries. The chair plays a crucial role in facilitating discussions and ensuring that the IMFC operates effectively.

Therefore, all three statements are correct. The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors, its size and composition mirror that of the Executive Board of the IMF, and it operates by consensus, including on the selection of its chair.

Consider the following about the Vembanad lake.
  1. Vembanad is the longest lake in India.
  2. It forms the Kuttanad wetland topography of Kerala.
  3. The entire lake is above the sea level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Saikat Nair answered


Explanation:

1. Vembanad is the longest lake in India:
- The statement is correct as Vembanad lake is indeed the longest lake in India, stretching along the Kerala coast.

2. It forms the Kuttanad wetland topography of Kerala:
- This statement is also correct as Vembanad lake plays a significant role in shaping the Kuttanad wetland, which is known as the "Rice Bowl of Kerala" due to its extensive paddy fields.

3. The entire lake is above the sea level:
- This statement is incorrect as part of Vembanad lake is actually below sea level, making it a unique ecosystem that is influenced by both freshwater and saline water.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making option 'A' the correct answer.

Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC) is an agency formed at a village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests (RF). Which of the following are the functions of Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC)?
  1. Selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest
  2. Ensure sustainable management of forest resources
  3. Restore watershed capability in catchment areas
  4. Assure employment opportunities to the tribal communities.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2, 3, 4.

Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC) is an agency formed at the village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests (RF). JFMC plays a crucial role in the sustainable management of forest resources and the involvement of local communities in forest conservation and development. The functions of the Joint Forest Management Committee include:

1. Selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest:
JFMC is responsible for identifying and selecting suitable plant species for afforestation and reforestation activities. This includes choosing tree species that are indigenous to the region and have ecological and economic benefits.

2. Ensuring sustainable management of forest resources:
JFMC works towards the conservation and sustainable utilization of forest resources. They develop and implement plans for the protection, regeneration, and sustainable harvesting of forest products. This involves promoting sustainable practices such as controlled grazing, regulated extraction of non-timber forest products, and prevention of illegal activities like poaching and illicit felling.

3. Restoring watershed capability in catchment areas:
JFMC plays a crucial role in restoring and maintaining the watershed capabilities of forested catchment areas. They undertake activities like soil and water conservation measures, construction of check dams, contour trenches, and other structural interventions to prevent soil erosion and ensure the availability of water resources.

4. Assuring employment opportunities to tribal communities:
JFMC aims to provide employment opportunities to local tribal communities through various forest-related activities. They facilitate the engagement of local communities in activities like afforestation, forest protection, seed collection, and nursery management. This not only provides livelihood options but also strengthens the bond between the community and the forest.

By performing these functions, JFMCs contribute to the sustainable management of forests, conservation of biodiversity, and the socio-economic development of local communities. They promote the active participation of local communities in decision-making processes, ensuring the long-term conservation and sustainable use of forest resources.

Gaza strip, often seen in the news, shares border with which of the following countries?
  1. Syria
  2. Egypt
  3. Jordan
  4. Israel
Select the correct answer code: 
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    2, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Gaza Strip is a small Palestinian territory located on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea. It is often in the news due to ongoing conflicts and political tensions in the region. The Gaza Strip shares its border with two countries: Egypt and Israel.

1. Egypt:
- The southern border of the Gaza Strip is shared with Egypt.
- The border crossing point between the Gaza Strip and Egypt is known as the Rafah Border Crossing.
- The crossing is controlled by both the Palestinian Authority and the Egyptian government.
- The Rafah Border Crossing is the primary route for the movement of people and goods between the Gaza Strip and Egypt.

2. Israel:
- The remaining borders of the Gaza Strip are shared with Israel.
- The border between the Gaza Strip and Israel is heavily fortified and controlled by the Israeli military.
- Israel maintains strict control over the movement of people and goods in and out of the Gaza Strip.
- There are several crossing points along the border, including the Erez Crossing for pedestrians and the Kerem Shalom Crossing for goods.
- The Israeli government imposes restrictions on the movement of people and goods in response to security concerns.

It is important to note that the Gaza Strip is a geographically isolated territory, surrounded by Israel and the Mediterranean Sea. The border restrictions and ongoing conflicts in the region have had a significant impact on the daily lives of the people living in the Gaza Strip.

In conclusion, the Gaza Strip shares its border with Egypt and Israel.

MARPOL, sometimes seen in news is related to 
  • a)
    Pollution through E-Waste 
  • b)
    River Pollution 
  • c)
    Pollution through Airplanes 
  • d)
    Pollution from Ships
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sinjini Desai answered
MARPOL, short for the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships, is a significant international treaty that aims to prevent and minimize pollution caused by ships. It was adopted in 1973 and has been updated several times since then. The correct answer to the question is option D, as MARPOL specifically addresses pollution from ships.

Ships, especially large commercial vessels, can have a detrimental impact on the environment due to various types of pollution they generate. MARPOL sets international standards and regulations to control and reduce this pollution. Let's explore the key aspects of MARPOL in detail:

1. Overview of MARPOL:
- MARPOL is a comprehensive international treaty that covers pollution from ships, including oil, chemicals, harmful substances in packaged form, sewage, garbage, and air emissions.
- The convention is divided into six annexes, each addressing a specific type of pollution. These annexes are regularly updated and amended to incorporate new technologies and best practices.

2. Six Annexes of MARPOL:
a) Annex I - Oil Pollution:
- This annex aims to prevent oil pollution from ships by setting regulations for the prevention of oil spills, discharge of oily mixtures, and the design and equipment of oil tankers.
- It includes requirements for oil discharge monitoring and control systems, oil filtering equipment, and the use of oil reception facilities in ports.

b) Annex II - Noxious Liquid Substances:
- This annex focuses on the control of pollution caused by the transportation of noxious liquid substances in bulk.
- It provides criteria for the categorization, handling, and discharge of such substances, as well as tank cleaning procedures.

c) Annex III - Harmful Substances in Packaged Form:
- This annex deals with the packaging, labeling, and transport of harmful substances in packaged form.
- It aims to prevent pollution from these substances and ensures their safe and environmentally sound handling and disposal.

d) Annex IV - Sewage Pollution:
- Annex IV addresses the prevention of pollution from sewage and sets standards for the treatment and discharge of sewage from ships.
- It requires ships to have sewage treatment plants or holding tanks to prevent the discharge of untreated sewage into the sea.

e) Annex V - Garbage Pollution:
- This annex aims to minimize and regulate the disposal of garbage from ships, including plastics, food waste, paper, and fishing gear.
- It prohibits the dumping of most types of garbage at sea and mandates the use of onboard garbage management plans.

f) Annex VI - Air Pollution from Ships:
- Annex VI focuses on reducing air pollution caused by ships by regulating emissions of sulfur oxides (SOx), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and other harmful pollutants.
- It sets limits on emissions, introduces emission control areas (ECAs), and encourages the use of cleaner fuels and technologies.

3. Enforcement and Compliance:
- MARPOL is enforced by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- IMO member states are responsible for implementing and enforcing the regulations within their territorial waters and ports.
- Ships are required to carry various certificates and documents to demonstrate compliance with MARPOL regulations.

4. Significance and Global Adoption:
- MARPOL is one of the most important international conventions addressing maritime pollution.
- It has been ratified by over 150 countries, representing a significant portion of the global shipping industry.
- The convention

Consider the following statements regarding World Trade Organization (WTO).
  1. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
  2. It officially commenced operations on 1 January 1995, under the Marrakesh Agreement.
  3. After WTO came in to existence, General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) ceased to exist.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Uday Roy answered
The correct answer is option 'C': 1, 2.

Explanation:

1. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.

The first statement is correct. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is indeed the only global international organization that deals with the rules of trade between nations. It provides a forum for member countries to negotiate and settle trade disputes, and it aims to promote and facilitate international trade by ensuring the smooth flow of goods, services, and intellectual property across borders.

2. It officially commenced operations on 1 January 1995, under the Marrakesh Agreement.

The second statement is also correct. The WTO officially began its operations on 1 January 1995, following the ratification of the Marrakesh Agreement. The agreement was adopted in Marrakesh, Morocco, in April 1994, and it established the legal framework for the WTO and its rules-based system of global trade.

3. After the WTO came into existence, the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) ceased to exist.

The third statement is incorrect. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) did not cease to exist after the establishment of the WTO. Instead, the WTO is built upon the principles and rules of GATT, which was the predecessor to the WTO. GATT was established in 1947 and served as the framework for international trade negotiations and the reduction of trade barriers among member countries. When the WTO was created, it incorporated and expanded upon the GATT principles, but GATT still exists as an integral part of the WTO.

In conclusion, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1, 2.

The report, titled “Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2022: Correcting Course”, recently in news is released by 
  • a)
    United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) 
  • b)
    World Bank 
  • c)
    Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) 
  • d)
    European Union (EU)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Atharva Joshi answered
"Global Trends in Renewable Energy Investment 2021", highlights the continued growth of renewable energy investment despite the challenges posed by the COVID-19 pandemic. The report analyzes investment trends in various renewable energy technologies, including solar, wind, hydro, and bioenergy, as well as energy storage and electric vehicles. It also examines the role of policy and government support in driving investment in renewable energy and the potential for further growth in the sector. The report is produced annually by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the Frankfurt School-UNEP Collaborating Centre, and BloombergNEF.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) governs the appointment of members of the higher judiciary in India.
  2. The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) says that the Union Minister of Law and Justice would seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
  3. Article 124 of the Constitution contains the provisions related to Memorandum of Procedure (MoP).
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
  • The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) that governs the appointment of members of the higher judiciary says that the “Union Minister of Law, Justice…would, at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India”.
  • As per the process laid down in the MoP, “after receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of Law, Justice…will put up the recommendation to the Prime Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment”.
  • Article 124(1) of the Constitution says that “there shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India…and…other Judges”; Article 124(2) lays down that “every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal…”.
  • The MoP says that the “appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office”.
  • Even before the MoP was agreed upon, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court after the CJI (in terms of the years served) was by convention elevated to the top post. This convention was famously discarded by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, whose government recommended the appointment of Justice A N Ray as CJI in 1973 superseding three more senior judges, Justices J M Shelat, K S Hegde, and A N Grover.
  • The MoP is the playbook agreed upon by the government and the judiciary on the appointment of judges. It is a crucial document — because the Collegium system of appointing judges is a judicial innovation that is not mandated through legislation or text of the Constitution.
  • The MoP has evolved as the standard based on three decisions of the Supreme Court, known as the First Judges Case (1981), Second Judges Case (1993) and the Third Judges Case (1998). These three judgments form the basis of a peer selection process for the appointment of judges.

Consider the following statements regarding Food Corporation of India (FCI).
  1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture& Farmers Welfare.
  2. It maintains a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security.
  3. It regulates market price to provide food grains to consumers at a reliable price.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Reddy answered
1. FCI was established in 1965 to ensure food security through effective price support operations.
2. FCI is responsible for procuring and distributing food grains such as rice and wheat across the country.
3. The main objective of FCI is to stabilize prices of food grains and ensure their availability to the public.
4. FCI operates a network of storage facilities known as godowns to store the procured food grains.
5. FCI also plays a crucial role in implementing the government's food security and welfare schemes.

All of the above statements are true.

Which of the following countries share their border with Ukraine?
  1. Turkey
  2. Bulgaria
  3. Slovakia
  4. Romania.
  5. Belarus
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    3, 4, 5 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4, 5 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranab Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'A' which includes countries 3, 4, and 5, namely Slovakia, Romania, and Belarus.

Here is an explanation of the answer:

1. Turkey: Turkey does not share a border with Ukraine. It is located to the south of Ukraine and is separated by the Black Sea.

2. Bulgaria: Bulgaria does not share a border with Ukraine either. It is located to the southwest of Ukraine and is separated by Romania and Moldova.

3. Slovakia: Slovakia shares a border with Ukraine. The two countries are located in Central Europe and have a shared border in the Carpathian Mountains region.

4. Romania: Romania also shares a border with Ukraine. The border between the two countries extends for several hundred kilometers and passes through the Carpathian Mountains.

5. Belarus: Belarus shares a significant border with Ukraine. The border between the two countries is one of the longest land borders for Ukraine and stretches for over 1,000 kilometers.

In summary, Ukraine shares its borders with Slovakia, Romania, and Belarus, but not with Turkey or Bulgaria. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' which includes countries 3, 4, and 5.

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India.
  1. Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) and Select Committees are usually chaired by ruling party MPs, and are disbanded after they have submitted their report.
  2. Committee meetings are independent of Parliament’s calendar.
  3. There are equal number of Departmentally Related Standing Committees for Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and are headed by members of these respective Houses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arshiya Khanna answered
And are not subject to its rules and proceedings.

Both statements are incorrect.

Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) and Select Committees can be chaired by MPs from any party, not necessarily from the ruling party. The chairperson is usually chosen by the Speaker or Chairman of the House.

Committee meetings are not independent of Parliament. They are conducted within the framework of parliamentary rules and proceedings. The committee members are also MPs who are appointed by the Speaker or Chairman of the House. The committees function as an extension of Parliament and their reports are submitted to Parliament for further consideration and action.

The Government established Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) with an objective to
  1. Implement the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Electronic Trading platform
  2. Facilitate agri-business ventures by catalysing private investment
  3. Help the formation and growth of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs)
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Sarkar answered
Development Agency (SFDA) in order to provide support and assistance to small farmers. The SFDA aims to improve the productivity and profitability of small farmers through various programs and initiatives.

One of the main objectives of the SFDA is to provide small farmers with access to financial resources. The agency offers low-interest loans and grants to help small farmers invest in their farms and purchase necessary equipment and supplies. This financial support is crucial for small farmers who often struggle to secure funding from traditional sources such as banks.

In addition to financial support, the SFDA also provides technical assistance and training to small farmers. The agency organizes workshops and training programs on various topics such as crop cultivation techniques, livestock management, and sustainable farming practices. These training programs help small farmers improve their skills and knowledge, ultimately leading to increased productivity and profitability.

Another important role of the SFDA is to facilitate market access for small farmers. The agency assists small farmers in finding buyers for their products and helps them negotiate fair prices. The SFDA also works to connect small farmers with larger agricultural companies and organizations, creating opportunities for partnerships and collaborations.

The SFDA also plays a role in advocating for the rights and interests of small farmers. The agency works closely with government officials and policymakers to ensure that small farmers are represented in decision-making processes. The SFDA lobbies for policies and regulations that support small farmers and address their specific needs and challenges.

Overall, the establishment of the SFDA by the Government is a significant step towards supporting and empowering small farmers. By providing financial support, technical assistance, and market access, the agency is helping small farmers improve their livelihoods and contribute to the country's agricultural sector.

Consider the following statements regarding Sloth Bear.
  1. Sloth bears are endemic to the Indian sub-continent and 90% of the species population is found in India.
  2. Wildlife SOS India, is an organisation involved in sloth bear conservation and protection for over two decades.
  3. The species has the same level of protection as tigers, rhinos and elephants in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • The first World Sloth Bear Day was observed on October 12, 2022 to generate awareness and strengthen conservation efforts around the unique bear species endemic to the Indian subcontinent. Classified as `Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List, sloth bears are endemic to the Indian sub-continent and 90% of the species population is found in India.
  • A proposal for observing the World Sloth Bear Day was mooted by Wildlife SOS India, an organisation involved in sloth bear conservation and protection for over two decades.
  • Sloth bears are identified by their very distinct long, shaggy dark brown or black fur, distinct white V-shaped chest patch and four-inch long ivory-coloured curved claws used for digging out termites and ants from rock-hard mounds. Listed under Schedule I of The (Wildlife Protection) Act of India, 1972 the species has the same level of protection as tigers, rhinos and elephants.

Consider the following statements.
  1. According to the Constitution of India, the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes.
  2. The official language used for communication between the States shall be the language that has been in use at the time of adoption of the Constitution.
  3. The regional language can be adopted as an official language of India, if the Prime Minister deems that a large enough proportion of the population of India desires it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    2 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Nair answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1, 2.

Explanation:

According to the Constitution of India, the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes. This means that each state or region in India has the right to use any of the official languages recognized by the Constitution for its official work. This provision ensures that linguistic diversity and the rights of citizens to communicate with the government in their preferred language are protected.

The official language used for communication between the States shall be the language that has been in use at the time of adoption of the Constitution. This means that the language used for inter-state communication is the one that was in use at the time the Constitution was adopted. This provision is aimed at maintaining continuity and stability in inter-state communication.

However, the third statement is incorrect. The regional language cannot be adopted as an official language of India solely based on the desire of the Prime Minister or the population. According to the Constitution, the adoption of an official language of India requires a constitutional amendment, which can only be done by a special majority in the Parliament. The decision to adopt a regional language as an official language of India cannot be made solely by the Prime Minister or based on the desire of the population.

In conclusion, according to the Constitution of India, the regions of India are eligible to use any of the official languages of India for official purposes, and the official language used for communication between the States is the one that was in use at the time of adoption of the Constitution. However, the adoption of a regional language as an official language of India requires a constitutional amendment and cannot be done solely based on the desire of the Prime Minister or the population.

Recently the Prime Minister dedicated 75 digital banking units to the nation. The digital banking products and services offered by digital banking units are:
  1. Fixed deposit and recurring deposit accounts
  2. Debit cards, credit cards
  3. Mass transit system cards
  4. UPI QR codes
Select the correct answer code: 
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Uday Roy answered
Explanation:

The Prime Minister has dedicated 75 digital banking units to the nation. These digital banking units are expected to provide various digital banking products and services to the people. The correct answer is option 'D', which includes all the options listed in the question.

Digital Banking Products and Services:

1. Fixed Deposit and Recurring Deposit Accounts: The digital banking units are expected to offer fixed deposit and recurring deposit accounts. These accounts allow individuals to deposit a certain amount of money for a fixed period of time and earn interest on it. This is a popular investment option for individuals looking to earn a fixed return on their savings.

2. Debit Cards and Credit Cards: The digital banking units are expected to provide debit cards and credit cards to their customers. Debit cards allow individuals to make payments directly from their bank account, while credit cards allow individuals to make purchases on credit and pay back the amount at a later date. These cards provide convenience and flexibility in making payments.

3. Mass Transit System Cards: The digital banking units are expected to offer mass transit system cards. These cards can be used to pay for public transportation services such as buses, trains, and metros. They provide a convenient and cashless way of paying for transportation services, making commuting easier for individuals.

4. UPI QR Codes: The digital banking units are expected to provide UPI QR codes. UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is a real-time payment system that allows individuals to transfer money between bank accounts using their mobile phones. QR codes are used to initiate and authenticate UPI transactions, making it easy for individuals to make digital payments.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, the digital banking units dedicated by the Prime Minister are expected to offer a range of digital banking products and services, including fixed deposit and recurring deposit accounts, debit cards and credit cards, mass transit system cards, and UPI QR codes. These products and services aim to provide convenience, flexibility, and ease of use in banking and payment transactions for the people.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The riparian principle says that the state through which a river passes has the right to its waters.
  2. Satluj Yamuna Link Canal is an under-construction canal for river water sharing between New Delhi and Punjab.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The riparian principle says that the state through which a river passes has the right to its waters.
Satluj Yamuna Link Canal or SYL as it is popularly known, is an under-construction 214-kilometer long canal in India to connect the Sutlej and Yamuna rivers. However, the proposal met obstacles[3] and was referred to the Supreme Court of India. It was defined as river water sharing between the states of Punjab and Haryana.

Which of the following countries share border with Red Sea?
  1. Eritrea
  2. Iran
  3. Djibouti
  4. Oman
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjana Roy answered
The correct answer is option 'B', which means that Eritrea and Djibouti share a border with the Red Sea.

Explanation:
The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, located between Africa and Asia. It is bordered by several countries, including Eritrea, Iran, Djibouti, and Oman. However, only Eritrea and Djibouti share a land border with the Red Sea.

1. Eritrea:
Eritrea is a country located in the Horn of Africa. It is bordered by Sudan to the west, Ethiopia to the south, and Djibouti to the southeast. Eritrea's coastline stretches along the Red Sea, making it one of the countries that share a border with the sea.

2. Iran:
Although Iran has a coastline along the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, it does not share a land border with the Red Sea. Therefore, Iran does not share a border with the Red Sea.

3. Djibouti:
Djibouti is a small country located in the Horn of Africa. It is bordered by Eritrea to the north, Ethiopia to the west and southwest, and Somalia to the southeast. Djibouti is strategically located at the southern entrance to the Red Sea, and it shares a land border with the sea.

4. Oman:
Oman is a country located in the Arabian Peninsula. It has a coastline along the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Oman, but it does not share a land border with the Red Sea. Therefore, Oman does not share a border with the Red Sea.

In summary, Eritrea and Djibouti are the two countries that share a land border with the Red Sea.

Which of the following committees are related to RBI surplus transfers?
  1. Bimal Jalan committee
  2. Bibek Debroy committee
  3. Malegam committee
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mayank Joshi answered
RBI surplus transfers are related to the committees appointed by the Reserve Bank of India for reviewing the economic conditions and suggesting measures for the transfer of RBI's surplus to the government. The correct answer code for the committees related to RBI surplus transfers is (b) 1, 3. Let us discuss the committees in detail:

1. Bimal Jalan Committee: The committee was headed by former RBI Governor Bimal Jalan and was set up in 2018 to review the economic capital framework (ECF) of RBI. The committee submitted its report in August 2019, which recommended that the RBI transfer its surplus funds to the government in a phased manner over a period of three to five years.

2. Bibek Debroy Committee: The committee was set up by the RBI in 2013 to review the governance of boards of banks in India. The committee suggested several measures to improve the functioning of bank boards, including the appointment of independent directors, setting up of a nomination committee, and strengthening the role of audit committees.

3. Malegam Committee: The committee was set up in 2011 to review the microfinance sector in India, following the crisis in Andhra Pradesh. The committee made several recommendations to regulate the sector, including the setting up of a Microfinance Regulatory Authority, prescribing a cap on interest rates, and ensuring transparency in the operations of microfinance institutions.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 1, 3, as the committees related to RBI surplus transfers are the Bimal Jalan Committee and the Malegam Committee.

Consider the following statements regarding Greenhouse.
  1. The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the sun can enter into the greenhouse.
  2. Longer wavelength infrared radiation from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse can pass back out completely through the glass.
  3. No infrared radiation can pass through the glass of greenhouse
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Snehal Kumar answered
Statement Analysis:
The question asks us to consider the given statements about a greenhouse and identify the correct ones. Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the sun can enter into the greenhouse.
This statement is correct. Shorter wavelength infrared radiation, also known as near-infrared radiation, can penetrate glass and enter the greenhouse. This is because glass is transparent to shorter wavelengths of infrared radiation.

Statement 2: Longer wavelength infrared radiation from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse can pass back out completely through the glass.
This statement is correct. Longer wavelength infrared radiation, also known as far-infrared radiation, is absorbed by glass and then re-emitted. This means that the longer wavelength infrared radiation from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse can pass back out through the glass, allowing for the greenhouse to be heated.

Statement 3: No infrared radiation can pass through the glass of the greenhouse.
This statement is incorrect. As discussed in the analysis of statements 1 and 2, both shorter and longer wavelength infrared radiation can pass through the glass of the greenhouse.

Correct Statements:
Based on the analysis above, the correct statements are:
- Statement 1: The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the sun can enter into the greenhouse.
- Statement 2: Longer wavelength infrared radiation from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse can pass back out completely through the glass.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 1 only.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Global Hunger Index is a peer-reviewed annual report that measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and country levels.
  2. A high score in the Global Hunger Index gets a country a higher ranking and implies a better performance.
  3. Achieving “Zero Hunger by 2030” is one of the Sustainable Development Goals laid out by the United Nations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1,2
  • b)
    1,3
  • c)
    2,3
  • d)
    1,2,3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The GHI, is a peer-reviewed annual report that endeavours to “comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and country levels”. It is jointly-produced by the Germany-based not-for-profit organisation Welthungerhilfe and Ireland-based Concern Worldwide.
India has ranked 107th out of 121 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022, down from the 101st position the previous year.
The GHI has been brought out almost every year since 2000; with this year’s report being the 15th one. A low score gets a country a higher ranking and implies a better performance.
The reason for mapping hunger is to ensure that the world achieves “Zero Hunger by 2030” — one of the Sustainable Development Goals laid out by the United Nations. It is for this reason that GHI scores are not calculated for certain high-income countries.
While in common parlance hunger is understood in terms of food deprivation, in a formal sense it is calculated by mapping the level of calorie intake.
But the GHI does not limit itself to this narrow definition of hunger. Instead, it tracks the performance of different countries on four key parameters because, taken together, these parameters capture multiple dimensions — such a deficiency of micronutrients — of hunger, thus providing a far more comprehensive measure of hunger.

Consider the following statements regarding solid-state battery.
  1. A solid-state battery uses solid electrodes and a solid electrolyte, instead of the liquid electrolytes found in lithium-ion batteries.
  2. Solid-state batteries are used in pacemakers, RFID and wearable devices.
  3. Energy density in lithium-ion battery is higher than solid-state battery.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Sengupta answered
The correct answer is option 'A': 1, 2.

Explanation:
Solid-state batteries have gained significant attention in recent years as potential alternatives to traditional lithium-ion batteries. These batteries use solid electrodes and a solid electrolyte, in contrast to the liquid electrolytes used in lithium-ion batteries.

1. Solid-state battery uses solid electrodes and a solid electrolyte:
Solid-state batteries are designed with solid electrodes (both cathode and anode) and a solid electrolyte. This solid-state design offers several advantages over traditional lithium-ion batteries. Firstly, the use of solid components eliminates the need for flammable liquid electrolytes, enhancing the safety and stability of the battery. Secondly, solid-state batteries have the potential to offer higher energy densities and longer cycle lives compared to lithium-ion batteries.

2. Solid-state batteries are used in pacemakers, RFID, and wearable devices:
Solid-state batteries are widely used in various applications such as pacemakers, RFID (Radio-Frequency Identification) devices, and wearable devices. These batteries are preferred in these applications due to their compact size, improved safety, and longer shelf life. Additionally, the solid-state design allows for flexible form factors, making them suitable for use in wearable electronics.

3. Energy density in lithium-ion battery is higher than solid-state battery:
This statement is incorrect. Currently, the energy density of solid-state batteries is lower compared to lithium-ion batteries. Energy density refers to the amount of energy that can be stored in a given volume or weight. While solid-state batteries have the potential to achieve higher energy densities in the future, current technologies are still in the development stage and have not surpassed the energy density of lithium-ion batteries.

In conclusion, solid-state batteries use solid electrodes and a solid electrolyte, offering advantages such as improved safety and potential for higher energy densities. They are commonly used in pacemakers, RFID devices, and wearable electronics. However, the energy density of solid-state batteries is currently lower than that of lithium-ion batteries.

Consider the following statements regarding Attorney General of India (A-G).
  1. To be appointed as the Attorney General of India, the person should be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. Attorney-General holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  3. The Constitution of India mandates that the Attorney General cannot hold office for more than one term.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Attorney General of India


  • To be appointed as the Attorney General of India, the person should be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

  • Attorney-General holds office during the pleasure of the President.

  • The Constitution of India mandates that the Attorney General cannot hold office for more than one term.



The correct option is (b) 1, 2. The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the country and is appointed by the President. Let us understand the given statements in detail:

Qualification for Appointment
To become the Attorney General of India, a person must have the following qualifications:
- Should be a citizen of India
- Should have been a judge of the Supreme Court for at least five years or an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.

Term and Tenure
- The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President, which means the President can remove him/her at any time without assigning any reason.
- There is no fixed tenure for the post of Attorney General of India.
- The Constitution of India mandates that the Attorney General cannot hold office for more than one term.

In conclusion, the Attorney General of India is an important constitutional post, and the person holding this post should have a sound knowledge of the legal system and the ability to provide independent advice to the government.

The economic cost of food grains does not include which of the following? 
  • a)
    Minimum Support Price 
  • b)
    Procurement incidentals (for the public agency procuring) 
  • c)
    Cost of distribution 
  • d)
    Profit margin
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Minimum Support Price
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a price set by the government to protect farmers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The economic cost of food grains includes the MSP as it is an important factor in determining the overall cost of production.

Procurement Incidentals
The cost of procurement incidentals, such as transportation, storage, and handling charges, incurred by the public agency procuring food grains is also included in the economic cost. These incidental costs are essential for the smooth procurement process.

Cost of Distribution
The economic cost of food grains also includes the cost of distribution, which refers to the expenses incurred in transporting the food grains from the procurement centers to the distribution centers. This cost is crucial in ensuring that the food grains reach the intended beneficiaries in a timely manner.

Profit Margin
However, the economic cost of food grains does not include the profit margin. Profit margin is the amount added to the cost price of a product to determine its selling price. In the case of food grains, the focus is on ensuring food security and providing affordable food to the people, rather than making a profit. Therefore, profit margin is not factored into the economic cost of food grains.

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
  1. It is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces.
  2. The United Nations has direct operational role in the implementation of the Convention.
  3. India was the first country to ratify the UNCLOS.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Patel answered
UNCLOS - United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea

UNCLOS is an international convention that outlines a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It was adopted in 1982 and has since been ratified by 168 countries.

Statement 1 - Correct

UNCLOS is indeed the only international convention that stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It defines the rights and responsibilities of nations in their use of the world's oceans, establishing guidelines for businesses, the environment, and the management of marine natural resources.

Statement 2 - Incorrect

The United Nations does not have a direct operational role in the implementation of the Convention. Instead, it is the responsibility of member states to ensure that the provisions of UNCLOS are enforced within their respective jurisdictions.

Statement 3 - Incorrect

India was not the first country to ratify UNCLOS. It was actually Jamaica that was the first country to ratify the Convention on the Law of the Sea on November 6, 1981. India ratified the convention on June 29, 1995.

Conclusion:

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. UNCLOS is an important convention that outlines the rights and responsibilities of nations in their use of the world's oceans, and India is one of many countries that have ratified it.

Consider the following statements regarding Khadi & Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
  1. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament
  2. It seeks to promote, facilitate, organise and assist in the establishment and development of khadi and village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development.
  3. It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of KVIC
The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a significant institution in India, working towards the promotion of khadi and village industries.
Correct Statements
- Statutory Body:
- The KVIC was established by an Act of Parliament in 1956, making it a statutory body. This confirms the first statement as correct.
- Promotion and Development:
- The main objective of KVIC is to promote, facilitate, organize, and assist in the establishment and development of khadi and village industries in rural areas. This aligns with the second statement, affirming its correctness.
Incorrect Statement
- Ministry of Rural Development:
- The KVIC is not an apex organization under the Ministry of Rural Development; rather, it operates under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). This makes the third statement incorrect.
Final Assessment
Based on the analysis:
- Statements Validated:
- The first two statements about KVIC are accurate.
- Incorrect Association:
- The misconception lies in its association with the Ministry of Rural Development, which is not correct.
Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B', which includes statements 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding
  1. First generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats.
  2. Second generation biofuels are produced from micro-organisms like algae.
  3. Third generation biofuels are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Biofuels are liquid or gaseous fuels primarily produced from biomass, and can be used to replace or can be used in addition to diesel, petrol or other fossil fuels for transport, stationary, portable and other applications. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet, and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut, sunflower).
Biofuels are generally classified into three categories. They are
  • First generation biofuels – First-generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats using conventional technology. Common first-generation biofuels include Bioalcohols, Biodiesel, Vegetable oil, Bioethers, Biogas.
  • Second generation biofuels – These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood). Examples include advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
  • Third generation biofuels – These are produced from micro-organisms like algae.

Consider the following statements regarding Market Intervention Scheme (MIS).
  1. Government implements the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for procurement of agricultural commodities which are perishable in nature.
  2. The Scheme is implemented when there is at least 10% increase in production or 10% decrease in the ruling rates over the previous normal year.
  3. The scheme is implemented at the request of a State/UT government which is ready to bear loss if any, incurred on its implementation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
  • Government implements the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for procurement of agricultural and horticultural commodities which are perishable in nature and are not covered under the Price Support Scheme (PSS).
  • The objective of intervention is to protect the growers of these commodities from making distress sale in the event of a bumper crop during the peak arrival period when the prices tend to fall below economic levels and cost of production. The condition is that there should be either at least a 10 percent increase in production or a 10 percent decrease in the ruling market prices over the previous normal year.
  • The scheme is implemented at the request of a State/UT government which is ready to bear 50 percent of the loss (25 percent in case of North-Eastern States), if any, incurred on its implementation.

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