All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the Grievance Appellate Committee, consider the following statements:
  1. It is formed under an amendment to Information Technology Rules 2021.
  2. The committee will have a chairperson and two whole-time members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranavi Nair answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. The Grievance Appellate Committee is indeed formed under an amendment to Information Technology Rules 2021. These rules were introduced to regulate digital media and OTT platforms in India.

Statement 2:
- The statement is also correct. The committee will have a chairperson and two whole-time members. The chairperson will play a crucial role in overseeing the functioning of the committee, while the whole-time members will be actively involved in addressing grievances and appeals.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Grievance Appellate Committee is an important body established to handle complaints and appeals related to digital media and OTT platforms in accordance with the Information Technology Rules 2021.

With reference to Coking coal, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a high-quality coal that is low in impurities and has a high carbon content,
  2. India is the largest coal-producing country in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Athira Kumar answered
Overview of Coking Coal
Coking coal, also known as metallurgical coal, is essential for steel production. It is characterized by its ability to soften, swell, and then resolidify when heated, forming coke. This coke is crucial in the steel-making process as it acts as a reducing agent and energy source.
Statement 1: Quality of Coking Coal
- Coking coal is indeed a high-quality coal.
- It is low in impurities such as sulfur and ash.
- It typically has a high carbon content, making it suitable for metallurgical processes.
Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: India as the Largest Coal-Producing Country
- While India is one of the top coal producers globally, it is not the largest.
- As of October 2023, China holds the title of the largest coal-producing country in the world.
- India ranks second in terms of coal production.
Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct: Coking coal is high-quality and low in impurities.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not the largest coal-producing country; that title belongs to China.
Hence, the correct answer is option 'A' (1 only).

With reference to the Sun Temple of Modhera, consider the following statements:
  1. It is built in Maru-gurjara architecture style.
  2. It is the only temple dedicated to Sun god.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Recently three heritage sites have added to the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage sites namely; the Sun Temple at Modhera and Vadnagar town from Gujarat and rock-cut relief sculptures of Unakoti of Tripura.
  • According to UNESCO A Tentative List is an inventory of those properties which each nation intends to consider for nomination.
Sun Temple of Modhera
  • The Sun Temple, Modhera dedicated to Surya dev (The Sun God), is one of the remarkable gems of temple architecture in India. 
  • It is an exemplary model of Maru-gurjara architecture style of the 11th century of western India under the patronage of the Solanki dynasty. The age of the temple may be inferred from its style belonging to the reign of Bhimadeva I (1022-1063 CE).
  • It consists of the main temple shrine (garbhagriha), a hall (gadhamandapa), an assembly hall (Sabhamandapa or rangamandapa) and a sacred pool (Kunda) which is now called Ramakunda.
  • This east facing temple is built of bright yellow sandstone.
  • Other sun temples in India are 8th century CE Martand Sun Temple in Kashmir and the 13th century CE Sun temple at Konark.
Rock-cut relief sculptures of Unakoti
  • The site of Unakoti Rock-cut relief sculptures is located in the north-eastern part of Tripura, which were built during 8th to 12th CE.
  • The vertical surface of the Unakoti hills was used by the ancient people to carve various mythological scenes such as the different iconographic forms of Siva, Ganesha, Uma-Maheshwara.
  • The images found at Unakoti can be classified into two categories:
  • Majestic rock-cut images on the vertical surface of the hill and fallen boulders.
  • Loose sculptures of smaller and medium sizes scattered on the hill.
  • The influence of Buddhism is also seen in the sculptures of the region. There are various depictions of Boddhisattavas, Buddha and Buddhist motifs also found here.
  • Many images found in this area also suggest the presence of religious sects such as Sakta, Tantric, Bajrayanis and Nathayogis.
Vadnagar
  • Vadnagar was situated at a strategic location where two major ancient trade routes crossed each other. One of them joined central India with the Sindh and further northwest regions while another connected the port towns on the Gujarat coast to northern India.
  • Vadnagar town is a multi-layered and multi-cultural mercantile settlement with its history stretching back to nearly 8thCentury BCE.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the heat dome, consider the following statements:
  1. It occurs when an area of low-pressure traps warm air over a region for an extended period.
  2. Its formation is related to the behaviour of the jet stream.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Basak answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 Only. Let's understand why:

Statement 1: It occurs when an area of low-pressure traps warm air over a region for an extended period.
This statement is incorrect. A heat dome is not caused by an area of low-pressure. In fact, it is the opposite. A heat dome occurs when an area of high-pressure traps warm air over a region for an extended period. This high-pressure system acts like a lid, preventing the warm air from rising and dissipating. As a result, the trapped warm air gets compressed and heats up further, leading to extremely high temperatures in the affected region.

Statement 2: Its formation is related to the behavior of the jet stream.
This statement is correct. The formation of a heat dome is indeed related to the behavior of the jet stream. The jet stream refers to a narrow band of strong winds in the upper atmosphere, usually at an altitude of 6 to 9 miles. It plays a crucial role in weather patterns and the movement of air masses.

During the formation of a heat dome, the jet stream becomes weak and meandering. Instead of flowing in a straight path, it develops large north-south waves. These waves tend to slow down the eastward movement of the jet stream, causing warm air to get trapped beneath the high-pressure system. This creates a stagnant atmospheric condition, leading to the prolonged heatwave associated with a heat dome.

The meandering behavior of the jet stream and the weakening of its eastward flow can be influenced by various factors, including climate patterns such as El Niño, climate change, and natural variability. However, it is important to note that the exact mechanisms and interactions between these factors are still subjects of ongoing research.

To summarize, a heat dome occurs when an area of high-pressure traps warm air over a region for an extended period. Its formation is indeed related to the behavior of the jet stream, specifically the meandering and weakening of its eastward flow. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 Only.

With reference to the Inflation Reduction Act 2022, consider the following statements:
  1. It aims to curb inflation by reducing the deficit, lowering prescription drug prices, and investing into domestic energy production while promoting clean energy.
  2. The legislation stands to be the single largest investment in climate and energy in the U.S. to date.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
While EU countries welcome the new commitment to energy transition, they fear the $430 billion Inflation Reduction Act (IRA) will unfairly disadvantage their companies relative to rivals in the United States.
  • The Inflation Reduction Act of 2022 (IRA) is a landmark United States federal law which aims to curb inflation by reducing the deficit, lowering prescription drug prices, and investing into domestic energy production while promoting clean energy.
  • It is a reduced version of the Biden administration's proposed Build Back Better Act.
  • At the end of a decade, according to Democrats, the U.S. will realize a deficit reduction of more than $300 billion while lowering inflation, investing in energy production, and reducing healthcare costs. Of the $737 billion in revenue raised, the legislation calls for $222 billion from a 15% corporate minimum tax.
  • The legislation stands to be the single largest investment in climate and energy in the U.S. to date.
Why Europe is concerned?
  • The 27 EU countries are worried their companies will be cut off from U.S. tax credits for components used in renewable energy technologies like electric cars, offered under the new law on condition they are made in North America.
  • EU countries consider that some 200 billion euros ($207 billion) of the U.S. subsidies are tied to locally produced content provisions that potentially violate World Trade Organization (WTO) rules.
  • Not only do the tax breaks put European companies at a disadvantage to U.S. rivals, but EU state aid rules in their current form prevent member countries from offering similarly generous tax breaks to companies looking to set up factories.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the St Edward’s Crown, consider the following statements:
  1. St Edward’s Crown is the crown historically used at the moment of Coronation, and was worn by Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth at her Coronation in 1953.
  2. It was made for Charles II in 1661, as a replacement for the medieval crown which had been melted down in 1649.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
Since King Charles III of England was made monarch in September, there has been anticipation over his coronation ceremony and the famous crown jewels that will be on display for the event
What is the St Edward’s Crown?
  • St Edward’s Crown is the crown historically used at the moment of Coronation, and was worn by Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth at her Coronation in 1953.
  • It was made for Charles II in 1661, as a replacement for the medieval crown which had been melted down in 1649. The original was thought to date back to the eleventh-century royal saint, Edward the Confessor – the last Anglo-Saxon king of England.
  • Edward the Confessor (reigned 1042-66), who deposited his Royal ornaments for safe-keeping in Westminster Abbey, may have been the first monarch to assemble the regalia, or the distinct objects worn exclusively by royals.
  • Britain is the only European monarchy still using its regalia for the consecration ceremony of crowning the Sovereign.
  • Other items included in the regalia are the Coronation Chair (used at every coronation since 1300), the two Royal maces, three swords and St Edward’s Staff (dating from 1661).
Imperial State Crown
  • It is worn by the monarch at the end of the coronation ceremony and at formal occasions like the State Opening of Parliament, reminding us the Crown Jewels is a working collection.
  • It has the Cullinan diamond (also known as the Star of Africa) embedded in it, considered among the biggest diamonds ever discovered.
  • Another stone featured in it is the Black Prince’s Ruby, believed to have origins in or around Afghanistan.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Blackbuck, consider the following statements:
  1. It is categorized as the Least concerned under the IUCN Red List.
  2. It is only found in the Vallanadu Wildlife Sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrutha Kapoor answered
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'a) 1 Only'.

Statement 1: It is categorized as the Least concerned under the IUCN Red List.
- Blackbuck (Antilope cervicapra) is indeed categorized as "Least Concern" under the IUCN Red List.
- This classification is given to species that are not currently threatened with extinction. Blackbucks have a stable population and wide distribution range.

Statement 2: It is only found in the Vallanadu Wildlife Sanctuary.
- This statement is incorrect. While the Vallanadu Wildlife Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu, India, is known for its population of Blackbucks, these animals are not restricted to this sanctuary.
- Blackbucks are native to the Indian subcontinent and can be found in various grasslands, savannas, and shrublands across India, Nepal, and Pakistan.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the correct answer is option 'a) 1 Only'.

With reference to ‘Base effect’, consider the following statements:
  1. It is the impact that selecting a different reference point for a comparison between two data points can have on the comparison's outcome.
  2. Base effect cannot distort or mislead the interpretation of numbers/percentage comparisons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.
Explanation:
- Base Effect:
The base effect refers to the impact that selecting a different reference point for a comparison between two data points can have on the outcome of the comparison. It is a common concept in economics and statistics.
- Correct Statement:
The first statement is correct as it accurately describes the base effect. By choosing different reference points for comparison, the interpretation of numbers or percentage comparisons can indeed be influenced by the base effect.
- Incorrect Statement:
The second statement is incorrect because the base effect can indeed distort or mislead the interpretation of numbers or percentage comparisons. If not taken into consideration, the base effect can lead to incorrect conclusions or misinterpretations of data.
In conclusion, understanding the base effect is crucial in correctly interpreting data and making informed decisions based on comparisons. It is essential to be aware of how different reference points can impact the outcome of comparisons and to consider this factor when analyzing data.

With reference to Remote Voting in India, consider the following statements:
  1. The remote e-voting machine will be a non-standalone device which requires proper connectivity to operate.
  2. The Representation of the People Act needs to be amended to introduce remote voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Megha Sarkar answered
Introduction:
Remote voting refers to the process of casting votes through electronic means, allowing individuals to vote from a location other than a designated polling station. In India, the concept of remote voting is being explored as a means to enhance voter participation and convenience. However, there are certain considerations that need to be taken into account before implementing remote voting in the country.

Statement 1: The remote e-voting machine will be a non-standalone device which requires proper connectivity to operate.
This statement is correct.

- Remote e-voting machines are electronic devices that would be used for remote voting. These machines would not operate independently and would require proper connectivity, such as internet or mobile network, to function effectively.
- The connectivity is necessary to establish a secure and reliable communication channel between the voter and the election authorities. It ensures the integrity and secrecy of the voting process.

Statement 2: The Representation of the People Act needs to be amended to introduce remote voting.
This statement is incorrect.

- The Representation of the People Act, 1950 and 1951, are the primary legislations that govern the conduct of elections in India. These acts provide the legal framework for the registration of voters, preparation of electoral rolls, and the conduct of elections.
- While the current provisions of the act do not specifically mention remote voting, it does not necessarily mean that an amendment is required to introduce remote voting.
- The Election Commission of India has the power to make rules and regulations regarding the conduct of elections, including the use of electronic voting machines and remote voting. Therefore, the introduction of remote voting can be implemented through the rules and regulations framed by the Election Commission, without necessarily amending the Representation of the People Act.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'B', as only statement 1 is correct. The remote e-voting machine would require proper connectivity to operate, but the Representation of the People Act does not necessarily need to be amended to introduce remote voting. The Election Commission of India can make rules and regulations regarding remote voting without a specific amendment to the act. Implementing remote voting in India would require careful planning and consideration of various factors to ensure the integrity and security of the voting process.

With reference to the Emergency financial powers, consider the following statements:
  1. Under the FTP route, the forces can procure weapons systems upto ₹3000 crores on an “urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle”.
  2. Three tranches of EPs were executed under which 68 contracts worth ₹6,000 crores were placed and the fourth EP for indigenous equipment is underway.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kritika Sharma answered
Emergency basis without going through the normal procurement process.

1. The above statement is partially correct. The emergency financial powers (EFP) allow the armed forces to procure weapons systems on an emergency basis, but the procurement limit is not fixed at 3000 crores. The limit is decided by the Ministry of Defence based on the specific emergency situation.

2. The FTP (Fast Track Procurement) route is one of the procurement methods available to the armed forces under the EFP. This route allows the forces to bypass the lengthy procurement process and directly purchase weapons systems from a pre-approved list of vendors.

3. The EFP is invoked only in exceptional circumstances, such as natural calamities, war-like situations, or other emergencies that require urgent action. The decision to invoke the EFP is taken by the Ministry of Defence, in consultation with the Cabinet Committee on Security.

4. The EFP is meant to provide the armed forces with the necessary financial powers and flexibility to respond to emergencies quickly and efficiently. However, the use of EFP is also subject to strict oversight and scrutiny to ensure transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

With reference to the Open Offer, consider the following statements:
  1. According to the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Rules, an open offer is an offer made by the acquirer to the shareholders of the target company inviting them to tender their shares in the target company at a particular price.
  2. An open offer is triggered if an acquirer holds more than 25 per cent of the public shareholding in the company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Chopra answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
An open offer is an offer made by the acquirer to the shareholders of the target company inviting them to tender their shares in the target company at a particular price.
- This statement is correct. An open offer is a mandatory offer made by an acquirer to the shareholders of a target company to acquire a certain percentage of shares at a specified price.

Statement 2:
An open offer is triggered if an acquirer holds more than 25 per cent of the public shareholding in the company.
- This statement is also correct. As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Rules, an open offer is triggered when an acquirer acquires more than 25% of the shares in a target company, leading to a change in control.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. An open offer is made by an acquirer to the shareholders of the target company at a specified price, and it is triggered when the acquirer holds more than 25% of the public shareholding in the company.

With reference to the Ahilyabai Holkar, consider the following statements:
  1. She ruled in the Malwa region during the 18th century.
  2. The Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram was a courtier of her dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
Recently, the Maharashtra state government is planning to rename the city of Ahmednagar as ‘Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Nagar’, after the 18th century Malwa queen.
Who is Ahilyabai Holkar?
  • Ahilyabai (1725 -1795) was one of the women rulers of Medieval India who belongs to the Holkar dynasty of the Maratha Empire.
  • She married Khanderao Holkar in 1733 at the tender age of 8.
  • Her husband was killed in the battle of Kumbher in 1754.
  • Ahilyabai is famous for having built numerous forts and roads in the Malwa region, sponsoring festivals and offering donations to many Hindu temples. Her philanthropy was reflected in the construction of several temples, ghats, wells, tanks and rest houses stretching across the length of the country.
  • She welcomed stalwarts such as Marathi poet MoropantShahir Ananta Gandhi, and Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram into her capital.
  • John Keay, the British historian, gave the queen the title of ‘The Philosopher Queen’. She had been an acute observer of the wider political scene.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Manthan Platform, consider the following statements:
  1. The development of the platform was conceptualized and implemented by NITI Aayog.
  2. It was launched on India’s 76th Independence Day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Chopra answered
N Independence Day in 2017. The Manthan Platform provides a space for policy discussions and collaboration between various stakeholders. Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. The development of the platform was conceptualized and implemented by NITI Aayog.
2. It was launched on India's Independence Day in 2017.
3. The Manthan Platform provides a space for policy discussions and collaboration between various stakeholders.

The correct statements are:

1. The development of the platform was conceptualized and implemented by NITI Aayog.
3. The Manthan Platform provides a space for policy discussions and collaboration between various stakeholders.

With reference to Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), consider the following statements:
  1. DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence ministry on procurement.
  2. The defence minister is the chairman of DAC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Recently, DAC gave nod to purchase indigenous defence systems amounting to Rs. 4,276 crore.These include helicopter-launched Nag missiles and BrahMos cruise missile launchers for ships.
  • The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence ministry on procurement.
  • The defence minister is the chairman of DAC. Its members include Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of Army, Navy and Air Force.
  • The main objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces .
Functions of DAC includes
  • Give in principle approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
  • Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals.
  • Categorisation of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’ and ‘Make’.
  • Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance.
  • Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore.
  • Take decisions regarding Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy & Make’ category of acquisition proposals.
  • Field trial evaluation.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the National Youth Festival 2023, consider the following statements:
  1. It is celebrated every year on the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
  2. The theme of the 2023 festival is Viksit Yuva Viksit Bharat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Prime Minister of India will inaugurate the 26th National Youth Festival in Hubballi, Karnataka on 12 January 2023.
  • The National Youth Festival is being held on National Youth Day, which is celebrated on the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, to honour and cherish his ideals, teachings, and contributions.
  • Since 1985, the Indian Government is celebrating the birthday of Swami Vivekananda as National Youth Day.
  • Theme of the festival 2023: Viksit Yuva Viksit Bharat.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Magha Bihu, consider the following statements:
  1. It is celebrated in the state of Assam.
  2. During this festival moon is worshipped.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Tiwari answered
Magha Bihu is a festival celebrated in the state of Assam and is also known as Bhogali Bihu. It is celebrated in the month of Magh which falls in January or February and marks the end of the harvesting season.

Correct statement:
- It is celebrated in the state of Assam.

Incorrect statement:
- During this festival, the moon is worshipped.

Explanation:
- Magha Bihu is primarily a festival of feasting and merry-making. During this festival, people build temporary huts called "Bhelaghars" and gather around a bonfire to celebrate. The bonfire is made with wood and bamboo and is lit on the eve of the festival. The next day, people cook traditional Assamese dishes like pitha, laru, and doi-chora and have a feast together.
- The festival does not involve the worship of the moon, and hence the second statement is incorrect.

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to Green India Mission , consider the following statements:
  1. It is is one of the eight Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
  2. Increased forest/tree cover on 5 million hectares (mha) of forest/non-forest lands is one of the objectives of the mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Green India Mission:
The Green India Mission is one of the eight Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It was launched in 2014 with the objective of increasing forest and tree cover on 5 million hectares (mha) of forest and non-forest lands. The mission aims to address the issues of climate change, biodiversity conservation, and sustainable development through afforestation and reforestation activities.

Statement 1: It is one of the eight Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
This statement is correct. The Green India Mission is indeed one of the eight Missions under the NAPCC. The NAPCC was launched by the Government of India in 2008 to outline various strategies and initiatives for mitigating the impacts of climate change and enhancing the country's climate resilience. The Green India Mission specifically focuses on increasing the forest and tree cover in the country.

Statement 2: Increased forest/tree cover on 5 million hectares (mha) of forest/non-forest lands is one of the objectives of the mission.
This statement is also correct. One of the primary objectives of the Green India Mission is to increase the forest and tree cover on 5 million hectares of forest and non-forest lands. This is aimed at enhancing the ecological services provided by forests, such as carbon sequestration, biodiversity conservation, and soil and water conservation. Increasing the forest and tree cover also helps in mitigating the impacts of climate change by reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Overall, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is option (C) - Both 1 and 2. The Green India Mission is indeed one of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change, and increasing the forest and tree cover on 5 million hectares of forest and non-forest lands is one of its objectives.

With reference to the Personality Rights, consider the following statements:
1. Personality rights refer to the right of a person to protect his/her personality under the right to privacy or property.
2. Personality rights are same as publicity rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The Delhi High Court recently passed an interim order to prevent the unlawful use of Bollywood star Amitabh Bachchan’s name, image and voice. The court, through its order, restrained persons at large from infringing the personality rights of the actor.
  • Personality rights refer to the right of a person to protect his/her personality under the right to privacy or property.
  • These rights are important to celebrities as their names, photographs or even voices can easily be misused in various advertisements by different companies to boost their sales.
  • Therefore, it is necessary for renowned personalities/celebrities to register their names to save their personality rights.
  • A large list of unique personal attributes contribute to the making of a celebrity.
  • All of these attributes need to be protected, such as name, nickname, stage name, picture, likeness, image and any identifiable personal property, such as a distinctive race car.
Personality rights and Publicity rights:
  • Personality rights are different from publicity rights.
  • Personality rights consist of two types of rights:
    • Firstly, the right of publicity, or the right to keep one’s image and likeness from being commercially exploited without permission or contractual compensation, which is similar (but not identical) to the use of a trademark; and
    • Secondly, the right to privacy or the right to not have one’s personality represented publicly without permission.
  • However, under common law jurisdictions, publicity rights fall into the realm of the ‘tort of passing off’.
  • Passing off takes place when someone intentionally or unintentionally passes off their goods or services as those belonging to another party.
  • Often, this type of misrepresentation damages the goodwill of a person or business, resulting in financial or reputational damage.
  • Publicity rights are governed by statutes like the Trade marks Act 1999 and the Copyright Act 1957.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the India International Science Festival (IISF), consider the following statements:
  1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology and the Ministry of Culture of Government of India.
  2. The eighth edition of IISF is held at Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
The 8th edition of the India International Science Festival (IISF) was recently inaugurated at the Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology (MANIT), Bhopal.
About India International Science Festival:
  • It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology and Ministry of Earth Science of Government of India in association with Vijnana Bharati which is a science movement with Swadeshi spirit led by eminent scientists of the country.
  • It is a festival to celebrate the achievements of India’s scientific and technological advancements with students, innovators, craftsmen, farmers, scientists and technocrats from India and abroad.
  • ISF provides opportunities to people and scientific fraternity in the country and abroad to come together and work together.
IISF 2022:
  • Location: Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is the eighth edition since its inception in 2015.
  • Theme: ‘Marching towards Amrit Kaal with Science, Technology, and Innovation
  • IISF 2022 is a four day festival and will feature 14 thematic events.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Nuclear Thermal system, consider the following statements:
  1. It is used in the Bimodal nuclear propulsion system.
  2. In this system liquid hydrogen is turned into ionised hydrogen gas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
Recently, as part of the NASA Innovative Advanced Concepts (NIAC) program for 2023, NASA selected a bimodal nuclear propulsion concept for Phase I development which could reduce transit times to Mars to just 45 days.
  • Bimodal nuclear propulsion is a two-part system that includes; Nuclear Thermal and Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NTP /NEP).
  • It uses a wave rotor topping cycle.
How will nuclear propulsion work?
  • The Nuclear Thermal system includes a nuclear reactor that will heat liquid hydrogen (LH2) propellant and turn it into ionised hydrogen gas (plasma) that will then be channelled through a nozzle to generate thrust.
  • Nuclear Electric Propulsion depends on a nuclear reactor to provide electricity to a Hall-Effect thruster (ion engine), which will generate an electromagnetic field that will ionise and accelerate an inert gas to create thrust.
  • Advantages: Fuel efficiency, a higher specific impulse, rating and unlimited energy density.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Rubber plantation, consider the following statements:
  1. It grows in moist and humid climatic conditions.
  2. It requires well-drained loamy soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Chopra answered
Rubber Plantation

The cultivation of rubber involves growing rubber trees which produce latex, a milky white substance that can be processed into rubber. Rubber plantations are mainly found in Southeast Asia, Africa, and South America.

Moist and Humid Climatic Conditions

Rubber trees require a warm and moist climate to grow. They grow best in regions with an average temperature of 25-35°C and an annual rainfall of 2000-3000 mm. Such climatic conditions are found in Southeast Asia, which is the largest producer of natural rubber in the world.

Well-Drained Loamy Soil

The soil requirements for rubber plantation include well-drained loamy soil with a pH range of 4.5-6.5. The soil should not be waterlogged, as it can lead to root rot and other diseases. The loamy soil is rich in organic matter and minerals, which provide essential nutrients for the growth of rubber trees.

Correct Answer

Both statements are not correct as the first statement is correct, but the second statement is incorrect. Rubber trees require well-drained soil, but they do not necessarily require loamy soil. They can also grow in sandy or clay soils as long as they are well-drained.

With reference to the Environment Education, Awareness and Training (EEAT), consider the following statements:
  1. It is a Centrally sponsored scheme.
  2. It is implemented by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: It is a Centrally sponsored scheme.
The first statement is incorrect. The Environment Education, Awareness and Training (EEAT) is not a centrally sponsored scheme. It is a centrally sponsored scheme means that both the central and state governments contribute to the funding of the scheme. However, in the case of EEAT, it is not a centrally sponsored scheme.

Statement 2: It is implemented by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
The second statement is correct. The Environment Education, Awareness and Training (EEAT) is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. This ministry is responsible for formulating and implementing policies and programs related to the environment, forest, and climate change in India. The ministry plays a crucial role in promoting environmental education, awareness, and training through various initiatives, including the EEAT scheme.

Explanation:
The Environment Education, Awareness and Training (EEAT) is a program initiated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to promote environmental education and awareness among the people of India. The program aims to create awareness about environmental issues, promote sustainable development practices, and encourage active participation in environmental conservation efforts.

Under the EEAT program, various activities are organized to educate and engage people in environmental conservation. These activities include workshops, seminars, training programs, awareness campaigns, and capacity building initiatives. The program targets various stakeholders, including students, teachers, government officials, NGOs, and the general public.

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is responsible for formulating policies, guidelines, and regulations related to environmental education and awareness. The ministry collaborates with various stakeholders, including educational institutions, NGOs, and government agencies, to implement the EEAT program effectively.

In conclusion, the correct statement is:
Statement 2: It is implemented by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

With reference to Haemophilia, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a medical condition in which the ability of blood to clot is severely reduced. 
  2. Women are more vulnerable to this disease than men.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
Recently, U.S. drugmaker Pfizer Inc said that its experimental gene therapy for the treatment of haemophilia B met its main goal in a late-stage study.
  • Data from the study showed that a single dose of the therapy was superior to the current standard of care in helping reduce the bleeding rate in patients with moderately severe to severe forms of haemophilia B.
What is Haemophilia?
  • It is a medical condition, mostly inherited, in which the ability of blood to clot is severely reduced. 
  • This disease is caused by a mutation in one of the genes,that provides instructions for making the clotting factor proteins needed to form a blood clot.
  • This change or mutation can prevent the clotting protein from working properly or being missing altogether. These genes are located on the X chromosome.
  • Men are more vulnerable to haemophilia than women. It is a rare disease where in about 1 in 10,000 people are born with it.
Hence only statements 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Seshachalam Hills:
  1. The Seshachalam Hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
  2. Tirupati is a major Hindu pilgrimage town is located in these hills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
Spot Bellied Eagle Owl was recently spotted in Seshachalam forest of Andhra Pradesh for the first time.
Seshachalam Hills
  • The Seshachalam Hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh.
  • They are a group of seven hills namely, Seshadri, Neeladri, Garudadri, Anjanadri, Vrishabhadri, Narayanadri and Venkatadri.
  • The ranges were formed during the Precambrian era (3.8 billion to 540 million years ago)
  • The Seshachalam hills consist of sandstone and shale along with limestone.
  • Tirupati which is considered as one of the major Hindu pilgrimage towns in India is located in the hills.
  • The Srivenkateshwara National Park is also located in this mountain range.
  • Seshachalam was designated as a Biosphere Reserve in the year 2010
  • It has large reserves of red sandalwood.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Naegleria fowleri, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a single-celled organism.
  2. It is found only in the Polar Regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Iyer answered
Naegleria fowleri is a free-living amoeba that is commonly found in warm freshwater and soil. It is a single-celled organism that can cause a rare but serious brain infection called primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) when it enters the body through the nose.

The given statements regarding Naegleria fowleri are:

1. It is a single-celled organism.
2. It is found only in the Polar Regions.

Correct answer: A) 1 Only

Explanation:

1. It is a single-celled organism: This statement is correct. Naegleria fowleri is a single-celled organism that belongs to the phylum Amoebozoa. It is a type of amoeba that moves by extending pseudopodia, which are temporary projections of the cell membrane and cytoplasm.

2. It is found only in the Polar Regions: This statement is incorrect. Naegleria fowleri is commonly found in warm freshwater and soil, especially in the southern United States, but it has also been reported in other parts of the world such as Asia, Australia, and Europe. It is not found in the Polar Regions as the water there is too cold for it to survive.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the ARNALA ship, consider the following statements:
  1. It is built under the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft project.
  2. It is used in Low-Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anisha Singh answered
ARNAVALA ship:
- The ARNALA ship is built under the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft project.
- It is designed to operate in shallow waters and can detect and track underwater targets.
- The ship is equipped with advanced communication systems, weapons, and sensors to provide a high level of situational awareness.
- It is used in Low-Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO) to protect territorial waters, prevent smuggling, and defend against piracy.
- The ship can also support search and rescue operations and provide assistance during natural disasters.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Digital University (NDU):
  1. NDU will offer only online courses from its partner institutes.
  2. NDU will allow students to pursue multiple courses at a time.
  3. Only public universities are allowed as partner institutes of NDU.
Which of the statements given above is /are not correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

The given statements are related to the National Digital University (NDU). Let's analyze each statement to determine which one(s) is/are correct:

1. NDU will offer only online courses from its partner institutes: This statement is not correct. NDU will offer both online and offline courses from its partner institutes.

2. NDU will allow students to pursue multiple courses at a time: This statement is correct. NDU will allow students to pursue multiple courses from different partner institutes simultaneously.

3. Only public universities are allowed as partner institutes of NDU: This statement is not correct. Both public and private universities can be partner institutes of NDU.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A (1 and 2 only).

With reference to the Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) Scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. It provides financial support for the infrastructure development of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD).
  2. It is a central sector scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Debanshi Desai answered
Explanation:
The Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme that provides financial support for the infrastructure development of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD). The scheme aims to strengthen the broadcasting infrastructure in the country and enhance the reach and quality of broadcasting services.

Statement 1: It provides financial support for the infrastructure development of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD).
This statement is correct. The BIND Scheme is specifically designed to provide financial assistance for the infrastructure development of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD). The scheme supports the establishment of new transmission towers, upgradation of existing infrastructure, and installation of digital transmitters and equipment to improve the broadcasting quality and coverage.

Statement 2: It is a central sector scheme.
This statement is also correct. The BIND Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme, which means that the funding for the scheme is shared between the central government and the state governments. The central government provides a major portion of the funds, while the state governments also contribute a certain percentage.

The BIND Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India. It plays a crucial role in the development of broadcasting infrastructure across the country, ensuring that the reach and quality of services provided by All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD) are improved.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The BIND Scheme provides financial support for the infrastructure development of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD), and it is a central sector scheme implemented by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India.

With reference to Ramappa Temple, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a Kakatiya style Hindu temple dedicated to the god Shiva, located in Telangana.
  2. It is inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Patel answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. Ramappa Temple is indeed a Kakatiya style Hindu temple dedicated to the god Shiva, located in Telangana. It was built by Recharla Rudra, a general of the Kakatiya dynasty, in the 13th century.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is also correct. Ramappa Temple was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021. It is recognized for its outstanding architecture, intricate carvings, and unique floating bricks technique.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C) Both 1 and 2.

With reference to the Asian Giant Tortoise, consider the following statements:
  1. It listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red list.
  2. It is found only in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Basak answered
According to the given statements, we are asked to determine the accuracy of the information provided about the Asian Giant Tortoise. Let's evaluate each statement individually:

1. It is listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red List.
The IUCN Red List is a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species. It categorizes species into different levels of threat, including Critically Endangered. To verify the accuracy of this statement, we can refer to the IUCN Red List.

Upon checking the IUCN Red List, we find that the Asian Giant Tortoise (Manouria emys) is indeed listed as Critically Endangered. This indicates that the species is facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

2. It is found only in India.
To determine the accuracy of this statement, we need to examine the distribution of the Asian Giant Tortoise. The species is native to Southeast Asia and is found in several countries, including India, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam, and parts of China.

Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect as the Asian Giant Tortoise is not found only in India.

In conclusion, out of the given statements, only statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the Paris club, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an informal group of creditor nations whose objective is to find workable solutions to payment problems faced by debtor nations.
  2. The Paris Club has 132 permanent members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Menon answered
Paris Club:

The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations whose objective is to find workable solutions to payment problems faced by debtor nations. It was formed in 1956 and is named after the city where the group first met.

Statements:

1. It is an informal group of creditor nations whose objective is to find workable solutions to payment problems faced by debtor nations.

This statement is correct. The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations that meets to find solutions to payment problems faced by debtor nations. The group works to negotiate debt rescheduling, debt relief, and debt cancellation for countries facing financial difficulties.

2. The Paris Club has 132 permanent members.

This statement is incorrect. The Paris Club does not have permanent members. The group is made up of representatives from 22 creditor nations, including the United States, Japan, Germany, and France. These countries meet regularly to negotiate with debtor nations and find solutions to their payment problems.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', i.e., 1 only.

With reference to the trans-fatty acid, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an unsaturated fatty acid that comes from natural resources.
  2. India launched REPLACE campaign to reduce this trans fat intake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Patel answered
Statement 1: It is an unsaturated fatty acid that comes from natural resources.
Trans-fatty acids are a type of fatty acid that have at least one double bond in the trans configuration. They are primarily formed through the process of hydrogenation, where unsaturated fats are converted into a more solid form to increase their shelf life. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect as trans-fatty acids are not naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids but are artificially produced through industrial processes.

Statement 2: India launched REPLACE campaign to reduce this trans fat intake.
The REPLACE campaign was indeed launched by India to reduce the intake of trans fats. The campaign was announced in 2018 by the World Health Organization (WHO) in collaboration with the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). The aim of the campaign is to eliminate trans fats from the food supply by 2023 in order to promote healthier diets and reduce the risk of non-communicable diseases.

Summary:
- Statement 1 is incorrect as trans-fatty acids are not naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids but are artificially produced through industrial processes.
- Statement 2 is correct as India launched the REPLACE campaign to reduce the intake of trans fats.

With reference to the Dhanu Yatra, consider the following statements:
  1. It is considered the largest open-air theatre in the world.
  2. It is celebrated in the state of Odisha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divyansh Yadav answered
The correct answer is option C - Both 1 and 2.

Dhanu Yatra is indeed considered the largest open-air theatre in the world, and it is celebrated in the state of Odisha. Let's examine each statement in detail:

1. It is considered the largest open-air theatre in the world:
Dhanu Yatra is a famous annual festival held in the town of Bargarh in Odisha, India. It is a month-long festival that reenacts the mythological story of Lord Krishna and his demon uncle King Kansa. The entire town of Bargarh transforms into a massive stage for this performance.

The festival involves the participation of thousands of artists, performers, and locals, who play various characters from the Krishna Leela (the life and exploits of Lord Krishna). The streets, fields, and temples of Bargarh become the backdrop for the performances, making it the largest open-air theatre in the world.

2. It is celebrated in the state of Odisha:
Dhanu Yatra is a significant cultural event celebrated exclusively in the state of Odisha. Odisha, located on the eastern coast of India, has a rich cultural heritage, and festivals play a vital role in the lives of its people. Dhanu Yatra is one of the most popular and eagerly awaited festivals in the state.

During the festival, the town of Bargarh becomes a pilgrimage site for devotees and tourists alike. People from different parts of the state and even from other states come to witness the grand performances and immerse themselves in the festive atmosphere. The festival not only showcases the cultural heritage of Odisha but also promotes tourism and boosts the local economy.

In conclusion, both statements given above are correct. Dhanu Yatra is indeed considered the largest open-air theatre in the world, and it is celebrated in the state of Odisha. The festival is a magnificent display of art, culture, and religious devotion, attracting people from all walks of life to experience the grandeur of the performances and immerse themselves in the rich traditions of Odisha.

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
  1. It is composed of a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner of India and respective State Election Commissioners.
  2. Under Article 82, Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Recently, the Election Commission of India said that it has begun the process of delimitation of Assembly and Parliamentary constituencies in Assam.
  • The Delimitation process in Assam will be based on Census data from 2001. The last delimitation of constituencies in Assam was done in 1976 based on the 1971 Census.
Who carries out delimitation?
  • Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission, appointed by the Government of India under provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act.
  • Under Article 82, Parliament is to enact a Delimitation Act after every Census. Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up the Delimitation Commission.
  • The Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of constituencies in a way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is the same. The Commission is also tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • It works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
  • The commission is composed of a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner of India and respective State Election Commissioners.
  • In the history of the Indian republic, Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times- 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Ottanthullal, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a recite-and-dance art form of Kerala.
  2. It was introduced by the famous Malayalam poet Kunchan Nambiar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaavya Tiwari answered
Explanation:

1. Ottanthullal:
Ottanthullal is a traditional performing art form that originated in the state of Kerala, India. It combines elements of recitation, dance, and music to create a unique and entertaining performance.

2. Recite-and-Dance Art Form:
Ottanthullal is indeed a recite-and-dance art form, where the performer recites verses in a rhythmic manner while also incorporating dance movements. The combination of poetry, music, and dance makes Ottanthullal a vibrant and engaging art form.

3. Introduction by Kunchan Nambiar:
The second statement is also correct. Ottanthullal was introduced by the famous Malayalam poet Kunchan Nambiar. He is considered to be the father of Ottanthullal and is credited with developing and popularizing this art form.
Therefore, both statements are correct. Ottanthullal is a recite-and-dance art form of Kerala that was introduced by the renowned poet Kunchan Nambiar.

With reference to the Print and Digital Media Association (PADMA), consider the following statements:
  1. The government has approved the Print and Digital Media Association (PADMA) as a self-regulatory body for publishers of news and current affairs across the country.
  2. It will look at grievances related to digital media news content on their platforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The government has approved the Print and Digital Media Association (PADMA) as a self-regulatory body for publishers of news and current affairs across the country.
  • The organisation — with 47 digital news publishers on board — will look at grievances related to digital media news content on their platforms.
  • With this, the Ministry has approved nine self-regulatory bodies since May 2021 under rule 12 of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.
    • They include DIGIPUB News India Foundation, Confederation of Online Media (India), and NBF- Professional News Broadcasting Standards Authority, among others.
  • Self-regulatory bodies will “oversee and ensure adherence by the publisher to the code of ethics; address grievances which have not been resolved by publishers within 15 days; hear appeals filed by the complainant against the decision of publishers etc.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Magellanic Clouds, consider the following statements:
  1. These are irregular galaxies that lie near the south celestial pole.
  2. These clouds were formed at about the same time as the Milky Way Galaxy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
Recently, the world's most powerful telescope, NASA's James Webb telescope, has found a star formation in a dynamic cluster that lies within a nebula 200,000 light years away.
  • As per the American space agency, the Small Magellanic Cloud (SMC) star-forming region NGC 346 is one of the most dynamic in nearby galaxies and is a dwarf galaxy. It is close to the Milky Way with lower metal concentrations.
What is Magellanic Cloud?
  • The Magellanic Clouds are irregular galaxies that share a gaseous envelope and lie about 22° apart in the sky near the south celestial pole.
  • They are comprised of two irregular galaxies, the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) and the Small Magellanic Cloud (SMC), which orbit the Milky Way once every 1,500 million years and each other once every 900 million years.
  • These companion galaxies were named for the Portuguese navigator Ferdinand Magellan, whose crew discovered them during the first voyage around the world (1519–22).
  • Magellanic Clouds were formed at about the same time as the Milky Way Galaxy, approximately 13 billion years ago.
  • They are presently captured in orbits around the Milky Way Galaxy and have experienced several tidal encounters with each other and with the Galaxy.
  • They contain numerous young stars and star clusters, as well as some much older stars.
  • The Magellanic Clouds are visible to the unaided eye in the Southern Hemisphere.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the report by Centre for Economics and Business Research (CEBR) on Indian Economy, consider the following statements:
  1. India will become third largest economy by 2035 from the current fifth spot.
  2. By 2037, world gross domestic product will be doubled as developing economies will catch up with the richer ones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The Centre for Economics and Business Research (CEBR), a British consultancy, has said India will become third largest economy by 2035 from the current fifth spot.
  • In its annual World Economic League Table, the Centre for Economics and Business Research said that over the next five years, India's annual rate of GDP growth is expected to average 6.4 percent after which growth is expected to average 6.5 percent in the subsequent nine years.
  • CEBR also adds that by 2037, world gross domestic product will be doubled as developing economies will catch up with the richer ones.
  • The shifting balance of power will see the East Asia and Pacific region account for over a third of global output by 2037, while Europe's share shrinks to less than a fifth.
  • The global economy will face recession in 2023 mainly due to rises in interest rates by the central banks to arrest higher inflation.
  • The global economy surpassed 100 trillion Dollar for the first time in 2022, but will stall in 2023 as policy makers continue their fight against soaring prices.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Ethylene glycol, consider the following statements:
  1. It is found in hydraulic brake fluids and ballpoint pens.
  2. It is mostly used as an automotive antifreeze and as a raw material for manufacturing polyester fibres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Uzbekistan’s health ministry has recently claimed India-made cough syrups contained ethylene glycol which led to the death of at least 18 children.
About:
What is ethylene glycol?
  • Ethylene glycol is a colourless and odourless alcoholic compound that can be fatal if consumed.
  • The sweet-tasting ethylene glycol is a syrupy or viscous liquid at room temperature.
  • It is mostly used as an automotive antifreeze and as a raw material for manufacturing polyester fibres.
  • It is also found in several products such as hydraulic brake fluids, stamp pad inks, ballpoint pens, solvents, paints, cosmetics and plastics.
  • Diethylene glycol and ethylene glycol are adulterants that are sometimes illegally used as solvents in liquid drugs.
    • Diethylene glycol and ethylene glycol may be used by pharma companies as an alternative to non-toxic solvents such as glycerine or propylene glycol to cut costs.
  • The ingestion of ethylene glycol can cause severe health effects. Central nervous system depression, nausea, vomiting, intoxication, euphoria, stupor, respiratory depression, and reduced excretion of urine can occur due to ethylene glycol intoxication.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Maghi Mela, consider the following statements:
  1. It is held in January according to the Nanakshahi calendar.
  2. It is celebrated in memory of the battle of Khidrana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Maghi Mela

The Maghi Mela is an important Sikh festival celebrated in Punjab, India. It is held on the first day of the month of Magh, which falls in January according to the Nanakshahi calendar. The festival is observed to commemorate the martyrdom of the Chali Mukte, the Forty Liberated Ones, who sacrificed their lives in the Battle of Khidrana.

Statement Analysis:
Let's analyze the given statements to determine their correctness:

Statement 1: It is held in January according to the Nanakshahi calendar.
The first statement is correct. The Maghi Mela is indeed celebrated in January according to the Nanakshahi calendar. The Nanakshahi calendar is a solar calendar introduced by Sikh scholar Pal Singh Purewal in 2003, aligning the Sikh festivals with the Gregorian calendar.

Statement 2: It is celebrated in memory of the battle of Khidrana.
The second statement is also correct. The Maghi Mela is celebrated in memory of the battle of Khidrana, also known as the Battle of Muktsar. This battle took place on the 29th of December in 1705. It was fought between the forces of Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru, and the Mughal army led by Wazir Khan. During the battle, forty Sikh warriors, known as the Chali Mukte, sacrificed their lives while defending Guru Gobind Singh.

Conclusion:
Both the given statements are correct.
The Maghi Mela is held in January according to the Nanakshahi calendar, and it is celebrated in memory of the battle of Khidrana. The festival holds immense religious and historical significance for the Sikh community, as it honors the bravery and sacrifice of the Chali Mukte. The Maghi Mela attracts a large number of devotees who gather at the holy city of Muktsar Sahib to participate in various religious events, take a dip in the sacred sarovar (pond), and seek blessings. The festival also includes processions, kirtan (devotional singing), and spiritual discourses.

Consider the following statements regarding Default Bail in India:
  1. This is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period.
  2. This right only comes into place after the stipulated time limit for investigation has expired.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Both 1 and 2
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
Recent, the Supreme Court said that grant of default bail will not operate as an absolute bar to canceling it once the charge sheet is filed and the same can be considered if a strong case is made out
What is a Default bail?
  • Also known as statutory bail, this is a right to bail that accrues when the police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody.
  • It is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime.
  • The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused is remanded for the first time.
  • It includes days undergone in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.
  • A requirement for the grant of statutory bail is that the right should be claimed by the person in custody.
  • If the charge sheet is not filed within the stipulated period, but there is no application for bail under Section 167(2), there is no automatic bail.
  • Once the accused files an application for bail under Section 167(2), it is considered that he/she has enforced the right to be released on default bail.
  • This right only comes into place after the stipulated time limit for investigation has expired.
  • If the accused fails to apply for default bail after the investigation time period has expired, and the investigating agency files a charge-sheet or seeks more time before the accused makes such an application for default bail, then the right of default bail is no longer applicable.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Holocene epoch:
  1. Holocene Epoch began 12,000 to 11,500 years ago at the close of the Paleolithic Ice Age.
  2. The Holocene is characterized with near constant climate conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priyanka Mehta answered
Holocene Epoch is a geological epoch that began approximately 12,000 to 11,500 years ago at the close of the Paleolithic Ice Age. It is the current epoch, following the Pleistocene epoch. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.

1) Holocene Epoch began 12,000 to 11,500 years ago at the close of the Paleolithic Ice Age.
This statement is correct. The Holocene Epoch started after the Paleolithic Ice Age, which ended around 12,000 to 11,500 years ago. The Paleolithic Ice Age was characterized by extensive glaciations and the presence of large ice sheets covering significant portions of the Earth's surface. As the climate began to warm, the ice sheets started to retreat, marking the transition to the Holocene.

2) The Holocene is characterized with near constant climate conditions.
This statement is incorrect. The Holocene is not characterized by near constant climate conditions. In fact, the Holocene has experienced significant climate variability, including periods of warmth and cooling. This variability has been documented through various paleoclimate records, such as ice cores, sediment cores, and tree rings. The Holocene has seen fluctuations in temperature, precipitation patterns, sea levels, and the occurrence of extreme weather events.

The Holocene has witnessed several notable climate events, including the Holocene Thermal Maximum, which occurred around 8,000 to 5,000 years ago and resulted in warmer global temperatures. There have also been periodic cooling events, such as the Little Ice Age, which took place from the 14th to the 19th centuries and brought colder temperatures to many parts of the world.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. The first statement is accurate, while the second statement is incorrect.

With reference to the Khelo India Youth Games-2022, consider the following statements:
  1. Madhya Pradesh is hosting the fifth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games.
  2. For the first time water sports namely Kayaking Canoeing, Canoe Slalom and Fencing will be part of this edition of Khelo India Games.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Mascot, torch and anthem of Khelo India Youth Games recently unveiled in Bhopal.
  • Madhya Pradesh is hosting the fifth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games. In this sports event, to be held from the 30th of January to the 11th of February, six thousand players will show their sports skills in eight different cities for 13 days. 
  • For the first time water sports namely Kayaking Canoeing, Canoe Slalom and Fencing will be part of this edition of Khelo India Games.
Khelo India Youth Games
  • Objective: To revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level by building a strong framework for all sports played in our country and establish India as a great sporting nation.
  • It is an annual event. The first edition was held in 2018 in Delhi in which Haryana won 38 golds.
  • Talented players identified in priority sports disciplines at various levels by the High-Powered Committee will be provided annual financial assistance of INR 5 lakh per annum for 8 years.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Ozone, consider the following statements:
  1. It is composed of three atoms of oxygen molecules.
  2. It is only found in the stratospheric zone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Mehta answered
Statement 1: It is composed of three atoms of oxygen molecules.
Ozone is a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms. The chemical formula for ozone is O3, which means it consists of three oxygen atoms bonded together. This is in contrast to the usual oxygen molecule (O2), which consists of only two oxygen atoms bonded together. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: It is only found in the stratospheric zone.
Ozone is primarily found in the stratospheric zone of the Earth's atmosphere. The stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere, located above the troposphere. It extends from about 10 to 50 kilometers above the Earth's surface. The concentration of ozone is highest in the stratosphere, particularly in a region called the ozone layer, which is located between 10 and 50 kilometers above the Earth's surface. The ozone layer plays a crucial role in absorbing the majority of the Sun's ultraviolet (UV) radiation, protecting life on Earth from harmful UV rays. Therefore, statement 2 is also correct.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Ozone is composed of three atoms of oxygen molecules, and it is primarily found in the stratospheric zone of the Earth's atmosphere.

With reference to the Gandak River, consider the following statements:
  1. It rises in Tibet near the Nepal-Tibet border.
  2. It is a right bank tributary of the Ganga River.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Background:
The Gandak River is a significant river in South Asia, flowing through India and Nepal. It is known by different names in different regions, such as the Narayani River in Nepal and the Gandak River in India. It is an important tributary of the Ganga River and plays a crucial role in the irrigation and agriculture of the region.

Analysis:
Let's analyze each statement given in the question to determine their correctness:

1. It rises in Tibet near the Nepal-Tibet border.
This statement is correct. The Gandak River originates in the Tibetan plateau near the Nepal-Tibet border. It flows through the Himalayas and enters Nepal.

2. It is a right bank tributary of the Ganga River.
This statement is not correct. The Gandak River is actually a left bank tributary of the Ganga River. It meets the Ganga near Patna in Bihar, India.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B - 2 only.

Summary:
- The Gandak River rises in Tibet near the Nepal-Tibet border.
- It is a left bank tributary of the Ganga River.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option B - 2 only.

With reference to the Indian Rhinoceros, consider the following statements:
  1. It is found only in the Brahmaputra valley, parts of North Bengal, and parts of southern Nepal.
  2. It is listed as least concern in the IUCN Red List
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Indian Rhinoceros Distribution:
- The first statement is correct. Indian Rhinoceros is found in the Brahmaputra valley, parts of North Bengal, and parts of southern Nepal. They are mainly concentrated in the Kaziranga National Park in India.
- They prefer areas with tall grasslands, riverine forests, and reed beds.

IUCN Red List Status:
- The second statement is incorrect. The Indian Rhinoceros is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List, not least concern.
- The species has faced population declines due to habitat loss, poaching for their horns, and human-wildlife conflicts.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', 1 only.

With reference to the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), consider the following statements:
  1. FSIB will making recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors and non-executive chairman of all Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCB’s)
  2. Final decision on the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

). The FSIB will also be responsible for monitoring the performance of SCBs and taking necessary actions in case of underperformance.

1. The FSIB will be responsible for appointing full-time directors and non-executive chairman of SCBs.
2. The FSIB will monitor the performance of SCBs and take necessary actions in case of underperformance.

Both statements are correct. The FSIB will indeed make recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors and non-executive chairman of all Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs). Additionally, the FSIB will also be responsible for monitoring the performance of SCBs and taking necessary actions in case of underperformance.

With reference to the Small Modular Reactors, consider the following statements:
  1. SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit.
  2. SMR, with up to 300 MW capacity by nature are flexible in design and require smaller footprint.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Union Minister of State of the Ministry of Science & Technology recently said, India is taking steps for development of Small Modular Reactors (SMR), with up to 300 MW capacity to fulfill its commitment to Clean Energy transition.
What are Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)?
  • SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit, which is about one-third of the generating capacity of traditional nuclear power reactors. SMRs, which can produce a large amount of low-carbon electricity, are:
    • Small – physically a fraction of the size of a conventional nuclear power reactor.
    • Modular – making it possible for systems and components to be factory-assembled and transported as a unit to a location for installation.
    • Reactors – harnessing nuclear fission to generate heat to produce energy.
Advantages of SMRs
  • SMR, with up to 300 MW capacity by nature are flexible in design and require smaller footprint. Given their smaller footprint, SMRs can be sited on locations not suitable for larger nuclear power plants.
  • Being mobile and agile technology, SMR can be factory-built unlike the conventional nuclear reactors that are built on–site. Thus, SMRs offers significant savings in cost and construction time.
  • SMR is a promising technology in industrial de-carbonization especially where there is a requirement of reliable and continuous supply of power. It is said that SMR is simpler and safer as compared to large nuclear plants.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comic (AVGC) Sector, consider the following statements:
  1. India today contributes about 2.5 to 3 billion dollars out of the estimated 260 to 275 billion dollars worldwide in the AVGC market.
  2. According to the Task Force on AVGC sector, the Regional Centre of Excellence will be instituted in collaboration with the State Governments to provide access to local industries and to promote local talent and content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Kapoor answered
The Government has recently said that the Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comic (AVGC) sector has the potential to provide employment to over 20 lakh people in the coming 10 years. It is expected that the sector will witness 16 to 17 percent growth rate in the next decade.
About:
  • The AVGC sector in the country has witnessed an unprecedented growth rate in recent times, with many global players entering the Indian talent pool to avail of offshore delivery of services.
  • India today contributes about 2.5 to 3 billion dollars out of the estimated 260 to 275 billion dollars worldwide in the AVGC market.
  • Task Force recently submitted report on ‘Realising AVGC-XR (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comics - Extended Reality) Sector Potential in India’ on the 22nd of December, 2022 by the Chairman of the Task Force, Apurva Chandra.
Recommendations:
  • To make India a global content hub and create job opportunities in the AVGC sector, the Task Force has laid emphasis on establishing a National Centre of Excellence for the sector.
  • The Regional Centre of Excellence will be instituted in collaboration with the State Governments to provide access to local industries and to promote local talent and content.
  • It has been recommended by the Task Force to leverage National Education Policy to develop creative thinking with dedicated AVGC course content at school levels to build foundational skills and to create awareness about AVGC as a career choice.
  • It has also been recommended to establish AVGC accelerators and innovation hubs in academic institutions, on the lines of Atal Tinkering Labs.
  • The Task Force has recommended establishing a dedicated production fund for domestic content creation from the country to promote Indian culture and heritage globally.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Asian golden cat, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a medium sized cat endemic to the Indian state of West Bengal.
  2. It is classified as “Endangered” under the IUCN red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
Officials of the Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR) in north Bengal said that they were able to capture some pictures of rare and elusive melanistic Asian golden cat in the camera traps.
About Asian golden cat:
  • It is a medium sized cat with relatively long legs.
  • Scientific name: Catopuma temminckii
  • Other names: They are known as the “fire cat” in Thailand and Burma, and as the “rock cat” in parts of China.
  • Distribution: The species occurs in Southeast Asia, from Nepal and Tibet to Southern China, Sumatra and India.
  • Habitat: It prefers forest habitats that are interspersed with rocky areas, being found in deciduoustropical and subtropical evergreen rainforests.
  • Their fur ranges in color from cinnamon to various shades of brown, and also gray and black (melanistic).
  • Conservation status:
  • IUCN: “Near threatened”
  • Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule 1
Hence both statements are not correct.

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