All questions of March 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

The Sinthan Pass connects 
  • a)
    Himachal Pradesh to Tibet 
  • b)
    Leh to the Pangong Lake 
  • c)
    Kashmir to the Chenab Valley 
  • d)
    Leh and Siachen glacier
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saikat Nair answered
Introduction:
The Sinthan Pass is a mountain pass located in the Kashmir region of Jammu and Kashmir, India. It is situated at an elevation of around 3,748 meters (12,297 feet) above sea level. The pass is known for its scenic beauty and connects the Kashmir Valley with the Chenab Valley.

Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is option 'C', which states that the Sinthan Pass connects Kashmir to the Chenab Valley. Let's understand why this is the correct answer:

1. Location:
The Sinthan Pass is located in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir. It lies between the Kashmir Valley and the Chenab Valley.

2. Connectivity:
The Sinthan Pass serves as a crucial route that connects the Kashmir Valley (located in the Kashmir region) to the Chenab Valley (located in the Jammu region). It acts as a link between these two regions, providing a passage for transportation and trade.

3. Importance:
The Sinthan Pass is of great strategic and economic significance. It facilitates the movement of people, goods, and services between the Kashmir Valley and the Chenab Valley. It also plays a vital role in the development of the remote and inaccessible areas of the Chenab Valley by connecting them to the rest of the state.

4. Scenic Beauty:
Apart from its functional importance, the Sinthan Pass is renowned for its breathtaking beauty. The route offers mesmerizing views of snow-capped peaks, lush green meadows, and pristine valleys. It attracts tourists and adventure enthusiasts who visit the region to witness its natural splendor.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Sinthan Pass connects Kashmir to the Chenab Valley. It serves as a vital link between the Kashmir Valley and the Chenab Valley, facilitating transportation, trade, and development. Additionally, it is known for its scenic beauty and attracts tourists from all over the world.

Consider the following statements
  1. Sea of Galilee is mainly situated between Jordan and Israel.
  2. Israel and Jordan shares the border with Red Sea.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Mehta answered


Incorrect Statements Explanation:

Sea of Galilee is mainly situated between Jordan and Israel:
- This statement is incorrect because the Sea of Galilee is actually located entirely within Israel. It is not situated between Jordan and Israel.

Israel and Jordan shares the border with Red Sea:
- This statement is also incorrect. Israel does not share a border with the Red Sea. The Red Sea is located to the south of Israel and shares its borders with countries such as Saudi Arabia, Egypt, and Sudan.

Correct Answer:
- Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
- The Sea of Galilee is located within Israel, and Israel does not share a border with the Red Sea.

Consider the following statements.
  1. World Trade Organization (WTO) determines ‘developed’ and ‘developing’ countries based on its per capita GDP ratio.
  2. WTO provides assistance to developing, least-developed and low-income countries in transition to adjust to WTO rules through technical cooperation and training.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sai Sengupta answered
Trade rules between countries and helps to resolve trade disputes.

This statement is true. The World Trade Organization is an international organization that regulates and facilitates trade between countries. It aims to create a level playing field for all member countries by establishing trade rules and resolving disputes through its dispute settlement mechanism.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Fed tapering is the policy tool by the US central bank, where it purchases securities from the open market to reduce interest rates and increase the money supply.
  2. Interest rate hikes are the primary monetary policy tool used by central banks to tackle sporadic spurts in inflation.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shruti Bajaj answered
Explanation:
The given statements are related to monetary policy tools used by central banks to regulate the economy. Let's analyze each statement to see if they are correct or not.

1. Fed tapering is the policy tool by the US central bank, where it purchases securities from the open market to reduce interest rates and increase the money supply.

This statement is partially correct. Fed tapering is a policy tool used by the US central bank, but it involves the reduction of asset purchases from the open market rather than an increase. The Federal Reserve uses this tool to gradually reduce its bond-buying program, which was initiated to stimulate the economy during the financial crisis. By reducing asset purchases, the Fed aims to normalize interest rates and prevent inflation from rising too quickly.

2. Interest rate hikes are the primary monetary policy tool used by central banks to tackle sporadic spurts in inflation.

This statement is correct. Interest rate hikes are one of the primary tools used by central banks to control inflation. When inflation rises, central banks increase interest rates to reduce the money supply, making borrowing more expensive, and slowing down economic growth. This helps to keep inflation under control and prevent the economy from overheating.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

The Supreme Court of India’s judgement in Prakash Singh vs Union of India case, is related to 
  • a)
    Land Reforms 
  • b)
    Labour Reforms 
  • c)
    Police Reforms 
  • d)
    Right to Education
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • Appointments of DGPs are now made on the basis of the Supreme Court judgment on police reforms in Prakash Singh vs Union of India 17 years ago. According to the SC’s guidelines on the appointment of police chiefs, the DGP is to be selected by the state government from among the three senior most officers who have been empanelled for promotion to that rank by the UPSC “on the basis of their length of service, very good record and range of experience for heading the police force”.
  • The DGP should have a fixed tenure of two years in the post, irrespective of the date of retirement. A DGP can be removed only in exceptional circumstances.

Consider the following statements regarding 9th schedule of the Indian constitution.
  1. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951.
  2. The Supreme court in I R Coelho case upheld the authority of judiciary to review any such laws that damage the basic structure even if they have been put in 9th Schedule after the Kesavananda Bhartai Judgment.
  3. The Supreme Court laid down dual test to examine the validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule, i.e; Whether it violates any fundamental right and if yes whether the violation also damages or destroys the basic structure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Datta answered
Explanation:

1. The Ninth Schedule:
- The Ninth Schedule was added to the Indian Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951.
- It was created to protect laws from judicial review and to ensure that they cannot be challenged on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.

2. Supreme Court's Authority:
- In the I R Coelho case, the Supreme Court upheld the authority of the judiciary to review any laws placed in the Ninth Schedule that damage the basic structure of the Constitution.
- This means that even if a law is included in the Ninth Schedule after the Kesavananda Bharti case, it can still be reviewed by the judiciary.

3. Dual Test for Validity:
- The Supreme Court laid down a dual test to examine the validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule.
- The first test is to determine whether the law violates any fundamental right.
- The second test is to assess whether the violation of the fundamental right also damages or destroys the basic structure of the Constitution.
Therefore, all three statements are correct. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment, the Supreme Court has the authority to review laws in the Ninth Schedule, and there is a dual test to examine the validity of such laws.

Consider the following statements regarding Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006.
  1. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006, says that child marriages are illegal and voidable at the option of contracting party being a child.
  2. The Act punishes anyone who performs, conducts, directs, or abets any child marriage.
  3. The Act does not stipulate any minimum marriageable age for men.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Arya Das answered
Overview: Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006

The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 is a legislation in India aimed at preventing child marriages and protecting the rights of children. It provides legal provisions to prohibit the solemnization and registration of child marriages, and to provide for the annulment of such marriages.

Correct Statements:
The correct statements regarding the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 are:

1. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006, says that child marriages are illegal and voidable at the option of contracting party being a child.
2. The Act punishes anyone who performs, conducts, directs, or abets any child marriage.

Explanation:

1. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006, says that child marriages are illegal and voidable at the option of contracting party being a child:
- The Act clearly states that child marriages are considered illegal. It defines a child as a male under the age of 21 and a female under the age of 18.
- The Act recognizes the importance of the consent of the contracting parties in a marriage. If either party is a child (below the legal age of marriage), they have the option to declare the marriage as voidable. This means that they can choose to annul the marriage if they wish to do so.

2. The Act punishes anyone who performs, conducts, directs, or abets any child marriage:
- The Act not only targets the parties involved in child marriages but also those who facilitate, perform, conduct, direct, or abet such marriages.
- It imposes penalties on the offenders, including imprisonment and fines, with stricter punishments for repeat offenses.

Incorrect Statement:
The incorrect statement regarding the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 is:

3. The Act does not stipulate any minimum marriageable age for men:
- This statement is incorrect. The Act clearly defines the minimum age of marriage as 18 years for females and 21 years for males. It applies to both parties involved in a marriage, irrespective of their gender.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct statements regarding the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 are that child marriages are illegal and voidable at the option of the contracting party being a child, and the Act punishes anyone who performs, conducts, directs, or abets any child marriage. The Act also clearly stipulates the minimum marriageable age as 18 years for females and 21 years for males.

Consider the following statements regarding Azooxanthellate corals.
  1. Azooxanthellate corals are non-reef building, solitary corals.
  2. They derive most of their nourishment from the sun.
  3. They are also found in the shallow water regions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Azooxanthellate corals
Azooxanthellate corals are a type of coral that do not have a symbiotic relationship with photosynthetic algae called zooxanthellae. Unlike their zooxanthellate counterparts, azooxanthellate corals do not rely on sunlight for their nourishment and are therefore non-reef building. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.

Statement 1: Azooxanthellate corals are non-reef building, solitary corals.

This statement is correct. Azooxanthellate corals do not contribute to the formation of reefs like zooxanthellate corals do. They are generally solitary and do not form large colonies or structures.

Statement 2: They derive most of their nourishment from the sun.

This statement is incorrect. Azooxanthellate corals do not rely on sunlight for their nourishment. Instead, they obtain their food by capturing small planktonic organisms from the water column through specialized tentacles. They are heterotrophic and can also feed on detritus and organic matter.

Statement 3: They are also found in the shallow water regions.

This statement is correct. While azooxanthellate corals are commonly found in deep-sea environments, they can also be found in shallow water regions. Some species of azooxanthellate corals thrive in both shallow and deep waters, while others are predominantly found in deeper parts of the ocean.

Therefore, the correct statements are:
- Azooxanthellate corals are non-reef building, solitary corals. (Statement 1)
- They are also found in the shallow water regions. (Statement 3)

Hence, the correct answer is option B) 1, 3.

Consider the following statements.
  1. International Mother Language Day is observed every year to honour those in Bangladesh who sacrificed their lives to protect their mother tongue.
  2. The United Nations has proclaimed the International Decade of Indigenous Languages, to draw global attention to the critical status of many indigenous languages around the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • International Mother Language Day is observed every year on February 21 to honour those in Bangladesh who sacrificed their lives to protect their mother tongue, Bangla, against the then rulers of West Pakistan and to honour the ethno-linguistic rights of individuals across the world.
  • The UN proclaimed the period between 2022-2032 as the International Decade of Indigenous Languages, “to draw global attention to the critical status of many indigenous languages around the world and to mobilize stakeholders and resources for their preservation, revitalization, and promotion.

Consider the following statements regarding full court meeting.
  1. Full court meetings are an ideal occasion to arrive at common solutions to deal with problems that beset the country’s legal system.
  2. The full court meeting is convened at the discretion of the Chief Justice of India and it does not follow any particular calendar.
  3. The senior designations of practising advocates in the Supreme Court and high courts are also decided during the full court meetings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagarika Desai answered
Full Court Meeting

1. Common Solutions:
- Full court meetings are indeed an ideal occasion to arrive at common solutions to deal with problems that beset the country's legal system.
- This is because it brings together all the judges of a particular court to discuss and deliberate on various issues affecting the functioning of the judiciary.

2. Convening and Frequency:
- The full court meeting is convened at the discretion of the Chief Justice of India and it does not follow any particular calendar.
- It is usually called for when important matters need to be discussed or decisions need to be made collectively by all the judges of the court.

3. Senior Designations:
- The senior designations of practising advocates in the Supreme Court and high courts are indeed decided during the full court meetings.
- This process involves recognizing the experience, expertise, and contributions of advocates and deciding on their elevation to senior designations within the legal fraternity.
Therefore, all the statements provided in the question are correct. Full court meetings play a crucial role in addressing legal system challenges, are convened by the Chief Justice, and are instrumental in determining senior designations of practising advocates.

Kessler syndrome, sometimes seen in news is associated with 
  • a)
    Black Holes 
  • b)
    Space junk 
  • c)
    Meteor shower 
  • d)
    Gravitational lensing
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kessler Syndrome: The Threat of Space Junk

Space is becoming increasingly crowded with man-made debris, posing a significant threat to satellites, spacecraft, and even future space missions. One of the major concerns associated with space debris is the potential for a phenomenon called the Kessler Syndrome.

What is the Kessler Syndrome?

The Kessler Syndrome, named after the NASA scientist Donald J. Kessler, refers to a cascading effect of collisions in space that could render certain orbits unusable and significantly increase the risk of further collisions. It is a theoretical scenario that describes the potential for a chain reaction of collisions among space debris.

Causes and Effects

1. Causes
The Kessler Syndrome is primarily caused by the accumulation of space debris in Earth's orbit. This debris includes defunct satellites, spent rocket stages, fragments from explosions or collisions, and other objects that have been left behind during space missions.

2. Effects
When two objects collide in space, they generate more debris, which in turn increases the likelihood of further collisions. As the number of collisions increases, the density of space debris also increases, resulting in a self-sustaining chain reaction. This can create a dangerous environment where space debris poses a significant threat to operational satellites and future space missions.

Implications of the Kessler Syndrome

The Kessler Syndrome has several implications for space activities and exploration:

1. Spacecraft and Satellite Collisions: Collisions between space debris and operational satellites or spacecraft can cause damage or complete destruction. This can disrupt communication networks, weather monitoring, navigation systems, and other vital services that rely on satellites.

2. Limiting Future Space Missions: As the density of space debris increases, certain orbits may become too hazardous to use. This can limit the ability to deploy new satellites, conduct scientific research, and explore outer space.

3. Space Debris Mitigation: The Kessler Syndrome highlights the importance of implementing measures to mitigate space debris. These include strategies such as deorbiting satellites at the end of their operational life, designing satellites and rockets to minimize fragmentation, and actively removing space debris from orbit.

Conclusion

The Kessler Syndrome is a significant concern in the field of space exploration and satellite operations. It emphasizes the need for responsible space debris management to ensure the sustainability and safety of space activities. By implementing effective mitigation strategies, the risk of the Kessler Syndrome can be minimized, allowing for continued exploration and utilization of space.

Consider the following statements regarding Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs).
  1. Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona.
  2. They expand in size as they propagate away from the Sun.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Nair answered
1. CMEs can occur during periods of high solar activity, such as solar flares or sunspot activity.
2. CMEs can travel at speeds of several million miles per hour.
3. CMEs can cause geomagnetic storms on Earth, which can disrupt satellite communications and power grids.
4. CMEs can also produce beautiful displays of the Northern and Southern Lights (Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis).
5. CMEs can pose a threat to astronauts in space, as the high-energy particles can penetrate spacecraft and potentially harm the crew.
6. CMEs can be observed and studied using satellites and ground-based telescopes, such as the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) and the Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO).

All of these statements are true.

Consider the following statements regarding NITI Ayog.
  1. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet provides the approval for the appointment of Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog.
  2. The first meeting of NITI Aayog was chaired by Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog.
  3. One of the objectives of the NITI Aayog include formulating credible plans at the village level and aggregate them at higher levels of government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nambiar answered
NITI Ayog

• NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission.

• It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and has the Chief Ministers of all states and union territories as its ex-officio members.

• The CEO of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

• The first meeting of NITI Aayog was chaired by the Prime Minister, not the CEO.

• One of the objectives of NITI Aayog is to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate them at higher levels of government.

Therefore, option D is correct as statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
  1. CAG is an extra constitutional body, who is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
  2. The duty of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
  3. CAG is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels- the centre and state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meghana Roy answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - 2 and 3.

Explanation:
1. CAG is an extra constitutional body, who is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is an extra constitutional body, meaning it is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and is appointed by the President of India.

2. The duty of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
The primary duty of the CAG is to audit and report on the accounts of the central and state governments. The CAG is responsible for ensuring that the financial administration of the government is carried out in accordance with the Constitution of India and the laws passed by Parliament.

The CAG audits the receipts and expenditures of the government, conducts performance audits, and verifies the legality, regularity, and propriety of financial transactions. The CAG also plays a crucial role in holding the government accountable for its financial decisions and actions.

3. CAG is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels - the centre and state.
The CAG acts as the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the central and state levels. It ensures that public money is spent efficiently, effectively, and in accordance with the prescribed rules and regulations.

The CAG's role extends beyond financial audits. It also promotes transparency and accountability in the financial management of the government. The CAG's reports are submitted to the President or the Governor, who then presents them to the Parliament or the State Legislature, respectively. These reports are important tools for the legislature to scrutinize government expenditures and hold the executive accountable.

In conclusion, the correct statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are:
- CAG is an extra constitutional body, who is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
- The duty of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

Consider the following statements regarding Coral reefs.
  1. Coral reefs cover more than 25% of the earth’s surface.
  2. Coral reefs helps in substantially reducing coastal flooding and erosion.
  3. Increased ocean temperature causes reefs to expel the symbiotic algae responsible for their colour.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

's surface.
2. Coral reefs are found in both shallow and deep waters.
3. Coral reefs are made up of millions of tiny organisms called polyps.
4. Coral reefs are only found in warm tropical waters.
5. Coral reefs provide habitat for a wide variety of marine life.
6. Coral reefs are important for coastal protection against storms and erosion.

Which of these statements are true?

Which of the following Air Defence systems are correctly matched?
  1. Iron Dome: Israel
  2. S400: Russia
  3. THAAD: USA
  4. Iron Beam: India
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Shah answered
The correct answer is option 'B' (1, 2, 3).

Explanation:
The air defense systems mentioned in the question are correctly matched as follows:

1. Iron Dome: Israel
The Iron Dome is an air defense system developed by Israel. It is designed to intercept and destroy short-range rockets and artillery shells fired from distances of 4 to 70 kilometers away. The system uses advanced radar and missile technology to track incoming threats and launch intercepting missiles to destroy them in mid-air. The Iron Dome has been successfully used by Israel to protect its territories from rocket attacks.

2. S400: Russia
The S-400 Triumf (NATO reporting name: SA-21 Growler) is an advanced air defense system developed by Russia. It is designed to engage and destroy a wide range of aerial threats, including aircraft, missiles, and drones. The S-400 system consists of radars, command and control centers, and multiple types of surface-to-air missiles. It is known for its long-range capabilities and high effectiveness in countering airborne threats.

3. THAAD: USA
The Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an advanced missile defense system developed by the United States. It is designed to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight. The THAAD system consists of radars, launchers, and interceptor missiles. It is capable of providing a layered defense to protect against various missile threats.

4. Iron Beam: India
Iron Beam is not a correct match for an air defense system. There is no such air defense system named Iron Beam developed by India. It is likely a fictional or misquoted system.

In conclusion, the correctly matched air defense systems are Iron Dome (Israel), S400 (Russia), and THAAD (USA).

Consider the following statements regarding the administration of Union Territories.
  1. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
  2. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and head of state like a governor.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shalini Gupta answered
The Administration of Union Territories

- Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
- This statement is correct as per the provisions of Article 239 of the Constitution of India, which states that every Union Territory shall be administered by the President acting, to such extent as he thinks fit, through an administrator to be appointed by him with such designation as he may specify.

An Administrator of a Union Territory

- An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and head of state like a governor.
- This statement is not entirely correct. While the administrator is indeed appointed by the President and acts as his agent, the administrator is not the head of state. The President is the head of state of the Union Territory, and the administrator exercises the powers and functions of the government on behalf of the President.

Conclusion

- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', which states that only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The primary focus of the AUKUS arrangement between Australia, the U.S. and the U.K. are submarine technology development.
  2. AUKUS is officially considered as a NATO for the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Chopra answered
Introduction:
The AUKUS arrangement between Australia, the U.S., and the U.K. has gained significant attention and has raised several questions. Let's analyze the given statements and determine their correctness.

Statement 1: The primary focus of the AUKUS arrangement between Australia, the U.S., and the U.K. is submarine technology development.

The AUKUS arrangement does indeed have a primary focus on submarine technology development. The three countries have agreed to work together to develop and deploy nuclear-powered submarines for the Royal Australian Navy. This represents a significant shift in Australia's defense strategy as it moves away from conventionally powered submarines. The arrangement aims to enhance Australia's maritime capabilities and strengthen its strategic partnership with the U.S. and the U.K.

Statement 2: AUKUS is officially considered as a NATO for the Indo-Pacific region.

This statement is incorrect. AUKUS is not officially considered as a NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) for the Indo-Pacific region. NATO is a military alliance formed primarily to counter threats in the Euro-Atlantic region. AUKUS, on the other hand, is a trilateral security partnership focused on enhancing defense capabilities specifically in the Indo-Pacific region.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct statement is:
a) Statement 1 only

The primary focus of the AUKUS arrangement between Australia, the U.S., and the U.K. is indeed submarine technology development. However, AUKUS is not officially considered as a NATO for the Indo-Pacific region.

Consider the following statements regarding National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF).
  1. The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is India’s first-ever Sovereign Wealth Fund (SWF).
  2. It is a state-owned fund set up by the Department of Economic Affairs.
  3. It is a collaborative investment platform for both international and Indian investors.
  4. It does not invest in equity related or equity-linked portfolios.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Chopra answered
's sovereign wealth fund, set up in 2015.
2. It is a joint initiative of the Government of India and foreign investors.
3. The purpose of NIIF is to facilitate investment in the infrastructure sector in India.
4. NIIF primarily focuses on greenfield, brownfield, and stalled projects in sectors such as energy, transportation, and urban infrastructure.
5. The fund mobilizes both domestic and international capital to finance infrastructure projects.
6. NIIF operates through various funds, including the Master Fund, Fund of Funds, and Strategic Investment Fund.
7. The government has committed to provide an initial capital of INR 20,000 crore (approximately USD 2.7 billion) to NIIF.
8. NIIF is managed by a professional team and governed by an independent board of directors.
9. The fund aims to attract long-term institutional investors, such as sovereign wealth funds, pension funds, and insurance companies, to invest in Indian infrastructure.
10. NIIF also provides support and advisory services to infrastructure projects, including project development and structuring, financial assistance, and strategic advice.

Please note that this information is based on general knowledge and may not be up-to-date. It is always recommended to refer to official sources for the most accurate and current information.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Any change in the repo rate impacts the interest rate for borrowers.
  2. Marginal cost of fund-based lending rates (MCLR) is the minimum interest rate below which banks cannot lend.
  3. Under the Marginal cost of fund-based lending rates (MCLR) regime, banks decide on the interest rate at which they will offer to borrowers on the basis of the marginal cost at which they get funds and borrowing from the RBI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
  • Introduced on April 1, 2016, MCLR is the minimum interest rate below which banks cannot lend. Banks calculate all operating costs as a percentage of marginal cost of funds for computing MCLR. Under the MCLR regime, banks decide on the interest rate at which they will offer to borrowers on the basis of the marginal cost at which they get funds and borrowing from the RBI.
  • Any change in the repo rate — the rate at which the RBI lends money to banks to meet their short-term funding needs — impacts the interest rate for borrowers. Banks review their MCLR of different maturities every month on a pre-announced date with approval from their boards.

Consider the following statements regarding carbon dating.
  1. Carbon dating is a widely-used method applied to establish the age of organic material.
  2. The dating method makes use of the fact that a most abundant isotope of carbon in the atmosphere called C-14 is radioactive, and decays at a rate.
  3. Since plants and animals get their carbon from the atmosphere, they too acquire carbon-14 isotopes in roughly the same proportion as is available in the atmosphere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Nair answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: Carbon dating is a widely-used method applied to establish the age of organic material. This statement is correct as carbon dating is indeed a commonly used technique in archaeology and geology to determine the age of organic remains.

Statement 2: The dating method makes use of the fact that a most abundant isotope of carbon in the atmosphere called C-14 is radioactive, and decays at a rate. This statement is incorrect. The most abundant isotope of carbon in the atmosphere is actually C-12, not C-14. Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope of carbon, but it is not the most abundant.

Statement 3: Since plants and animals get their carbon from the atmosphere, they too acquire carbon-14 isotopes in roughly the same proportion as is available in the atmosphere. This statement is correct. Plants and animals absorb carbon from the atmosphere through processes like photosynthesis, and as a result, they accumulate carbon-14 isotopes in a proportion similar to that found in the atmosphere.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B (1, 3).

Consider the following statements regarding Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
  1. It is an autonomous body that has emerged as the largest research and development organisation in India.
  2. The research and development activities of CSIR includes aerospace engineering, ocean sciences, Life sciences, mining, food and environmental science.
  3. It is headed by the Union Minister for Science and Technology.
  4. It is mainly funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    1, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Nair answered
Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR):
- Statement 1: It is an autonomous body that has emerged as the largest research and development organisation in India.
- Statement 2: The research and development activities of CSIR include aerospace engineering, ocean sciences, life sciences, mining, food, and environmental science.
- Statement 3: It is headed by the Union Minister for Science and Technology.
- Statement 4: It is mainly funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology.

Explanation of Correct Statements:
- Statement 1: This statement is correct. CSIR is indeed an autonomous body that has established itself as the largest research and development organization in India.
- Statement 2: This statement is also correct. CSIR covers a wide range of research and development activities including aerospace engineering, ocean sciences, life sciences, mining, food, and environmental science.
- Statement 4: This statement is correct. CSIR is primarily funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 4, making option C the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Treaty of Alinagar.
  1. It was signed by Nawab Siraj ud Daula with the English East India Company.
  2. The Treaty strengthened the position of the British in Bengal.
  3. It laid the foundations for the Battle of Plassey.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The Treaty of Alinagar, signed on February 9, 1757, was a reluctant agreement signed by Bengal’s Nawab Siraj ud Daula with the English East India Company. An outcome of decades of tension that bubbled over into armed conflict between the two parties, the Treaty strengthened the position of the British in Bengal and laid foundations for the Battle of Plassey a few months later.
The treaty set the stage for British colonial expansion in India.

Consider the following statements regarding Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) in India.
  1. PACS are village level cooperative credit societies that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit structure headed by the State Cooperative Banks (SCB) at the state level.
  2. Individual farmers are members of the PACS, and office-bearers are elected from within them.
  3. A village can have only one Primary Agricultural Credit Society.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vaishnavi Das answered
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) in India:

Statement 1: PACS are village-level cooperative credit societies that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit structure headed by the State Cooperative Banks (SCB) at the state level.
This statement is correct. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are village-level cooperative credit societies that form the last tier in the three-tier cooperative credit structure in India. The three tiers are as follows:

1. State Cooperative Banks (SCBs): These banks operate at the state level and provide financial assistance to the district central cooperative banks (DCCBs) and PACS.

2. District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs): DCCBs operate at the district level and provide financial assistance to PACS.

3. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS): PACS are village-level cooperative credit societies that directly serve the individual farmers and are the last point of contact for credit delivery.

Statement 2: Individual farmers are members of the PACS, and office-bearers are elected from within them.
This statement is incorrect. While individual farmers are indeed the members of PACS, the office-bearers are not necessarily elected from within the PACS. The office-bearers are elected through a democratic process, but they may or may not be farmers themselves. The elected office-bearers are responsible for the management and functioning of the PACS.

Statement 3: A village can have only one Primary Agricultural Credit Society.
This statement is correct. Each village in India typically has only one Primary Agricultural Credit Society. This ensures that the credit needs of the farmers in the village are met efficiently and that the resources are not scattered across multiple societies.

Therefore, the correct statements are:

a) 1 only

If a country is consistently running a negative trade balance, which of the following is necessarily implied?
  1. The nation is economically a developing country.
  2. The nation’s currency is weak as compared to Dollar, which is the international reserve currency.
  3. There is little or no demand for the country’s exports in international market.
  4. The nation is grappling with high inflation and low growth.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 4 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Chopra answered
Explanation:


Trade Balance: The trade balance of a country is the difference between the value of its exports and imports. When a country consistently runs a negative trade balance, it means that the value of its imports exceeds the value of its exports.


Implications of a Negative Trade Balance:



  • Weak Currency: A negative trade balance can lead to a weakening of the country's currency. This is because the country needs to sell its currency to buy foreign currencies to pay for the excess imports, leading to a decrease in the value of its currency relative to stronger currencies like the US Dollar.


  • Low Demand for Exports: A negative trade balance may also indicate that there is little or no demand for the country's exports in the international market. This could be due to various reasons such as lack of competitiveness, quality issues, or inadequate marketing efforts.


  • Economic Challenges: While a negative trade balance does not necessarily mean that a country is economically a developing country, it can be a sign of economic challenges. High inflation, low growth, and other economic issues may contribute to a negative trade balance as the country imports more than it exports.



Therefore, it is not necessarily implied that a country with a negative trade balance is economically a developing country. Rather, it can be indicative of various economic challenges and factors such as weak currency, low demand for exports, and economic difficulties like high inflation and low growth.

Consider the following statements regarding Kelp forests.
  1. Kelp forests are underwater areas which provide food and shelter for fish, invertebrates and marine mammal species.
  2. They offer crucial services such as carbon sequestration and erosion control.
  3. Bryozoa are highly beneficial for increasing the productivity of kelp forests.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kelp forests are underwater ecosystems that are characterized by dense patches of kelp, a type of large brown algae. These forests are found in temperate and subpolar regions, particularly along rocky coastlines. Kelp forests are incredibly important for marine biodiversity and provide various benefits to the ecosystem. Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness.

1. Kelp forests provide food and shelter for fish, invertebrates, and marine mammal species.
Kelp forests are highly productive ecosystems and serve as critical habitats for a wide range of marine organisms. The dense growth of kelp provides a complex structure that offers food and shelter for numerous species. Fish use the kelp as a refuge to hide from predators and as a feeding ground, while invertebrates such as sea urchins, snails, and crabs find food and protection among the kelp fronds. Marine mammal species like sea otters and seals rely on kelp forests for foraging, resting, and raising their young. Therefore, the first statement is correct.

2. Kelp forests offer crucial services such as carbon sequestration and erosion control.
Kelp forests play a significant role in carbon sequestration, which refers to the capture and storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Kelp is an efficient photosynthesizer and absorbs carbon dioxide during growth, storing the carbon in its tissues. When the kelp dies and sinks to the ocean floor, the carbon is effectively sequestered for long periods. This process helps mitigate climate change by reducing the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. Additionally, kelp forests act as natural coastal barriers, protecting shorelines from erosion caused by waves and storms. The dense network of kelp fronds absorbs wave energy, reducing the impact on the coast. Therefore, the second statement is correct.

3. Bryozoa are highly beneficial for increasing the productivity of kelp forests.
Bryozoa, also known as moss animals, are small colonial invertebrates that can be found in kelp forests. While they are not the primary contributors to the productivity of kelp forests, they do play a role in enhancing the overall biodiversity and complexity of the ecosystem. Bryozoa colonies attach themselves to the kelp fronds and provide additional surface area for other organisms to colonize, including algae, sponges, and hydroids. This increased diversity can indirectly contribute to the productivity of the kelp forest by providing more food sources and habitats for other species. Therefore, the third statement is correct.

In conclusion, all three statements regarding kelp forests are correct. Kelp forests are essential ecosystems that provide food and shelter for various marine species, offer crucial services like carbon sequestration and erosion control, and benefit from the presence of Bryozoa colonies.

Technologies that are widely employed in genetic engineering/genome analysis include
  1. Chromatin remodelling
  2. Mass-Cytometry
  3. Genetic manipulation
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Basu answered
Technologies in Genetic Engineering and Genome Analysis
Genetic engineering and genome analysis utilize a variety of advanced technologies to manipulate genetic material and study genomes. The options listed—Chromatin remodeling, Mass-Cytometry, and Genetic manipulation—are all integral to these fields.
1. Chromatin Remodeling
- Chromatin remodeling refers to the dynamic changes in the structure of chromatin that affect gene expression.
- It plays a crucial role in genetic engineering as it helps in understanding how genes are turned on or off, which is essential for gene editing.

2. Mass-Cytometry
- Mass-Cytometry is a high-dimensional technology used for analyzing cellular proteins and other biomolecules.
- It allows researchers to profile complex samples at the single-cell level, making it invaluable for understanding the cellular composition of tissues and the impact of genetic modifications.

3. Genetic Manipulation
- Genetic manipulation encompasses a range of techniques used to alter the DNA of organisms.
- Techniques like CRISPR-Cas9, gene cloning, and transgenic technology fall under this category, enabling precise edits to the genetic code for research, therapeutic applications, and agricultural improvements.
Conclusion
All three technologies—Chromatin remodeling, Mass-Cytometry, and Genetic manipulation—are essential tools in the realm of genetic engineering and genome analysis. They contribute to our understanding of genetics and the development of innovative solutions in medicine and agriculture, thus validating the correct answer as option 'D'.

Consider the following statements regarding Dayanand Saraswati.
  1. He opposed the supreme authority of the vedas.
  2. He established the Arya Samaj as a leading reform movement.
  3. His various beliefs included rejection of idolatry and the ritualistic traditions of Hinduism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dayanand Saraswati (1824-1883) was one of the most influential figures of 19th-century India. A believer in the supreme authority of the vedas, he established the Arya Samaj in 1875, leading a reform movement within orthodox Hinduism. Among his various beliefs included a rejection of idolatry and the overly ritualistic traditions of Hinduism, support for women’s education, denunciation of child marriage and an opposition to untouchability.
His magnum opus, Satyarth Prakash (1875), emphasised the “return to Vedic principles” that Dayanand Saraswati believed “had been lost” over time.

Consider the following statements regarding Hurricanes.
  1. Storms that form over the Atlantic Ocean or central and eastern North Pacific with their wind speed around 100 miles per hour are called hurricanes.
  2. Warm ocean water and moist, humid air is not conducive for the formation of Hurricanes.
  3. Hurricane activity is common for North America from June through November with peaking in September.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Srishti Nair answered
Statement 1: Storms that form over the Atlantic Ocean or central and eastern North Pacific with their wind speed around 100 miles per hour are called hurricanes.

This statement is correct. Hurricanes are tropical cyclones that form over warm ocean waters with a wind speed of at least 74 miles per hour. In the Atlantic Ocean and the central and eastern North Pacific, hurricanes are officially classified as such when their wind speed reaches or exceeds 74 miles per hour.

Statement 2: Warm ocean water and moist, humid air is not conducive for the formation of Hurricanes.

This statement is incorrect. Warm ocean water is one of the key ingredients for the formation and intensification of hurricanes. Hurricanes typically form in tropical regions where the ocean water temperature is above 80°F (27°C). The warm water provides the energy and moisture necessary for the development of hurricanes. Moist, humid air is also essential as it provides the necessary moisture for the formation of clouds and thunderstorms, which are the building blocks of hurricanes.

Statement 3: Hurricane activity is common for North America from June through November with peaking in September.

This statement is correct. The Atlantic hurricane season officially runs from June 1st to November 30th, with the peak of activity typically occurring in September. During this period, the conditions in the Atlantic Ocean, such as warm water and favorable wind patterns, are most conducive for hurricane formation and intensification. North America, particularly the Gulf Coast and the eastern seaboard, is vulnerable to hurricanes during this time, and historically, many significant hurricanes have made landfall in these regions.

Conclusion:

Based on the analysis of the statements, it can be concluded that statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option A (1, 3).

Consider the following statements regarding Sea Weeds.
  1. It is the common name for countless species of marine plants and algae.
  2. Sea weeds are detrimental to human health and consumption of the same should be avoided.
  3. Sea weeds does not grow in flowing waters like rivers and streams.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sea Weeds




Statement 1: It is the common name for countless species of marine plants and algae.


This statement is correct. Sea weeds are a common name given to various species of marine plants and algae. These plants and algae are found in marine environments such as oceans and seas. They are important components of marine ecosystems and provide habitat and food for many marine organisms.




Statement 2: Sea weeds are detrimental to human health and consumption of the same should be avoided.


This statement is incorrect. Sea weeds are not detrimental to human health and are actually consumed by many people around the world. Sea weeds are a rich source of vitamins, minerals, and dietary fiber. They are low in calories and contain various beneficial compounds such as antioxidants and omega-3 fatty acids. Consuming sea weeds in moderation can be part of a healthy diet.




Statement 3: Sea weeds does not grow in flowing waters like rivers and streams.


This statement is incorrect. While it is true that sea weeds are primarily found in marine environments, some species can also grow in flowing waters like rivers and streams. These species are adapted to tolerate different salinity levels and can be found in estuaries where freshwater and saltwater mix. These freshwater-adapted sea weeds play an important role in the ecology of these habitats.




Therefore, the correct statements are:


- Statement 1: It is the common name for countless species of marine plants and algae.


- Statement 3: Sea weeds does not grow in flowing waters like rivers and streams.


Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the musical instrument Sursingar
  1. Sursingar is a stringed musical instrument similar to sarod.
  2. The instrument is mainly made of leather.
  3. The Sursingar usually accompanies Dhrupad, the genre of Hindustani vocal music.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagarika Desai answered
Explanation:

Sursingar:
- Sursingar is a stringed musical instrument similar to the sarod.
- The instrument is not mainly made of leather; it is typically made of wood, metal, and strings.
- The Sursingar usually accompanies Dhrupad, the genre of Hindustani vocal music.
Therefore, the correct statements are:

1, 3

Consider the following statements regarding Special Marriage Act, 1954.
  1. Special Marriage Act, 1954 enables marriage between inter-caste couples, where it requires either spouse to convert to the religion of the other before marriage.
  2. The applicability of the Act extends to the people of all faiths, including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Jains, and Buddhists, across India.
  3. The minimum age to get married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is same as mentioned in the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    2 and 3 only 
  • c)
    1 and 3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

answered
The Special Marriage Act, 1954:

- Enables marriage between inter-caste couples, without requiring either spouse to convert to the religion of the other before marriage. This is one of the unique features of the Act that promotes secularism and inter-faith marriages.
- Applicability of the Act extends to the people of all faiths, including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Jains, and Buddhists, across India. This means that people belonging to any religion can choose to get married under this Act.
- The minimum age to get married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is the same as mentioned in the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006. The minimum age for marriage is 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer as it correctly represents all the three statements. The Act is relevant in promoting inter-caste and inter-religious marriages and offers a legal framework for couples to get married without any religious barriers. It offers equal rights and opportunities to people of all faiths to get married, which is a significant step towards promoting a secular society.

The code name for police action that integrated Hyderabad into the Indian Union is known as
  • a)
    Operation Black Thunder 
  • b)
    Operation Blue Star 
  • c)
    Operation Polo 
  • d)
    Operation Vijay
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Operation Polo was the code name for the police action that integrated Hyderabad into the Indian Union. It was a military operation conducted by the Indian Armed Forces in September 1948 to annex the princely state of Hyderabad, which had decided to remain independent after India's independence from British rule in 1947. The operation lasted for just five days and resulted in the complete integration of Hyderabad into the Indian Union.

Background:
- Hyderabad, ruled by the Nizams, was the largest princely state in India, with a predominantly Hindu population but a Muslim ruler.
- The Nizam, Mir Osman Ali Khan, initially wanted Hyderabad to remain independent but later expressed his desire to join Pakistan.
- The Indian government, led by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, was determined to integrate Hyderabad into the Indian Union.

Events:
- The Indian government attempted negotiations with the Nizam to peacefully integrate Hyderabad, but the discussions failed.
- As a result, the Indian government decided to launch a military operation to annex Hyderabad and bring it under Indian control.
- On September 13, 1948, Indian forces commenced Operation Polo by launching air strikes on key targets in Hyderabad.
- The Indian Army, supported by the Indian Air Force, quickly advanced and captured major cities and towns of Hyderabad.
- The Nizam's forces, known as the Razakars, put up some resistance but were eventually defeated.
- The operation concluded on September 18, 1948, with the surrender of the Nizam's forces and the complete integration of Hyderabad into the Indian Union.

Significance:
- Operation Polo was a significant military and political success for the Indian government.
- It ensured the integration of Hyderabad, a strategically important region, into the Indian Union.
- The operation also brought an end to the rule of the Nizams and established democratic governance in Hyderabad.
- The successful execution of Operation Polo demonstrated the strength and resolve of the Indian Armed Forces and solidified India's position as a united nation.

Conclusion:
Operation Polo, also known as the police action to integrate Hyderabad into the Indian Union, was a military operation that resulted in the successful annexation of Hyderabad. It was a significant event in Indian history, marking the integration of a major princely state into the newly independent nation.

The Black Sea Grain Initiative, recently seen in news is backed by 
  • a)
    European Union 
  • b)
    Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development 
  • c)
    United Nations 
  • d)
    United States
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Uday Chawla answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - United Nations.

The Black Sea Grain Initiative is a project that aims to promote sustainable development and enhance agricultural productivity in the Black Sea region. It is a collaborative effort between the United Nations and various stakeholders in the region.

The initiative was launched in 2009 as a response to the global food crisis and the need to increase food production and security. It focuses on improving agricultural practices, enhancing trade and investment, and strengthening regional cooperation in the Black Sea region.

The United Nations plays a crucial role in supporting and coordinating the Black Sea Grain Initiative. Here are the reasons why the correct answer is the United Nations:

1. Promoting Sustainable Development:
The United Nations is committed to promoting sustainable development worldwide. The Black Sea Grain Initiative aligns with the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals, particularly Goal 2 - Zero Hunger, which aims to end hunger, achieve food security, improve nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture.

2. Enhancing Agricultural Productivity:
The United Nations provides technical expertise, knowledge sharing, and capacity building support to improve agricultural productivity in the Black Sea region. This includes promoting sustainable farming practices, introducing innovative technologies, and strengthening agricultural research and development.

3. Strengthening Regional Cooperation:
The United Nations facilitates dialogue and cooperation among countries in the Black Sea region to address common challenges and promote sustainable agriculture. This involves organizing workshops, conferences, and meetings to foster collaboration, knowledge exchange, and policy coordination among stakeholders.

4. Mobilizing Resources:
The United Nations leverages its network and partnerships to mobilize financial resources and investments for the Black Sea Grain Initiative. This includes working with international financial institutions, donor countries, and private sector entities to secure funding and support for agricultural projects and initiatives in the region.

In conclusion, the Black Sea Grain Initiative is backed by the United Nations, which provides strategic guidance, technical support, and resources to promote sustainable development and enhance agricultural productivity in the Black Sea region.

Consider the following statements regarding Geological Survey of India (GSI).
  1. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
  2. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Culture.
  3. The GSI have the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ujwal Unni answered
The correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.

Explanation:
The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a premier organization under the Ministry of Mines, Government of India. It is responsible for conducting geological surveys, exploration, and research to assess the mineral resources and natural hazards in the country. Let's analyze each statement given in the question:

1. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
- This statement is correct. The GSI identifies and declares geo-heritage sites and national geological monuments to protect and preserve them. These sites are of significant geological importance and are declared as such to raise awareness and promote geotourism.

2. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- This statement is incorrect. The Geological Survey of India functions under the Ministry of Mines, not the Ministry of Culture. Its primary objective is to provide geological information and mineral resource assessments to support the mining industry and sustainable development.

3. The GSI has the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
- This statement is correct. The GSI has the authority to acquire geo-relics, which are geological specimens or artifacts of scientific, historical, or cultural importance. By acquiring and preserving these geo-relics, the GSI contributes to the scientific understanding of the Earth's history and promotes geological education and research.

In conclusion, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.

What do you understand by Ecological footprint? 
  • a)
    The way in which ecological agents reveal their preferences through ecological activity 
  • b)
    A degree of impairment to an ecosystem, which when surpassed is too severe to allow recovery of that ecosystem 
  • c)
    An index of the area of a productive ecosystem required to produce the resources used and to assimilate the wastes produced by a defined population 
  • d)
    Non-monetary assessment of ecosystem integrity, health or resilience
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Puja Iyer answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - An index of the area of a productive ecosystem required to produce the resources used and to assimilate the wastes produced by a defined population.

Ecological footprint is a measure that quantifies the impact of human activities on the environment by calculating the amount of productive land and water needed to support those activities and absorb the waste generated. It is a way to assess the sustainability of human consumption and resource usage patterns.

The concept of ecological footprint was developed in the early 1990s by Mathis Wackernagel and William Rees. It is based on the idea that every human activity has an ecological impact, and this impact can be measured in terms of the amount of biologically productive land and water required to sustain it. The ecological footprint is measured in global hectares (gha), which represent the average productivity of all biologically productive land and water on Earth in a given year.

To understand the concept of ecological footprint, let's break it down into its key components:

1. Area of a productive ecosystem: The ecological footprint measures the area of land and water required to produce the resources consumed by a population and to absorb the waste generated. It takes into account the productive capacity of ecosystems, including croplands, grazing lands, forests, fishing grounds, and built-up areas.

2. Resources used: The ecological footprint considers all the resources consumed by a population, such as food, water, energy, timber, and other raw materials. It quantifies the land and water area required to produce these resources.

3. Wastes produced: The ecological footprint also includes the assimilation capacity of ecosystems, which refers to the ability of ecosystems to absorb and process the waste generated by human activities, such as carbon emissions, water pollution, and solid waste. It calculates the land and water area needed to assimilate these wastes.

4. Defined population: The ecological footprint is calculated for a specific population, whether it is an individual, a community, a city, a country, or the entire global population. It provides a measure of the sustainability of the resource consumption and waste generation patterns of that population.

By calculating the ecological footprint, we can gain insights into how our lifestyle choices and consumption patterns affect the environment. It helps us understand the ecological limits of our planet and encourages us to make more sustainable choices to reduce our impact on the Earth's ecosystems.

If the rupee is devalued against foreign currencies, it may lead to
  1. A higher Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the banking system
  2. Increase in the inflow of foreign exchange
  3. Greater exports and lesser imports
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    2 and 3 only 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Joshi answered
Impact of Rupee Devaluation
When the rupee is devalued against foreign currencies, it has several significant economic implications. Let's break down the effects as mentioned in the options.
1. Higher Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the Banking System
- A devaluation of the rupee typically does not directly lead to an increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
- The CRR is influenced by monetary policy decisions made by the central bank based on inflation, liquidity, and economic growth, rather than currency valuation directly.
2. Increase in the Inflow of Foreign Exchange
- A weaker rupee makes Indian goods and services cheaper for foreign buyers, potentially leading to an increase in exports.
- This can attract foreign investment as the assets become cheaper for foreign investors, thus increasing the inflow of foreign exchange.
3. Greater Exports and Lesser Imports
- A devalued rupee helps to boost exports as Indian products become more competitively priced abroad.
- Conversely, imports become more expensive, leading to a decrease in import volumes, particularly for non-essential goods.
Conclusion
Given the analysis:
- Option 1 is not a direct consequence of rupee devaluation.
- Options 2 and 3 are valid outcomes, emphasizing increased foreign exchange inflow and shifting trade balances in favor of exports.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': 2 and 3 only. These points illustrate the broader economic dynamics at play when a currency is devalued.

Consider the following statements regarding Green Hydrogen.
  1. Green Hydrogen is the hydrogen generated through renewable energy sources and the carbon generated from the process is captured and stored without dispersing it in the atmosphere.
  2. The major challenge in the usage of green hydrogen will be its storage, because it requires large volumes for its storage.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Green Hydrogen is the hydrogen generated through renewable energy sources and the carbon generated from the process is captured and stored without dispersing it in the atmosphere.

This statement is correct. Green Hydrogen is produced using renewable energy sources such as wind, solar, or hydroelectric power. The process of producing green hydrogen involves electrolysis, where water is split into hydrogen and oxygen using an electric current. Since the electricity used in this process is generated from renewable sources, it does not contribute to carbon emissions. Additionally, the carbon dioxide generated during the production process can be captured and stored, preventing it from being released into the atmosphere. This makes green hydrogen a clean and sustainable energy source.

Statement 2: The major challenge in the usage of green hydrogen will be its storage, because it requires large volumes for its storage.

This statement is incorrect. The major challenge in the usage of green hydrogen is not its storage, but rather its production and distribution. While hydrogen does have a low energy density, meaning it requires larger volumes compared to other fuels, storage is not the primary challenge. Various storage options such as compressed hydrogen gas, liquid hydrogen, and solid-state hydrogen storage technologies are being developed and utilized to address this issue. Moreover, hydrogen can also be transported through pipelines or in specialized containers.

The main challenges associated with green hydrogen lie in its production and distribution infrastructure. The process of electrolysis used to produce hydrogen requires large amounts of electricity, and the scaling up of renewable energy sources to meet this demand is a significant challenge. Additionally, there is a need for a robust distribution network to transport and deliver hydrogen to end-users, which requires substantial investment and infrastructure development.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements.
  1. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) has established the international legal order of the seas and oceans.
  2. India supports freedom of navigation and overflight based on the principles of UNCLOS.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Mishra answered
The correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:
1. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) has established the international legal order of the seas and oceans: This statement is incorrect. While it is true that UNCLOS is a widely accepted international treaty that establishes a legal framework for the use and conservation of the world's oceans and their resources, it does not establish an international legal order of the seas and oceans. UNCLOS provides a set of rules and principles that govern the rights and responsibilities of states in various maritime zones, but it does not create a comprehensive legal order for the entire global maritime domain.

2. India supports freedom of navigation and overflight based on the principles of UNCLOS: This statement is incorrect. India does support freedom of navigation and overflight in accordance with international law, including UNCLOS. UNCLOS recognizes the freedom of navigation and overflight in various maritime zones, such as the high seas and the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). India, as a signatory to UNCLOS, upholds these principles and supports the rights of all states to exercise freedom of navigation and overflight in accordance with international law.

In conclusion, both statements are incorrect. UNCLOS does not establish an international legal order of the seas and oceans, and India does support freedom of navigation and overflight based on the principles of UNCLOS.

Consider the following statements regarding Chambal River.
  1. Chambal River is a tributary of the River Brahmaputra and is part of the Brahmaputra drainage system.
  2. Kunnu, Parvati and Kalisindh are the tributaries of Chambal River.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshita Joshi answered
Incorrect Statement:
The incorrect statement is option 1: Chambal River is a tributary of the River Brahmaputra and is part of the Brahmaputra drainage system.

Explanation:
The Chambal River is not a tributary of the River Brahmaputra and is not part of the Brahmaputra drainage system. Let's break down the statements to understand this in detail:

1. Chambal River is a tributary of the River Brahmaputra and is part of the Brahmaputra drainage system. (Incorrect)
- The Chambal River is not a tributary of the River Brahmaputra. It is an independent river in itself.
- The Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh before joining the Yamuna River in Uttar Pradesh.
- The Yamuna River, in turn, is a tributary of the Ganges River, not the Brahmaputra River.
- Therefore, the Chambal River is part of the Ganges drainage system, not the Brahmaputra drainage system.

2. Kunnu, Parvati, and Kalisindh are the tributaries of Chambal River. (Correct)
- Kunnu, Parvati, and Kalisindh are indeed tributaries of the Chambal River.
- Kunnu River joins the Chambal River near Dholpur in Rajasthan.
- Parvati River is an important tributary of the Chambal River and joins it near Manpura in Madhya Pradesh.
- Kalisindh River, originating in the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh, also joins the Chambal River near Rameshwar in Rajasthan.

In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect as the Chambal River is not a tributary of the River Brahmaputra and is not part of the Brahmaputra drainage system. Statement 2 is correct as Kunnu, Parvati, and Kalisindh are indeed tributaries of the Chambal River. Therefore, the correct answer is option A: 1 only.

Yellowstone National Park, which is widely considered to be the first national park in the world is located in 
  • a)
    Namibia 
  • b)
    Chile 
  • c)
    United States of America 
  • d)
    Australia
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Yellowstone National Park, widely regarded as the first national park in the world, is located in the United States of America. Here is a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is option 'C':

Yellowstone National Park: An Introduction
Yellowstone National Park is a vast protected area located primarily in the U.S. state of Wyoming, although it also extends into Montana and Idaho. Established on March 1, 1872, by the U.S. Congress, it covers an area of approximately 2,219,791 acres (or 8,983 square kilometers). The park is renowned for its natural beauty, geothermal features, and diverse wildlife.

Historical Significance
1. The establishment of Yellowstone National Park marked a significant milestone in the history of conservation and the concept of preserving natural areas for public enjoyment.
2. It was the first national park to be created not only in the United States but also in the world.
3. The park's establishment set a precedent for the conservation of other natural areas globally.

Geographical Location
1. Yellowstone National Park is primarily located in the northwest corner of Wyoming. It also extends into Montana and Idaho.
2. The park is situated atop a volcanic hotspot, which gives rise to its unique geothermal features, including geysers, hot springs, and mud pots.
3. It is surrounded by the vast wilderness of the Rocky Mountains and is home to the Yellowstone River, one of the longest undammed rivers in the contiguous United States.

Natural and Cultural Heritage
1. Yellowstone National Park is renowned for its extraordinary natural features, including the famous Old Faithful geyser, the Grand Canyon of the Yellowstone, and the Yellowstone Caldera, one of the largest active volcanic systems in the world.
2. The park boasts a diverse ecosystem, with various habitats supporting a wide array of wildlife, including grizzly bears, wolves, herds of bison and elk, and numerous bird species.
3. Yellowstone is also significant for its cultural heritage, as it has been inhabited by Native American tribes for thousands of years. The park contains numerous archaeological sites and cultural artifacts.

Conclusion
In conclusion, Yellowstone National Park, recognized as the first national park in the world, is located in the United States of America. Its establishment marked a significant milestone in the global conservation movement, and it continues to be a treasured natural and cultural heritage site.

Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA).
  1. Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for ten years.
  2. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the FCRA registration is deemed to have expired, and the NGO is no longer entitled to utilise its existing funds without permission from the Union Home ministry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrutha Kapoor answered
Statement Analysis:

Statement 1: Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for ten years.
- This statement is incorrect. FCRA registration is initially granted for a period of 5 years and must be renewed thereafter.

Statement 2: In case of failure to apply for renewal, the FCRA registration is deemed to have expired, and the NGO is no longer entitled to utilise its existing funds without permission from the Union Home ministry.
- This statement is correct. If an NGO fails to apply for renewal of FCRA registration before the expiry of the current registration, the registration is deemed to have expired. In such a case, the NGO would need to seek permission from the Union Home Ministry to utilize its existing funds.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding MIIRA scheme, recently seen in news.
  1. It is a global initiative proposed by India.
  2. It will be aimed at coordinating millet research programmes at the international level.
  3. The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets, the proposal for which was moved by India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sreemoyee Kaur answered
MIIRA scheme is a global initiative proposed by India to coordinate millet research programs at the international level. The United Nations has also declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets, with the proposal for this declaration being moved by India. Let's discuss each statement in detail:

Statement 1: MIIRA scheme is a global initiative proposed by India.
This statement is correct. MIIRA, which stands for Millets Intensification and Resilience Acceleration (MIIRA) scheme, is a global initiative proposed by India. The scheme aims to coordinate millet research programs at the international level. It aims to promote the cultivation and consumption of millets as a means to address food and nutritional security, climate change adaptation, and resilience building.

Statement 2: It will be aimed at coordinating millet research programs at the international level.
This statement is correct. The MIIRA scheme aims to coordinate millet research programs at the international level. It recognizes the importance of millets as climate-resilient crops and their potential to contribute to sustainable agriculture and food systems. By coordinating research efforts, the scheme aims to enhance the production, productivity, and utilization of millets.

Statement 3: The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets, the proposal for which was moved by India.
This statement is correct. The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The proposal for this declaration was moved by India as part of its efforts to promote millets globally. The International Year of Millets aims to raise awareness about the nutritional and environmental benefits of millets and promote their production, consumption, and trade at the global level.

In conclusion, all the given statements are correct. MIIRA scheme is a global initiative proposed by India to coordinate millet research programs at the international level. The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets, with the proposal for this declaration being moved by India.

Consider the following statements regarding payment aggregators in India.
  1. A payment aggregator is a service provider that integrates various options of online payments together and brings them into one place for merchants.
  2. Under the payment aggregator framework, only firms approved by the RBI can acquire and offer payment services to merchants.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

To answer this question, let's analyze each statement individually:

Statement 1: A payment aggregator is a service provider that integrates various options of online payments together and brings them into one place for merchants.

This statement is correct. A payment aggregator is a platform that allows merchants to accept multiple online payment options (such as credit cards, debit cards, net banking, digital wallets, etc.) by integrating them into a single interface. This simplifies the payment process for merchants and provides customers with a variety of payment options.

Statement 2: Under the payment aggregator framework, only firms approved by the RBI can acquire and offer payment services to merchants.

This statement is incorrect. While it is true that payment aggregators in India need to comply with certain regulations set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), it is not necessary for them to be approved by the RBI. The RBI mandates that payment aggregators need to be registered with it and follow the guidelines provided. These guidelines include requirements related to capital adequacy, security measures, dispute resolution, customer protection, etc. However, the RBI does not individually approve or disapprove specific payment aggregators. It is the responsibility of the payment aggregator to ensure compliance with the RBI's guidelines.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis above, we can conclude that statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Which of the following are regarded as freebies provided by Governments?
  1. Farm loan waivers
  2. Free public transportation
  3. Waiver of pending utility bills
  4. Free electricity and water
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Niti Basak answered
Freebies provided by Governments are benefits or services that are offered to the citizens without any cost. These freebies aim to fulfill basic needs, alleviate financial burden, and improve the standard of living of the people. Four commonly regarded freebies provided by Governments are:

1. Farm loan waivers:
Farm loan waivers are measures taken by the Government to relieve farmers of their agricultural debts. This is done by waiving off a certain portion or the entire outstanding loan amount. This freebie is provided to reduce the financial distress faced by farmers and to support the agricultural sector.

2. Free public transportation:
Free public transportation refers to the provision of transportation services without any cost to the passengers. Governments may offer free public transportation as a means to reduce traffic congestion, promote the use of public transport, and make commuting more affordable for the citizens. This freebie can benefit both urban and rural populations.

3. Waiver of pending utility bills:
The waiver of pending utility bills refers to the cancellation or forgiveness of unpaid bills for essential services such as electricity, water, and gas. Governments may provide this freebie to individuals or households facing economic hardships or as a relief measure during times of crisis, such as natural disasters or pandemics.

4. Free electricity and water:
Some Governments provide free electricity and water to certain sections of society, particularly those who are economically vulnerable or belong to marginalized communities. This freebie aims to ensure access to basic amenities and improve the living conditions of the people.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'D' (1, 2, 3, 4) as all of the mentioned freebies - farm loan waivers, free public transportation, waiver of pending utility bills, and free electricity and water - are regarded as benefits provided by Governments.

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary System of Government.
  1. The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and in the States.
  2. Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system of government at the Union level and State level respectively.
  3. In the Parliamentary System, the Executive is not responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mansi Bajaj answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - 1 only.

Explanation:
The parliamentary system of government is a democratic form of government in which the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from the legislature (parliament) and is accountable to it. In this system, the head of government (Prime Minister) is usually the leader of the majority party or coalition in the parliament.

Let's evaluate each statement:

1) The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and in the States.
This statement is correct. The Constitution of India establishes a parliamentary system of government at both the central (Union) and state levels. It provides for a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head at the Union level and Chief Ministers at the state level.

2) Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system of government at the Union level and State level respectively.
This statement is incorrect. Article 74 of the Constitution deals with the Council of Ministers at the Union level and their aid and advice to the President. Article 75 deals with the appointment, powers, and functions of the Prime Minister and other Ministers at the Union level. There is no specific provision in the Constitution that deals with the parliamentary system at the state level.

3) In the Parliamentary System, the Executive is not responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
This statement is incorrect. In the parliamentary system of government, the executive branch is responsible and accountable to the legislature for its policies and acts. The executive derives its legitimacy from the support of the majority in the parliament. The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the parliament and can be removed through a vote of no-confidence.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 only.

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