All questions of June 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements.
  1. A loan turns into a nonperforming asset (NPA), if the interest or instalment remains unpaid for a period of more than 60 days.
  2. To avoid classifying a loan as an NPA, banks adopt the evergreening of loans.
  3. An accommodative monetary policy strictly restrict banks from indulging in evergreening of loans.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Athira Mishra answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'A' - Only one.

Statement 1: A loan turns into a nonperforming asset (NPA), if the interest or instalment remains unpaid for a period of more than 60 days.

This statement is correct. According to the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), a loan is classified as a nonperforming asset (NPA) if the interest or principal installment remains unpaid for a period of more than 90 days. Therefore, this statement stating that it turns into an NPA after 60 days is incorrect.

Statement 2: To avoid classifying a loan as an NPA, banks adopt the evergreening of loans.

This statement is incorrect. Evergreening of loans refers to the practice of providing additional loans or extending the repayment period of existing loans to borrowers who are unable to repay their existing loans. This practice is often used by banks to hide the true nature of the borrower's financial difficulties and avoid classifying the loan as an NPA. However, this statement is incorrect because evergreening of loans is used to avoid classifying a loan as an NPA, not to avoid classifying it as an NPA.

Statement 3: An accommodative monetary policy strictly restrict banks from indulging in evergreening of loans.

This statement is incorrect. An accommodative monetary policy is a policy measure taken by the central bank to stimulate economic growth by reducing interest rates and increasing liquidity in the market. It aims to encourage borrowing and investment. It does not restrict banks from indulging in evergreening of loans. In fact, during an accommodative monetary policy, banks may be more inclined to engage in evergreening of loans as they are encouraged to lend more and provide financial support to struggling borrowers.

Therefore, out of the three given statements, only statement 1 is correct.

Which of the following schemes are implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare?
  1. Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF).
  2. Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
  3. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY).
  4. National Food Security Act.
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Wizius Careers answered
  • Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH), and Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation (SMAM) under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  • Schemes of the Ministry of Food Processing Industries: Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME), and Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY).
  • Schemes of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution: allocation of food grains under the National Food Security Act, and Procurement operations at Minimum Support Price.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Protection of elector’s identity is integral to free and fair elections and an arbitrary distinction between a voter who casts and a voter who does not cast his vote is violative of Article 14.
  2. In India, abstention from voting in general elections is protected as freedom of expression.
  3. Systematic Voters Education for Electoral Participation is being implemented by the Union Ministry of Law and Justice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The Supreme Court, in PUCL vs Union of India, 2013, (popularly known as the NOTA judgment) has held that abstention from voting and negative voting are protected as freedom of expression — a fundamental right (Article 19).
The ECI has consistently held and practised this by implementing its flagship programme called SVEEP (Systematic Voters Education for Electoral Participation) since 2010.
In PUCL vs Union of India, the Court said: “Protection of elector’s identity and affording secrecy is integral to free and fair elections and an arbitrary distinction between a voter who casts and a voter who does not cast his vote is violative of Article 14. Thus, secrecy is to be maintained for both categories of persons.”

Consider the following statements regarding Tropical cyclones.
  1. Tropical cyclones develop when thunderstorm activity starts building close to the centre of circulation.
  2. The cyclone gets most of its energy from the latent heat released when water vapour that has evaporated from warm ocean waters condenses into liquid water.
  3. Warm fronts or cold fronts are mainly associated with tropical cyclones.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Wizius Careers answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Tropical cyclones are those which develop in the regions between the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer. They are the most devastating storms on Earth. Such cyclones develop when “thunderstorm activity starts building close to the centre of circulation, and the strongest winds and rain are no longer in a band far from the centre”. The core of the storm turns warm, and the cyclone gets most of its energy from the “latent heat” released when water vapour that has evaporated from warm ocean waters condenses into liquid water. Moreover, warm fronts or cold fronts aren’t associated with tropical cyclones.
Tropical cyclones have different names depending on their location and strength. For instance, they are known as hurricanes in the Caribbean Sea, the Gulf of Mexico, the North Atlantic Ocean and the eastern and central North Pacific Ocean. In the western North Pacific, they are called typhoons.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (Cert-In) functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. Internet protocol address (IP address) helps law enforcement agencies track down individual users and their accurate location.
  3. A virtual private network (VPN) creates several proxy identities for user’s data and delivers it safely without disturbing the content of the data.
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Utkarsh Joshi answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Indian Computer Emergency Response Team or Cert-In, a wing of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Any and all devices connected to the internet are a part of a large network of computers, servers and other devices spread across the world. To identify each device connected to the internet, service providers globally assign a unique address to each such device called the internet protocol address or IP address. It is this IP address that helps websites, law enforcement agencies and even companies track down individual users and their accurate location.
A virtual private network, when switched on, essentially creates a safe network within the larger global network of the internet and masks the IP address of the user by rerouting the data. Acting as a tunnel, a VPN takes data originating from one server and masks it in a different identity before delivering it to the destination server. In essence, a VPN creates several proxy identities for your data and delivers it safely without disturbing the content of the data.

Which of the following rules are followed while naming tropical cyclones?
  1. The name should be neutral to politics and religious believes.
  2. The name should not hurt the sentiments of any group of population over the globe.
  3. The name should be short and easy to pronounce.
  4. The maximum length of the name will be six letters.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'C' - Only three.

Explanation:
1. The name should be neutral to politics and religious beliefs:
This statement is not correct. The naming of tropical cyclones does not specifically require the names to be neutral to politics or religious beliefs. The purpose of naming cyclones is to provide a unique identification to each storm system and to facilitate effective communication among meteorologists, disaster management agencies, and the public.

2. The name should not hurt the sentiments of any group of population over the globe:
This statement is correct. While naming tropical cyclones, it is important to avoid names that may hurt the sentiments of any particular group of people. This is to ensure that the naming process is inclusive and respectful of all cultures and communities.

3. The name should be short and easy to pronounce:
This statement is correct. One of the key criteria for naming tropical cyclones is to choose names that are short and easy to pronounce. This facilitates effective communication and helps in raising awareness and preparedness among the general public.

4. The maximum length of the name will be six letters:
This statement is not correct. There is no specific maximum length for the names of tropical cyclones. In fact, the names used for tropical cyclones can vary in length, and they are often chosen from pre-determined lists maintained by various meteorological organizations.

Therefore, out of the four statements, only three are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding judicial inquiry commission.
  1. The central government can constitute a judicial inquiry commission by exercising its powers under the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952.
  2. It acts as a substitute for a criminal trial before a court of law.
  3. The government has a statutory obligation to publish the report of the commission.
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Malik answered
Explanation:

Incorrect Statements:
- The first statement is incorrect as the central government can constitute a judicial inquiry commission by exercising its powers under the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, but it is not the only way to do so. State governments can also constitute such commissions.
- The second statement is incorrect as a judicial inquiry commission does not act as a substitute for a criminal trial before a court of law. It is an independent body that investigates matters of public importance.
- The third statement is incorrect as the government does not have a statutory obligation to publish the report of the commission. The decision to publish the report is usually left to the discretion of the government.

Correct Statement:
- Only one of the options is correct, which is the first statement. The central government, as well as state governments, can constitute a judicial inquiry commission under the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Only one.

Consider the following statements regarding Computer-generated Imagery (CGI) technology.
  1. It is the process of creating and manipulating images that do not exist in the physical environment.
  2. The images can be either static or dynamic and are utilised in both 2D and 3D movies.
  3. It can be used to generate specific elements of a scene, or even a substantial portion of an entire sequence.
  4. The Baahubali series is a notable example that extensively employed CGI technology.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Pillai answered

Explanation:

Statement 1: It is the process of creating and manipulating images that do not exist in the physical environment.
- This statement is correct. CGI technology involves generating images that are not physically present, often through computer software and techniques.

Statement 2: The images can be either static or dynamic and are utilised in both 2D and 3D movies.
- This statement is correct. CGI can be used to create both static images and dynamic animations, and it is commonly used in both 2D and 3D movies to enhance visual effects.

Statement 3: It can be used to generate specific elements of a scene, or even a substantial portion of an entire sequence.
- This statement is correct. CGI technology can be used to create individual elements within a scene, such as special effects, or to generate entire sequences, such as elaborate environments or characters.

Statement 4: The Baahubali series is a notable example that extensively employed CGI technology.
- This statement is correct. The Baahubali series, a popular Indian film franchise, is known for its extensive use of CGI technology to create elaborate sets, visual effects, and larger-than-life scenes.

Therefore, all four statements regarding Computer-generated Imagery (CGI) technology are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Baliyatra.
  1. Baliyatra is one of India’s largest open-air fairs.
  2. The festival is held annually in Andhra Pradesh.
  3. The festival commemorates the old maritime and cultural links between the ancient Kalinga and Bali and other South and Southeast Asian regions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Partho Goyal answered
's largest trade fairs.
Baliyatra is held annually in the state of Odisha.
Baliyatra showcases various products including handicrafts, textiles, and food items.
Baliyatra dates back to the 13th century and has historical significance.
Baliyatra attracts tourists from all over the country and abroad.

All of the statements are true except the first one. Baliyatra is not one of India's largest trade fairs, but rather one of the largest trade fairs in the state of Odisha, India.

Consider the following pairs.
  1. Aral Sea: Central Asia
  2. Lake Gowd-e-Zareh: Egypt
  3. Dead Sea: Middle East
  4. Salton Sea: California
How many of the above pairs are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Only three pairs are correct.

Let's analyze each pair to determine their correctness:

1. Aral Sea: Central Asia
The Aral Sea is indeed located in Central Asia. It is bordered by Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan. Therefore, this pair is correct.

2. Lake Gowd-e-Zareh: Egypt
Lake Gowd-e-Zareh is not located in Egypt. This pair is incorrect. Lake Gowd-e-Zareh is actually located in Iran.

3. Dead Sea: Middle East
The Dead Sea is indeed located in the Middle East. It is bordered by Jordan to the east and Israel and Palestine to the west. Therefore, this pair is correct.

4. Salton Sea: California
The Salton Sea is indeed located in California, USA. It is the largest lake in California and is situated in the southeastern part of the state. Therefore, this pair is correct.

In conclusion, out of the four pairs mentioned, three pairs are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - Only three pairs are correct.

Which of the following are the key markers of the Gender Gap Report, 2023?
  1. economic participation and opportunity
  2. educational attainment
  3. health and survival
  4. political empowerment
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Reddy answered
The key markers of the Gender Gap Report 2023 are:
1. Economic participation and opportunity
2. Educational attainment
3. Health and survival
4. Political empowerment

The Gender Gap Report, published by the World Economic Forum (WEF), assesses gender disparities in various areas and ranks countries based on their progress towards gender equality. The report measures gender gaps across four key areas, which are mentioned above.

1. Economic participation and opportunity:
This marker assesses the extent to which women are able to actively participate in the economy and have access to economic resources and opportunities. It includes factors such as wage equality, labor force participation, and representation in leadership roles. The Gender Gap Report evaluates the gender gap in these areas and ranks countries accordingly.

2. Educational attainment:
This marker examines gender disparities in education, including access to primary, secondary, and tertiary education. It measures the literacy rate, enrollment rates, and gender parity in education. The report highlights the progress made by countries in closing the gender gap in education.

3. Health and survival:
This marker focuses on gender disparities in health outcomes and life expectancy. It considers factors such as mortality rate, access to healthcare, and reproductive health. The Gender Gap Report assesses the gender gap in health and survival and ranks countries based on their performance in this area.

4. Political empowerment:
This marker evaluates the representation of women in political leadership roles and decision-making positions. It considers factors such as the number of women in parliament, ministerial positions, and heads of state. The report assesses the gender gap in political empowerment and ranks countries based on their progress.

In summary, the Gender Gap Report, 2023, assesses gender disparities in economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment. These key markers provide a comprehensive analysis of gender inequality and help in identifying areas where progress is needed.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Ethnoveterinary medicine (EVM) involves the use of Antibiotics in treating diseases of cattle.
  2. Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) accelerates due to the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials in human health, animal health, aquaculture and crop production.
  3. Waste from farms, factories, community and healthcare settings contributes to the emergence and spread of Antimicrobial resistance through environmental routes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Ethnoveterinary medicine (EVM) involves the use of traditional / herbal preparations in treating diseases of cattle.
  • Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is a One Health issue. It accelerates due to the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials in human health, animal health, food-animal production, aquaculture and crop production.
  • Waste from farms, factories, community and healthcare settings contributes to the emergence and spread of AMR through environmental routes.
  • Prevention implies the adoption of strategies and approaches that can reduce the need for antimicrobials. For example, in human health sector, better sanitation, access to clean water and appropriate hand hygiene can reduce chances of infection and need for antimicrobials.
  • Similarly, better biosecurity, timely vaccinations, use of alternatives and appropriate waste management can prevent infectious diseases in food-animal production systems.

Brahmaputra River is often flooded in India, but not in Tibet. What could be the possible reasons for it?
  1. In Tibet the river carries a smaller volume of water and less silt as it is a cold and a dry area.
  2. Unlike other north Indian rivers, Brahmaputra is marked by huge deposits of silt on its bed causing the river bed to rise.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sameer Desai answered
Reasons for the flooding of the Brahmaputra River in India, but not in Tibet:

There are two main reasons for the flooding of the Brahmaputra River in India, while it remains relatively unaffected in Tibet:

1. Volume of water and silt:
- In Tibet, the Brahmaputra River carries a smaller volume of water and less silt. This is because Tibet is a cold and dry area, with less rainfall and snowmelt compared to the downstream areas in India. As a result, the river in Tibet has a lower flow rate and carries less sediment.
- In contrast, the river accumulates a significant amount of water and sediment as it flows through the Indian states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, and Bangladesh. The heavy monsoon rains in these regions, combined with the melting of snow from the Himalayas, contribute to a much larger volume of water and silt being carried by the river.

2. Deposits of silt:
- The Brahmaputra River in India is marked by huge deposits of silt on its bed. Over time, the continuous deposition of silt causes the river bed to rise, reducing its capacity to hold water. This leads to frequent flooding during periods of heavy rainfall or snowmelt.
- In Tibet, however, the smaller volume of water and silt prevents significant accumulation of sediment on the river bed. As a result, the river in Tibet maintains a relatively stable channel capacity, reducing the likelihood of flooding.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, the Brahmaputra River experiences frequent flooding in India but not in Tibet due to the higher volume of water and silt carried by the river in India, as well as the deposition of silt on its bed. The differences in climate, rainfall, and topography between Tibet and the downstream regions contribute to these variations in the behavior of the river.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Superbugs are bacteria that are resistant to several types of antibiotics.
  2. Acinetobacter baumannii is a bacterium that can cause pneumonia, meningitis and infect wounds.
  3. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria changes its response to the use of Antibiotics.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • Superbugs are bacteria that are resistant to several types of antibiotics. 
  • In 2017, the bacterium was identified by the World Health Organization (WHO) as one of the world’s most dangerous antibiotic-resistant bacteria. “Notoriously difficult to eradicate, A. baumannii can cause pneumonia, meningitis and infect wounds, all of which can lead to death. A. baumanni is usually found in hospital settings, where it can survive on surfaces for long periods.
  • The WHO’s list of superbugs highlighted bacteria that are having built-in abilities to find new ways to resist treatment and can pass along genetic material that allows other bacteria to become drug-resistant as well.
  • Antibiotics are medicines used to prevent and treat bacterial infections. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria change in response to the use of these medicines, says the WHO. This ultimately threatens the ability of medicines to treat common infectious diseases.

Consider the following statements regarding Measles.
  1. Measles is a highly contagious bacterial disease which affects mostly children.
  2. Measles spreads by coughing and sneezing, close personal contact or direct contact with infected nasal or throat secretions.
  3. There is no specific treatment for measles but there is a vaccine to stay protected from the disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Muskaan Mehta answered
The correct answer is option 'b) Only two'.

Explanation:
Let's evaluate each statement one by one:

1. Measles is a highly contagious bacterial disease which affects mostly children.
This statement is incorrect. Measles is not caused by bacteria; it is actually a viral infection. The measles virus belongs to the paramyxovirus family. It primarily affects children, but it can also affect people of any age who have not been vaccinated or previously infected.

2. Measles spreads by coughing and sneezing, close personal contact, or direct contact with infected nasal or throat secretions.
This statement is correct. Measles is highly contagious and spreads through respiratory droplets. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, the virus can be released into the air and inhaled by others nearby. The virus can also spread by direct contact with infected nasal or throat secretions through sharing utensils, kissing, or touching contaminated surfaces.

3. There is no specific treatment for measles, but there is a vaccine to stay protected from the disease.
This statement is correct. There is no specific antiviral treatment for measles. Most cases of measles are managed with supportive care, such as rest, fluids, and fever-reducing medication. However, the best way to prevent measles is through vaccination. The measles vaccine, often given in combination with mumps and rubella vaccines (MMR vaccine), provides long-lasting protection against the disease.

In summary, statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'b) Only two'.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Weeds are undesirable plants that compete with crops for nutrients, water and sunlight.
  2. Glyphosate is non-selective herbicide, killing most plants coming into contact with it.
  3. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, has banned the use of glyphosate in India, owing to the health hazards and risk to human beings and animals.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statements Analysis:

Weeds competition with crops:
- The statement is correct. Weeds are unwanted plants that can hinder the growth of crops by competing for essential resources like nutrients, water, and sunlight.

Glyphosate as a non-selective herbicide:
- This statement is also correct. Glyphosate is a broad-spectrum herbicide that kills most plants it comes into contact with, regardless of whether they are weeds or desired plants.

Ministry of Agriculture's ban on glyphosate:
- This statement is incorrect. As of now, the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare in India has not banned the use of glyphosate. However, there have been discussions and debates about the potential health hazards and risks associated with the use of glyphosate.
Therefore, only the first two statements are correct.

Correct Answer Explanation:
- Option B, "Only two," is the correct answer because only the first two statements are accurate. The third statement about the ban on glyphosate in India is incorrect.
In conclusion, understanding the nature of weeds, the characteristics of glyphosate, and the current regulatory status of glyphosate in India is essential for effective agricultural practices and environmental management.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The physical temperature of an object determines the wavelength of the radiation it emits.
  2. The hotter the object, the longer the wavelength of peak emission.
  3. X-rays come from pulsars, galactic supernova remnants, and black holes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Saha answered
Explanation:

- Statement 1: The physical temperature of an object determines the wavelength of the radiation it emits.
This statement is correct. According to Wien's displacement law, the wavelength of the peak emission of radiation from a black body is inversely proportional to its temperature. As the temperature of an object increases, the wavelength of the radiation it emits decreases.

- Statement 2: The hotter the object, the longer the wavelength of peak emission.
This statement is incorrect. The hotter the object, the shorter the wavelength of peak emission. As mentioned earlier, according to Wien's displacement law, the wavelength of peak emission decreases as the temperature increases.

- Statement 3: X-rays come from pulsars, galactic supernova remnants, and black holes.
This statement is incorrect. X-rays are not limited to only these sources. X-rays are produced by a variety of astronomical objects and phenomena, including supernova explosions, active galactic nuclei, neutron stars, and accretion disks around black holes. They can also be generated in laboratories and medical facilities.

Therefore, out of the three statements, only statement 1 is correct. The physical temperature of an object determines the wavelength of the radiation it emits.

Consider the following statements regarding Foucault’s Pendulum.
  1. Foucault’s Pendulum provides direct visual evidence that the earth rotates on its axis.
  2. Foucault’s pendulum at the equator would not show any deviation from its original course.
  3. It has been installed for the first time in the world in India’s new Parliament building.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Malik answered
1. Foucault was a French philosopher and social theorist who is known for his work on power, knowledge, and discourse.

2. Foucault believed that power is not just a repressive force, but also operates through discourses and knowledge systems.

3. Foucault's concept of "panopticism" refers to a form of power where individuals are constantly being watched and monitored, leading to self-surveillance and conformity.

4. Foucault argued that knowledge is not objective or universal, but is shaped by social and historical contexts.

5. Foucault's work has been influential in various fields, including sociology, philosophy, and cultural studies.

6. Foucault's ideas have been criticized for being overly pessimistic and lacking a clear political agenda.

7. Foucault's later work focused on the relationship between power and subjectivity, exploring how individuals are shaped and controlled by power structures.

8. Foucault's work has been accused of being overly abstract and lacking empirical evidence.

9. Foucault's ideas have been used to analyze various social institutions, such as prisons, hospitals, and schools, revealing how power operates within these institutions.

10. Foucault's work has been influential in postmodern and poststructuralist thought, challenging traditional notions of truth and objectivity.

Consider the following statements regarding None Of The Above (NOTA) provision in EVMs in India.
  1. It was introduced according to the directions of Election Commission of India.
  2. ‘NOTA’ option enable the electors to exercise their right to reject without violation of the secrecy of their decision.
  3. The right to say “none of the above” constituted a basic right of the voters.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Prerna Rane answered
The first statement is incorrect. The NOTA provision in EVMs in India was not introduced according to the directions of the Election Commission of India. It was introduced by the Supreme Court of India in September 2013. The court ruled that voters should have the right to reject all candidates if they do not find any of them suitable. The Election Commission of India then implemented the NOTA option in EVMs to comply with the court's directive.

Consider the following statements regarding polygraph tests.
  1. Rather than injecting drugs into the body, polygraph tests measure pulse rate, respiration, change in sweat gland activity and blood flow of the accused.
  2. The Supreme Court has held that no lie detector tests should be administered “except on the basis of consent of the accused”.
  3. National Human Rights Commission has provided Guidelines for the Administration of Polygraph Test on an Accused.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
  • A polygraph test is carried out on the assumption that physiological responses triggered when one is lying are different from what they otherwise would be. Rather than injecting drugs into the body, polygraph tests attach instruments like cardio-cuffs or sensitive electrodes to the suspect and measure variables such as blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration, change in sweat gland activity, blood flow, etc., while the suspect is being questioned.
  • In the 2010 Supreme Court ruling in “Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr” (2010), a Bench of the then Chief Justice of India KG Balakrishnan, and Justices RV Raveendran and JM Panchal held that no lie detector tests should be administered “except on the basis of consent of the accused”. Those who volunteer must have access to a lawyer and have the physical, emotional, and legal implications of the test explained to them by the police and the lawyer.
  • The court emphasised that the ‘Guidelines for the Administration of Polygraph Test on an Accused’, published by the National Human Rights Commission in 2000, must be strictly followed.

Consider the following statements regarding Cost to Company (CTC).
  1. Cost to Company (CTC) is a company’s spending on hiring and sustaining the services of an employee.
  2. Usually the take-home salary of an employee will be higher than the CTC.
  3. CTC is lower for contract employment when compared to permanent employment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Cost to company (CTC) indicates the total amount of expenses a company (organisation) spends on an employee during one year. It is calculated by adding salary to the cost of all additional benefits an employee receives during the service period.
  • To put it in simpler terms, CTC is a company’s spending on hiring and sustaining the services of an employee.
  • The CTC can include many elements in addition to salary/wages, such as health care, pension and allowances for housing, travel and entertainment.
  • Apparently, the cost to the company (CTC) is lower for contract employment when compared to permanent employment.

Champions of the Earth award, that recognizes outstanding environmental leaders from the public and private sectors was established by
  • a)
    International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
  • b)
    Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
  • c)
    Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
  • d)
    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Champions of the Earth Award: Recognizing Environmental Leaders

The Champions of the Earth award is an esteemed recognition that celebrates outstanding environmental leaders from both the public and private sectors. This award acknowledges their significant contributions towards environmental conservation and sustainable development. The award was established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in order to promote and honor exceptional individuals who have demonstrated exceptional leadership and innovation in environmental stewardship.

Establishment by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

The correct answer to the question is option 'D', which states that the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) established the Champions of the Earth award. UNEP is a specialized agency of the United Nations that focuses on environmental issues and sustainable development. It works towards promoting global environmental cooperation and supporting member countries in addressing environmental challenges. The establishment of this prestigious award by UNEP reflects its commitment to recognizing and highlighting the efforts of individuals who have made a significant impact in protecting and preserving the environment.

Objective of the Champions of the Earth Award

The main objective of the Champions of the Earth award is to acknowledge and honor individuals who have shown exceptional leadership and made a remarkable impact in environmental conservation and sustainable development. The award aims to raise awareness about environmental issues and inspire others to take action in their respective fields. By celebrating these environmental leaders, the Champions of the Earth award aims to encourage and motivate individuals, organizations, and governments to adopt sustainable practices and work towards a more sustainable future.

Selection Process and Criteria

The Champions of the Earth award recipients are selected through a rigorous evaluation process. The selection criteria include:

1. Leadership and Vision: The awardees must demonstrate exceptional leadership and vision in addressing environmental challenges.

2. Impact and Innovation: The awardees should have made a significant impact through their innovative approaches and solutions.

3. Scalability and Replicability: The initiatives or actions undertaken by the awardees should have the potential to be scaled up or replicated in other contexts.

4. Long-term Sustainability: The awardees' contributions should be sustainable in the long run and contribute to the achievement of environmental goals.

5. Transformational Change: The awardees' actions should have led to transformative changes in policies, practices, or attitudes towards environmental conservation.

Conclusion

The Champions of the Earth award, established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), recognizes exceptional environmental leaders from the public and private sectors. Through this award, UNEP aims to celebrate and highlight their outstanding contributions, inspire others to take action, and promote sustainable development worldwide.

Which of the following is the longest-serving paramilitary force in India? 
  • a)
    Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) 
  • b)
    Border Security Force (BSF) 
  • c)
    Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) 
  • d)
    Assam Rifles
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aarya Mehta answered
The correct answer is option 'D', Assam Rifles.

Assam Rifles is the longest-serving paramilitary force in India. It is one of the oldest paramilitary forces in the country and has a rich history that dates back to 1835. Let's delve into the details to understand why Assam Rifles holds this distinction.

**The History of Assam Rifles:**
- Assam Rifles was initially formed as a paramilitary force called the 'Cachar Levy' in 1835 to maintain peace and security in the Northeast region of India.
- Over the years, the force underwent several name changes and reorganizations, finally being renamed as 'Assam Rifles' in 1917.
- Since its formation, Assam Rifles has played a crucial role in maintaining law and order in the region, combating insurgency, and securing the borders.

**Role and Responsibilities:**
- Assam Rifles is primarily responsible for guarding the Indo-Myanmar border, which stretches across the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland, and Mizoram.
- The force also plays a significant role in counterinsurgency operations in the Northeast, where it assists the local police and other security forces in maintaining peace and combating insurgent groups.
- Assam Rifles is also involved in various civic action programs, providing assistance to the local population in areas such as education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and skill development.

**Structure and Organization:**
- Assam Rifles is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and is considered a Central Armed Police Force (CAPF).
- The force is headed by a Director General (DG) and is organized into multiple battalions stationed in different locations across the Northeast region.
- The force has its headquarters in Shillong, Meghalaya, and is responsible for maintaining coordination and operational readiness.

**Legacy and Contributions:**
- Assam Rifles has a long-standing legacy of valor and sacrifice, with its personnel receiving numerous gallantry awards for their bravery in the line of duty.
- The force has been instrumental in maintaining peace and security in the Northeast region, which is known for its challenging terrain and the presence of various insurgent groups.
- Assam Rifles has played a crucial role in strengthening the security of India's borders with Myanmar, ensuring the integrity and sovereignty of the nation.

In conclusion, Assam Rifles is the longest-serving paramilitary force in India. With its rich history, vital role in maintaining peace and security, and significant contributions to the nation, it holds a special place among India's paramilitary forces.

Consider the following statements regarding Biological Diversity Heritage Sites (BHSs).
  1. Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having rich biodiversity comprising species richness, high endemism, presence of rare, endemic and threatened species.
  2. A site is declared as Biological Diversity Heritage Site as per the provisions of Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
  3. The Central Government in consultation with State Governments declare Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
  4. BHS declaration marks the voluntary participation of communities in protection and conservation of biodiversity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirban Datta answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'c' i.e. Only three statements are correct.

Let's analyze each statement one by one:

Statement 1: Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having rich biodiversity comprising species richness, high endemism, presence of rare, endemic and threatened species.

This statement is correct. Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are areas that are unique and ecologically fragile ecosystems. They have a rich biodiversity which includes species richness, high endemism (species found only in specific areas), and the presence of rare, endemic, and threatened species. These sites are important for the conservation of biodiversity.

Statement 2: A site is declared as Biological Diversity Heritage Site as per the provisions of Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

This statement is incorrect. A site is not declared as Biological Diversity Heritage Site as per the provisions of Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The correct name of the act is the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are declared as per the provisions of the Biological Diversity Rules, 2004.

Statement 3: The Central Government in consultation with State Governments declare Biodiversity Heritage Sites.

This statement is correct. Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are declared by the Central Government in consultation with the State Governments. The process of declaration involves identifying and assessing the ecological importance of the site, consultation with local communities, and obtaining their consent.

Statement 4: BHS declaration marks the voluntary participation of communities in the protection and conservation of biodiversity.

This statement is incorrect. Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) declaration does not necessarily mark the voluntary participation of communities in the protection and conservation of biodiversity. While the involvement of local communities is encouraged, it is not mandatory for the declaration of a BHS.

In conclusion, only three statements are correct regarding Biological Diversity Heritage Sites (BHS). These include statement 1, statement 3, and statement 4.

Consider the following statements regarding the onset of monsoon in India.
  1. The onset of the monsoon marks a significant transition in the large-scale atmospheric and ocean circulations in the Indo-Pacific region.
  2. The onset mean the first rain of the season in India.
  3. For determining the onset of monsoon, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) looks at the consistency of rainfall over a defined geography, the intensity of the rainfall, and the wind speed.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Shah answered
Correct Answer: B



Explanation:

Statement Analysis:
  • Statement 1: The onset of the monsoon marks a significant transition in the large-scale atmospheric and ocean circulations in the Indo-Pacific region. - This statement is correct as the monsoon onset indeed signifies a shift in weather patterns in the region.
  • Statement 2: The onset means the first rain of the season in India. - This statement is incorrect as the onset of monsoon is not just about the first rain but a broader weather phenomenon.
  • Statement 3: For determining the onset of monsoon, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) looks at the consistency of rainfall over a defined geography, the intensity of the rainfall, and the wind speed. - This statement is correct as IMD uses multiple factors to determine the onset of monsoon in India.


Therefore, only statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, making the correct answer option B.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Access to justice for the weaker sections of the society is a constitutional mandate to ensure fair treatment under Indian legal system.
  2. Equal justice and free legal aid is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under the Indian Constitution.
  3. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted by Parliament to organise Lok Adalats outside the formal adjudicatory system, to address the problems of crowded cases.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Joshi answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - All three statements are correct.

Explanation:

Access to justice for the weaker sections of society is indeed a constitutional mandate in India. The Indian legal system aims to ensure fair treatment to all individuals, regardless of their socio-economic background. This principle is enshrined in Article 39A of the Indian Constitution, which states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity.

Equal justice and free legal aid are also part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under the Indian Constitution. DPSPs are the guidelines given to the government to achieve social and economic democracy in the country. Article 39A specifically mentions that the State shall provide free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities.

The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted by Parliament to organize Lok Adalats outside the formal adjudicatory system. Lok Adalats are alternative dispute resolution mechanisms where disputes are settled amicably and speedily. These adalats aim to provide quick and affordable justice, especially to the marginalized sections of society who cannot afford the expenses associated with traditional court proceedings. The Act was passed to address the problem of overcrowded cases in the formal judicial system and to provide access to justice for all.

To summarize:
- Access to justice for the weaker sections of society is a constitutional mandate under Indian law.
- Equal justice and free legal aid are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted to organize Lok Adalats and address the problem of crowded cases.

Hence, all three statements are correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Tur is a long-duration crop and requires more irrigation than cotton crop.
  2. Tur has deep taproot system that allows the plant to draw moisture from the soil better than cotton.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Kumar answered
Given its long duration and being a relatively water-intensive crop, cotton needs a minimum of 5-6 irrigations, especially during the flowering, bud and boll formation stages. “Tur is also a long-duration crop, but doesn’t need more than 2-3 irrigations. The crop’s deep taproot system allows its plants to draw moisture from the soil better than cotton.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The practice of sealed cover that can be perused by the judge can be accepted only by the Supreme Court and not by the lower courts, for seeking information from government agencies.
  2. The information is asked in a sealed cover when disclosure of information linked to an ongoing investigation could impede the investigation, and the disclosure of personal or confidential information could violate an individual’s privacy or result in breach of trust.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

  • It is the practice followed by the Supreme Court (and sometimes lower courts as well) of seeking and accepting information from government agencies in sealed envelopes that can only be perused by the judges.
  • In broadly two circumstances: when information is connected to an ongoing investigation, and when it involves personal or confidential information. The logic is that disclosure of information linked to an ongoing investigation could impede the investigation, and the disclosure of personal or confidential information could violate an individual’s privacy or result in breach of trust.

Consider the following statements regarding Critical Minerals Partnership.
  1. It has been established to accelerate the development of diverse and sustainable critical energy minerals supply chains globally.
  2. It has been led by United States.
  3. India has become the newest partner.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavana Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - All three statements are correct.

Explanation:
- The Critical Minerals Partnership (CMP) has indeed been established to accelerate the development of diverse and sustainable critical energy minerals supply chains globally. The CMP aims to strengthen cooperation among countries in the areas of critical minerals research, development, and supply chain management. It seeks to promote sustainable and responsible mining practices, enhance resource security, and support the transition to clean energy technologies.
- The CMP is led by the United States. The United States has been actively involved in promoting the development of critical minerals supply chains and has taken a leadership role in addressing the challenges associated with the global demand for these minerals.
- India has recently become the newest partner of the Critical Minerals Partnership. India's participation in the partnership is significant as it is one of the fastest-growing economies and has a growing demand for critical minerals. India's inclusion in the partnership will help strengthen global cooperation in the development of critical minerals supply chains and ensure the availability of these minerals for various industries, including clean energy technologies.

In summary, the Critical Minerals Partnership has been established to accelerate the development of critical energy minerals supply chains globally. It is led by the United States, and India has recently joined as the newest partner.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) covers children up to sixteen years of age.
  2. A country is declared measles-rubella (MR) eliminated if there is zero transmission of measles and rubella viruses, evidenced by zero clinical disease, sustained over three years.
  3. The measles-rubella virus is transmitted only in children and does not get transmitted in adolescents.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • Only statement 2 is correct.
  • Universal (childhood) Immunisation Programme (UIP) covers only those up to five years.
  • MR elimination is defined as zero transmission of measles and rubella viruses, evidenced by zero clinical disease, sustained over three years.
  • The rubella virus is a slower transmitter and the risk of rubella is extended from childhood through adolescence into the reproductive age range.

Bank balance sheets may become healthier due to
  1. Central bank’s asset quality reviews
  2. Mandates for stressed assets recognition and write-offs by commercial banks
  3. Loan recoveries under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Bank balance sheets have become healthier over the past few years thanks to the central bank’s asset quality reviews, mandates for stressed assets recognition and write-offs by commercial banks, as well as loan recoveries under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. 

Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
  1. The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a non-statutory body that works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Law and Justice.
  2. The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India.
  3. It examine all factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children affected by terrorism, communal violence, natural disaster and domestic violence and recommend appropriate remedial measures.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the rights of children under the Constitution of India and other laws relating to children. The NCPCR has the power to inquire into complaints and take suo moto action in cases of violation of child rights. The Commission also undertakes research, studies, and advocacy to promote child rights and welfare. The NCPCR submits annual reports to the central government on the state of child rights in the country. The Commission has the authority to recommend measures for the effective implementation of child rights and protection laws.

In India, which of the following agencies are involved in food grain management?
  1. Food Corporation of India (FCI)
  2. Central Warehouse Corporation
  3. Warehouse Development Regulatory Authority
  4. Railways
  5. Civil supply departments of states
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'D', which means all five options mentioned are correct. Let's discuss each agency's role in food grain management in India:

1. Food Corporation of India (FCI):
The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the principal agency responsible for the procurement, storage, and distribution of food grains in India. It operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. FCI plays a crucial role in maintaining food security and price stabilization in the country.

2. Central Warehouse Corporation:
The Central Warehouse Corporation (CWC) is a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. It provides scientific storage facilities for agricultural produce, including food grains, through its network of warehouses across the country. CWC ensures the safe storage and preservation of food grains to prevent spoilage and damage.

3. Warehouse Development Regulatory Authority:
The Warehouse Development Regulatory Authority (WDRA) is an autonomous regulatory body established under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007. WDRA regulates and promotes the development of scientific warehousing, including the storage of food grains. It ensures the quality, quantity, and safety of stored goods and protects the interests of farmers and other stakeholders.

4. Railways:
The Indian Railways plays a significant role in the transportation of food grains across the country. It has dedicated freight corridors and special trains for the efficient movement of food grains from surplus regions to deficit regions. Railways help in reducing transportation costs and ensuring timely delivery of food grains.

5. Civil supply departments of states:
Each state in India has a Civil Supply Department responsible for the distribution of essential commodities, including food grains, at the grassroots level. These departments collaborate with central agencies like FCI and state-level agencies for the procurement, storage, and distribution of food grains. They implement various welfare schemes and ensure that food grains reach the intended beneficiaries.

In conclusion, all five agencies - Food Corporation of India (FCI), Central Warehouse Corporation, Warehouse Development Regulatory Authority, Railways, and Civil supply departments of states - are involved in food grain management in India, playing a crucial role in procurement, storage, transportation, and distribution to ensure food security and price stability in the country.

To revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework in India, RBI choses to target retail inflation because
  1. Wholesale inflation does not generally reflect price movements in all wholesale markets.
  2. Wholesale inflation does not capture price movements in non-commodity producing sectors like services, which constitute close to two-thirds of economic activity in India.
  3. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) often reflect large external shocks and as such, the wholesale inflation rate is often subject to large revisions.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Utkarsh Joshi answered
  • In January 2014, an expert committee of the RBI submitted its report on the ways to revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework in India, it chose to target retail inflation.
  • Firstly, the committee pointed out that wholesale inflation “does not capture price movements in non-commodity producing sectors like services, which constitute close to two-thirds of economic activity in India”. This corresponds to the point made earlier about how WPI and CPI are different.
  • Secondly, it pointed out that wholesale inflation “does not generally reflect price movements in all wholesale markets”. This happens because price quotations for some important commodities such as milk, LPG etc. are taken from retail markets.
  • Thirdly, movements in WPI often reflect large external shocks and as such, the wholesale inflation rate is often subject to large revisions.

Consider the following statements regarding Chikungunya.
  1. Chikungunya was first discovered in Tanzania in the 1950s.
  2. Tropical regions currently see the highest rates of the chikungunya virus.
  3. Asian tiger mosquito also transmits the chikungunya virus.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Malik answered
Correct Statements about Chikungunya:

1. Chikungunya was first discovered in Tanzania in the 1950s:
This statement is correct. Chikungunya was first identified during an outbreak in southern Tanzania in 1952.

2. Tropical regions currently see the highest rates of the chikungunya virus:
This statement is correct. Chikungunya is most commonly found in tropical regions where the Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes, which transmit the virus, thrive.

3. Asian tiger mosquito also transmits the chikungunya virus:
This statement is correct. In addition to Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes, the Asian tiger mosquito (Aedes albopictus) is also known to transmit the chikungunya virus.
Therefore, all three statements are correct. Chikungunya is a viral disease that is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. It causes symptoms such as fever, joint pain, muscle aches, headache, and rash. It is important to take preventive measures to avoid mosquito bites in areas where chikungunya is prevalent.

Both India and United States are party to which of the following?
  1. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue
  2. I2U2 grouping
  3. Chip 4 alliance
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Kumar answered
  • Quadrilateral Security Dialogue gained strategic heft after the four-country grouping, which has Australia and Japan alongside India and the US, was repurposed in 2017, primarily as a counter to China’s growing influence in the Indian Ocean rim, and as a forum for redoubling focus on the Indo-Pacific region.
  • The I2U2, a grouping of India, Israel, the US and the United Arab Emirates, is focused on joint investments and new initiatives in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.
  • The US is already pursuing the ‘Chip 4’ alliance initiative with three other top semiconductor makers, Taiwan, Japan, and South Korea.

Consider the following statements regarding CIBIL score.
  1. CIBIL score is a 3-digit numeric summary of one’s credit history, that ranges from 100to 900.
  2. It involves credit history across loan types and credit institutions over a period of time.
  3. CIBIL score is provided by the Credit Information Bureau (India) Ltd., which is authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anmol Banerjee answered
's credit history and creditworthiness.
CIBIL score ranges from 300 to 900, with higher scores indicating better creditworthiness.
A good CIBIL score is important to avail loans and credit cards at favorable terms and interest rates.
CIBIL score is calculated based on factors such as credit utilization, payment history, credit mix, and credit inquiries.
Lenders use CIBIL score as a key factor in deciding whether to approve a loan application or not.
Regularly monitoring and maintaining a good CIBIL score can help individuals achieve financial goals and access credit when needed.

Typically, GDP is calculated by adding up all expenditures in the economy. Arrange the following components in the decreasing order in terms of their contribution to India’s annual GDP.
  1. Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE).
  2. Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE)
  3. Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)
  4. Net exports
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1-2-3-4 
  • b)
    3-1-2-4 
  • c)
    1-3-2-4 
  • d)
    1-3-4-2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Ahuja answered
's GDP:

1. Consumption expenditure by households
2. Gross fixed capital formation (investment)
3. Government expenditure on goods and services
4. Net exports (exports minus imports)

The correct order is:

1. Consumption expenditure by households
2. Gross fixed capital formation (investment)
3. Government expenditure on goods and services
4. Net exports (exports minus imports)

Banjul formula is related to 
  • a)
    G20 Forum 
  • b)
    ASEAN 
  • c)
    African Union (AU) 
  • d)
    BIMSTEC
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Charvi Yadav answered
Banjul formula is related to the African Union (AU).

Explanation:
- The Banjul formula refers to the method used to calculate the voting weight of member states in the African Union (AU).
- It is named after the capital city of The Gambia, Banjul, where the formula was agreed upon during the AU Summit in 2006.
- The Banjul formula takes into account three factors: population size, GDP, and financial contributions to the AU budget.
- The formula aims to provide a fair and equitable representation of member states in decision-making processes within the AU.
- The voting weight of each member state is determined by a combination of these factors, with larger populations, higher GDPs, and greater financial contributions resulting in higher voting weights.
- This formula ensures that member states with larger populations and stronger economies have a greater say in AU decisions.
- The Banjul formula is an improvement over the previous method of voting weight calculation, which was solely based on the principle of "one country, one vote."
- By taking into account population size, GDP, and financial contributions, the Banjul formula seeks to reflect the economic and demographic realities of African countries.
- This formula promotes inclusivity and fairness in decision-making processes within the AU, allowing for a more balanced representation of member states.
- The Banjul formula is significant in promoting cooperation and consensus-building among African nations and enhancing the effectiveness and legitimacy of the AU's decision-making structures.
- It plays a crucial role in shaping the policies and initiatives of the African Union, helping to address the diverse needs and interests of its member states.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of External Aids on Indian economy.
  1. It brings in foreign currency that is useful to bridge the Balance of payments (BoP) deficit.
  2. It causes crowding out effect in the domestic market, which is not favourable to the domestic borrowers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Explanation:
External aids, such as foreign loans or grants, can have both positive and negative impacts on the Indian economy. Let's analyze each statement separately to understand their correctness:

1. It brings in foreign currency that is useful to bridge the Balance of payments (BoP) deficit.
External aids, in the form of grants or loans, bring in foreign currency to the Indian economy. This foreign currency can be used to bridge the Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit. The BoP deficit occurs when a country's imports exceed its exports and there is a net outflow of currency. By receiving external aids, India can increase its foreign reserves and address the deficit. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

2. It causes crowding out effect in the domestic market, which is not favorable to the domestic borrowers.
The crowding out effect refers to a situation where increased government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, reducing private investment and borrowing. When the Indian government receives external aids, it may result in increased government borrowing. This can lead to higher interest rates in the domestic market, making it more expensive for domestic borrowers to access loans. As a result, private investment and borrowing may be discouraged. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In summary, statement 1 is correct as external aids bring in foreign currency that can be used to bridge the BoP deficit. However, statement 2 is incorrect as external aids do not cause a crowding out effect in the domestic market.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Under old pension scheme (OPS), the contribution of the current generation of workers was explicitly used to pay the pensions of existing pensioners.
  2. National Pension Scheme(NPS) is a contributory pension scheme under which employees contribute 14 per cent of their salary.
  3. NPS is mandatory for central government employees joining services on or after January 1, 2004.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • An old pension scheme (OPS), commonly known as the PAYG scheme, is defined as an unfunded pension scheme where current revenues fund pension benefits. Under this scheme, the contribution of the current generation of workers was explicitly used to pay the pensions of existing pensioners. OPS involved a direct transfer of resources from the current generation of taxpayers to fund the pensioners.
  • NPS is a defined contribution pension scheme. NPS enables an individual to undertake retirement planning while in employment. With systematic savings and investments,
  • NPS facilitates the accumulation of a pension corpus during their working life. NPS is designed to deliver a sustainable solution of having adequate retirement income in old age or upon superannuation.
  • The current National Pension Scheme requires employees to contribute 10% of their basic salary and the government 14%. The eventual payout depends on the market returns on that corpus, which is mostly invested in federal debt.
  • In contrast, the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) guarantees a fixed pension of 50% of an employee’s last drawn salary, without requiring them to contribute anything during their working life.
  • NPS is mandatory for central government employees joining services on or after January 1, 2004, and almost all state governments have adopted it for their employees. NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).

Consider the following statements regarding Wholesale inflation.
  1. Wholesale inflation does not capture price movements in non-commodity producing sectors like services, which constitute close to two-thirds of economic activity in India.
  2. Wholesale inflation does not generally reflect price movements in all wholesale markets.
  3. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) often reflect large external shocks and as such, the wholesale inflation rate is often subject to large revisions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Wholesale inflation “does not capture price movements in non-commodity producing sectors like services, which constitute close to two-thirds of economic activity in India”.
  • Wholesale inflation “does not generally reflect price movements in all wholesale markets”. This happens because price quotations for some important commodities such as milk, LPG etc. are taken from retail markets.
  • Movements in WPI often reflect large external shocks and as such, the wholesale inflation rate is often subject to large revisions.

Bangkok vision 2030, recently seen in news is related to
  • a)
    Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
  • b)
    East Asia Summit (EAS)
  • c)
    Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Uday Chawla answered
Bangkok Vision 2030 is a strategic framework that was recently discussed in the news. It is related to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC).

BIMSTEC is a regional organization comprising of seven member states in South Asia and Southeast Asia. These member states are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. The main objective of BIMSTEC is to promote economic cooperation, connectivity, and integration among its member countries.

Bangkok Vision 2030 is a strategic roadmap adopted by BIMSTEC member states during the 4th BIMSTEC Summit held in Bangkok, Thailand in August 2018. The vision outlines the collective aspirations and goals of the member states for the next decade, with a focus on sustainable development and regional integration.

Key Points of Bangkok Vision 2030:

1. Sustainable Development: The vision emphasizes the importance of sustainable development as a key priority for the member states. It aims to promote inclusive and sustainable economic growth, reduce poverty, and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by the United Nations.

2. Connectivity: Enhancing connectivity within the BIMSTEC region is another important aspect of the vision. This includes improving physical connectivity through the development of transportation infrastructure, such as roads, railways, ports, and airports. It also emphasizes the need for digital connectivity to enhance trade, investment, and people-to-people connectivity.

3. Trade and Investment: The vision aims to promote trade and investment among the member states by reducing trade barriers, harmonizing customs procedures, and facilitating cross-border investment. It also encourages the establishment of a BIMSTEC Free Trade Area to further enhance economic integration.

4. People-to-People Connectivity: Bangkok Vision 2030 recognizes the importance of fostering people-to-people connectivity among the member states. This includes promoting cultural exchanges, tourism, educational cooperation, and cooperation in the fields of science, technology, and innovation.

5. Security Cooperation: The vision also emphasizes the need for enhanced security cooperation among the member states to address common challenges such as terrorism, transnational organized crime, and natural disasters. It calls for greater collaboration in areas such as counter-terrorism, maritime security, and disaster management.

In conclusion, Bangkok Vision 2030 is a strategic roadmap adopted by BIMSTEC member states to promote sustainable development, connectivity, and regional integration. It sets out the collective aspirations and goals of the member states for the next decade, focusing on various aspects such as sustainable development, connectivity, trade and investment, people-to-people connectivity, and security cooperation.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Volcanoes occur only when tectonic plates either move away from each other or where one pushes beneath another.
  2. Mantle is not made of uniform rock, and differences in the type of mantle rock make it melt at different temperatures.
  3. Both oceanic magma and continental magma have same chemical composition, but vary in explosion depending on magma chambers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • Only statement 2 is correct.
  • Earth’s crust is made up of tectonic plates that are slowly moving, at about the same speed as a fingernail grows. Volcanoes typically occur where these plates either move away from each other or where one pushes beneath another. But volcanoes can also be in the middle of plates, as Hawaii’s volcanoes are in the Pacific Plate.
  • The crust and mantle that comprise the Pacific Plate cracks at different places as it moves northwestward. Beneath Hawaii, magma can move upward through the cracks to feed different volcanoes on the surface. The same thing happens at Haleakala, on Maui, which last erupted about 250 years ago.
  • Scientists hypothesize that the mantle is not made of uniform rock. Instead, differences in the type of mantle rock make it melt at different temperatures. Mantle rock is solid at some places, while it starts to melt at other places.
  • Hawaii is in the middle of an oceanic plate. In fact, it is the most isolated volcanic hot spot on Earth, far away from any plate boundary.
  • Oceanic magma is very different from continental magma. It has a different chemical composition and flows much more easily. So, the magma is less prone to clog volcanic vents on its ascent, which would ultimately lead to more explosive volcanism.

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