All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the Commission for Air Quality Management, consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Commission for Air Quality Management

- The Commission for Air Quality Management is a statutory body established by the Government of India in 2020.
- Its primary objective is to combat air pollution in the National Capital Region (NCR) and its adjoining areas.
- It is not headed by the Prime Minister of India, but by a Chairperson who is appointed by the central government.
- The Commission has the power to issue directions, guidelines, and protocols to various state governments and authorities to ensure compliance with air quality standards.
- It also has the authority to take punitive measures against those who violate these guidelines or fail to take adequate steps to control air pollution.
- The Commission is mandated to coordinate efforts between various stakeholders, including central and state governments, local authorities, and private entities, to improve air quality in the region.
- It is also responsible for conducting research and developing strategies to mitigate the impact of air pollution on public health and the environment.

Correct Answer: Option A (1 Only) - The Commission for Air Quality Management is a statutory body, but it is not headed by the Prime Minister of India.

With reference to the Environmental-Social-Governance (ESG), consider the following statements:
1. It is a term that has been coined to refer to specific data designed to be used by investors for evaluating the material risk that the organization is taking on based on the externalities it is generating.
2. ESG reporting in India commenced in 2009 with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) issuing the Voluntary Guidelines on Corporate Social Responsibility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Gupta answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
1. Environmental-Social-Governance (ESG) is a term that refers to specific data used by investors to evaluate the material risk that an organization is taking on based on the externalities it is generating. ESG factors encompass environmental factors (such as climate change, resource depletion, and pollution), social factors (such as labor standards, human rights, and community engagement), and governance factors (such as board composition, executive compensation, and shareholder rights). Evaluating these factors helps investors assess the sustainability and societal impact of an organization.

2. ESG reporting in India did commence in 2009 with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) issuing the Voluntary Guidelines on Corporate Social Responsibility. These guidelines were aimed at encouraging companies to adopt responsible business practices and disclose their impact on society and the environment. The guidelines provide a framework for companies to report on their environmental, social, and governance initiatives voluntarily.

ESG reporting in India has further evolved since the issuance of the Voluntary Guidelines on Corporate Social Responsibility. In 2012, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) mandated the top 100 listed companies to submit Business Responsibility Reports (BRRs) as part of their annual reports, which include disclosure on ESG factors. This move aimed to enhance transparency and accountability in corporate practices.

In recent years, there has been a growing recognition of the importance of ESG factors in investment decisions, leading to increased focus on ESG reporting by companies. The MCA has also introduced the Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021, which further strengthens the reporting requirements and expands the scope of corporate social responsibility.

In conclusion, statement 1 correctly defines ESG as a term used by investors to evaluate the material risk generated by organizations based on externalities. Statement 2 is also correct as ESG reporting in India did commence in 2009 with the issuance of the Voluntary Guidelines on Corporate Social Responsibility by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

With reference to the Compulsorily Convertible Preference Shares, consider the following statements:
1. It gives the assurance of a fixed rate of return plus the opportunity for capital appreciation.
2. These shares get converted to ordinary equity shares after 10-15 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Insurance regulator IRDAI has rejected Fairfax proposal to convert the company’s holdings in compulsory convertible preferred shares (CCPS) issued by Go Digit Infoworks into equity shares.
  • CCPS, or Compulsorily Convertible Preference Shares, are a key element of startup financing.
  • It gives the assurance of a fixed rate of return plus the opportunity for capital appreciation.
  • These shares carry certain terms—if an early investor has CCPS, he can have more rights than other investors who come in later at a higher valuation.
  • It also helps investors maintain their stake and have a say even if their stake gets diluted later.
  • However, these shares get converted to ordinary equity shares after 10-15 years.
  • That is more than sufficient time for most startups to give their investors an exit.
  • CCPS also helps founders keep control of a company even if their stake is lower than that of investors.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Tumour Necrosis Factor (TNF), consider the following statements:
1. It is a cytokine which is produced when the immune system is stimulated.
2. Blood cells made in the bone marrow are the major producers of TNF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

TNF, or Tumour Necrosis Factor, is a cytokine, which is a type of protein molecule that is produced by immune cells when the immune system is stimulated. TNF is produced by a variety of immune cells, including macrophages, monocytes, T-cells, and B-cells.

TNF plays an important role in the immune response, particularly in the inflammatory response. It is involved in the regulation of cell survival and death, as well as in the recruitment and activation of other immune cells. TNF can also contribute to the development of chronic inflammation and autoimmune diseases.

Statement 1 is correct because TNF is indeed a cytokine that is produced when the immune system is stimulated.

Statement 2 is not entirely accurate. While blood cells made in the bone marrow, such as monocytes and macrophages, do produce TNF, they are not the only sources of this cytokine. Other types of immune cells, such as T-cells and B-cells, can also produce TNF. Additionally, non-immune cells such as adipocytes and endothelial cells can produce TNF in response to certain stimuli.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C, both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 needs to be clarified.

With reference to the Aichi Targets, consider the following statements:
1. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) adopted the Aichi Biodiversity Targets at the Delhi conference in 2010.
2. The Aichi Biodiversity Targets laid out a 10-year plan (Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020), which had 20 global biodiversity targets, divided under five goals, with a deadline of 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Sharma answered
Statement 1: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) adopted the Aichi Biodiversity Targets at the Delhi conference in 2010.

This statement is incorrect.
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) did not adopt the Aichi Biodiversity Targets at the Delhi conference in 2010. The Aichi Biodiversity Targets were actually adopted at the 10th meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the CBD, which took place in Nagoya, Japan in 2010. The Nagoya conference was attended by representatives from 193 countries, including India.

Statement 2: The Aichi Biodiversity Targets laid out a 10-year plan (Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020), which had 20 global biodiversity targets, divided under five goals, with a deadline of 2020.

This statement is correct.
The Aichi Biodiversity Targets indeed laid out a 10-year plan called the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020. This plan included 20 global biodiversity targets that were divided under five strategic goals. The goals of the Aichi Targets were to address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss, reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity, improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, enhance the benefits provided by biodiversity, and enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge management, and capacity building.

The Aichi Biodiversity Targets were designed to provide a framework for action by governments and other stakeholders to halt the loss of biodiversity and promote its sustainable use. Each target had specific indicators to measure progress towards its achievement. The targets covered various aspects of biodiversity conservation, including protected areas, sustainable use of biodiversity, conservation of ecosystems, and mainstreaming biodiversity across sectors.

The deadline for achieving the Aichi Biodiversity Targets was set for 2020. However, the global community acknowledged that significant progress was not made towards all the targets by the deadline. Therefore, a new global biodiversity framework is currently being negotiated under the CBD to set new targets for the period beyond 2020.

In conclusion, the correct statement is option 'B': 2 only. The Aichi Biodiversity Targets laid out a 10-year plan (Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020), which had 20 global biodiversity targets, divided under five goals, with a deadline of 2020.

With reference to Dark Night Sky Reserve, consider the following statements:
1. India's first Dark Night Sky Reserve will be set up at Hanle in Ladakh.
2. USA has the largest number of Dark Night Sky Reserves in the world
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nidhi Kaur answered
Statement 1: India's first Dark Night Sky Reserve will be set up at Hanle in Ladakh.
Statement 2: USA has the largest number of Dark Night Sky Reserves in the world.

Explanation:

Statement 1: India's first Dark Night Sky Reserve will be set up at Hanle in Ladakh.
This statement is correct. The Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) is located in Hanle, which is a high-altitude village in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir. The Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) has proposed to set up India's first Dark Night Sky Reserve in Hanle. The purpose of establishing this reserve is to protect the night sky from light pollution and promote astronomical research and tourism. It aims to preserve the natural darkness of the night sky, which is essential for astronomical observations.

Statement 2: USA has the largest number of Dark Night Sky Reserves in the world.
This statement is incorrect. While the USA has several Dark Sky Parks and Reserves, it does not have the largest number in the world. The International Dark-Sky Association (IDA) is an organization that designates and recognizes various dark sky places around the world. As of now, the largest number of Dark Night Sky Reserves in the world is in New Zealand. New Zealand has multiple Dark Sky Reserves, including the Aoraki Mackenzie Dark Sky Reserve, which was the first reserve to be designated as such in the southern hemisphere. These reserves have strict lighting regulations and are renowned for their pristine night skies.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. India's first Dark Night Sky Reserve is set to be established in Hanle, Ladakh. The second statement is incorrect as the largest number of Dark Night Sky Reserves in the world is in New Zealand, not the USA.

With reference to the Global Snow Leopard Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP), consider the following statements:
1. It is a first-of-its-kind intergovernmental alliance for the conservation of the snow leopard and its unique ecosystem.
2. The GSLEP Program’s secretariat is based in New York.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Saini answered
Overview of GSLEP
The Global Snow Leopard Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) is a significant initiative aimed at conserving the snow leopard and its habitat.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: Intergovernmental Alliance
- GSLEP is indeed the first intergovernmental alliance dedicated to the conservation of snow leopards.
- It was officially launched in 2013 and involves multiple countries across the snow leopard's range, emphasizing collaboration among governments to protect this endangered species and its ecosystem.
- Statement 2: Secretariat Location
- The GSLEP Program’s secretariat is not located in New York.
- Instead, it is based in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan, which serves as a central hub for coordinating conservation efforts among the participating countries.
Conclusion
Given the above analysis, only the first statement is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A':
- a) 1 only
The GSLEP plays a crucial role in uniting countries for the protection of the snow leopard, but the misconception about its secretariat’s location leads to the incorrectness of the second statement.

With reference to Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), consider the following statements:
1 The Ministerial Council is the highest authority of the organization.
2. At present, GCC is currently India’s largest trading partner bloc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Recently, India-Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) decide to pursue resumption of Free Trade Agreement (FTA) Negotiations.
  • Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries—Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the United Arab Emirates, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman. The GCC was established in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in May 1981.
  • Objective: The purpose of the GCC is to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and Islamic cultures. The Presidency of the council rotates annually.
  • Organizational structure:
    • The Supreme Council is the highest authority of the organization. It is composed of the heads of the Member-States. Its presidency rotates periodically among the Member States in alphabetical order.
    • The Ministerial Council: It is composed of the Foreign Ministers of all the Member States or other ministers deputizing for them. It meets every three months to implement the decisions of the Supreme Council and to propose new policy.
    • The Secretariat General: It is the administrative arm of the alliance, which monitors policy implementation and arranges meetings.
India’s trade relations with GCC
  • GCC is currently India’s largest trading partner bloc with bilateral trade in FY 2021-22 valued at over USD 154 billion.
  • GCC countries contribute almost 35% of India’s oil imports and 70% of gas imports.
    • India’s overall crude oil imports from the GCC in 2021-22 were about $48 billion, while LNG and LPG imports in 2021-22 were about $21 billion. Investments from the GCC in India are currently valued at over USD 18 billion.
Hence only statements 2 is correct.

With reference to Carbon Markets, consider the following statements:
1. A carbon credit is a kind of tradable permit that equals one tonne of carbon dioxide removed, reduced, or sequestered from the atmosphere.
2. Paris Agreement provides for the use of international carbon markets by countries to fulfil their nationally determined contributions (NDCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The Energy Conservation (Amendments) Bill, 2022, passed by the Rajya Sabha recently, has several significant features. It will foster a carbon market in India, through the creation of a National emissions trading system (National ETS). 
What are carbon markets?
  • Article 6 of the Paris Agreement provides for the use of international carbon markets by countries to fulfil their nationally determined contributions (NDCs).
  • Carbon markets are essentially a tool for putting a price on carbon emissions— they establish trading systems where carbon credits or allowances can be bought and sold.
  • carbon credit is a kind of tradable permit that, per United Nations standards, equals one tonne of carbon dioxide removed, reduced, or sequestered from the atmosphere.
  • Carbon allowances or caps, meanwhile, are determined by countries or governments according to their emission reduction targets.
  • A United Nations Development Program released recently noted that interest in carbon markets is growing globally, i.e, 83% of NDCs submitted by countries mention their intent to make use of international market mechanisms to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
What are the types of carbon markets?
  • There are broadly two types of carbon markets:
    • compliance markets and
    • voluntary markets
Voluntary markets:
  • Voluntary markets are those in which emitters— corporations, private individuals, and others— buy carbon credits to offset the emission of one tonne of CO 2 or equivalent greenhouse gases.
  • Such carbon credits are created by activities which reduce CO 2 from the air, such as afforestation.
  • In a voluntary market, a corporation looking to compensate for its unavoidable GHG emissions purchases carbon credits from an entity engaged in projects that reduce, remove, capture, or avoid emissions.
  • For Instance, in the aviation sector, airlines may purchase carbon credits to offset the carbon footprints of the flights they operate. In voluntary markets, credits are verified by private firms as per popular standards. There are also traders and online registries where climate projects are listed and certified credits can be bought.
Compliance markets:
  • Compliance markets— set up by policies at the national, regional, and/or international level— are officially regulated.
  • Currently, compliance markets mostly operate under a principle called ‘cap-and-trade”, most popular in the European Union (EU).
  • Under the EU’s emissions trading system (ETS) launched in 2005, member countries set a cap or limit for emissions in different sectors, such as power, oil, manufacturing, agriculture, and waste management.
  • This cap is determined as per the climate targets of countries and is lowered successively to reduce emissions.
  • Entities in this sector are issued annual allowances or permits by governments equal to the emissions they can generate. 
  • If companies produce emissions beyond the capped amount, they have to purchase additional permit, either through official auctions or from companies which kept their emissions below the limit, leaving them with surplus allowances.
  • This makes up the ‘trade’ part of cap-and-trade. 
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Startups Intellectual Property Protection (SIPP) scheme, consider the following statements:
1. Any Start-Up certified by the Start-up Certification Board as having an innovative business can apply.
2. It provided that an entity shall cease to be a Start-up if its turnover for the previous financial years has exceeded INR 25 crore or it has completed 7 years from the date of incorporation/registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Sen answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: Any Start-Up certified by the Start-up Certification Board as having an innovative business can apply.

This statement is correct. The Startups Intellectual Property Protection (SIPP) scheme is open to any Start-Up that has been certified by the Start-up Certification Board as having an innovative business. The certification is provided to a Start-Up that is working towards innovation, development, deployment, or commercialization of new products, processes, or services driven by technology or intellectual property.

Statement 2: It provided that an entity shall cease to be a Start-up if its turnover for the previous financial years has exceeded INR 25 crore or it has completed 7 years from the date of incorporation/registration.

This statement is incorrect. According to the Startups Intellectual Property Protection (SIPP) scheme, an entity shall cease to be a Start-up if its turnover for the previous financial years has exceeded INR 100 crore, not INR 25 crore. Additionally, the time period for ceasing to be a Start-up is 10 years from the date of incorporation/registration, not 7 years.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct, and the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

In summary:
- Statement 1 is correct. Any Start-Up certified by the Start-up Certification Board as having an innovative business can apply.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The turnover threshold for ceasing to be a Start-up is INR 100 crore, and the time period is 10 years from the date of incorporation/registration.

With reference to the SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN), consider the following statements:
1. SpIN is India’s first dedicated platform for innovation, curation, and venture development for the burgeoning space entrepreneurial ecosystem.
2. ISRO recently signed an MoU with Social Alpha to establish SpaceTech Innovation Network.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
ISRO inks MoU with Social Alpha to establish SpaceTech Innovation Network.
  • SpIN is India’s first dedicated platform for innovation, curation, and venture development for the burgeoning space entrepreneurial ecosystem.
  • The tie-up is a one-of-a-kind public-private collaboration for start-ups and SMEs in the space industry.
  • SpIN will primarily focus on facilitating space tech entrepreneurs in three distinct innovation categories:
    • Geospatial Technologies and Downstream Applications;
    • Enabling Technologies for Space & Mobility;
    • Aerospace Materials, Sensors, and Avionics.
Social Alpha
  • Social Alpha is a multistage innovation curation and venture development platform for science and technology start-ups that address the most critical social, economic, and environmental challenges through the power of entrepreneurship and market-creating innovations.
  • Since its inception in 2016, Social Alpha has supported more 200 start-ups including 60+ seed investments.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA), consider the following statements:
1. It is the national rating system of India.
2. It was jointly set up by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gargi Pillai answered
The correct answer is option 'c' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is the national rating system of India. It is a system that evaluates the environmental performance of buildings and promotes sustainable development. GRIHA was jointly set up by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

GRIHA is a comprehensive green building rating system that assesses the environmental impact of buildings and helps in promoting sustainable practices in the construction industry. It provides a framework to evaluate the environmental performance of buildings based on various criteria such as energy efficiency, water conservation, waste management, and indoor air quality.

GRIHA aims to reduce the energy consumption and environmental impact of buildings by promoting sustainable design and construction practices. It encourages the use of renewable energy sources, efficient building materials, and technologies that minimize the carbon footprint of buildings. GRIHA also emphasizes the importance of water conservation, waste management, and the provision of a healthy indoor environment.

GRIHA ratings are awarded based on the number of points obtained by a building in various categories. The ratings range from one to five stars, with five being the highest rating. Buildings that meet the highest standards of sustainability and environmental performance are awarded the GRIHA 5-star rating.

GRIHA is recognized by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy as the national rating system for green buildings in India. It has been widely adopted by the construction industry and has become a benchmark for sustainable buildings in the country.

In conclusion, GRIHA is the national rating system of India for assessing the environmental performance of buildings. It was jointly set up by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Both statements given in the question are correct.

With references to the Raktsey Karpo Apricots, consider the following statements
1. This is being promoted under One District One Product for Kargil.
2. This is the first-ever ever Geographical Indication Tag from the Ladakh region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Shah answered
Introduction:
The Raktsey Karpo Apricots have gained recognition and are being promoted under the One District One Product (ODOP) initiative for the Kargil district. Additionally, these apricots have also received the first-ever Geographical Indication (GI) tag from the Ladakh region.

Explanation:
Statement 1: This is being promoted under One District One Product for Kargil.
- The One District One Product (ODOP) initiative is a flagship program of the Government of India aimed at promoting specific products from each district to boost local economy and create employment opportunities.
- Under this initiative, specific products are identified in each district based on their uniqueness, market potential, and demand.
- The Raktsey Karpo Apricots from Kargil have been identified as one of the products to be promoted under the ODOP initiative.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: This is the first-ever Geographical Indication Tag from the Ladakh region.
- Geographical Indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
- The GI tag provides legal protection to the products and helps in preventing unauthorized use of the geographical indication by others.
- The Raktsey Karpo Apricots have received the GI tag, making them the first-ever product from the Ladakh region to be awarded this recognition.
- Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Raktsey Karpo Apricots are being promoted under the One District One Product initiative for Kargil, and they have also received the first-ever Geographical Indication tag from the Ladakh region. This recognition not only helps in promoting the local economy but also protects the unique identity of the apricots.

With reference to First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) system, consider the following statements:
1. It is a lending model between a fintech and a regulated entity.
2. Under this, the bank/NBFC partners lend through the fintech but from their own books.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Two months after the Reserve Bank issued guidelines on digital lending, banks, NBFCs and fintech players are still awaiting clarity on many aspects, including the FLDG system.
About:
  • FLDG is a lending model between a fintech and a regulated entity in which a third party guarantees to compensate up to a certain percentage of default in a loan portfolio of the regulated entities (RE).
  • Under these agreements, the fintech originates a loan and promises to compensate the partners up to a pre-decided percentage in case customers fail to repay.
  • The bank/NBFC partners lend through the fintech but from their own books. FLDG helps expand the customer base of traditional lenders but relies on the fintech's underwriting capabilities.
  • A report by an RBI-constituted working group on digital lending has laid down risks of FLDG agreements with unregulated entities. The other concern is that FLDG costs are often passed on to customers.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Agni V, consider the following statements:
1. It is an air-to-surface Nuclear Capable Ballistic missile.
2. It can carry both nuclear and traditional weapons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
India has successfully conducted night trials of nuclear-capable ballistic missile Agni V.
  • Type: It is a surface-to-surface Nuclear Capable Ballistic missile.
  • Warhead: It can carry both nuclear and traditional weapons.
  • Range: Agni-V, with a range of over 5,000 km, is India’s longest-range ballistic missile and can reach most parts of China, making it the mainstay of India’s triad to deliver nuclear weapons.
  • Dimensions: it is a 17-meter long missile with two-meter diameter.
  • Development: It has been indigenously developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  • Technologies: Agni-V is the most advanced missile in the Agni series featuring many new technologies, including the very high accuracy Ring Laser Gyro based Inertial Navigation System (RINS) and Micro Navigation System (MINS) which improves the accuracy of the missile.
  • With the Agni-V, India joins an elite club of countries like US, Russia, the UK, France and China, which boast Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) capabilities.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0, consider the following statements:
1. The main objective of the Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0 is to increase share of air carriage in the modal mix for transportation of Agri-produce, which includes horticulture, fishery, livestock and processed products.
2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
58 airports will be covered under Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0
  • Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0 was announced on 27 October 2021.
What is the objective?
  • The main objective of the Krishi Udan Scheme 2.0 is to increase share of air carriage in the modal mix for transportation of Agri-produce, which includes horticulture, fishery, livestock and processed products.
  • The scheme assists farmers in transporting agriculture products so that it improves their value realisation.
  • The Scheme aims to ensure seamless, cost-effective, time bound, air transportation and associated logistics for all Agri-produce originating especially from North-East, hilly and tribal regions of the country.
    • Few successful examples are air transportation of 'King Chillies, Burmese Grapes & Assamese Lemon' from Gauwahati, 'Jackfruit' from Tripura and 'Litchi' from Darbhanga.
Waiver:
  • For facilitating and incentivising movement of agri-produce by air transportation, Airports Authority of India (AAI) provides full waiver of Landing, Parking, Terminal Navigational Landing Charges (TNLC) and Route Navigation Facility Charges (RNFC) for Indian freighters and P2C (Passenger-to-Cargo) Aircraft.
  • The Ministry of Civil Aviation has also asked States to reduce sales tax on aviation turbine fuel to one perc ent for airlines under the Krishi UDAN 2.0 scheme.
Budget:
  • There is no specific budget allocation under Krishi Udan Scheme.
Ministries/Departments:
  • It is a convergence scheme where eight Ministries/Departments namely Ministry of Civil Aviation, Department of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region would leverage their existing schemes to strengthen the logistics for transportation of Agri-produce.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar Act, 2016.
2. It is responsible for Aadhaar enrolment and authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) maintains that before accepting Aadhaar in physical or electronic form, as proof of identity, it must be verified.
  • The process prevents unscrupulous elements, and anti-social elements from indulging in any possible misuse. It also promotes usage hygiene, and reasserts UIDAI’s stand that any 12-digit number is not an Aadhaar.
  • Tampering of Aadhaar documents can be detected by offline verification, and tampering is a punishable offence and liable for penalties under Section 35 of the Aadhaar Act.
UIDAI
  • It is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (“Aadhaar Act 2016”).
  • It was created to issue Unique Identification numbers (UID), named as “Aadhaar”, to all residents of India.
  • Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, UIDAI is responsible for Aadhaar enrolment and authentication, including operation and management of all stages of Aadhaar life cycle and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals.
  • Composition of the Authority:
    • UIDAI consists of a Chairperson, two part-time Members and the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), who is also the Member-Secretary of the Authority.
  • Finance & Budgets:
    • The Finance & Accounts Division (FD) is headed by the Deputy Director General (Finance) who is Financial Advisor in UIDAI. FD renders professional advice to the CEO, UIDAI on all issues which have financial implications.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), consider the following statements:
1. It is launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
2. The unemployment rate among females in urban areas has increased significantly in 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Disha Desai answered
Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)

- The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO) to collect data on various aspects of the labour force in India.
- The survey is conducted in two rounds, one for rural areas and the other for urban areas.
- It provides information on various indicators such as labour force participation rate, employment rate, unemployment rate, etc.

Statements

- Statement 1 is correct. PLFS is launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO) to collect data on various aspects of the labour force in India.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The PLFS data is released with a lag of several months. The latest data available is for the period July 2019 to June 2020. Hence, the statement that the unemployment rate among females in urban areas has increased significantly in 2022 is incorrect.

Conclusion

- The correct answer is option 'A' as only Statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Srimukhalingam temple, consider the following statements:
1. It is built in Kalinga architectural style.
2. It is located on the banks of the Vamsadhara river.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Ghoshal answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option C: Both 1 and 2.

1. Built in Kalinga architectural style:
The Srimukhalingam temple is indeed built in the Kalinga architectural style. Kalinga architecture refers to the architectural style that developed in the ancient Kalinga region, which is now present-day Odisha and some parts of Andhra Pradesh. This architectural style is known for its unique features such as the presence of multiple spires or shikharas, intricate carvings, and use of stone as the primary building material. The Srimukhalingam temple showcases these characteristics with its elaborate carvings and distinct spires.

2. Located on the banks of the Vamsadhara river:
The Srimukhalingam temple is located on the banks of the Vamsadhara river. The temple is situated in the village of Srimukhalingam, which is in the Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh, India. The Vamsadhara river flows near the temple, adding to the scenic beauty of the surroundings. The presence of the river has not only made the temple a popular pilgrimage site but also contributes to the overall ambiance and tranquility of the area.

In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Srimukhalingam temple is built in the Kalinga architectural style and is located on the banks of the Vamsadhara river.

With reference to the Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE), consider the following statements:
1. The UDISE+ system of online data collection from the schools was developed by Department of School Education & Literacy in the year 2018-19.
2. In UDISE+ system, improvements have been made particularly in the areas related to data capture, data mapping and data verification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Ministry of Education recently released a detailed report on Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) 2021-22 on school education of India.
Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE):
  • The UDISE+ system of online data collection from the schools was developed by Department of School Education & Literacy in the year 2018-19 to overcome the issues related to erstwhile practice of manual data filling in paper format.
  • In UDISE+ system, improvements have been made particularly in the areas related to data capture, data mapping and data verification.
  • In UDISE+ 2021-22, additional data on important indicators viz., digital library, peer learning, hard spot identification, number of books available in school library, etc have been collected for the first time to align with the National Education Policy 2020 initiatives.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Social Progress Index (SPI), consider the following statements:
1. It was mandated by NITI Aayog.
2. It is a comprehensive tool intended to be a holistic measure of the Social Progress made by the country at the national and sub-national levels. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Economic Advisory Council to Prime Minister (EAC-PM) will release the Social Progress Index (SPI) for states and districts of India on December 20, 2022. 
  • SPI is a comprehensive tool intended to be a holistic measure of the Social Progress made by the country at the national and sub-national levels. 
  • The report has been prepared by Institute for Competitiveness, headed by Dr Amit Kapoor and the Social Progress Imperative, headed by Michael Green.
  • It was mandated by Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister of India.
What is objective of the SPI?
  • The report aims to provide a systematic account of the social progress made at all levels in the country with state and district-wise rankings and scorecards.
  • The report also sheds light on the achievements of the districts that have performed well on the index and the role of the states in achieving social progress.
  • A special section of the report provides an analysis of the Aspirational Districts of India, leading to a broader understanding of the social progress at the grassroots level. 
  • The report will act as a critical enabler and tool for policymakers in the coming years for achieving sustained socio-economic growth.  
Components:
  • SPI assesses the performance of states and districts on three dimensions of social progress: Basic Human Needs, Foundations of Wellbeing, and Opportunity. Within each dimension, there are four components. 
  • The dimension of Basic Human Needs assesses the performance of states and districts in terms of Nutrition and Basic Medical Care, Water and Sanitation, Personal Safety and Shelter. 
  • The dimension of Foundations of Wellbeing evaluates the progress made by the country across the components of Access to Basic Knowledge, Access to Information and Communication, Health and Wellness, and Environmental Quality. 
  • The dimension of Opportunity focuses on aspects of Personal Rights, Personal Freedom and Choice, Inclusiveness, and Access to Advanced Education. 
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Re-Hab Project, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative under NITI Aayog.
2. Under this project fencing of bee boxes is installed in such areas from where elephants move towards the human settlements and farmers' agriculture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrutha Gupta answered
Understanding the Re-Hab Project
The Re-Hab Project, which stands for "Rehabilitation of elephants and Human-Animal Conflict," aims to mitigate human-elephant conflicts in India. However, the statements presented in the question require careful evaluation.
Statement 1: It is an initiative under NITI Aayog.
- This statement is incorrect. The Re-Hab Project is not directly an initiative of NITI Aayog. Instead, it is often associated with various state governments and wildlife conservation organizations that address the issue of human-animal conflict.
Statement 2: Under this project, fencing of bee boxes is installed in areas where elephants move towards human settlements.
- This statement is correct. The project involves creating a barrier using bee boxes to deter elephants from entering agricultural fields and human settlements. The presence of bees is known to scare elephants away, thereby reducing conflict and protecting crops.
Conclusion
- Hence, the correct answer is option B, as only the second statement is accurate regarding the Re-Hab Project.
Key Takeaways:
- NITI Aayog: Not involved with Re-Hab.
- Bee Boxes: Effective method for deterring elephants.
- Human-Elephant Conflict: Main focus of the project.
This understanding helps in grasping the significance of innovative measures like the Re-Hab Project in wildlife conservation and community safety.

With reference to the Agnikul Cosmos, consider the following statements:
1. Agnikul Cosmos sets up India’s first private space vehicle launchpad at Sriharikota.
2. Agnibaan is Agnikul’s highly customizable, two-stage launch vehicle, capable of taking up to 100 kg payload to orbits around 700 km high (low Earth orbits) and enables plug-and-play configuration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Charvi Sen answered
Overview of Agnikul Cosmos
Agnikul Cosmos is a prominent player in India's burgeoning private space sector, known for its innovative approaches to launch vehicles and infrastructure.
Statement 1: Launchpad at Sriharikota
- Agnikul Cosmos has indeed set up India’s first private space vehicle launchpad.
- This launchpad is located at Sriharikota, which is the primary site for satellite launches in India, managed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Statement 2: Agnibaan Launch Vehicle
- Agnibaan is Agnikul’s flagship product, characterized by its highly customizable, two-stage launch vehicle design.
- It is designed to carry payloads of up to 100 kg to low Earth orbit (LEO), specifically to orbits around 700 km.
- The vehicle's plug-and-play configuration allows for modifications based on specific mission requirements, enhancing its versatility.
Conclusion: Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements about Agnikul Cosmos are accurate:
- The establishment of the launchpad at Sriharikota confirms Statement 1.
- The specifications and capabilities of the Agnibaan launch vehicle affirm Statement 2.
Thus, the correct answer to the question is option 'C', as both statements are correct.

With reference to the Digi Yatra, consider the following statements:
1. Digi Yatra is conceived to achieve contactless, seamless processing of passengers at airports based on Facial Recognition Technology (FRT).
2. To use this facility, one-time registration on Digi Yatra app is required using Aadhar based validation and a self-image capture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Menon answered
Explanation:

1. Digi Yatra Concept:
- Digi Yatra is indeed conceived to achieve contactless, seamless processing of passengers at airports based on Facial Recognition Technology (FRT).
- The aim is to make the passenger journey at airports more efficient and hassle-free by leveraging technology.

2. Registration Process:
- To use the Digi Yatra facility, passengers need to do a one-time registration on the Digi Yatra app.
- The registration process involves Aadhar based validation and a self-image capture for authentication purposes.
- This registration is essential to avail the benefits of contactless processing and seamless travel experience.

Therefore, both the statements given in the question are correct. Digi Yatra focuses on using Facial Recognition Technology for passenger processing and requires one-time registration on the Digi Yatra app for passengers to use the service effectively.

With reference to the Youth Co: Lab, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative launched in 2019 by UNDP India in partnership with Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog.
2. It aims to establish a common agenda for Asia-Pacific countries to invest in and empower youth to accelerate implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through leadership, social innovation, and entrepreneurship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The 5th edition of Youth Co:Lab was launched on December 15th 2022. 
  • Youth Co:Lab is an initiative launched in 2019 by UNDP India in partnership with Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog.
    • Youth Co:Lab was co-created in 2017 by UNDP and the Citi Foundation, Youth Co:Lab.
    • It is a multi-dimensional and multi-level response to tackle the challenges young people face by positioning youth at the forefront in finding solutions to global challenges tackling Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
  • It aims to establish a common agenda for Asia-Pacific countries to invest in and empower youth to accelerate implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through leadership, social innovation, and entrepreneurship.
  • The Youth Co:Lab initiative, till date, has been implemented in 28 countries and territories, reaching over 200,000 participants, benefitting more than 11,000 young social entrepreneurs and supporting over 1,240 social enterprises.
  • Through Youth Co: Lab, 30 early-stage start-ups would be supported by the springboard programme, and the best would be provided a seed grant for scaling up their start-up.
  • The 5 focus thematic areas for Youth Co: lab 2022-23 are:
    • Digital and Financial Literacy for Youth
    • Gender Equality and Women Economic Empowerment
    • Developing FinTech Solutions focused on Biodiversity Conservation
    • Promoting Biodiversity-friendly Lifestyles through Technological Solutions in Finance
    • Accelerating Circular Economy through Upcycling Innovations
    • Behavioural Nudges for LiFE ( Lifestyle For Environment)
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to SHAKTI (Scheme for Harnessing and Allocating Koyala Transparently in India) Policy, consider the following statements:
1. It is launched by the Ministry of Coal.
2. It aims to provide coal to stressed power units which lack coal supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Bose answered
SHAKTI (Scheme for Harnessing and Allocating Koyala Transparently in India) Policy:
The SHAKTI policy was launched by the Ministry of Coal in 2017 with the aim of transparently allocating and harnessing coal for power generation in India. The main objective of this policy is to ensure the availability of coal to power plants in a transparent and efficient manner.

Statement 1: It is launched by the Ministry of Coal.
Statement 2: It aims to provide coal to stressed power units which lack coal supply.

Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B' because only statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1: It is launched by the Ministry of Coal.
This statement is incorrect. The SHAKTI policy was not launched by the Ministry of Coal. It was launched by the Ministry of Power in consultation with the Ministry of Coal. The Ministry of Power is responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to power generation, distribution, and transmission in India.

Statement 2: It aims to provide coal to stressed power units which lack coal supply.
This statement is correct. The main aim of the SHAKTI policy is to provide coal to stressed power units that are unable to secure coal supply through the existing coal linkage auctions. Under this policy, coal is allocated to power plants based on their coal requirement and their ability to utilize the allocated coal.

The SHAKTI policy introduced a mechanism for the auction and allocation of coal linkages to power plants. It categorizes power plants into two categories: 'linkage-based' and 'non-linkage-based'. Linkage-based plants are those that have a long-term coal linkage with Coal India Limited (CIL) or its subsidiaries, while non-linkage-based plants do not have such a linkage.

The coal linkages under the SHAKTI policy are allocated through a transparent auction process. The power plants are required to participate in the auction and bid for the coal linkages based on their requirements. The plants with the highest bid are allocated the coal linkages.

The SHAKTI policy helps in ensuring the availability of coal to power plants, especially those that are facing coal shortages. By providing coal to stressed power units, the policy aims to improve the overall efficiency and reliability of power generation in India.

In conclusion, the SHAKTI policy is aimed at providing coal to stressed power units that lack coal supply. However, it was not launched by the Ministry of Coal, but by the Ministry of Power in consultation with the Ministry of Coal. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

With reference to the Cyclones, consider the following statements:
1. According to the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO), ‘Tropical Cyclone’ covers weather systems in which winds exceed ‘Gale Force’ (minimum of 34 knots or 63 kph).
2. Extra tropical cyclones (also called temperate cyclones) occur in temperate zones and high latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Cyclone Mandous, a severe cyclonic storm in the Bay of Bengal, is likely to bring heavy rainfall to parts of Tamil Nadu on December 9, 2022.
  • Cyclones are known as typhoons in the China Sea and Pacific Ocean; hurricanes in the Caribbean Sea and Atlantic Ocean; tornados in the Guinea lands of West Africa and southern USA; willy-willies in north-western Australia and tropical cyclones in the Indian Ocean.
  • Cyclones are caused by atmospheric disturbances around a low-pressure area distinguished by swift and often destructive air circulation.
  • Cyclones are usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather.
  • The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere.
Types:
  • Cyclones are classified as:
    • (i) extra tropical cyclones; and
    • (ii) tropical cyclones.
  • According to the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO), ‘Tropical Cyclone’ covers weather systems in which winds exceed ‘Gale Force’ (minimum of 34 knots or 63 kph).
  • Extra tropical cyclones (also called temperate cyclones) occur in temperate zones and high latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Jeevan Pramaan, consider the following statements:
1. It is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners.
2. The scheme was launched in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Isha Ahuja answered
Jeevan Pramaan is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners. It was launched by the Government of India in November 2014. The main objective of this initiative is to provide an easy and hassle-free way for pensioners to submit their life certificate or Jeevan Pramaan digitally.

Statement 1: It is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners.
This statement is correct. Jeevan Pramaan is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners that enables them to submit their life certificate digitally. The pensioners need to visit the nearest Jeevan Pramaan centre and provide their Aadhaar number, biometric authentication, and other details to generate the digital life certificate.

Statement 2: The scheme was launched in 2021.
This statement is incorrect. The Jeevan Pramaan scheme was launched by the Government of India in November 2014 to provide a hassle-free way for pensioners to submit their life certificate digitally. Hence, option 2 only is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A, i.e., 1 only.

With reference to the Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FDG), consider the following statements:
1. It is a technology to eliminate sulphur compounds from exhaust emissions.
2. Flue gas is the emitted material produced when fossil fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas, or wood are burned for heat or power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Muskaan Patel answered
Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FDG)
Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FDG) is a technology used to remove sulphur compounds from exhaust emissions. It is primarily used in industries that burn fossil fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas, or wood for heat or power generation. FDG helps in reducing the emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO2), which is a major contributor to air pollution and acid rain.

Statement 1: It is a technology to eliminate sulphur compounds from exhaust emissions.
This statement is correct. Flue Gas Desulphurisation is a technology that aims to remove sulphur compounds, particularly sulphur dioxide (SO2), from the flue gas before it is released into the atmosphere. This is done to reduce the environmental impact of sulphur emissions and comply with air quality regulations. The process involves the use of various chemical and physical methods to capture and remove sulphur compounds from the flue gas.

Statement 2: Flue gas is the emitted material produced when fossil fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas, or wood are burned for heat or power.
This statement is also correct. Flue gas refers to the gas that is produced when fossil fuels are burned for heat or power. It is a mixture of various gases, including carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), particulate matter, and sulphur compounds such as sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide (SO3). Flue gas is typically released through chimneys or smokestacks into the atmosphere.

Conclusion
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Flue Gas Desulphurisation is a technology used to remove sulphur compounds from flue gas, which is the emitted material produced when fossil fuels are burned for heat or power generation. This technology plays a crucial role in reducing sulphur emissions and mitigating air pollution and its adverse effects on the environment and human health.

With reference to the G20 Development Working Group (DWG), consider the following statements:
1. The Development Working Group meetings aims to discuss developmental issues in Developing Countries, Least Developed Countries and Island Countries.
2. It is a platform for G-20 member countries to come together and prioritize multilateralism, share solutions that promote growth, remap development plans and achieve the Sustainable Development Goal’s targets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shalini Gupta answered
3. The DWG focuses on issues such as poverty reduction, inclusive economic growth, infrastructure development, and sustainable development.

All three statements are correct. The G20 Development Working Group (DWG) holds meetings to discuss developmental issues in Developing Countries, Least Developed Countries, and Island Countries, as stated in statement 1. The DWG serves as a platform for G-20 member countries to prioritize multilateralism, share solutions that promote growth, remap development plans, and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals, as mentioned in statement 2. Additionally, statement 3 accurately describes the focus areas of the DWG, which include poverty reduction, inclusive economic growth, infrastructure development, and sustainable development.

With reference to Air Quality Index (AQI) consider the following statements:
1. It was launched by the central government in 2014 as part of the Swachh Bharat campaign.
2. The pollutants measured include PM 10, PM 2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone and Carbon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Recently, the air quality in Delhi remained in the very poor category on Air Quality Index (AQI).
  • Launched by the central government in 2014 as part of the Swachh Bharat campaign, the AQI was to help simplify the common understanding of pollution.
  • The AQI transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number (index value), nomenclature and colour. The pollutants measured include PM 10, PM 2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, etc.
  • The colour-coded AQI index helps the public and the government understand the condition of the air and what subsequent measures are to be taken to combat the situation, based on its severity.
  • Six categories of AQI:
    • ‘Good’ (0-50)
    • ‘Satisfactory’ (50-100)
    • ‘Moderately polluted’ (100-200)
    • ‘Poor’ (200-300)
    • ‘Very Poor’ (300-400)
    • ‘Severe’ (400-500)
  •  Calculation of the index:
    • There are six or eight pollutants in the affected air and each of these pollutants is given a weight based on a formula. That weight depends on the kind of impact it has on human health.
    • The worst of these weights is given as composite air quality, so instead of giving six different numbers, and six different colours, it throws up one single colour, one single number to denote the overall impact. Monitoring stations across the country assess these levels.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Swadesh Darshan Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
2. Ministry of Tourism is the implementing ministry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashna Bose answered
Answer:

Introduction

The Swadesh Darshan Scheme is a tourism development scheme launched by the Government of India to promote tourism in the country. It focuses on the development of theme-based tourist circuits, which showcase the rich cultural and natural heritage of the country. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India.

Statement Analysis


Statement 1: It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
Statement 2: Ministry of Tourism is the implementing ministry.

Explanation


The first statement is incorrect. The Swadesh Darshan Scheme is not a centrally sponsored scheme. It is a 100% centrally funded scheme, which means that the entire funding for the scheme comes from the central government. The central government provides financial assistance to the state governments and union territories for the development of tourism infrastructure under this scheme.

The second statement is correct. The Ministry of Tourism is the implementing ministry for the Swadesh Darshan Scheme. The ministry is responsible for formulating policies, planning, and implementation of various tourism-related initiatives, including the Swadesh Darshan Scheme. It works in collaboration with the state governments and union territories to implement the scheme and develop tourism infrastructure in the country.

Conclusion


In conclusion, the correct answer is option (B) - 2 only. The Swadesh Darshan Scheme is a 100% centrally funded scheme implemented by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India.

With reference to National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG), consider the following statements:
1. It is an autonomous institute under the aegis of Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances.
2. It has been set up to assist in bringing about governance reforms through studies, knowledge sharing and promotion of good ideas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Recently, NCGG received high praise from Maldives Government for its capacity building programme for Maldivian Civil Servants.
  • What it is?
    • It is an autonomous institute under the aegis of Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, Government of India.
    • The NCGG has been set up to assist in bringing about governance reforms through studies, training, knowledge sharing and promotion of good ideas.
    • It seeks to carry out policy relevant research and prepare case studies; curate training courses for civil servants from India and other developing countries.
  • Head office: Its head office is at New Delhi and branch office at Mussoorie.
  • Objectives:
    • To function as a national repository on information on best practices, initiatives and methodologies that promote Good Governance, e-Governance etc.
    • To advise on key issues in governance and develop synergy across various Ministries/ Departments of GoI, and State Governments;
  • Background: NCGG traces its origin to the National Institute of Administrative Research (NIAR). NIAR was set up in 1995 by the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) the Government of India's apex training Institute for higher civil services. NIAR was subsequently rechistened with an expanded mandate, as National Centre for Good Governance, which was inaugurated on February 24th, 2014.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS), consider the following statements:
1. It involves the NRI voter sending an application to the returning officer in person or online.
2. The voter can then register their mandate on the ballot printout and send it back with an attested declaration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS):
    • The Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) involves the NRI voter sending an application to the returning officer in person or online.
    • The returning officer will send the ballot electronically.
    • The voter can then register their mandate on the ballot printout and send it back with an attested declaration.
    • The voter will either send the ballot by ordinary post or drop it at an Indian Embassy where it would be segregated and posted.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Coral reefs, consider the following statements:
1. Corals are marine invertebrates or animals not possessing a spine.
2. Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Scientists working on Australia’s Great Barrier Reef have successfully trialled a new method for freezing and storing coral larvae they say could eventually help rewild reefs threatened by climate change. The Great Barrier Reef has suffered four bleaching events in the last seven years, including the first ever bleach during a La Nina phenomenon, which typically brings cooler temperatures.
  • Corals are marine invertebrates or animals not possessing a spine.
  • Each coral is called a polyp and thousands of such polyps live together to form a colony, which grows when polyps multiply to make copies of themselves.
  • Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.
  • The algae provides the coral with food and nutrients, which they make through photosynthesis, using the sun’s light.
  • In turn, the corals give the algae a home and key nutrients. The zooxanthellae also give corals their bright colour.
  • Australia’s Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest reef system stretching across 2,300 km.
    • It hosts 400 different types of coral, gives shelter to 1,500 species of fish and 4,000 types of mollusc.
Coral Bleaching:
  • Coral Bleaching happens when corals experience stress in their environment due to changes in temperature, pollution or high levels of ocean acidity.
  • Under stressed conditions, the zooxanthellae or food-producing algae living inside coral polyps start producing reactive oxygen species, which are not beneficial to the corals.
  • So, the corals expel the colour-giving zooxanthellae from their polyps, which exposes their pale white exoskeleton, giving the corals a bleached appearance.
  • This also ends the symbiotic relationship that helps the corals to survive and grow.
What Causes Coral Bleaching?
  • Change in Ocean Temperature: Increased Ocean temperature caused by climate change is the leading cause of coral bleaching.
  • Runoff and Pollution: Storm generated precipitation can rapidly dilute ocean water and runoff can carry pollutants, which can bleach near shore corals.
  • Overexposure to sunlight: When temperatures are high, high solar irradiance contributes to bleaching in shallow water corals.
  • Extremely low tides: Exposure to the air during extremely low tides can cause bleaching in shallow corals.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the ALH Mk-III Helicopters, consider the following statements:
1. It have been indigenously manufactured by L&T.
2. The state-of-the-art features enable them to undertake maritime reconnaissance as well as carry out search-and-rescue homer at extended ranges even while operating from ships during both day and night.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
In a major boost to further strengthening the Coast Guard Region East, 840 Sqn (CG), an Indian Coast Guard Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Mk-III squadron, was commissioned at ICG Air Station, Chennai on November 30, 2022.
  • The ALH MK III helicopters have been indigenously manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
  • They feature state-of-the-art equipment including advanced RADAR as well as Electro optical sensors, Shakti engines, full glass cockpit, high-intensity searchlight, advanced communication systems, automatic identification system as well as search-and-rescue homer.
  • The features enable them to undertake maritime reconnaissance as well as carry out SAR at extended ranges even while operating from ships during both day and night.
  • The aircraft has the ability to switch roles from an offensive platform with a heavy machine gun to that of a benign one carrying a Medical Intensive Care Unit to facilitate the transfer of critically ill patients.
  • A total of 16 ALH Mk-III aircraft have been inducted into the Indian Coast Guard in a phased manner and four of these aircraft are positioned in Chennai.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), consider the following statements:
1.It is the premier intelligence and enforcement agency on anti-smuggling matters under the aegis of Central Board of Indirect taxes & Customs (CBIC).
2. It is engaged in unearthing commercial frauds and customs duty evasion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is celebrating its 65th Founding Day on 5th-6th December, 2022.
About:
  • DRI is the premier intelligence and enforcement agency on anti-smuggling matters under the aegis of Central Board of Indirect taxes & Customs (CBIC), Government of India.
  • It came into existence on 4th December 1957.
  • The DRI with its Headquarters at New Delhi has 12 Zonal Units, 35 regional Units and 15 Sub-regional units.
Mandate:
  • Preventing and detecting cases of smuggling of narcotic drugs & psychotropic substances, gold, diamonds, precious metals, wildlife items, cigarettes, arms, ammunitions & explosives, counterfeit currency notes, foreign currency, SCOMET items, hazardous & environmentally sensitive materials, antiques etc.
  • Taking punitive action against the organised crime groups engaged therein.
  • DRI is also engaged in unearthing commercial frauds and customs duty evasion.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Mahakavi Subramanian Bharathiyar, consider the following statements:
1. He translated Bhagavat Gita into Tamil.
2. He fought for the emancipation of women, against child marriage, vehemently opposed the caste system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Tamil Nadu Chief Minister recently inaugurated the statue of Mahakavi Subramanian Bharathiyar.
  • Mahakavi Subramanian Bharathiyar was a Tamil writer, poet, journalist, Indian independence activist, social reformer and polyglot. 
  • He was bestowed the title "Bharathi" for his excellence in poetry.
  • Bharathiyar fought for the emancipation of women, against child marriage, vehemently opposed the caste system.
  • Sister Nivedita inspired Bharathi to recognise the privileges of women and the emancipation of women exercised Bharathi's mind.
Literary works:
  • Bharathi joined as Assistant Editor of the Swadesamitran a Tamil daily in 1904.
  • In1907, he started editing the Tamil weekly India and the English newspaper Bala Bharatham with M.P.T. Acharya.
  • He assisted Aurobindo in the Arya journal and later Karma Yogi in Pondicherry.
  • Three of his greatest works namely, Kuyil Pattu, Panchali Sapatham and Kannan Pattu were composed during 1912
  • He also translated Vedic hymns, Patanjali's Yoga Sutra and Bhagavat Gita to Tamil.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Coalition for Nature, consider the following statements
1. It is formed for the implementation and adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF).
2. It is formed during the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Chopra answered
The correct answer is option 'c', both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

1. Formation of Coalition for Nature:
The Coalition for Nature is a global alliance formed for the implementation and adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). The Global Biodiversity Framework is an international agreement that aims to halt biodiversity loss and protect ecosystems. The Coalition for Nature is a group of countries, organizations, and stakeholders committed to taking collective action to address the biodiversity crisis.

2. Formation during COP15:
The Coalition for Nature was formed during the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity. COP15 is an important global summit where the member countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) gather to discuss and negotiate issues related to biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. COP15 is considered a crucial meeting as it is expected to adopt the post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework, which will guide global efforts for biodiversity conservation for the next decade.

Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The Coalition for Nature was formed specifically to support the implementation and adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework. This framework aims to address the alarming rate of biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation globally. The coalition brings together countries, organizations, and stakeholders who are dedicated to working together to protect and restore nature.

The formation of the Coalition for Nature during COP15 is significant as it demonstrates the commitment of the participating countries and stakeholders to take concrete actions to address the biodiversity crisis. By joining forces and sharing expertise, resources, and best practices, the coalition aims to strengthen global efforts for biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. It serves as a platform for collaboration and collective action, enabling countries and organizations to work together towards common goals and targets outlined in the Global Biodiversity Framework.

The formation of the coalition during COP15 also highlights the role of international cooperation and multilateralism in addressing global environmental challenges. The Convention on Biological Diversity provides a framework for countries to work together and coordinate their efforts to conserve biodiversity and promote sustainable development. COP15 serves as a forum for countries to negotiate and make decisions on critical biodiversity issues, including the adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework.

In conclusion, the Coalition for Nature was formed during the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity, with the aim of implementing and adopting the Global Biodiversity Framework. This coalition brings together countries, organizations, and stakeholders committed to collective action for biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.

With reference to the China-Indian Ocean Region Forum, consider the following statements:
1. It is organised by the China International Development Cooperation Agency (CIDCA).
2. The forum was “the first high-level official development cooperation forum jointly held by China and countries in the Indian Ocean Region”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

On November 21, China’s top development aid agency convened the first “China-Indian Ocean Region Forum” in the southwestern Chinese city of Kunming.
  • The meet organised by the China International Development Cooperation Agency (CIDCA).
  • The forum was “the first high-level official development cooperation forum jointly held by China and countries in the Indian Ocean Region”.
  • The forum underlines China’s growing strategic interests in a region where its economic footprint has been deepening.
  • During the forum, China “proposed to establish a marine disaster prevention and mitigation cooperation mechanism between China and countries in the Indian Ocean region”.
  • All parties agreed to strengthen policy coordination, deepen development cooperation, increase resilience to shocks and disasters, and enhance relevant countries’ capacity to obtain economic benefits through use of marine resources such as fisheries, renewable energy, tourism, and shipping in a sustainable way.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Digital Rupee, consider the following statements:
1. It will earn interest as in the case of cash.
2. It can be used only for person-to-person transactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The Reserve Bank of India announced the launch of the first pilot for the retail digital Rupee on 1st December 2022.
  • Eight banks have been identified for phase-wise participation in this pilot.
  • The first phase will begin with four banks including State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, Yes Bank and IDFC First Bank in four cities across the country.
  • Four more banks, including Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, HDFC Bank and Kotak Mahindra Bank will join this pilot subsequently.
  • The pilot would initially cover four cities, including Mumbai, New Delhi, Bengaluru and Bhubaneswar and later extend to Ahmedabad, Gangtok, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Indore, Kochi, Lucknow, Patna and Shimla.
  • The scope of the pilot may be expanded gradually to include more banks, users and locations as needed.
  • The pilot would cover select locations in a closed user group - CUG comprising participating customers and merchants.
  • The digital Rupee would be in the form of a digital token that represents legal tender.
  • Users will be able to transact with digital Rupee through a digital wallet offered by the participating banks and stored on mobile phones.
Transactions:
  • Transactions can be both Person to Person and Person Merchant. Payments to merchants can be made using QR codes displayed at merchant locations.
  • The digital Rupee would offer features of physical cash like trust, safety and settlement finality.
  • As in the case of cash, it will not earn any interest and can be converted to other forms of money, like deposits with banks.
  • The pilot will test the robustness of the entire process of digital rupee creation, distribution and retail usage in real time.
  • Different features and applications of the digital Rupee token and architecture will be tested in future pilots, based on the learnings from this pilot.
Hence both statements are not correct.

As per the ECI’s Political Parties and Election Symbols, 2019 handbook, a political party would be considered a national party if:
1. it is ‘recognised’ in four or more states
2. its candidates polled at least 6% of total valid votes in any four or more states in the last Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and has at least four MPs in the last Lok Sabha polls
3. it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from not less than three states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) was leading in 5 seats in Gujarat after more than seven hours of counting of votes on December 8, but its vote-share was close to 13%, which meant it is on track to be recognised as a national party by the Election Commission of India (ECI).
  • The name suggests that a national party would be one that has a presence ‘nationally’, as opposed to a regional party whose presence is restricted to only a particular state or region.
  • National parties are usually India’s bigger parties, such as the Congress and BJP.
  • However, some smaller parties, like the communist parties, are also recognised as national parties.
  • A certain stature is sometimes associated with being a national party, but this does not necessarily translate into having a lot of national political clout.
Criteria:
  • The ECI has laid down the technical criterion for a party to be recognised as a national party.
  • A party may gain or lose national party status from time to time, depending on the fulfilment of these laid-down conditions.
  • As per the ECI’s Political Parties and Election Symbols, 2019 handbook, a political party would be considered a national party if:
    • it is ‘recognised’ in four or more states; or
    • if its candidates polled at least 6% of total valid votes in any four or more states in the last Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and has at least four MPs in the last Lok Sabha polls; or
    • if it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from not less than three states.
  • To be recognised as a state party, a party needs:
    • i. at least 6% vote-share in the last Assembly election and have at least 2 MLAs; or
      have 6% vote-share in the last Lok Sabha elections from that state and at least one MP from that state; or
    • ii. at least 3% of the total number of seats or three seats, whichever is more, in the last Assembly elections; or
    • iii. at least one MP for every 25 members or any fraction allotted to the state in the Lok Sabha; or
    • iv. have at least 8% of the total valid votes in the last Assembly election or Lok Sabha election from the state.
What are the other national parties?
  • As of now, the ECI has recognised eight parties as national parties — the BJP, Congress, Trinamool Congress, CPI(M), CPI, Nationalist Congress Party (NCP), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP), and Conrad Sangma’s National People’s Party (NPP), which was recognised in 2019.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to Rules of Origin, consider the following statements:
1. It is used to determine whether imported products shall receive most-favoured-nation (MFN)
Treatment.
2. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade has specific rules governing the determination of the country of origin of goods in international commerce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
With the India-Australia interim trade deal set to kick off, the Central Board of Indirect
Taxes and Customs has notified the Rules of Origin.
About:
  • The notification, which relates to the eligibility requirement to claim the preferential customs duty on trade in goods, under the economic cooperation and trade agreement (ECTA), will come into effect from December 29. This is when the ECTA will also come into effect.
  • India and Australia had in April this year signed the ECTA, which is expected to cover 90% of the bilateral trade between the two.
What is Rules of Origin?
  • Rules of origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product. Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the source of imports.
Where are rules of origin used?
Rules of origin are used:
  • to implement measures and instruments of commercial policy such as anti-dumping duties and safeguard measures;
  • to determine whether imported products shall receive most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment or preferential treatment;
  • for the purpose of trade statistics;
  • for the application of labelling and marking requirements; and
  • for government procurement.
No specific provision in GATT
  • GATT has no specific rules governing the determination of the country of origin of goods in international commerce.
  • Each contracting party was free to determine its own origin rules, and could even maintain several different rules of origin depending on the purpose of the particular regulation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Bharat (BH) Series, consider the following statements:
1. Regular vehicle registrations can be converted into Bharat Series (BH) numbers.
2. It has been introduced for citizens working in Government offices or in private organizations with offices in four or more States/UTs, on voluntary basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Bose answered
Introduction to Bharat (BH) Series
The Bharat Series (BH) was introduced by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways to simplify vehicle registration for citizens who frequently change their residence due to work.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: Regular vehicle registrations can be converted into Bharat Series (BH) numbers.
- This statement is correct. Vehicles that are already registered can indeed be converted into the BH series, allowing seamless transfer across states without the need for re-registration.
- Statement 2: It has been introduced for citizens working in Government offices or in private organizations with offices in four or more States/UTs, on a voluntary basis.
- This statement is also correct. The BH series is designed for individuals who work in multiple states or union territories, enabling them to have a single registration number that is recognized nationwide, thus making it easier for them to manage their vehicles.
Conclusion
Since both statements provided in the question are accurate, the correct answer is:
c) Both 1 and 2
This initiative not only facilitates convenience for those frequently relocating but also contributes to better vehicle tracking and regulation across India.

With reference to the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:
1. India is a founding member and the second largest shareholder in AIIB.
2. It is headquartered in Beijing, China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Union Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman attended the 7th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of AIIB via video conference.
  • The theme of this year’s Annual Meeting was “Sustainable Infrastructure Toward a Connected World”.
  • What is AIIB? AIIB is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve economic and social outcomes in Asia.
  • Headquarters: Beijing, China.
  • Board of Governors: All powers of the Bank are vested in our Board of Governors, which is the highest decision-making body under our Articles of Agreement.
  • Membership: AIIB has 105 members. China is the AIIB’s largest shareholder with a 26.5% voting share. India is the second-largest, with 7.5%, followed by Russia, which has a 5.97% voting share.
    • India is a Founding Member of AIIB. India also has the largest project portfolio within AIIB.
Hence both statements are is correct.

With reference to Intranasal Vaccine iNCOVACC, consider the following statements:
1. It is developed by Bharat Biotech International Limited.
2. It is the world's first intranasal vaccine to receive both primary series and heterologous booster approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rounak Iyer answered

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. iNCOVACC is developed by Bharat Biotech International Limited, an Indian biotechnology company.

Statement 2:
- The statement is correct. iNCOVACC is the world's first intranasal vaccine to receive both primary series and heterologous booster approval. This approval was granted by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) in October 2021.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

With reference to the Orcas, consider the following statements:
1. Orcas are found across the world and are also known as “killer whales”.
2. It is the largest member of the Delphinidae family, or dolphins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Two cities in United States’ state of Washington have taken steps to formally declare their support for legal rights for a group of endangered orcas. City of Port Townsend and City of Gig Harbor in the Pacific Northwest have signed proclamations to secure the inherent rights of the Southern Resident Orcas. 
  • Orcas are found across the world and are also known as “killer whales”.
  • It is the largest member of the Delphinidae family, or dolphins.
  • Members of this family include all dolphin species, as well as other larger species, such as long-finned pilot whales and short-finned pilot whales, whose common names also contain "whale" instead of "dolphin”.
  • Killer whales are highly social, and most live in social groups called pods (groups of maternally related individuals seen together more than half the time).
  • Killer whales rely on underwater sound to feed, communicate, and navigate.
Southern Resident killer whales:
  • Southern Resident killer whales are the only endangered population of killer whales in the United States.
  • Despite federal legal protections for nearly two decades, the population of the orcas continues to decline and is critically endangered.
  • Only 73 Southern Resident Orcas now exist in the wild.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Social Stock Exchange(SSE), consider the following statements:
1. Corporate foundations and religious organisations will not be eligible to be identified as social enterprises.
2. Minimum issue size of ₹1 crore and a minimum application size for subscription of ₹2 lakh are currently required for SSE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nabanita Kaur answered
Social Stock Exchange (SSE)

• The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is a platform that connects social enterprises with investors who are looking to invest in companies that have a positive social impact.

• The SSE was proposed by the Indian Government in 2019, with the aim of promoting social entrepreneurship and mobilizing capital towards social causes.

Statements and their correctness

• Statement 1: Corporate foundations and religious organizations will not be eligible to be identified as social enterprises.

- This statement is correct. According to the guidelines issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), corporate foundations and religious organizations are not eligible to be identified as social enterprises. This is because social enterprises are expected to have a social mission as their primary objective, which is not the case for corporate foundations and religious organizations.

• Statement 2: Minimum issue size of 1 crore and a minimum application size for subscription of 2 lakh are currently required for SSE.

- This statement is also correct. As per the guidelines issued by SEBI, a minimum issue size of Rs. 1 crore and a minimum application size of Rs. 2 lakh are currently required for companies that want to list on the SSE. This is to ensure that the SSE attracts high-quality social enterprises and investors who are committed to social impact.

Conclusion

• Both statements are correct. The SSE is a platform that aims to promote social entrepreneurship and mobilize capital towards social causes. To be eligible for listing on the SSE, companies must have a social mission as their primary objective, and meet the minimum issue size and application size requirements set by SEBI.

With reference to the Senna spectabilis, consider the following statements:
1. It is an invasive species.
2. Senna spectabilis, along with Lantana camara, is among five major invasive weeds that had taken over vast swathes of the Nilgiris.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Raksha Menon answered

Explanation:

1. Senna spectabilis as an invasive species:
- Yes, Senna spectabilis is considered an invasive species in certain regions. Invasive species are non-native plants or animals that have negative impacts on the local ecosystem, economy, or human health. They often outcompete native species for resources, disrupt ecological processes, and can lead to a decline in biodiversity.

2. Senna spectabilis in the Nilgiris:
- Along with Lantana camara, Senna spectabilis is among five major invasive weeds that had taken over vast swathes of the Nilgiris. The Nilgiris is a mountainous region in South India known for its rich biodiversity. The invasion of these species can have detrimental effects on the native flora and fauna of the region.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Senna spectabilis is indeed an invasive species, and it, along with Lantana camara, has been identified as a major invasive weed in the Nilgiris. It is crucial to manage and control the spread of these invasive species to protect the local ecosystem and biodiversity.

Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

Chapter doubts & questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.

Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!

Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev