All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT):
  1. Transactions made through NEFT take place in real-time without any delay.
  2. Minimum transfer value under NEFT is Rs. 2 lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Reddy answered
Understanding NEFT Transactions
The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a popular electronic payment system in India that facilitates the transfer of funds between banks. Let's analyze the provided statements:
Statement 1: Transactions made through NEFT take place in real-time without any delay.
- This statement is incorrect. NEFT operates on a batch processing system. Transactions are processed in batches, typically every half hour, rather than in real-time. This means that there can be some delay between the initiation of the transaction and the actual crediting of funds to the recipient's account.
Statement 2: Minimum transfer value under NEFT is Rs. 2 lakh.
- This statement is also incorrect. NEFT does not have a minimum transfer limit. While the maximum limit for a single transaction was previously set at Rs. 2 lakh, there is no minimum amount required for transactions, making NEFT accessible for both small and large fund transfers.
Conclusion
- Since both statements are incorrect, the correct answer is option 'D' (Neither 1 nor 2).
Key Takeaways:
- NEFT is not real-time; it operates in batches.
- There is no minimum transfer limit in NEFT.
- Maximum limit for a single NEFT transaction is Rs. 2 lakh.
This understanding is crucial for anyone preparing for the UPSC exam, as knowledge of financial systems and their operational mechanics is often tested.

Consider the following statements regarding Virtual Digital Assets (VDA):
  1. They are not defined under any Indian Laws/Acts.
  2. They can be transferred, stored, or traded electronically.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Samay Singh answered
The Finance Minister in her Budget 2022 speech announced a 30% tax on income from virtual digital assets (particularly aiming at Cryptocurrencies). In addition to this, it was also proposed to levy a Tax Deduction at Source (TDS) on payments made in relation to the transfer of virtual digital assets at 1% above a monetary threshold.
What are Virtual Digital Assets?

In layman’s terms, it basically means cryptocurrencies, DeFi (decentralised finance) and non-fungible tokens (NFTs). Prima facie, excludes digital gold, central bank digital currency (CBDC) or any other traditional digital assets, and hence aimed at specifically taxing cryptocurrencies.
Read in details about Cryptocurrency in the linked article.

How does the government define virtual digital assets?

A new clause (47A) is proposed to be inserted to section 2 of the Finance Act, in order to define “virtual digital asset”.

According to the Finance Act, “virtual digital asset” means any information, code, number or token (not being Indian currency or foreign currency), generated through cryptographic means or otherwise and can be called by whatever name. 

They provide a digital representation of value exchanged with or without consideration, with the promise or representation of having inherent value, or functions as a store of value or a unit of account including its use in any financial transaction or investment, but not limited to, investment schemes and can be transferred, stored or traded electronically.

Non-fungible tokens and; any other token of similar nature are included in the definition.

What is the Reason Behind Taxation of Virtual Digital Assets?

Popularity and Increased Transactions – Virtual digital assets have become immensely popular in recent times, and the magnitude of trading in such digital assets has increased substantially.

Growing Market – This has resulted in the emergence of a market where payment for the transfer of a virtual digital asset can be made using another such asset. The magnitude and frequency of these transactions have made it imperative to provide for a specific tax regime.

Gifting Culture – The gifting of virtual digital assets is also a popular mode of exchange nowadays.

How are Virtual Digital Assets different from Digital Currency?

Currency – medium of exchange can be defined as currency only if it is issued by the central bank. e.g. dollar, rupee etc. Hence, crypto will be called a currency only when it will be issued by the central bank.

Digital Currency – What the RBI will issue in the next fiscal, beginning 1 April, will be the digital currency. This digital currency will be called a ‘digital rupee’.

Virtual Digital Asses – Anything which is created outside of the central bank are virtual digital assets created by individuals. People, in general, refer to these digital assets as cryptocurrency, but actually, they are not. E.g. Bitcoin.

These private virtual currencies do not represent any person’s debt or liabilities, as there is no issuer. They are not money and certainly not currency. 

Virtual Digital Assets also include Non-fungible tokens or NFTs, which are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other. NFTs can also be used to represent individuals’ identities, property rights, and more. 

Fungible tokens, like cryptocurrencies, are generally identical to each other and, therefore, can be used as a medium for commercial transactions, unlike NFTs.

What are the recent regulations regarding virtual digital assets?

The government, in the budget of 2022, has announced certain regulations for the Virtual Digital Assets, with effect from 1st April 2023.

It was announced that the government will be taxing the profits which are made during transactions of such private created assets or virtual digital assets at 30%.

This will be done regardless of any long-term or short-term holding by the investor.

No deduction on expenditure or allowance shall be allowed while computing such income, except the cost of acquisition.

TDS will be imposed on payments for the transfer of crypto assets at a rate of 1% for transactions over a certain threshold.

If a virtual digital asset investor incurs losses during the transaction, it can’t be set off against any other income.

The gifting of virtual digital assets has also been proposed to be taxed in the hands of the recipient.

Conclusion

The RBI for a very long time has been deliriously opposing private cryptocurrencies, as their implications on national security and financial stability could be serious. This recent step taken by the government recognises crypto as a legitimate asset class and crypto trading as a legitimate activity. But the higher rate of taxation clearly indicates that RBI wants to reduce the appeal towards this virtual digital asset. Thus, the announcement addresses the unreliability and concerns on the legal, regulatory and tax status of cryptocurrencies to a reasonable extent. A well-regulated crypto ecosystem will pave the way for the right environment for innovation.

With reference to the National Chambal sanctuary, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located at the tri-junction of three states namely Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.
  2. It is home to the largest population of Gharials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Avi Sharma answered
Statement 1: The National Chambal sanctuary is located at the tri-junction of three states namely Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

The statement is incorrect. The National Chambal sanctuary is not located at the tri-junction of these three states. It is located on the Chambal River, which is a tributary of the Yamuna River. The sanctuary spans across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan. Gujarat is not one of the states where the sanctuary is located.

Statement 2: The National Chambal sanctuary is home to the largest population of Gharials.

The statement is correct. The National Chambal sanctuary is known for its large population of Gharials. Gharials are a critically endangered species of crocodile and the sanctuary provides a safe habitat for them. The Chambal River is one of the last remaining strongholds of the Gharials in India. The sanctuary is also home to other species of reptiles, mammals, and birds.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis of the statements, only statement 2 is correct. The National Chambal sanctuary is not located at the tri-junction of Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan, but it is home to the largest population of Gharials.

Consider the following statements regarding the South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA):
  1. It is a region at the Earth’s surface where the intensity of the magnetic field is very high.
  2. It leads to the penetration of solar energetic particles deep into Earth’s atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohini Desai answered
Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
The South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA) is a region at the Earth's surface where the intensity of the magnetic field is very _low_ (not high), not very high. This is because the Earth's inner Van Allen radiation belt comes closest to the Earth's surface in this region, resulting in a dip in the magnetic field strength. Due to this lower magnetic field strength, solar energetic particles can penetrate deeper into Earth's atmosphere, which can cause problems for satellites and other spacecraft passing through the region. So, both statements are not correct.

With reference to Geomagnetic Storms, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a major disturbance of Earth's magnetosphere as a result of solar wind variations.
  2. These storms can heat the earth’s ionosphere and disrupts long-range radio communication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The first statement is correct. A geomagnetic storm is indeed a major disturbance of Earth's magnetosphere caused by variations in the solar wind. The solar wind is a stream of charged particles (mainly protons and electrons) continuously emitted by the Sun.

However, the second statement is incorrect. Geomagnetic storms do not heat the Earth. Instead, they can have various effects on our planet's magnetosphere and the technologies that rely on it, such as power grids, communication systems, and satellite operations. These effects can include fluctuations in the Earth's magnetic field, induced currents in power lines, disruption of satellite signals, and potential damage to electronic equipment.

Consider the following statements regarding Organoids:
  1. They are lab-grown tissues that resemble organs.
  2. They are three-dimensional structures usually derived from stem cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Snehal Chauhan answered
Organoids:
Organoids are lab-grown tissues that closely resemble organs in terms of their structure and function. They are three-dimensional structures that are typically derived from stem cells.

Correct Statement:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
Organoids are indeed lab-grown tissues that mimic the structure and function of organs. These three-dimensional structures are usually developed from stem cells, which have the ability to differentiate into various cell types. This characteristic allows organoids to closely resemble the complexity of actual organs, making them valuable tools for studying organ development, disease modeling, drug screening, and personalized medicine. By replicating the microenvironment of specific organs, organoids provide researchers with a platform to investigate organ-specific processes and responses in a controlled setting. The ability to generate organoids from different types of stem cells opens up opportunities for studying a wide range of organs and diseases, contributing to advances in biomedical research and potential clinical applications.

Consider the following statements regarding the Parivar Pehchan Patra (PPP) Scheme:
  1. It was launched by the Rajasthan Government in 2015.
  2. It treats each family as a single unit and provides them with an eight-digit Family Id.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Statement 1: The Parivar Pehchan Patra (PPP) Scheme was launched by the Rajasthan Government in 2015.

Statement 2: The PPP Scheme treats each family as a single unit and provides them with an eight-digit Family ID.

The correct answer is Option B, which means only Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation:

Rajasthan Government launched the Parivar Pehchan Patra (PPP) Scheme:
The first statement is incorrect. The Parivar Pehchan Patra (PPP) Scheme was not launched by the Rajasthan Government in 2015. In fact, it was launched by the Government of Haryana in 2019. The objective of the scheme is to create a comprehensive database of all the families residing in the state. The database includes information about each family's socio-economic status, demographics, and various other parameters that can help in effective policy planning and implementation.

PPP Scheme treats each family as a single unit and provides them with an eight-digit Family ID:
The second statement is correct. Under the Parivar Pehchan Patra (PPP) Scheme, each family is treated as a single unit and is provided with an eight-digit Family ID. This Family ID acts as a unique identifier for the family and is used to access various government welfare schemes and services. It helps in streamlining the delivery of benefits and services to the eligible families.

By treating each family as a single unit, the PPP Scheme ensures that the benefits are targeted and reach the intended beneficiaries. The Family ID also helps in avoiding duplication and impersonation, as it provides a reliable way to verify the identity of the family.

The Parivar Pehchan Patra (PPP) Scheme has been successful in creating a comprehensive database of families in Haryana and has improved the efficiency and effectiveness of government welfare programs. It has also facilitated better targeting of resources and improved transparency in the delivery of services.

In conclusion, the correct statement is that the Parivar Pehchan Patra (PPP) Scheme treats each family as a single unit and provides them with an eight-digit Family ID. However, it was not launched by the Rajasthan Government in 2015, but rather by the Government of Haryana in 2019.

With reference to the Atacama Large Millimetre/submillimetre Array Telescope, consider the following statements:
  1. It studies celestial objects at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths.
  2. It was developed only by the European Space Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Statement 1: The Atacama Large Millimetre/submillimetre Array (ALMA) Telescope studies celestial objects at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths.
Statement 2: The ALMA Telescope was developed only by the European Space Agency.

The correct answer is option A) 1 Only.

Explanation:

Introduction to ALMA:
The Atacama Large Millimetre/submillimetre Array (ALMA) Telescope is an astronomical interferometer located in Chile. It is a collaboration between various international partners, including Europe, North America, East Asia, and the Republic of Chile. ALMA is a state-of-the-art telescope that allows astronomers to study celestial objects at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths, which are longer than infrared and shorter than radio waves.

Statement 1: The ALMA Telescope studies celestial objects at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths.
This statement is correct. ALMA is specifically designed to observe the universe at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths. It consists of 66 high-precision antennas that work together to form a single large telescope. The unique wavelength range of ALMA allows astronomers to study various phenomena, including star formation, protoplanetary disks, galaxy evolution, and the early universe. By observing at these wavelengths, ALMA can detect the faint emissions from cold gas and dust, providing valuable insights into the birth and evolution of celestial objects.

Statement 2: The ALMA Telescope was developed only by the European Space Agency.
This statement is incorrect. The ALMA Telescope was not developed solely by the European Space Agency (ESA). It is a collaborative project involving several international partners. The lead partners in the ALMA project are the National Radio Astronomy Observatory (NRAO) in North America, the European Southern Observatory (ESO) in Europe, and the National Astronomical Observatory of Japan (NAOJ) in East Asia. The Republic of Chile also contributes significantly to the project, hosting the telescope at the Atacama Desert. ALMA is an example of international cooperation in the field of astronomy, bringing together expertise and resources from different countries to create a cutting-edge research facility.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option A) 1 Only. The ALMA Telescope studies celestial objects at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths, but it was not developed only by the European Space Agency.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ibisbill bird, recently seen in the news:
  1. It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
  2. It is classified as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
The term "endemic" refers to a species that is found only in a specific geographic location and nowhere else. The Western Ghats is a mountain range along the western coast of India, known for its high biodiversity. Therefore, if the Ibisbill bird is endemic to the Western Ghats, it means that it is found exclusively in this region.

Statement 2: It is classified as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
The IUCN Red List is a comprehensive inventory of the conservation status of plant and animal species worldwide. It categorizes species into various levels of threat, with "Critically Endangered" being the highest level of risk. Critically Endangered species are those that are facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.

Explanation of Correct Answer:
The correct answer is option 'd' - Neither 1 nor 2. Both statements are incorrect.

Explanation of Statement 1:
The Ibisbill bird (Ibidorhyncha struthersii) is not endemic to the Western Ghats. It is actually found in various regions across Asia, including parts of the Himalayas, Central Asia, and China. While the Western Ghats is a biodiversity hotspot, the Ibisbill is not restricted to this particular area.

Explanation of Statement 2:
The Ibisbill bird is not classified as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List. According to the latest assessment by the IUCN, the Ibisbill is currently classified as "Least Concern." This means that it is not currently facing a high risk of extinction.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect, and the correct answer is option 'd' - Neither 1 nor 2.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojna, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  2. It is being implanted by the NITI Aayog to enhance the livelihood of the tribal people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojana (PMVDY) is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It is aimed at enhancing the livelihood of the tribal people by providing them with skill development training and capacity building to utilize the non-timber forest produce (NTFP) available in their respective areas.

Statement 1: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
This statement is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojana is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Statement 2: It is being implemented by the NITI Aayog to enhance the livelihood of the tribal people.
This statement is also incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the NITI Aayog. The NITI Aayog, however, provides support and guidance for the successful implementation of the scheme.

Conclusion:
Neither of the given statements is correct. The Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojana is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and is implemented by the ministry itself with support from the NITI Aayog.

With reference to the Urban 20(U20) initiative, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a city diplomacy initiative launched in 2017 during the one Planet Summit in Paris.
  2. The 2023 event of U20 was chaired by the City of Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Urban 20 (U20) Initiative

Statement 1: It is a city diplomacy initiative launched in 2017 during the One Planet Summit in Paris.

The statement is correct. The Urban 20 (U20) initiative is indeed a city diplomacy initiative that was launched in 2017 during the One Planet Summit in Paris. The U20 initiative brings together mayors from major cities around the world to address common urban challenges and contribute to the G20 agenda.

The One Planet Summit, held in December 2017, was organized by French President Emmanuel Macron to mark the second anniversary of the Paris Agreement on climate change. During the summit, the U20 initiative was officially launched with the aim of enhancing the role of cities in global governance and addressing urban challenges through collective action.

Statement 2: The 2023 event of U20 was chaired by the City of Bengaluru.

The statement is incorrect. The 2023 event of U20 was not chaired by the City of Bengaluru. The U20 chairmanship is rotated among the member cities, and each city holds the chair for one year. The chairmanship for the 2023 event was held by Riyadh, the capital city of Saudi Arabia.

The U20 summit in 2023 was hosted by Riyadh and brought together mayors from major cities around the world to discuss and address various urban challenges, including sustainable development, climate change, and inclusive growth.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct, and the correct answer is option A - 1 only.

With reference to the SURAJ Drone, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a solar-powered high-altitude surveillance drone.
  2. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Unni answered
Statement 1: It is a solar-powered high-altitude surveillance drone.
Statement 2: It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.

The correct answer is Option A - 1 Only.

Explanation:
The SURAJ drone is a solar-powered, high-altitude surveillance drone. It is designed to operate at an altitude of 70,000 feet for an extended period of time. This drone is equipped with advanced surveillance and reconnaissance capabilities, making it suitable for various military applications.

However, the second statement is incorrect. The SURAJ drone is not developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is actually developed by students from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay. The project was initiated by a group of undergraduate students from the Aerospace Engineering department of IIT Bombay.

The development of SURAJ drone started in 2018, and it was unveiled in 2019 during the Aero India show. The drone has a wingspan of around 24 feet and weighs approximately 20 kilograms. It is powered by solar panels, which are installed on its wings to harness solar energy and provide continuous power supply to the onboard systems.

The SURAJ drone utilizes advanced technologies such as lightweight construction materials, efficient solar panels, and intelligent control systems to enhance its endurance and surveillance capabilities. It is capable of capturing real-time images and videos from high altitudes, making it an effective tool for surveillance and reconnaissance missions.

The drone's solar-powered design allows it to stay airborne for extended periods without the need for frequent refueling or battery replacements. This makes it a cost-effective and environmentally friendly solution for long-duration surveillance operations.

In conclusion, the correct statement is that the SURAJ drone is a solar-powered high-altitude surveillance drone. However, it is not developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), but by students from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay.

With reference to the Monkeypox disease, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a bacterial disease normally found in African countries.
  2. It is transmitted to humans from animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Introduction:
Monkeypox is a viral disease that primarily occurs in Central and West African countries. It is caused by the monkeypox virus, which belongs to the family Poxviridae. The disease is zoonotic in nature, meaning it can be transmitted from animals to humans.

Explanation:
The given statements are as follows:

1) It is a bacterial disease normally found in African countries.
2) It is transmitted to humans from animals.

Statement 1: It is a bacterial disease normally found in African countries.
This statement is incorrect. Monkeypox is not a bacterial disease, but a viral disease. It is caused by the monkeypox virus, which is a member of the Orthopoxvirus genus. The virus is closely related to the variola virus, which causes smallpox.

Statement 2: It is transmitted to humans from animals.
This statement is correct. Monkeypox is primarily a zoonotic disease, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. The natural reservoir of the virus is believed to be rodents, particularly squirrels, which are found in the rainforest regions of Central and West Africa. The virus can also infect other animals such as monkeys, rats, and rabbits. Human infections occur through direct contact with infected animals, their body fluids, or contaminated materials such as bedding or cages.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct statement is:

2) It is transmitted to humans from animals.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 2 Only.

With reference to the Red-headed vulture, consider the following statements:
  1. It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
  2. It is only found in the Himalayan Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Datta answered

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The Red-headed vulture, also known as the Indian black vulture, is a critically endangered species according to the IUCN Red List. Here's a breakdown of the statements provided:

- Statement 1: It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
This statement is correct. The Red-headed vulture has experienced a rapid population decline due to various factors such as habitat loss, poisoning, and a decrease in their food source. As a result, it is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List.

- Statement 2: It is only found in the Himalayan Region.
This statement is incorrect. While the Red-headed vulture is commonly found in the Himalayan region, it is not exclusively limited to this area. The species can also be found in other parts of South Asia, including India, Nepal, and Pakistan.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A - 1 Only.

With reference to the Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana which provides skill training.
  2. Under this scheme there is a provision of guaranteed employment to the youths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 Only.

The Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana is a skill development program launched by the Indian Government. Here is an explanation of each statement and why only statement 1 is correct:

Statement 1: It is a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana which provides skill training.
- This statement is correct. The Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana (RKVY) is a sub-scheme under the larger Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). The PMKVY is a flagship program of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) that aims to provide skill training to the youth of the country to improve their employability. RKVY specifically focuses on providing skill training and certification to the railway workforce.

Statement 2: Under this scheme, there is a provision of guaranteed employment to the youths.
- This statement is incorrect. The Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana does not provide a guarantee of employment to the youth. Its primary objective is to provide skill training and certification to the railway workforce. The aim is to enhance the skills and knowledge of railway employees, making them more competent and efficient in their respective roles. While the program aims to improve employability, it does not assure guaranteed employment.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct as the Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana is indeed a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana and provides skill training to the railway workforce. Statement 2 is incorrect as the scheme does not guarantee employment to the youth.

With reference to the Catch the Rain campaign, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  2. It is implemented under the National Water Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Prateek Shah answered
Overview of the Catch the Rain Campaign
The Catch the Rain campaign is a significant initiative aimed at promoting rainwater harvesting and sustainable water management practices across India.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: "It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change."
This statement is incorrect. The Catch the Rain campaign is actually a part of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, which focuses on water conservation and management rather than the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- Statement 2: "It is implemented under the National Water Mission."
This statement is correct. The Catch the Rain campaign is indeed implemented under the National Water Mission, which is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). The mission aims to ensure integrated water resource development and management.
Conclusion
Given the analysis of both statements:
- Correct Answer: b) 2 Only
This reflects that while the campaign is aligned with the goals of the National Water Mission, it is not an initiative of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Therefore, only the second statement is correct.

With reference to the Parole, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a system of releasing a prisoner with a suspension of the sentence.
  2. It is not a right of a prisoner and may be denied by the concerned authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered

Parole and its features:

Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner temporarily from the confinement of a prison, before the completion of their sentence. It is granted by the concerned authority, usually a parole board, and allows the prisoner to serve the remainder of their sentence in the community under certain conditions. The purpose of parole is to provide an opportunity for rehabilitation and reintegration into society.

Statement 1: It is a system of releasing a prisoner with a suspension of the sentence.

This statement is correct. Parole involves the temporary release of a prisoner from prison, with the suspension of their sentence. The prisoner is allowed to serve the remaining portion of their sentence outside the prison walls, subject to certain conditions and supervision.

Statement 2: It is not a right of a prisoner and may be denied by the concerned authority.

This statement is also correct. Parole is not an inherent right of a prisoner and can be granted or denied at the discretion of the concerned authority. The parole board or the relevant authority assesses various factors such as the nature of the offense, the prisoner's behavior in prison, their potential for rehabilitation, and the risk they may pose to the community before making a decision on granting parole.

Conclusion:

Both statements are correct. Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with a suspension of the sentence, but it is not an automatic right and can be denied by the concerned authority based on their assessment of the prisoner's suitability for release.

With reference to the Non-Convertible Debenture, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a long-term financial instrument which acknowledges a debt obligation towards the issuer.
  2. It gives a higher rate of return compared to convertible debentures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Introduction:
Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) are long-term financial instruments that acknowledge a debt obligation towards the issuer. They are a type of debt security issued by companies to raise capital. Unlike convertible debentures, NCDs do not have an option to convert into equity shares of the company. In this context, let's evaluate the given statements.

Analysis of Statements:

Statement 1: It is a long-term financial instrument which acknowledges a debt obligation towards the issuer.
This statement is correct. Non-Convertible Debentures are indeed long-term financial instruments that serve as a form of debt for the issuer. These instruments are issued by companies to raise funds for various purposes such as expansion, working capital, or debt refinancing. NCD holders are creditors to the issuer and are entitled to receive periodic interest payments and the principal amount on maturity.

Statement 2: It gives a higher rate of return compared to convertible debentures.
This statement is also correct. Non-Convertible Debentures generally offer a higher rate of return compared to convertible debentures. Since NCDs cannot be converted into equity shares, investors demand a higher rate of return to compensate for the lack of potential capital appreciation. The rate of return on NCDs is determined by factors such as the credit rating of the issuer, prevailing interest rates, and market demand for such instruments.

Explanation of Correct Answer:
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2. Both statements accurately describe the features of Non-Convertible Debentures. NCDs are long-term debt instruments that acknowledge a debt obligation towards the issuer and provide a higher rate of return compared to convertible debentures.

Conclusion:
Non-Convertible Debentures are significant financial instruments that help companies raise funds while providing investors with a fixed income stream. These instruments are suitable for investors seeking stable returns without the potential equity conversion option.

With reference to the Green Tug Transition Programme, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a programme which is launched for operating green tugs in all major ports in India by 2030.
  2. The National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping will be a nodal entity for this programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Technology and Management (NCEGPTM) is responsible for implementing the Green Tug Transition Programme. The programme aims to reduce air pollution and carbon emissions in ports by replacing conventional tugs with green tugs. One of the objectives of the programme is to promote research and development in green port technologies.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bodo Peace Accord 2020:
  1. It is a bipartite accord signed in 2020 by representatives of Bodo organizations with the Central Government.
  2. It promises more legislative, executive, and financial powers to the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Statement 1: It is a bipartite accord signed in 2020 by representatives of Bodo organizations with the Central Government.
Statement 2: It promises more legislative, executive, and financial powers to the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC).

The correct answer is option B. Only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation:

The Bodo Peace Accord 2020 is an important agreement signed between the Government of India and different Bodo organizations, aimed at bringing peace and development in the Bodoland Territorial Area Districts (BTAD) of Assam. Let's analyze each statement separately:

Statement 1: It is a bipartite accord signed in 2020 by representatives of Bodo organizations with the Central Government.

This statement is incorrect. The Bodo Peace Accord 2020 is a tripartite accord, not a bipartite one. It was signed on 27th January 2020 between the Government of India, the Assam Government, and the four factions of the National Democratic Front of Bodoland (NDFB). The Bodo organizations were not directly involved in the accord, but rather represented by the NDFB factions.

Statement 2: It promises more legislative, executive, and financial powers to the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC).

This statement is correct. The Bodo Peace Accord 2020 aims to provide greater autonomy and empowerment to the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC). The BTC is an autonomous council that was established in 2003 under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The accord promises to enhance the legislative, executive, and financial powers of the BTC, granting it more control and decision-making authority over matters related to local governance, development, and resources within the BTAD.

The accord also includes provisions for the development and welfare of the Bodo community, including the establishment of a Bodo-Kachari Welfare Council and a Bodo-Kachari Territorial Region. It also addresses issues related to the rehabilitation of armed militants and the protection of the cultural, linguistic, and educational rights of the Bodo people.

In conclusion, the Bodo Peace Accord 2020 is a tripartite accord signed between the Government of India, the Assam Government, and the NDFB factions. It promises to empower the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) with more legislative, executive, and financial powers, thereby aiming to bring peace, development, and greater autonomy to the Bodoland Territorial Area Districts (BTAD) of Assam.

With reference to the PENCIL Portal, consider the following statements:
  1. It aims to ensure effective enforcement of the provisions of the Child Labour Act.
  2. Online complaints can be filed on the Portal only by the child who is facing the child labour issue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Introduction:
The PENCIL Portal is an online platform launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment in India. It aims to ensure effective enforcement of the provisions of the Child Labour Act and provide a platform for reporting and monitoring child labour-related issues.

Statement 1: It aims to ensure effective enforcement of the provisions of the Child Labour Act.
The first statement is correct. The PENCIL Portal is designed to support the effective implementation and enforcement of the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986. It serves as a platform for various stakeholders, including government agencies, civil society organizations, and individuals, to report, track, and monitor cases of child labour. The portal acts as a centralized database for information on child labour cases and facilitates coordination and collaboration between different stakeholders to address the issue effectively.

Statement 2: Online complaints can be filed on the Portal only by the child who is facing the child labour issue.
The second statement is incorrect. Online complaints on the PENCIL Portal can be filed not only by the child who is facing the child labour issue but also by any concerned individual, organization, or government agency. The portal provides a user-friendly interface that allows anyone to register and file a complaint regarding child labour. This feature ensures that multiple stakeholders can report cases, increasing the chances of identifying and addressing child labour incidents promptly.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct answer is option A, i.e., only statement 1 is correct. The PENCIL Portal aims to ensure effective enforcement of the provisions of the Child Labour Act by providing a platform for reporting and monitoring child labour cases. It allows multiple stakeholders, including individuals and organizations, to file complaints and contribute to the efforts against child labour.

Consider the following statements regarding the Anji Khan Bridge, recently seen in the news:
  1. It is an under-construction railway bridge in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
  2. It will be the first cable-stayed railway bridge in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Ahuja answered
The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Explanation:

The given statements are as follows:

1. It is an under-construction railway bridge in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
2. It will be the first cable-stayed railway bridge in India.

Let's analyze each statement one by one.

Statement 1: It is an under-construction railway bridge in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.

This statement is incorrect. The Anji Khan Bridge is not an under-construction railway bridge in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. In fact, there is no information or news regarding any bridge named Anji Khan Bridge in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.

Statement 2: It will be the first cable-stayed railway bridge in India.

This statement is correct. The Anji Khan Bridge is indeed the first cable-stayed railway bridge in India. It is being constructed in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district, not in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand as mentioned in statement 1.

With the completion of the Anji Khan Bridge, India will have its first cable-stayed railway bridge. Cable-stayed bridges are known for their aesthetic appeal and structural efficiency, and they are often used to span long distances. This bridge will serve as an important infrastructure development in the region, improving connectivity and facilitating transportation.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, and the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

With reference to the Aravali Hills, consider the following statements:
  1. It is one of the oldest block mountains in the world.
  2. The river Narmada originates from this hill range.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
B. 2 Only

Explanation:
- The Aravali Hills are indeed one of the oldest mountain ranges in the world, but they are not block mountains. They are fold mountains that were formed during the Proterozoic era, around 2 billion years ago, due to the collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate.
- The river Narmada does not originate from the Aravali Hills. It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows westward through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before draining into the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect, and the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

With reference to the Nirbhay missile, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a short-range sub-Sonic Cruise Missile.
  2. It was developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

And Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. The missile has a range of over 1,000 kilometers. The Nirbhay missile is capable of carrying both conventional and nuclear warheads. The missile was successfully test-fired in 2019.Which of the statements above are true?

With reference to the Himalayan Griffon, consider the following statements:
  1. It is mainly found along the Himalayas and the adjoining Tibetan Plateau.
  2. It is listed as Near Threatened species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priyanka Mehta answered
Explanation:

1. Mainly found along the Himalayas and the adjoining Tibetan Plateau:
The statement is correct. The Himalayan Griffon (Gyps himalayensis) is primarily found along the Himalayan mountain range and the adjoining Tibetan Plateau. It inhabits rugged terrains, cliffs, and high-altitude regions in these areas.

2. Listed as Near Threatened species under the IUCN Red list:
The statement is also correct. The Himalayan Griffon is listed as a Near Threatened species on the IUCN Red List. This classification signifies that the species is at risk of becoming vulnerable to extinction in the near future due to various threats such as habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflicts.
Therefore, both statements are accurate, and the correct answer is option C) Both 1 and 2.
In conclusion, the Himalayan Griffon is an important bird species that is mainly found in the Himalayas and the Tibetan Plateau, facing conservation challenges that have led to its classification as Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List. Efforts are needed to protect and conserve this magnificent bird for future generations.

With reference to the INS SUMEDHA, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel.
  2. It is designed and developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Krish Dasgupta answered
INS SUMEDHA
Statement 1: It is an indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel.
Statement 2: It is designed and developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited.

Explanation:

INS SUMEDHA:
- INS SUMEDHA is a Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel (NOPV) of the Indian Navy.
- It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2014.
- It is the third ship of the Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel class.
- The ship is based at the Eastern Naval Command in Visakhapatnam.

Statement 1: It is an indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel.
- This statement is correct.
- INS SUMEDHA is a part of the 'Make in India' initiative as it was indigenously built in India.
- It was constructed at the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata.
- The ship showcases the capabilities of the Indian shipbuilding industry.

Statement 2: It is designed and developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
- This statement is incorrect.
- INS SUMEDHA was not designed and developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
- Cochin Shipyard Limited is a shipbuilding and maintenance facility in Kochi, Kerala.
- While Cochin Shipyard Limited has played a significant role in the construction of various naval vessels, it was not involved in the design and development of INS SUMEDHA.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:
- INS SUMEDHA is an indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel.
- However, it was not designed and developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding Market Index Providers:
  1. Their indices represent a market or a proportion of a market.
  2. They set the rules that decide what securities to include in each index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
Market Index Providers are entities that create and maintain indices that represent a market or a proportion of a market. They play a crucial role in the financial industry by providing benchmarks that investors and fund managers use for various purposes such as performance measurement, asset allocation, and investment strategy.

Let's analyze each statement in detail:

1. Their indices represent a market or a proportion of a market:
Market Index Providers design and maintain indices that reflect the performance of a specific market or a segment of it. These indices are constructed using a set of rules and criteria that determine which securities to include and how they are weighted within the index. The purpose of these indices is to provide a comprehensive and representative snapshot of the market's performance, allowing investors to track and compare the performance of their investments against the broader market.

2. They set the rules that decide what securities to include in each index:
Market Index Providers are responsible for setting the rules and methodologies that govern the composition and construction of their indices. These rules define the criteria for inclusion and exclusion of securities, as well as the weighting scheme used to determine the relative importance of each constituent within the index. The rules may also specify the frequency of rebalancing and any additional adjustments necessary to maintain the integrity and representativeness of the index over time.

By establishing these rules, Market Index Providers ensure consistency, transparency, and objectivity in the index construction process. The rules are typically based on factors such as market capitalization, liquidity, sector classification, and other relevant criteria that reflect the characteristics of the market or segment being represented.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. Market Index Providers create indices that represent a market or a proportion of a market, and they establish the rules that determine which securities to include in each index. These indices serve as important benchmarks for investors and provide a standardized framework for evaluating and comparing investment performance.

With reference to the Sangita Kalanidhi award, consider the following statements:
  1. It is considered the highest award in the field of Hindustani music.
  2. It is conferred by the Sangeet Natak Academy every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sangita Kalanidhi award:

The Sangita Kalanidhi award is a prestigious honor given in the field of Carnatic music. It is not related to Hindustani music.

Statement 1: It is considered the highest award in the field of Hindustani music.

This statement is incorrect. The Sangita Kalanidhi award is not related to Hindustani music. It is exclusively awarded for excellence in Carnatic music, which is a classical music tradition of South India. The award is presented annually by the Music Academy, Chennai, which is one of the oldest and most prominent institutions for the promotion of Carnatic music.

Statement 2: It is conferred by the Sangeet Natak Academy every year.

This statement is also incorrect. The Sangita Kalanidhi award is not conferred by the Sangeet Natak Academy. It is presented by the Music Academy, Chennai. The Sangeet Natak Akademi, on the other hand, is a national-level academy for music, dance, and drama, and it presents its own awards in these fields.

Conclusion:

Neither of the given statements is correct. The Sangita Kalanidhi award is not the highest award in the field of Hindustani music, and it is not conferred by the Sangeet Natak Academy. It is an esteemed recognition in the field of Carnatic music and is presented by the Music Academy, Chennai.

With reference to the Yakshagana, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a traditional folk dance form of Karnataka.
  2. The themes of this dance form include Ramayana and Mahabharata.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Gupta answered
Yakshagana is a traditional folk dance form of Karnataka. It is a vibrant and colorful dance drama that combines elements of dance, music, dialogue, costumes, and makeup. The word "Yakshagana" is derived from "yaksha," which means celestial beings, and "gana," which means song or music. The dance form is known for its elaborate costumes, intricate makeup, and energetic performances.

Statement 1: It is a traditional folk dance form of Karnataka.
This statement is correct. Yakshagana is indeed a traditional folk dance form that originated in the state of Karnataka in India. It has a rich cultural heritage and is widely performed in various parts of the state.

Statement 2: The themes of this dance form include Ramayana and Mahabharata.
This statement is also correct. The themes of Yakshagana often revolve around mythological stories from the Indian epics, such as the Ramayana and the Mahabharata. The dance dramas typically depict episodes from these epics, highlighting the valor of the heroes and the triumph of good over evil.

Yakshagana performances are usually held during religious festivals and special occasions. The dance form has two main styles: the northern style, also known as Badagutittu, and the southern style, known as Tenkutittu. Both styles have their unique characteristics and variations in music, dance movements, and costumes.

The performance of Yakshagana involves a group of performers, including actors, musicians, and singers. The actors wear elaborate costumes and distinctive makeup, which helps portray different characters. The makeup is known as "chittara," and it is an essential aspect of Yakshagana. The dancers perform intricate dance movements, accompanied by live music and singing. The musical instruments used in Yakshagana include chande (drums), maddale (a percussion instrument), and harmonium.

Yakshagana is not only a form of entertainment but also a means to preserve and showcase the cultural traditions of Karnataka. It has been recognized as an important cultural heritage and has gained popularity not only in Karnataka but also outside the state.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. Yakshagana is a traditional folk dance form of Karnataka, and its themes often include stories from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

With reference to the Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN), consider the following statements:
  1. It gives licenses to farmers to cultivate opium poppy.
  2. It works under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Introduction:
The Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) is an organization established under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is responsible for regulating and controlling the cultivation of opium poppy for medicinal and scientific purposes in India. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.

Analysis:

Statement 1: It gives licenses to farmers to cultivate opium poppy.
This statement is correct. The Central Bureau of Narcotics is authorized to grant licenses to eligible farmers for the cultivation of opium poppy. The licenses are issued under the provisions of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985. These licenses allow farmers to legally cultivate opium poppy for the production of opium, which is further utilized for medicinal and scientific purposes.

Statement 2: It works under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
This statement is incorrect. The Central Bureau of Narcotics does not work under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance. The Ministry of Finance is responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to the economy, taxation, finance, and other related matters in India.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis of the statements, we can conclude that only statement 1 is correct. The Central Bureau of Narcotics grants licenses to farmers for the cultivation of opium poppy, but it does not work under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.

Consider the following statements regarding Stem Cells:
  1. Stem cells have the potential to develop into many different types of cells in the body.
  2. No other cell, apart from Stem Cells has the natural ability to generate new cell types.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Snehal Chauhan answered
Stem Cells: Potential and Natural Ability
Stem cells are unique cells that have the remarkable potential to develop into many different types of cells in the body. They serve as a repair system for the body by dividing and replenishing other cells. Here is an explanation of the statements given above:

Statement 1: Stem cells have the potential to develop into many different types of cells in the body.
This statement is correct. Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that can differentiate into specialized cell types. They can divide and renew themselves over a long period, making them essential for the growth, repair, and maintenance of tissues in the body. This ability of stem cells to differentiate into various cell types is what makes them so valuable in medical research and treatments.

Statement 2: No other cell, apart from Stem Cells has the natural ability to generate new cell types.
This statement is also correct. While some cells in the body can replicate and divide to replace damaged or old cells, only stem cells have the unique natural ability to generate completely new cell types. This regenerative capacity sets stem cells apart from other cells and makes them invaluable for various therapeutic applications.

Conclusion
In conclusion, both statements are correct. Stem cells have the potential to develop into many different types of cells in the body, and no other cell, apart from stem cells, has the natural ability to generate new cell types. This unique characteristic of stem cells makes them a focus of research and holds great promise for the future of regenerative medicine.

With reference to Bhashini Mission, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a local language translation mission to build a National Public Digital Platform for languages.
  2. It aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available in the public domain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Kumar answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. Bhashini Mission is indeed a local language translation mission with the goal of building a National Public Digital Platform for languages.

Statement 2:
- The statement is also correct. The mission aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available in the public domain.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Bhashini Mission is focused on promoting the use of local languages and making AI and NLP resources accessible to a wider audience through the National Public Digital Platform.

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):
  1. The tenure of office and the conditions of service of all the Election commissioners is determined by the Parliament. 
  2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Singh answered
Explanation:
The correct answer is option B, which states that statement 2 only is correct. Let's break down each statement to understand why this is the correct answer:

Statement 1:
- The tenure of office and the conditions of service of all the Election commissioners is determined by the Parliament.
- This statement is incorrect because the tenure of office and conditions of service of the Election commissioners are not determined by the Parliament. The Constitution of India provides for the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners to be appointed by the President. Their conditions of service are determined by the President, not the Parliament.

Statement 2:
- The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
- This statement is correct. The Constitution of India provides for the Chief Election Commissioner to be removed from office only through the same process and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. This is to ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, and the correct answer is option B.

With reference to the SMART-PDS System, consider the following statements:
  1. It aims to transform the entire Public Distribution System by using the Cloud and new-age technology.
  2. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Health and Family welfare. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mehul Sengupta answered
Introduction:
The SMART-PDS (System for Management of Advanced Registration and Tracking of Public Distribution System) is a digital platform that aims to transform the Public Distribution System (PDS) in India using cloud and new-age technology. It is not implemented by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare but rather by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

Explanation:
Let's examine each statement in detail:

Statement 1: It aims to transform the entire Public Distribution System by using the Cloud and new-age technology.
The first statement is correct. The SMART-PDS system aims to bring about a transformation in the Public Distribution System (PDS) by leveraging cloud computing and new-age technologies. It is designed to streamline the process of food distribution, eliminate leakages, and ensure targeted delivery of food grains and other essential commodities to the intended beneficiaries.

The SMART-PDS system includes features such as online allocation, automated supply chain management, biometric authentication, and real-time tracking of food grains from the central warehouse to the fair price shops. By digitizing the PDS, it aims to reduce corruption, enhance transparency, and improve the overall efficiency of the system.

Statement 2: It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Health and Family welfare.
The second statement is incorrect. The SMART-PDS system is not implemented by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Instead, it is implemented by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, which is responsible for the management and regulation of the Public Distribution System in India.

The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is the nodal ministry for the implementation of various welfare schemes, including the PDS. It works in coordination with state governments and other stakeholders to ensure the effective implementation of the SMART-PDS system.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. The SMART-PDS system aims to transform the entire Public Distribution System in India by leveraging cloud computing and new-age technology. It is implemented by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, and not by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Consider the following statements regarding Eurasian Otter:
  1. It is a semi-aquatic carnivorous mammal found only in Asia and Europe.
  2. It is listed as ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishika Basak answered
Endangered on the IUCN Red List. It has a long, streamlined body with webbed feet and a thick tail. It mainly feeds on fish, but also consumes amphibians, crustaceans, and small mammals. It is known for its playful behavior and ability to slide down muddy slopes.

Consider the following statements regarding Marine Protected Areas (MPAs):
  1. They are strictly prohibited from any human activities.
  2. They currently cover about one-third of the ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Palak Yadav answered
Incorrect Statements about Marine Protected Areas (MPAs)
1. They are strictly prohibited from any human activities: This statement is incorrect. Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) are areas of ocean set aside to protect marine ecosystems, habitats, and species. While some MPAs may have restrictions on certain activities such as fishing or diving to protect the marine environment, not all MPAs are completely off-limits to human activities. Some MPAs allow for sustainable activities such as fishing or tourism with regulations in place to ensure the conservation of the marine environment.
2. They currently cover about one-third of the ocean: This statement is also incorrect. While the establishment of MPAs has been increasing globally, they currently cover less than 10% of the world's oceans. Efforts are being made to expand the coverage of MPAs to protect more marine habitats and species, but as of now, they do not cover one-third of the ocean.
Therefore, the correct answer is option Neither 1 nor 2 as both statements are incorrect. It is important to understand the role of MPAs in conserving marine biodiversity and the various levels of protection and human activities allowed within these areas.

Consider the following statements regarding the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform:
  1. It is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing/discounting of trade receivables of MSMEs.
  2. Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in the TreDS platform.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Muskaan Dey answered
Explanation:
The Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) is an electronic platform that facilitates the financing and discounting of trade receivables. It is primarily aimed at addressing the working capital needs of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) by providing them with timely access to funds against their trade receivables.

Statement 1: It is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing/discounting of trade receivables of MSMEs.
This statement is correct. The TReDS platform provides a digital marketplace where MSMEs can upload their trade receivables and receive financing against them. The platform connects MSMEs with financiers, such as banks and financial institutions, who are willing to provide funds against these receivables. By discounting their trade receivables, MSMEs can receive funds upfront and enhance their liquidity.

Statement 2: Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in the TReDS platform.
This statement is also correct. The TReDS platform is specifically designed to cater to the financing needs of MSMEs. It provides them with a dedicated space to sell their trade receivables and access working capital. Large corporates and government departments can participate as buyers on the platform, but only MSMEs can be sellers.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

To summarize:
- The TReDS platform is an electronic platform that facilitates the financing and discounting of trade receivables.
- It primarily caters to the needs of MSMEs by providing them with timely access to funds against their trade receivables.
- Only MSMEs can participate as sellers on the TReDS platform, while large corporates and government departments can participate as buyers.

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Vayulink’ Platform:
  1. It is a data link communication system that provides secure and uninterrupted communication with the base station.
  2. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Unni answered
Statements:

1. The sky is blue.
2. The earth is flat.
3. Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius.
4. All mammals lay eggs.
5. The sun rises in the east.

Statement 1: The sky is blue.
This statement is generally true. During the day, when the atmosphere is clear and there are no clouds, the sky appears blue due to the scattering of sunlight by the Earth's atmosphere.

Statement 2: The earth is flat.
This statement is false. Scientific evidence and observations have consistently shown that the Earth is a slightly oblate spheroid, meaning it is roughly spherical in shape.

Statement 3: Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius.
This statement is generally true. At sea level, water boils at 100 degrees Celsius or 212 degrees Fahrenheit. However, this boiling point can vary depending on factors such as altitude and the presence of impurities in the water.

Statement 4: All mammals lay eggs.
This statement is false. Mammals are a class of animals that give birth to live young and nurse them with milk. While there are some exceptions, such as the platypus and echidna, the majority of mammals do not lay eggs.

Statement 5: The sun rises in the east.
This statement is generally true. From our perspective on Earth, the sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west due to the rotation of the Earth on its axis. However, it is important to note that the sun does not actually rise or set, but rather it is the Earth's rotation that gives this appearance.

With reference to the Shri Narayan Guru, consider the following statements:
  1. He was a social reformer who belonged to the state of Tamil Nadu.
  2. A hundred-verse spiritual poem Atmopadesa Śatakam was written by him in the Malayalam language.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Correct Answer:

B) 2 Only



Explanation:

Shri Narayan Guru:
Shri Narayan Guru was a social reformer who belonged to the state of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu.

Hundred-verse Spiritual Poem:
A hundred-verse spiritual poem called Atmopadesa atakam was indeed written by Shri Narayan Guru, but it was composed in the Malayalam language, not any other language.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, and the correct answer is option B.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Pangolin:
  1. Currently, the distribution of Indian pangolin is limited only to Northeast India.
  2. It is classified as  ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Unni answered
Endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The Indian pangolin is a nocturnal animal that primarily feeds on ants and termites. It is the most trafficked mammal in the world due to the demand for its scales and meat in traditional Chinese medicine.

Consider the following statements regarding the NIPUN Scheme:
  1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
  2. It aims to train over 1 lakh construction workers through fresh skilling and upskilling programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Introduction:
The NIPUN (National Initiative for Proficiency in Urban Housing and Construction) Scheme is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. It aims to provide training to construction workers in order to improve their skills and enhance their employability. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their correctness.

Statement 1: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
This statement is correct. The NIPUN Scheme is indeed an initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The ministry launched this scheme to address the skill gap and improve the working conditions of construction workers.

Statement 2: It aims to train over 1 lakh construction workers through fresh skilling and upskilling programs.
This statement is also correct. The main objective of the NIPUN Scheme is to train and upskill construction workers. The scheme aims to provide training to over 1 lakh construction workers across the country. The training programs under the scheme focus on both fresh skilling for new workers and upskilling for existing workers.

Explanation:
The NIPUN Scheme is an important initiative taken by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to address the skill gap in the construction sector. The construction industry plays a crucial role in the growth of the economy, and skilled workers are essential for ensuring the quality and timely completion of construction projects.

Under the NIPUN Scheme, various training programs are conducted to enhance the skills of construction workers. These programs cover a wide range of topics including masonry, carpentry, plumbing, electrical work, painting, and other construction-related activities. The training programs are designed to provide both theoretical knowledge and practical hands-on training to the workers.

The scheme aims to train over 1 lakh construction workers across the country. This target is in line with the government's vision of providing skill development opportunities to a large number of workers in the construction sector. By providing training and upskilling opportunities, the NIPUN Scheme aims to improve the employability of construction workers and enhance their income-earning potential.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, both the statements given regarding the NIPUN Scheme are correct. The scheme is indeed an initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, and its main objective is to train over 1 lakh construction workers through fresh skilling and upskilling programs. The NIPUN Scheme is an important step towards bridging the skill gap in the construction sector and improving the working conditions of construction workers.

Consider the following statements regarding Augmented Reality (AR):
  1. It overlays digital content onto real-life environments and objects. 
  2. It creates a 3D experience that allows users to interact with both the physical and digital worlds. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Augmented Reality (AR)
Augmented Reality (AR) is a technology that combines the virtual and physical worlds by overlaying digital content onto real-life environments and objects. It enhances the user's perception and interaction with the real world by adding computer-generated elements that can be seen and interacted with in real-time.

Statement 1: It overlays digital content onto real-life environments and objects.
This statement is correct. Augmented Reality overlays digital content, such as images, videos, or 3D models, onto the real-life environment or objects. This can be done through the use of smartphones, tablets, or specialized AR devices like smart glasses or headsets. By using the camera or sensors of the device, AR technology recognizes the real-world environment and superimposes virtual content onto it.

Statement 2: It creates a 3D experience that allows users to interact with both the physical and digital worlds.
This statement is also correct. Augmented Reality creates a 3D experience that allows users to interact with both the physical and digital worlds. Users can see and interact with virtual objects or information overlaid onto the real world. For example, AR can be used in gaming applications where users can see virtual characters or objects in their real environment and interact with them. AR can also be used in education, training, architecture, healthcare, and many other fields to provide immersive and interactive experiences.

Conclusion:
Both the statements are correct. Augmented Reality overlays digital content onto real-life environments and objects, and it creates a 3D experience that allows users to interact with both the physical and digital worlds. AR technology has immense potential and is being increasingly used in various industries to enhance user experiences, improve productivity, and provide innovative solutions.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC):
  1. It is an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
  2. It undertakes evaluation, assessment, and accreditation of Higher Education Institutions in the country. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Mishra answered
Introduction to NAAC
The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) plays a pivotal role in India’s higher education landscape. It is essential to understand its functions and structure to appreciate the correctness of the statements provided.
Statement 1: NAAC as an Autonomous Institution
- NAAC is indeed an autonomous institution.
- It operates under the auspices of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
- This autonomy allows it to assess and accredit higher education institutions independently.
Statement 2: Functions of NAAC
- NAAC is tasked with the evaluation, assessment, and accreditation of higher education institutions throughout India.
- Its primary objective is to ensure quality and accountability in the higher education system.
- Through rigorous assessments, it provides institutions with an opportunity to improve and enhance their educational standards.
Conclusion
Both statements accurately reflect the nature and responsibilities of NAAC:
- Statement 1 is correct as NAAC is an autonomous body under the UGC.
- Statement 2 is also correct, as NAAC undertakes the vital role of evaluation and accreditation.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Both 1 and 2. Understanding these aspects of NAAC is crucial for recognizing its importance in maintaining quality in higher education in India.

Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA):
  1. The act enables the Central Government to designate individuals as terrorists.
  2. It also applies to citizens of India who are abroad and persons on ships and aircraft registered in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Background:
The Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA) is an anti-terrorism law in India that was enacted in 1967. The main objective of the act is to prevent unlawful activities that threaten the sovereignty and integrity of India. The act empowers the central government to designate individuals as terrorists and provides for the punishment and prevention of terrorist activities.

Statement 1: The act enables the Central Government to designate individuals as terrorists.
The first statement is correct. The UAPA empowers the central government to designate individuals as terrorists. Section 35 of the UAPA provides for the declaration of an individual as a terrorist if the central government believes that the person is involved in terrorism. Once an individual is designated as a terrorist, it has serious implications for their rights and freedoms, including their right to fair trial and due process.

Statement 2: It also applies to citizens of India who are abroad and persons on ships and aircraft registered in India.
The second statement is correct. The UAPA has extraterritorial jurisdiction, which means it applies to Indian citizens who are abroad and to persons on ships and aircraft registered in India. This provision allows the Indian government to take action against Indian nationals involved in terrorist activities outside the country and also provides for the prevention and suppression of terrorist activities on ships and aircraft registered in India.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. The UAPA enables the central government to designate individuals as terrorists and also applies to Indian citizens who are abroad and persons on ships and aircraft registered in India. The act plays a crucial role in combating terrorism and maintaining national security. However, there have been concerns regarding the misuse of the act to curtail dissent and violate human rights. It is important to strike a balance between national security and the protection of individual rights and freedoms.

Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS):
  1. It provides 100 percent guaranteed coverage to the banks to extend emergency credit to business entities.
  2. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides guarantees to the loans provided under ECLGS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Arnav Malik answered
Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) is a scheme introduced by the Government of India to provide financial support to business entities affected by the COVID-19 pandemic. The scheme aims to provide emergency credit to help businesses meet their operational expenses and maintain their workforce. Let's analyze the given statements regarding the scheme:

1. It provides 100 percent guaranteed coverage to the banks to extend emergency credit to business entities.

This statement is correct. Under the ECLGS, the government provides a 100 percent guarantee coverage to banks and financial institutions for extending credit to eligible businesses. The guarantee coverage ensures that the banks do not bear the risk of default, and hence, they are more willing to provide credit to the businesses.

2. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides guarantees to the loans provided under ECLGS.

This statement is incorrect. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance to bank depositors. It does not provide guarantees to loans provided under the ECLGS. The guarantee under ECLGS is provided by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC), which is a subsidiary of the SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India).

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. The ECLGS provides 100 percent guaranteed coverage to the banks to extend emergency credit to business entities. The guarantee is provided by the NCGTC, and not by the DICGC.

With reference to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies, consider the following statements:
  1. They are part of a three-tier cooperative credit structure.
  2. They are only funded by the state governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Saini answered
Explanation:

Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are an important part of the cooperative credit structure in India. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their correctness:

Statement 1: They are part of a three-tier cooperative credit structure.
This statement is correct. The cooperative credit structure in India follows a three-tier system, consisting of:
1. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS): These societies operate at the grassroots level, at the village or small town level. They provide credit facilities to their members, who are usually farmers or individuals engaged in agricultural activities.
2. District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs): These banks operate at the district level and act as intermediaries between the PACS and State Cooperative Banks (SCBs). They provide credit facilities to the PACS and other cooperative institutions.
3. State Cooperative Banks (SCBs): These banks operate at the state level and act as apex institutions for the cooperative credit structure. They provide financial assistance and refinance facilities to the DCCBs and PACS.

Therefore, PACS are indeed a part of the three-tier cooperative credit structure, making statement 1 correct.

Statement 2: They are only funded by the state governments.
This statement is incorrect. PACS are not solely funded by state governments. They receive funds from various sources, including:
1. Share capital contributed by their members.
2. Deposits from members.
3. Loans and advances from DCCBs and SCBs.
4. Assistance from the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and other financial institutions.
5. Government subsidies and grants.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the Harike wetland, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers.
  2. It is one of the Ramsar sites of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Mehta answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option C, i.e. both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Harike Wetland:
- Harike Wetland is a man-made wetland located in the Tarn Taran Sahib district of Punjab, India.
- It is situated at the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers, which makes it a unique and ecologically significant site.
- The wetland covers an area of about 41 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity and ecological importance.

Statement 1: It is located at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers.
- This statement is correct. Harike Wetland is indeed located at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers.
- The confluence of these two rivers creates a unique ecosystem with diverse flora and fauna.
- The mixing of freshwater from the Beas river and the comparatively saline water of the Sutlej river creates a dynamic environment that supports various aquatic species.

Statement 2: It is one of the Ramsar sites of India.
- This statement is also correct. Harike Wetland is designated as a Ramsar site, which is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
- The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
- Harike Wetland was recognized as a Ramsar site in 1990 due to its ecological significance, diverse bird population, and its role in supporting migratory birds.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Harike Wetland is located at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers, and it is designated as a Ramsar site of India.

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