All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee, consider the following statements:
1. Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson.
2. Decisions of the MPC are taken on the basis of majority, with Governor having the casting vote in case of a tie.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) recently raised the policy repo rate by 50 basis points (bps) to 5.9%.
  • It raised the repo rate (or the rate at which it lends money to the banking system) by 50 basis points (or 0.5 percentage points). 
  • It has cut India’s GDP growth rate for the current financial year (2022-23) from 7.2% to 7%.
  • The MPC retained the retail inflation projection for the current fiscal year at 6.7%.
Monetary Policy Committee
  • The Monetary Policy Committee of India is responsible for fixing the policy interest rate, to achieve the objectives of monetary policy.
  • Composition:
    • Three officials of the Reserve Bank of India, with Governor of RBI as Chairperson, ex officio
    • Three external members appointed by the Government of India
    • The external members hold office for a period of four years.
  • Decisions of the MPC are taken on the basis of majority, with Governor having the casting vote in case of a tie.
  • The MPC meets least 4 times a year and it publishes its decisions after each such meeting.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Cryogenic Engine, consider the following statements:
1. CE20 cryogenic engine is indigenously developed for LVM3.
2. The LVM3 is the smallest launch vehicle of ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Swara Tiwari answered
About Cryogenic Engine:

A Cryogenic Engine is a rocket engine that uses cryogenic fuel and oxidizers. Cryogenic fuels are those that are in a liquid state at very low temperatures, typically below -150°C. The Cryogenic Engine is an important component of India's space program, allowing for the launch of heavier payloads into orbit.

Statement Analysis:

Statement 1: CE20 cryogenic engine is indigenously developed for LVM3.

- The CE20 cryogenic engine is indeed developed by ISRO, and it is designed to power the LVM3 rocket.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The LVM3 is the smallest launch vehicle of ISRO.

- This statement is incorrect. In fact, the LVM3 is one of the largest and most powerful rockets developed by ISRO.
- The LVM3 is capable of launching payloads of up to 4 tons into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), which is a high altitude orbit used by communication satellites.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. The CE20 cryogenic engine is developed by ISRO for the LVM3 rocket, which is one of the largest and most powerful rockets developed by ISRO.

With reference to the Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI), consider the following statements:
1. It was launched on International Snow Leopard Day on 23rdOctober 2019.
2. It is funded by the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Gupta answered
The correct answer is option D, neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:
1. It was launched on International Snow Leopard Day on 23rd October 2019: This statement is incorrect. The Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI) was not launched on International Snow Leopard Day. In fact, the SPAI was launched on 29th January 2021, and not on 23rd October 2019.

2. It is funded by the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change: This statement is also incorrect. The SPAI is not funded by the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change. Instead, it is funded by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Global Environment Facility (GEF).

The Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI) is a significant initiative aimed at assessing the population status and distribution of snow leopards in the country. Here are some key details about the SPAI:

Objective:
- The primary objective of the SPAI is to estimate the abundance and distribution of snow leopards in India.
- It also aims to assess the status of the snow leopard's prey species and their habitats.

Funding:
- The SPAI is funded by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
- The Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change is not directly involved in the funding of this project.

Implementation:
- The project is being implemented by the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change, Government of India, in collaboration with UNDP.
- It involves the participation of multiple stakeholders, including state governments, local communities, and conservation organizations.

Methodology:
- The SPAI uses a combination of scientific techniques and community-based surveys to collect data on snow leopards and their habitats.
- Camera trapping, genetic analysis, and habitat modeling are some of the methods used in the assessment.

Importance:
- The assessment will provide valuable information on the population size, distribution, and conservation status of snow leopards in India.
- It will help in formulating effective conservation strategies and policies for the protection of snow leopards and their habitats.

In conclusion, the Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI) was not launched on International Snow Leopard Day, and it is not funded by the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change. Instead, it is funded by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Global Environment Facility (GEF).

With reference to the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF), consider the following statements:
1. It aims to fund R&D in rural-specific communication technology applications and form synergies among academia, start-ups, research institutes, and the industry to build and develop the telecom ecosystem.
2. The Scheme aims to promote technology ownership and indigenous manufacturing, create a culture of technology co-innovation, reduce imports, boost export opportunities and creation of Intellectual Property.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Dey answered
Statement Explanation:

1. Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF)
The Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) aims to fund R&D in rural-specific communication technology applications and to form synergies among academia, start-ups, research institutes, and the industry to build and develop the telecom ecosystem. This initiative is crucial in promoting innovation and technological advancements in the telecom sector, especially in rural areas where access to communication technology is limited.

2. Objectives of the Scheme
The Scheme aims to promote technology ownership and indigenous manufacturing, create a culture of technology co-innovation, reduce imports, boost export opportunities, and foster the creation of Intellectual Property. By encouraging indigenous manufacturing and innovation, the scheme not only contributes to the growth of the telecom industry but also helps in reducing dependency on imports and creating valuable intellectual property.
Therefore, both statements are correct as they highlight the key objectives and focus areas of the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF). This initiative plays a significant role in driving innovation, fostering collaboration, and promoting indigenous technology development in the telecom sector.

With reference to the Small Modular Reactors, consider the following statements:
1. SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit.
2. SMR, with up to 300 MW capacity by nature are flexible in design and require smaller footprint.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Das answered
SMRs and their Power Capacity
Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are indeed advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit. This means that each individual SMR can generate up to 300 megawatts of electrical power.

Flexibility in Design and Footprint
One of the advantages of SMRs, being small and modular, is their flexibility in design and smaller footprint requirements. This statement is also correct. SMRs are designed to be compact and can be manufactured in a factory and then transported to their intended location. This modular design allows for easier customization and scalability, making SMRs flexible in their applications. Additionally, their smaller size and reduced cooling requirements result in a smaller overall footprint compared to traditional larger nuclear reactors.

Significance of SMRs
The development of SMRs has gained significant attention and support in recent years due to their potential benefits. Some of these advantages include:

1. Enhanced Safety: SMRs incorporate advanced safety features, such as passive cooling systems, that make them inherently safer compared to older reactor designs. Their smaller size also allows for better control and management of potential accidents.

2. Flexibility in Deployment: SMRs can be deployed in a wider range of locations compared to larger reactors. Their smaller size and modular nature allow for easier transport and installation, making them suitable for remote areas or regions with limited infrastructure.

3. Cost-Effectiveness: The modular design of SMRs allows for standardized manufacturing and streamlined construction processes, potentially reducing costs and construction timelines. They also require less initial investment and can be implemented in stages, allowing for gradual capacity expansion.

4. Integration with Renewable Energy: SMRs can provide a reliable and consistent baseload power source, complementing intermittent renewable energy sources like solar and wind. Their smaller size also enables integration with existing grid infrastructure more easily.

Conclusion
In conclusion, both statements given in the question are correct. SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors with a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit, and their smaller size and modular design make them flexible in terms of customization and footprint requirements. The development and deployment of SMRs have the potential to address various energy challenges and contribute to a more sustainable and resilient energy future.

With reference to the National Lok Adalat, consider the following statements:
1. National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats.
2. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Roy answered
Explanation:

The National Lok Adalat is a mechanism for the resolution of disputes through conciliation and compromise. It is aimed at reducing the burden on the regular courts and promoting access to justice for all. Let us examine each statement in detail:

Statement 1: National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats.

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. NALSA is responsible for implementing and monitoring the legal aid programs and services across the country. It also provides funds and grants to the State Legal Services Authorities and other organizations for the provision of legal aid.

Under the guidance of NALSA, various Legal Services Institutions, including State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services Authorities, and Taluk Legal Services Committees, organize Lok Adalats. These institutions facilitate the settlement of disputes through Lok Adalats by providing the necessary infrastructure and support.

Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

Lok Adalats are an integral part of the legal aid system in India. They have been given statutory recognition and status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Act provides for the establishment of Lok Adalats at the national, state, district, and taluk levels.

Lok Adalats have the same legal force as that of a civil court. The decisions and settlements arrived at by the Lok Adalats are binding on the parties involved and have the same effect as a decree of a civil court. The awards made by Lok Adalats are final and cannot be appealed against in any court of law.

Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. The National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats, and Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

With reference to the Global Climate Observing System (GCOS), consider the following statements:
1. It is a co-sponsored programme which regularly assesses the status of global climate observations and produces guidance for its improvement.  
2. It an initiative of World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

According to a declaration released by the Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) conference, Climate observing system remains fragile and needs financing for strengthening and sustaining it.
  • The Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) is a co-sponsored programme which regularly assesses the status of global climate observations and produces guidance for its improvement.  
  • It is co-sponsored by the
    • World Meteorological Organization (WMO),
    • Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO (IOC-UNESCO),
    • United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment), and
    • International Science Council (ISC).
  • GCOS expert panels maintain definitions of Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) which are required to systematically observe Earth`s changing climate.
  • The observations supported by GCOS contribute to solving challenges in climate research and also underpin climate services and adaptation measures.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the YUVA (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors) 2.0 scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Prime Minister’s scheme for mentoring young authors, and a programme to train young and budding authors below the age of 30 to promote reading, writing, and book culture in the country, and project India and Indian writings globally.
2. The NITI Aayog is the implementing agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aniket Kapoor answered
YUVA (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors) 2.0 scheme
The YUVA 2.0 scheme is a Prime Minister's initiative aimed at mentoring young authors and training budding writers below the age of 30. The main objectives of the scheme include promoting reading, writing, and the book culture in India, as well as projecting Indian literature globally.

Key Points:
- The scheme focuses on nurturing young talent in the field of literature and providing them with opportunities to showcase their work on both national and international platforms.
- Through mentorship and training programs, the scheme aims to develop a new generation of versatile authors who can contribute to the literary landscape of the country.
- YUVA 2.0 also seeks to create a network of young writers who can collaborate, share ideas, and support each other in their literary pursuits.
- The NITI Aayog is the implementing agency for the YUVA 2.0 scheme, working closely with the Ministry of Education and other stakeholders to ensure its successful execution.
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the YUVA 2.0 scheme is indeed a Prime Minister's initiative for mentoring young authors and promoting Indian literature globally. Statement 2 is also correct as the NITI Aayog is the implementing agency for the scheme.

With reference to the Northeast Monsoon, consider the following statements:
1. About 75 per cent of the country’s annual rainfall is received from the Southwest monsoon between June and September.
2. The Northeast monsoon, on the other hand, occurs during October to December, and is a comparatively small-scale monsoon, which is confined to the Southern peninsula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Ahuja answered
S total annual rainfall is received during the Northeast Monsoon season.

2. The Northeast Monsoon brings rainfall to the southern and eastern parts of India from October to December.

3. The Northeast Monsoon is also known as the winter monsoon.

Which of the statements are correct?

1. The first and second statements are correct.

Explanation: The Northeast Monsoon, also known as the winter monsoon, brings rainfall to the southern and eastern parts of India from October to December. About 75 per cent of the country's total annual rainfall is received during this season.

With reference to Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna (CITES), consider the following statements:
1. It aims to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
2. Its secretariat is administered by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
For the first time since joining the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna (CITES) in 1976, India did not vote against a proposal seeking to re-open the ivory trade.
  • The proposal, to allow a regular form of controlled trade in ivory from Namibia, Botswana, South Africa and Zimbabwe, was defeated at the 19th meeting of the CITES (CoP19) in Panama City.
  • India’s abstention — a break from its past stand — was in tune with what Namibia had asked for when it agreed to transfer cheetahs this summer.
Ivory trade Ban
  • The ivory trade was globally banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in CITES Appendix I.
  • No trade is allowed in species listed in CITES Appendix I while trade is strictly regulated in those under Appendix II.
What is CITES?
  • It is an international agreement to which States and regional economic integration organizations adhere voluntarily.
  • It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union). It entered into force in July 1975.
  • Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
  • Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws.
  • The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located in Geneva, Switzerland. The Conference of the Parties to CITES is the supreme decision-making body of the Convention and comprises all its parties.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Megalith, consider the following statements:
1. A megalith is a large stone that has been used to construct a structure or monument, either alone or together with other stones.
2. The construction of these structures took place mainly in the Neolithic period and continued into the Chalcolithic period and the Bronze Age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Tirupati district is dotted with anthropomorphic burial sites, said to be the largest as a collection in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Anthropomorphic sites are those marked by a representation of human form above the megalithic burials.
  • The most prominent one is the ‘pillared dolmen’ of the megalithic era, found at Mallayyagaripalle, nestling on a hillock between Chandragiri and Dornakambala, in Tirupati.
  • The structure locally referred to as ‘Pandava Gullu’ or ‘Pandavula Banda’ in memory of the Pandavas, is estimated to be 2,500 years old.
  • There is another endangered megalith monument in Palem village near Kallur, which resembles a bull’s horn. It is called locally as ‘Devara Yeddhu’.
  • Another megalithic burial site in Venkatapuram is the ‘stone circle’, where the tomb is surrounded by round stones arranged in a circle.
Megalith:
  • A megalith is a large stone that has been used to construct a structure or monument, either alone or together with other stones.
  • The word megalithic describes structures made of such large stones without the use of mortar or concrete, representing periods of prehistory characterised by such constructions.
  • The construction of these structures took place mainly in the Neolithic period and continued into the Chalcolithic period and the Bronze Age.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Greater One-horned Rhinoceros, consider the following statements:
1. This species of rhino is found only in India.
2. It is listed as vulnerable in IUCN list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
According to a study, published in the latest edition of People and Nature by the British Ecological Society, the horns of rhinoceroses may have become smaller over time from the impact of hunting.
  • The recent study analysed artwork and photographs of the animal spanning more than five centuries.
Five species face threat:
  • Rhinos have long been hunted for their horns. The five surviving rhino species are threatened by habitat loss and hunting.
  • The study found that the rate of decline in horn length was highest in the critically endangered Sumatran rhino and lowest in the white rhino of Africa, the most commonly found species in the wild and in captivity.
  • This observation follows patterns seen in other animals, such as tusk size in elephants and horn length in wild sheep, which have been driven down by directional selection due to trophy hunting.
The Greater One-horned Rhinoceros:
  • The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species.
  • It is identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
  • It is one of the five species of Rhinos.
    • The other four species are:
      • White rhino: It is native to northern and southern Africa
      • Black rhino: It is native to eastern and southern Africa
      • Javan rhino: It is also known as Sunda rhino or lesser one-horned rhino
      • Sumatran rhino: Critically Endangered species of rhino
  • Habitat:
    • Greater one-horned rhinos are grazers. When not grazing on land, they like to immerse themselves in water, where they also graze on aquatic plants.
    • This species of rhino is commonly found in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and in Assam, India.
  • Protection Status:
    • IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
    • CITES: Appendix I
    • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR & Adjoining Areas (CAQM), consider the following statements:
1. It was established under Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021.
2. According to the CAQM, about 74 per cent of industrial areas of NCR have gas connectivity like PNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Yadav answered
Introduction
The Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR & Adjoining Areas (CAQM) plays a crucial role in addressing air pollution in the National Capital Region (NCR). Let's evaluate the two statements regarding CAQM.
Statement 1: Establishment Under Act
- The CAQM was indeed established under the Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021.
- This Act aims to monitor and manage air quality in the NCR and its adjoining areas, highlighting the government's commitment to tackling pollution.
Statement 2: Industrial Areas with Gas Connectivity
- According to the CAQM, it is reported that around 74 percent of the industrial areas in the NCR have gas connectivity, specifically through Piped Natural Gas (PNG).
- This connectivity facilitates cleaner fuel usage, which is essential for reducing air pollution from industrial emissions.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct.
- The establishment of CAQM under the specified Act and the statistic regarding gas connectivity in industrial areas affirm the organization’s commitment to improving air quality in the NCR.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': Both 1 and 2 are correct.

With reference to the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), consider the following statements:
1. It has been established on April 27, 2020 under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019.
2. It is headquartered in Mumbai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sai Sengupta answered
Explanation:

Establishment of IFSCA:
- The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) was indeed established on April 27, 2020.
- It was established under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019.

Headquarters of IFSCA:
- The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) is headquartered in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, not in Mumbai.
Therefore, only the first statement is correct. The correct answer is option 'A' which states "1 only".

Which of the following places are known for Seema Darshan Project?
1. Nadabet
2. Jaislamer
3. Wagah
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Mukherjee answered
Seema Darshan Project is a project initiated by the Ministry of Home Affairs to enable Indians to visit border areas and understand the hard work of the Border Security Force (BSF) and other security forces. The project was launched in 1999 and covers places such as Nadabet, Jaislamer, and Wagah.

Nadabet:

- Nadabet is a village in Gujarat located near the Indo-Pak border.
- It is a part of the Seema Darshan Project and has been developed as a tourist destination.
- Visitors can witness the BSF's activities and get a glimpse of the life of soldiers posted at the border.
- The project aims to showcase the challenges faced by the BSF and the sacrifices made by them to protect the country.

Jaisalmer:

- Jaisalmer is a city in Rajasthan located near the Indo-Pak border.
- It is a popular tourist destination and has been included in the Seema Darshan Project.
- The project aims to showcase the life of soldiers posted at the border and the challenges they face.
- Visitors can witness the daily routine of the BSF and other security forces and understand their role in protecting the country.

Wagah:

- Wagah is a village in Punjab located near the Indo-Pak border.
- It is famous for its daily flag-lowering ceremony conducted by the BSF and the Pakistan Rangers.
- The ceremony attracts a large number of tourists and has been included in the Seema Darshan Project.
- Visitors can witness the ceremony and understand the history and significance of the border.

In conclusion, all three places, Nadabet, Jaisalmer, and Wagah, are known for the Seema Darshan Project, which aims to enable Indians to visit border areas and understand the hard work of the BSF and other security forces.

With reference to the Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a set of instructions found in a cell.
2. The DNA of a person is unique, and variation in the sequence of DNA can be used to match individuals and identify them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently the Supreme Court has voiced concerns over the increasing use of DNA to prove cases.
  • Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) is a set of instructions found in a cell.
  • These instructions are used for the growth and development of an organism.
  • The DNA of a person is unique, and variation in the sequence of DNA can be used to match individuals and identify them.
  • DNA technology, therefore allows for accurate establishment of an individual’s identity.
  • In addition, DNA-based technology helps in identification of victims in the event of terrorist attacks or natural disasters such as earthquakes.
    • For example, DNA technology has been used to identify victims of terrorist attacks on the World Trade Centre in 2001, and disasters such as the Asian tsunami in 2004.
  • Further, DNA profiling can be used in civil matters, such as parentage related disputes.
Precedents set by court:
  • Bhabani Prasad Jena, 2010 & Banarsi Dass, 2005: Precedents set by the Supreme Court through the years show that judges cannot order genetic tests as a “roving enquiry” ( Bhabani Prasad Jena, 2010) and they must balance “the interests of the parties” ( Banarsi Dass, 2005).
  • DNA tests should also not be ordered if there was other material evidence at hand to prove the case.
  • Ashok Kumar v. Raj Gupta 2021: The court said judges, before ordering a genetic test, should examine “proportionality of the legitimate aims” being pursued.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the disqualification of convicted legislators from Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, contains provisions aimed at decriminalising electoral politics.
2. In Lily Thomas vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down clause (4) of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 as unconstitutional.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1: Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, contains provisions aimed at decriminalising electoral politics.
Statement 2: In Lily Thomas vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down clause (4) of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 as unconstitutional.

Statement 1: Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, contains provisions aimed at decriminalising electoral politics.

The Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 is a key legislation governing elections in India. Section 8 of the RPA deals with disqualification on the ground of conviction for certain offenses. It provides that a person convicted of any offense and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release.

This provision aims to decriminalize electoral politics by disqualifying individuals with serious criminal records from contesting elections. It seeks to maintain the integrity of the legislative bodies by preventing those with criminal backgrounds from holding public office. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: In Lily Thomas vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down clause (4) of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 as unconstitutional.

In the case of Lily Thomas vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India dealt with the issue of disqualification of convicted legislators. The court held that Section 8(4) of the RPA, which allowed convicted legislators to continue in office if they filed an appeal within three months of their conviction, was unconstitutional. The court ruled that such a provision violated the principles of equality before the law and the right to equality enshrined in the Constitution. The court stated that disqualification should be immediate and should not be subject to the outcome of an appeal.

Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 aims to decriminalize electoral politics, while the Supreme Court in the case of Lily Thomas vs. Union of India struck down clause (4) of the RPA as unconstitutional.

With reference to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), consider the following statements:
1. It was set up as an alternative investment fund (AIF) in 2010 with a planned corpus of ₹4000 crore.
2. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Union Finance Minister has recently urged the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) to expand its operations and explore ways to crowd in private capital for projects under the National Infrastructure Pipeline, PM Gati Shakti and National Infrastructure Corridor.
Bodies involved: 
  • NIIF is an investor-owned fund manager, anchored by the Government of India (GoI) in collaboration with leading global and domestic institutional investors. 
  • The Indian government has 49 % stake in NIIF with the rest held by marquee foreign and domestic investors.  
History: 
  • NIIF was set up as an alternative investment fund (AIF) in 2015 with a planned corpus of ₹40,000 crore.
Headquarters: Mumbai.
Objective: To provide long-term capital to the country’s infrastructure sector.
Funds managed: 
  • NIIF currently manages three funds each with its distinctive investment mandate namely
    • (1) Master fund,
    • (2) Fund Of Funds and
    • (3) Strategic Fund.
  • The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). 
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to air connectivity in northeast India:
1. All eight northeastern state capitals have airports.
2. Donyi Polo Airport in Arunachal Pradesh is the first greenfield airport in northeast India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first Greenfield airport in Arunachal Pradesh -- the Donyi Polo Airport at Itanagar.
  • With Donyi Polo Airport, all eight northeastern state capitals will now have airports. This will be the third operational airport in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The name of the airport reflects the traditions and rich cultural heritage of Arunachal Pradesh and its age-old indigenous reverence to the Sun (Donyi) and Moon (Polo).
  • This is the seventh airport to have been built in the Northeast in the last eight years. This rapid development of airports in the region is in keeping with the government's emphasis on increasing connectivity.
  • This is also the first greenfield project in northeast India.
What are greenfield projects?
  • A Greenfield project is a project built from scratch or from ground up and it lacks constraints of prior work. In a greenfield project there are no existing buildings or infrastructure, everything is built from scratch ,and in such projects, there is no need to demolish or remodel any existing project.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the International Solar Alliance (ISA), consider the following statements:
1. It is an international organisation with 109 member and signatory countries.
2. It is the first international intergovernmental organization to be headquartered in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


International Solar Alliance (ISA)

International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an international organization that aims to promote solar energy applications and investments worldwide to reduce the dependence on fossil fuels.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct Statement: The first statement is correct. The ISA has 109 member and signatory countries, making it a significant global initiative in the field of renewable energy.

2. Correct Statement: The second statement is also correct. The ISA is indeed the first international intergovernmental organization to be headquartered in India, showcasing India's leadership in promoting solar energy globally.

Conclusion

Both statements are correct. The ISA is an important organization with a large membership base and its headquarters in India, playing a crucial role in advancing solar energy technology and adoption worldwide.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. Under this welfare scheme, 5 kg of food grain per person per month is provided free of cost for all the beneficiaries covered under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
2. The overall expenditure of PMGKAY will be about Rs. 3.91 lakh crore for all the phases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Union Cabinet has approved the extension for the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY-Phase VII) for a further period of 3 months i.e. October to December 2022.
  • Under this welfare scheme, 5 kg of food grain per person per month is provided free of cost for all the beneficiaries covered under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) [Antodaya Anna Yojana & Priority Households] including those covered under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
  • Financial implication for the Government of India has been about Rs. 3.45 Lakh Crore upto Phase-VI of PMGKAY.
  • With the additional expenditure of about Rs. 44,762 Crore for Phase-VII of this scheme, the overall expenditure of PMGKAY will be about Rs. 3.91 lakh crore for all the phases.
  • So far, PMGKAY has been in operation for 25 months as under:
    • Phase I and II ( 8 months) : April’20 to Nov.’20
    • Phase-III to V (11 months) : May’21 to March’22
    • Phase-VI ( 6 months) : April’22 to Sept.’22
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Payment aggregators, consider the following statements:
1. It provides payment services to merchants and e-commerce sites by accepting payment instruments from customers
2. They pool the funds received from customers and transfer them to merchants after a certain time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vaishnavi Bose answered
Payment Aggregators: Providing Payment Services to Merchants

Payment aggregators are platforms that provide payment services to merchants and e-commerce sites by accepting payment instruments from customers. They act as intermediaries between the merchants and the customers, facilitating transactions and ensuring secure payment processing. Here are some key points to consider regarding payment aggregators:

- Payment instruments: Payment aggregators accept various payment instruments such as credit/debit cards, net banking, mobile wallets, UPI, etc. from customers for making payments to the merchants. This enables customers to choose their preferred mode of payment and complete the transaction easily.
- Merchant onboarding: Payment aggregators onboard merchants onto their platform after verifying their credentials and compliance with regulatory requirements. This helps in maintaining the integrity of the payment ecosystem and preventing frauds.
- Payment processing: Payment aggregators process the payments made by customers and settle the funds to the merchants after deducting their service fees. They also provide reconciliation reports and analytics to the merchants for tracking their transactions and revenues.
- Security and fraud prevention: Payment aggregators use various security measures such as encryption, tokenization, two-factor authentication, etc. to ensure the safety of the payment data and prevent any unauthorized access. They also have fraud detection and prevention mechanisms in place to identify and block any fraudulent transactions.

Pooling Funds and Transferring to Merchants

Apart from providing payment services, payment aggregators also pool the funds received from customers and transfer them to merchants after a certain time. This is done to ensure timely settlements and reduce the cash flow gap between the transactions and the actual receipt of funds. Here are some key points to consider regarding fund pooling and transfer:

- Settlement cycles: Payment aggregators have predefined settlement cycles (usually daily or weekly) during which they transfer the funds to the merchants' bank accounts. This helps in streamlining the cash flow and reducing the administrative burden on the merchants.
- Escrow accounts: Payment aggregators may use escrow accounts to hold the funds temporarily before transferring them to the merchants. This provides an additional layer of security and prevents any unauthorized access to the funds.
- Service fees: Payment aggregators deduct their service fees from the pooled funds before transferring them to the merchants. The service fees may vary depending on the transaction volume, payment instrument used, merchant category, etc.

Conclusion

In summary, payment aggregators provide payment services to merchants by accepting payment instruments from customers and facilitating secure transactions. They also pool the funds received from customers and transfer them to the merchants after deducting their service fees. Payment aggregators play a crucial role in the digital payment ecosystem and enable businesses to accept payments from a wide range of customers.

With reference to the Lachit Borphukan, consider the following statements:
1. Lachit Borphukan was a commander and councillor in the Ahom Kingdom.
2. The Ahom Dynasty was founded in 1228 in Assam’s Brahmaputra Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The three day-long celebration of 400th birth anniversary of Ahom General Lachit Barphukan will begin in New Delhi on November 23, 2022.
  • Lachit Borphukan was a commander and councillor in the Ahom Kingdom.
  • The Ahom Kingdom resisted the invasion of the Mughal Empire several times and reigned in present-day Assam for over 600 years. 
  • The Ahom Dynasty was founded in 1228 in Assam’s Brahmaputra Valley.
  • The first King of the Ahom Kingdom was Chaolung Sukaphaa, who crossed the Patkai mountainous region to reach the Brahmaputra valley.
  • In 1615, the Ahom Dynasty engaged in its first significant conflict with the Mughal Empire.
  • The Mughals conquered the Ahom capital of Garhgaon in 1662 but were defeated in later battles.
  • Finally, during the battle of Saraighat in 1671, the Ahoms led by Lachit Borphukan successfully defeated the Mughals.
  • Borphukan is mainly known for his leadership in this battle. By 1682, the Mughal influence in the region was completely eradicated.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme, consider the following statements:
1. It seeks to achieve blending of Ethanol with motor sprit with a view to reducing pollution, conserve foreign exchange and increase value addition in the sugar industry.
2. The EBP programme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2003.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Desai answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2003. Let us analyze each statement in detail:

Statement 1: The EBP Programme seeks to achieve blending of Ethanol with motor sprit with a view to reducing pollution, conserve foreign exchange and increase value addition in the sugar industry.

- Reducing pollution: Ethanol is a renewable and cleaner-burning fuel compared to conventional gasoline. Blending ethanol with petrol helps in reducing emissions of harmful pollutants such as carbon monoxide, particulate matter, and nitrogen oxides, which contribute to air pollution and respiratory diseases.
- Conserving foreign exchange: India is a net importer of crude oil, and a significant amount of foreign exchange is spent on importing petroleum products. By blending ethanol with petrol, the dependence on imported petroleum products can be reduced, leading to savings in foreign exchange.
- Increasing value addition in the sugar industry: Ethanol is primarily produced from sugarcane in India. The EBP Programme provides an additional market for sugarcane farmers and the sugar industry by utilizing the surplus sugarcane for ethanol production. This increases the value addition in the sugar industry and supports the income of farmers.

Thus, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The EBP programme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2003.

The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme was indeed launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2003. The objective of the program is to promote the use of ethanol as a blending component in petrol to reduce dependency on fossil fuels, promote the use of renewable energy sources, and achieve environmental benefits.

Thus, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

With reference to the Pirarucu, consider the following statements:
1. It is found primarily in floodplain lakes across the Amazon basin.
2. It is one of the few fish species in the world that surfaces to breathe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option C) Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
1. The Pirarucu is found primarily in floodplain lakes across the Amazon basin.
The Pirarucu (Arapaima gigas) is a large freshwater fish species that is native to the Amazon basin in South America. It is predominantly found in floodplain lakes, which are formed during the rainy season when the Amazon River overflows its banks, creating vast areas of flooded forests and grasslands. These floodplain lakes provide an ideal habitat for the Pirarucu, as they are rich in nutrients and offer abundant food sources.

2. The Pirarucu is one of the few fish species in the world that surfaces to breathe.
The Pirarucu is an obligate air-breather, which means it has a specialized respiratory system that allows it to breathe atmospheric air. This adaptation is necessary because the floodplain lakes where it resides often have low oxygen levels in the water. The Pirarucu possesses a modified swim bladder that acts as a lung, enabling it to extract oxygen from the air. It regularly surfaces to take in air, which is then absorbed through its swim bladder. This unique trait allows the Pirarucu to survive in oxygen-deprived environments and contributes to its ability to grow to massive sizes, with individuals reaching lengths of over 10 feet and weighing up to 400 pounds.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The Pirarucu is primarily found in floodplain lakes across the Amazon basin, and it is one of the few fish species in the world that surfaces to breathe.

With reference to the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)-UDAN, consider the following statements:
1. It is a regional airport development and "Regional Connectivity Scheme" (RCS) of the Union Government.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs is the implementing agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Amar Nair answered
Connectivity scheme launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation in India.
2. It aims to make air travel affordable and accessible to the common people of India.
3. Under this scheme, airlines are provided with financial incentives and subsidies to operate flights to remote and underserved airports.
4. The RCS-UDAN scheme has been successful in improving air connectivity in rural and remote areas of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
D) 2 and 3 only

With reference to the Chhath Puja, consider the following statements:
1. Chhath is a Hindu festival dedicated to the Sun god and his wife Usha in order to thank them for bestowing the bounties of life on earth.
2. The word chhath means sixth and the festival is celebrated on the sixth day of the month Kartika of the Hindu lunar Bikram Sambat calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mainak Mehra answered
Chhath Puja - An Overview

Chhath Puja is a significant Hindu festival celebrated primarily in the Indian states of Bihar, Jharkhand, and Uttar Pradesh, as well as in certain regions of Nepal. It is observed to worship the Sun god, also known as Surya, and his wife Usha, in order to express gratitude for bestowing the bounties of life on earth. The festival holds immense cultural and religious importance among the people of these regions.

Statement 1: Chhath is a Hindu festival dedicated to the Sun god and his wife Usha in order to thank them for bestowing the bounties of life on earth.

This statement is correct. Chhath Puja is dedicated to worshipping the Sun god and his wife Usha. The Sun god is considered as the source of life, energy, and vitality, and Chhath Puja is performed to express gratitude and seek blessings for the well-being and prosperity of individuals and their families. Devotees offer prayers, perform rituals, and observe fasting during this festival.

Statement 2: The word "chhath" means "sixth" and the festival is celebrated on the sixth day of the month Kartika of the Hindu lunar Bikram Sambat calendar.

This statement is also correct. The term "chhath" refers to the number six in the Hindi language, as the festival is celebrated on the sixth day of the month Kartika in the Hindu lunar calendar. The Kartika month generally falls in October or November according to the Gregorian calendar. The festival lasts for four days, with the main rituals being performed on the third and fourth days.

Conclusion

Both the statements provided in the question are correct. Chhath Puja is a Hindu festival dedicated to the Sun god and his wife Usha, observed on the sixth day of the month Kartika in the Hindu lunar calendar. It holds immense cultural and religious significance, and devotees express gratitude and seek blessings for the well-being and prosperity of their families and communities.

With reference to the United Nations (UN) World Population Prospects 2022, consider the following statements:
1. The UN population report said the global population is growing at its slowest rate since 1950, having fallen under 1 per cent in 2020.
2. India is projected to overtake China as the world’s most populous country in 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Nair answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The UN population report did state that the global population is growing at its slowest rate since 1950, having fallen under 1 per cent in 2020.
- This is due to declining fertility rates, increased life expectancy, and other factors leading to slower population growth worldwide.

Statement 2:
- India is indeed projected to overtake China as the world's most populous country in 2023 according to the UN World Population Prospects 2022.
- This is based on current population trends and growth rates in both countries.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The global population growth rate is slowing down, while India is expected to become the most populous country in the world in the near future.

With reference to the Gilgit-Baltistan, consider the following statements:
1. It was formerly known as the Northern Areas. 
2. Gilgit Baltistan has been under the control of Pakistan since April 1949, when the leadership of the so-called Azad Jammu and Kashmir (AJK) was forced to sign away this territory to Pakistan. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
According to the Union defence minister Rajnath Singh the central government’s development journey in the Union territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh has only begun, and its northward journey will be complete after reaching Gilgit-Baltistan.
  • Gilgit-Baltistan (GB) was formerly known as the Northern Areas. 
  • It is the northernmost territory administered by Pakistan, providing the country’s only territorial frontier, and thus a land route, with China, where it meets the Xinjiang Autonomous Region.
  • To G-B’s west is Afghanistan, to its south is Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, and to the east, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • It is Indian territory, part of the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir that acceded to India in full after Independence, and which has been under illegal Pakistani occupation. 
  • Gilgit Baltistan has been under the control of Pakistan since April 1949, when the leadership of the so-called Azad Jammu and Kashmir (AJK) was forced to sign away this territory to Pakistan. 
  • However, the region does not have any place in the constitutional framework of Pakistan and has been kept under the tight control of the central government. 
  • Gilgit-Baltistan shares a border with Azad Kashmir, together with which it is referred to by the United Nations as "Pakistan administered Kashmir". 
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Bluebugging, consider the following statements:
1. It is a form of hacking that lets attackers access a device through its discoverable Bluetooth connection.
2. Once a device or phone is bluebugged, a hacker can listen to the calls, read and send messages and steal and modify contacts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Bluebugging

Bluebugging is a form of hacking that lets attackers access a device through its discoverable Bluetooth connection. This technique is used to bypass the security of Bluetooth-enabled devices and take control of them. Once a device or phone is bluebugged, a hacker can listen to the calls, read and send messages, and steal and modify contacts.

Statement 1: It is a form of hacking that lets attackers access a device through its discoverable Bluetooth connection.

This statement is correct. Bluebugging is a type of hacking that exploits the vulnerabilities of Bluetooth-enabled devices. Attackers use this technique to gain unauthorized access to a device's data and functionalities.

Statement 2: Once a device or phone is bluebugged, a hacker can listen to the calls, read and send messages and steal and modify contacts.

This statement is also correct. Bluebugging allows hackers to gain complete control over a device, which means they can access all the data stored on the device. Attackers can listen to phone calls, read and send messages, steal and modify contacts, and even install malware on the device.

Conclusion

Both statements are correct. Bluebugging is a serious security threat, and users should take precautions to secure their Bluetooth-enabled devices. To avoid being bluebugged, users should turn off their Bluetooth when not in use, avoid using discoverable mode, and keep their devices updated with the latest security patches.

With reference to the Red Mud, consider the following statements:
1. CSIR- Advanced Materials and Processes Research Institute (AMPRI) has recently converted red mud into X-ray shielding tiles.
2. Red Mud is the waste generated in the Bayer process of alumina production from bauxite.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gargi Saha answered
CSIR-Advanced Materials and Processes Research Institute (AMPRI) X-ray Shielding Tiles
Red Mud is a waste product generated during the Bayer process of alumina production from bauxite. Recently, CSIR-Advanced Materials and Processes Research Institute (AMPRI) has successfully converted red mud into X-ray shielding tiles.

Red Mud as a Waste Product
Red Mud is a highly alkaline waste material that poses environmental challenges due to its caustic nature. It is stored in large containment ponds, often causing land pollution and potential seepage into groundwater sources. Finding innovative ways to utilize red mud can help in reducing environmental impact and addressing waste management issues.

Conversion into X-ray Shielding Tiles
The conversion of red mud into X-ray shielding tiles by CSIR-AMPRI is a significant development in the field of waste management and material science. These tiles can be used in medical facilities, laboratories, and industrial settings where protection from X-ray radiation is necessary.

Significance of the Innovation
This innovation not only provides a sustainable solution for repurposing red mud but also addresses the growing need for effective radiation shielding materials. By converting waste into a valuable resource, the research institute has demonstrated the potential for transforming environmental challenges into opportunities for innovation and sustainable development.
Therefore, both statements are correct as CSIR-AMPRI has indeed converted red mud into X-ray shielding tiles, and red mud is a by-product of the Bayer process in alumina production.

With reference to the Lunar Eclipse, consider the following statements:
1. The Moon passes through Earth's penumbral shadow is known as Penumbral Lunar Eclipse.
2. A portion of the Moon passes through Earth's umbral shadow is known as Total Lunar Eclipse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashna Bose answered
Explanation:

The given statements are related to the Lunar Eclipse, which occurs when the Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon, causing the Moon to pass through Earth's shadow. Let's analyze each statement individually:

Statement 1: The Moon passes through Earth's penumbral shadow is known as Penumbral Lunar Eclipse.
- The Earth's shadow consists of two parts: the penumbra and the umbra.
- The penumbra is the outer part of the shadow, where only a portion of the Sun's light is blocked. It creates a faint shadow and does not completely obscure the Moon.
- When the Moon passes through the Earth's penumbral shadow, it results in a penumbral lunar eclipse.
- During this type of eclipse, the Moon appears slightly dimmer but does not darken significantly.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: A portion of the Moon passes through Earth's umbral shadow is known as Total Lunar Eclipse.
- The umbra is the inner part of the Earth's shadow, where all direct sunlight is blocked. It creates a dark, cone-shaped shadow.
- When the Moon enters the Earth's umbra, it results in a total lunar eclipse.
- During a total lunar eclipse, the Moon appears dark red or orange because some sunlight is refracted by the Earth's atmosphere and reaches the Moon.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect as it refers to a total lunar eclipse, not a portion of the Moon passing through the Earth's umbral shadow.

Conclusion:
- From the explanation above, we can conclude that statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

With reference to the Dark Net, consider the following statements:
1. It is the part of the Internet below the private deep web that uses custom software and hidden networks superimposed on the architecture of the Internet.
2. It operates in secrecy using specialized browsers, that prevent eavesdropping and traffic analysis attacks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

The Dark Net is a part of the internet that is not indexed by search engines and requires specific software or configurations to access. It is often associated with illegal activities and is used for anonymous communication and transactions. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy:

Statement 1: It is the part of the Internet below the private deep web that uses custom software and hidden networks superimposed on the architecture of the Internet.
This statement is correct. The Dark Net is situated below the private deep web, which includes websites that are not indexed by search engines. It uses custom software and hidden networks that are superimposed on the architecture of the Internet, allowing users to access content and services anonymously.

Statement 2: It operates in secrecy using specialized browsers that prevent eavesdropping and traffic analysis attacks.
This statement is also correct. The Dark Net operates in secrecy, and to access it, specialized browsers like Tor (The Onion Router) are often used. These browsers ensure anonymity by encrypting the user's data and routing it through a network of volunteer-operated servers called nodes. This prevents eavesdropping and traffic analysis attacks, making it difficult to trace the user's identity or their online activities.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points:
- The Dark Net is a part of the internet that is not indexed by search engines and requires specific software or configurations to access.
- It is below the private deep web, which consists of websites not indexed by search engines.
- The Dark Net uses custom software and hidden networks to operate.
- Specialized browsers like Tor are used to access the Dark Net.
- These browsers ensure anonymity by encrypting data and routing it through a network of volunteer-operated servers.
- The Dark Net operates in secrecy and prevents eavesdropping and traffic analysis attacks.

With reference to the Neelakurinji, consider the following statements:
1. It is a shrub prominently found in the shola forests of the Western Himalayas.
2. The blue flowers of Neelakurinji blossoms only once in 12 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Ahuja answered
Explanation:

Neelakurinji
- Neelakurinji is not a shrub found in the shola forests of the Western Himalayas.
- Neelakurinji is actually a shrub that is native to the Western Ghats in South India.

Blue Flowers Blossoming
- The blue flowers of Neelakurinji do indeed bloom only once in 12 years.
- This unique blooming pattern is a spectacle that attracts tourists and nature enthusiasts to witness the breathtaking phenomenon.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 2 only.

With reference to the Great Knot, consider the following statements:
1. The Great Knot is an international migratory wading bird that travels vast distances between the northern hemisphere breeding grounds and southern hemisphere summer feeding grounds.
2. They are listed as least concern in IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nidhi Kaur answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: The Great Knot is an international migratory wading bird that travels vast distances between the northern hemisphere breeding grounds and southern hemisphere summer feeding grounds.

This statement is correct. The Great Knot is indeed an international migratory wading bird. It breeds in the Arctic regions of Russia and then migrates to its summer feeding grounds in Australia and Southeast Asia. During its migration, it covers vast distances, often flying non-stop for thousands of kilometers. This bird is known for its remarkable endurance and ability to travel long distances.

Statement 2: They are listed as least concern in IUCN Red list.

This statement is incorrect. The Great Knot is not listed as "least concern" in the IUCN Red List. In fact, it is listed as "endangered." The IUCN Red List is a comprehensive inventory of the conservation status of species around the world. It categorizes species into various categories based on their risk of extinction, ranging from "least concern" to "extinct." The Great Knot has been assessed as "endangered" due to various factors such as habitat loss, degradation, and hunting.

In conclusion, the correct answer is:

a) 1 only

Which of the following countries is/are part IMT TRILAT joint maritime exercise?
1. India
2. Mozambique
3. Australia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

IMT TRILAT Joint Maritime Exercise

IMT TRILAT Joint Maritime Exercise involves the participation of three countries - India, Mozambique, and Australia. Let's break down the countries involved in this exercise:

- India: India is one of the countries participating in the IMT TRILAT Joint Maritime Exercise.
- Mozambique: Another country that is part of this joint maritime exercise is Mozambique.
- Australia: The third country involved in the exercise is Australia.

Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 'B', which states that India and Mozambique are part of the IMT TRILAT joint maritime exercise.

With reference to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), consider the following statements:
1. It is the National Standards Body of India under Ministry of Finance.
2. The headquarters is located in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Khanna answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is the National Standards Body of India under Ministry of Finance.
- The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is actually the National Standards Body of India under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, not under the Ministry of Finance.
- BIS is responsible for the development of technical standards and quality control in various fields to ensure consumer safety and quality products.

Statement 2: The headquarters is located in New Delhi.
- This statement is correct. The headquarters of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is indeed located in New Delhi, India.
- The BIS headquarters in New Delhi coordinates the activities of various regional and branch offices across the country to ensure standardization and quality control in different sectors.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 2 only.

With reference to the Coronal holes, consider the following statements:
1. These are regions on the sun’s surface from where fast solar wind gushes out into space.
2. Coronal holes can last only 2 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Roy answered
's surface where the magnetic field lines are open and allow high-speed solar wind to escape into space.
2. Coronal holes are usually associated with cooler temperatures and appear as dark areas on the sun's surface.
3. The presence of coronal holes can lead to increased geomagnetic activity on Earth, resulting in auroras.
4. Coronal holes are permanent features on the sun and do not change in shape or size over time.

Which of the statements are correct?

1. Statement 1 is correct.
2. Statement 2 is correct.
3. Statement 3 is correct.
4. Statement 4 is incorrect.

Coronal holes are regions on the sun's surface where the magnetic field lines are open and allow high-speed solar wind to escape into space. This makes statement 1 correct. Statement 2 is also correct as coronal holes are associated with cooler temperatures and appear as dark areas on the sun's surface. Statement 3 is also correct as the solar wind from coronal holes can cause increased geomagnetic activity on Earth, resulting in auroras. However, statement 4 is incorrect as coronal holes can change in shape and size over time.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to make available quality medicines, consumables and surgical items at affordable prices for all and reduce out of pocket expenditure of consumers/patients.
2. Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
According to the Union Health Minister Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana has significantly reduced patients’ out-of-pocket expenditure.
  • Objective: 
    • To make available quality medicines, consumables and surgical items at affordable prices for all and reduce out of pocket expenditure of consumers/patients.
    • To popularize generic medicines among the masses and eliminate the notion that low priced generic medicines are of inferior quality or are less effective.
    • Generate employment by engaging individual entrepreneurs in the opening of JanaushadhiKendras.
  • Implementing Agency:
    • Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
    • PMBI was established in December, 2008 under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Government of India. 
  • History:
    • Jan Aushadhi Scheme was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals in 2008 across the country.
    • In 2015, the Jan Aushadhi Scheme was revamped as Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana (PMJAY).
    • In 2016, it was again renamed as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), consider the following statements:
1. It aims to develop the backbone necessary to support the integrated digital health infrastructure of the country.
2. The CSIR will be the implementing agency of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)

- Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is an initiative launched by the Government of India to develop the backbone necessary to support the integrated digital health infrastructure of the country.
- The mission aims to establish a National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE) that will provide a wide range of data, information, and infrastructure services to support the delivery of healthcare services in the country.
- The NDHE will enable the creation of a unique digital health ID for every citizen, which will be linked to their health records and other related information.
- The ABDM will also facilitate the creation of a Health Facility Registry (HFR) that will serve as a comprehensive database of all healthcare facilities in the country.
- The mission will be implemented by the National Health Authority (NHA) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
- The ABDM will be supported by various agencies and organizations, including the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), National Informatics Centre (NIC), and National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHSRC).

Statement Analysis

- Statement 1: The statement is correct. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) aims to develop the backbone necessary to support the integrated digital health infrastructure of the country.
- Statement 2: The statement is incorrect. The implementing agency of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is the National Health Authority (NHA) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.

Hence, the correct answer is option 'A'.

With reference to UN Country Team (UNCT), consider the following statements:
1. It includes all the UN entities working on sustainable development, emergency, recovery and transition in programme countries.
2. It is led by the UN Resident Coordinator, who is the representative of the UN Secretary-General in a given country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The Union Minister of Environment Forest and Climate Change recently addressed the special meeting of UN Country Team (UNCT) on CoP 27.
  • The United Nations Country Team (UNCT) exists in 132 countries, covering all of the 162 countries where there are United Nations programmes.
  • The UNCT includes all the UN entities working on sustainable development, emergency, recovery and transition in programme countries.
  • The UNCT is led by the UN Resident Coordinator, who is the representative of the UN Secretary-General in a given country.
  • The UNCT ensures interagency coordination and decision-making at the country level. The goal is to plan and work together, as part of the Resident Coordinator system, to ensure the delivery of tangible results in support of the development agenda of the Government, including the UN Sustainable Development Cooperation Framework—which guides the UN country team’s development programme cycle, in joint agreement with the host government.
The Resident Coordinator System
  • It ensures the coordination of all organizations of the United Nations dealing with operational activities for development at the country level, regardless of the nature of their presence in the country.
  • It encompasses the UN Resident Coordinator, the UN Country Team and Resident Coordinator’s Office and is served by the UN Development Coordination Office.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the sovereign green bonds framework, consider the following statements:
1. Green bonds are financial instruments that generate funds for investment in environmentally sustainable and climate-suitable projects.
2. The proceeds will be deposited to the Public Accounts of India in line with the regular treasury policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The government recently approved the final sovereign green bonds framework in line with the Budget announcement (Union Budget FY 2022-23).
  • Green bonds are financial instruments that generate funds for investment in environmentally sustainable and climate-suitable projects.
  • Also, green bonds command a relatively lower cost of capital compared to regular bonds.
  • This approval will further strengthen India’s commitment towards its Nationally Determined Contribution targets, adopted under the Paris Agreement. It will help in attracting global and domestic investments in eligible green projects.
  • The proceeds generated from the issuance of such bonds will be deployed in Public Sector projects which help in reducing carbon intensity of the economy.
  • The proceeds will be deposited to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) in line with the regular treasury policy, and then funds from the CFI will be made available for eligible green projects.
  • Every year, the finance ministry will inform RBI about the spending on green projects for which the funds raised through these bonds will be used.
  • The framework comes close in the footsteps of India’s commitments under “Panchamrit” as elucidated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at COP26 at Glasgow in November 2021.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to battle of Saraighat, consider the following statements:
1. Lachit Borphukan was commander of the Ahom armies during the battle of Saraighat.
2. It took place during the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb’s reign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Bose answered
's reign.

Both statements are correct. The Battle of Saraighat was fought in 1671 between the Ahom Kingdom and the Mughal Empire. Lachit Borphukan was the commander of the Ahom armies during this battle, which resulted in a decisive victory for the Ahoms. The Mughal emperor Aurangzeb was the ruler of India at the time.

Which of the following battles was fought by Indian Army with Pakistan?
1. Battle of RezangLa
2. Battle of Asal Uttar 
3. Battle of Walong
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Arnav Malik answered
Understanding the Battles Involved
The question focuses on identifying the battles fought by the Indian Army against Pakistan. Let's analyze each battle mentioned:
1. Battle of Rezang La
- Context: The Battle of Rezang La was fought during the Sino-Indian War in 1962, primarily between India and China.
- Outcome: This battle is not related to Pakistan and hence does not qualify as one fought against Pakistan.
2. Battle of Asal Uttar
- Context: This battle took place during the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. It was a significant engagement where Indian forces successfully defended against the Pakistani army's advance in Punjab.
- Outcome: This is indeed a battle fought by the Indian Army against Pakistan.
3. Battle of Walong
- Context: The Battle of Walong occurred during the Indo-China conflict in 1962, not against Pakistan.
- Outcome: Therefore, this battle also does not meet the criteria.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Only the Battle of Asal Uttar is a correct answer in the context of battles fought between the Indian Army and Pakistan.
- The other two battles, Rezang La and Walong, were fought against China.
Thus, the correct choice is option 'A' (2 only).

With reference to Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), consider the following statements:
1. It is launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
2. The unemployment rate among females in urban areas has increased significantly in 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is indeed launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO). This survey is conducted periodically to collect data on various labor force indicators such as employment, unemployment, and labor force participation rates.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is incorrect. The PLFS data for 2022 does not show a significant increase in the unemployment rate among females in urban areas. The PLFS data is crucial for policymakers and researchers to understand the dynamics of the labor market and make informed decisions regarding employment policies.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', which is "1 only."

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), consider the following statements:
1. There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops.
2. Risks covered under the scheme include loss or damage to notified insured crops due to war and nuclear risks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Recently, Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare stated that it is open to taking pro-farmer changes in PMFBY in response to the recent climate crisis and rapid technological advances.
  • Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is the government sponsored crop insurance scheme that integrates multiple stakeholders on a single platform.
  • Highlights of the scheme
    • PMFBY is a replacement scheme of NAIS / MNAIS, there will be exemption from Service Tax liability of all the services involved in the implementation of the scheme
    • There is no upper limit on Government subsidy. Even if balance premium is 90%, it will be borne by the Government.
    • The use of technology will be encouraged to a great extent. Smart phones will be used to capture and upload data of crop cutting to reduce the delays in claim payment to farmers. Remote sensing will be used to reduce the number of crop cutting experiments.
  • Risks covered under the scheme: Risk of sowing, planting and germination failure, Risk of standing crop failure, Risk of post-harvest losses, Protection against calamities.
    • Exclusions – Loss or damage to notified insured crops due to war, nuclear risks, malicious damage and other preventable risks is excluded from the scope of coverage.
  • Coverage of Crops: Food crops (Cereals, Millets and Pulses), Oilseeds, Annual Commercial / Annual Horticultural crops.
  • Premiums Under the Scheme:
    • There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops.
    • In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM), consider the following statements:
1. It is launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
2. It has a target to take the domestic market size of technical textile sector to $ 40-50 Bn by the year 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the Ministry of Textiles in partnership with Northern India Textile Research Association (NITRA) and Indian Technical Textile Association (ITTA) organized a full-day event “National Conclave on Technical Textiles – Protech”
What are Technical Textiles?
  • Technical Textiles are textile products which are manufactured primarily for their functionality and use rather than the aesthetic appeal.
  • These products are broadly classified into 12 different categories- Agrotech, Oekotech, Buildtech, Meditech, Geotech, Clothtech, Mobiltech, Hometech, Sportstech,Indutech, Protech, Packtech.
Technical Textiles Mission in India
  • The Ministry of Textiles has launched NTTM to increase the penetration level of technical textiles in India while leveraging the extraordinary growth rate of the sector.
    • The Indian Technical Textiles Sector has an Annual Average Growth Rate (AAGR) of 12% which is three times the world average of 4%.
  • The aim of the mission is to position India as a global leader in Technical Textiles.
  • The mission will comprise of the following four components:
    • Research, Innovation and Development
    • Promotion and Market Development
    • Export Promotion
    • Education, Training, Skill Development
  • Implementation: The NTTM has been approved with an implementation period of four years starting from FY 2020-21 till FY 2023-24. The total outlay of the mission is INR 1480 Cr.
  • Target: The Mission has a target to take domestic market size of technical textile sector to $ 40-50 Bn by the year 2024 with an average growth rate of 15-20% per annum.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Carbon Border Tax, consider the following statements:
1. It is a duty on imports based on the amount of carbon emissions resulting from the production of the product in question.
2. The carbon border tax involves imposing an import duty on a product manufactured in a country with more lax climate rules than the one buying it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
The BASIC group, comprising India, China, Brazil and South Africa, recently said in a statement that “unilateral measures and discriminatory practices, such as carbon border taxes, that could result in market distortion and aggravate the trust deficit amongst Parties, must be avoided”.
  • A carbon border adjustment tax is a duty on imports based on the amount of carbon emissions resulting from the production of the product in question. As a price on carbon, it discourages emissions. 
  • The carbon border tax involves imposing an import duty on a product manufactured in a country with more lax climate rules than the one buying it.
European Union’s stand:
  • The European Union (EU) has proposed a policy — called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism — to tax products such as cement and steel, that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026.
  • EU claimed that the tax will benefit the environment and provide a level playing field to companies, those opposing it call the tax unfair and protectionist.
BASIC group’s stand:
  • They say it puts the burden of climate compliance on developing countries, when historically, they have done much less to pollute the environment and yet are often more vulnerable to effects of climate change.
‘Carbon leakage’:
  • Some developed nations, in efforts to cut emissions, impose high costs on carbon-intensive businesses in their own countries.
  • Businesses can potentially sidestep this simply by moving production to a country with less stringent rules, a practice called carbon leakage.
Hence both statements are correct.

Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

Chapter doubts & questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.

Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!

Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev