All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding the High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS):
  1. It is a light multiple rocket launcher.
  2. It fires GPS-guided missiles which can be more accurately targeted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS) is a light multiple rocket launcher system developed by the United States. It is designed for rapid deployment and high mobility, allowing it to be easily transported and quickly positioned for firing. HIMARS is mounted on a wheeled chassis, providing increased maneuverability compared to traditional tracked rocket launchers.

Statement 1: HIMARS is a light multiple rocket launcher.
This statement is correct. HIMARS is indeed a light multiple rocket launcher system. It is designed to provide highly mobile and versatile artillery support to ground forces. The system consists of a launcher pod that can carry up to six rockets or missiles.

Statement 2: It fires GPS-guided missiles which can be more accurately targeted.
This statement is also correct. HIMARS can fire various types of rockets and missiles, including GPS-guided munitions. The GPS guidance system allows for more accurate targeting, improving the precision and effectiveness of the rockets. With GPS guidance, HIMARS can hit targets with high accuracy, reducing the potential for collateral damage and increasing mission success rates.

HIMARS has proven to be an effective weapon system and has been used by the United States and several other countries in combat operations. Its high mobility, range, and precision make it a valuable asset on the battlefield. The GPS guidance system enhances the system's capabilities, enabling it to engage targets with greater accuracy and effectiveness.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. HIMARS is a light multiple rocket launcher system, and it fires GPS-guided missiles for improved targeting accuracy.

With reference to Sperm Whale, consider the following statements:
  1. It is found in temperate and tropical waters throughout the world.
  2. It is categorised as the critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Basu answered
The correct answer is option 'A' which states that only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation:

1. It is found in temperate and tropical waters throughout the world:
This statement is correct. The Sperm Whale (Physeter macrocephalus) is indeed found in temperate and tropical waters throughout the world. They have a global distribution and are known to inhabit oceans and seas in various regions, including the Atlantic, Pacific, Indian, and Southern Oceans. They can be found in both warm tropical waters as well as colder temperate regions.

2. It is categorized as the critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List:
This statement is incorrect. The Sperm Whale is not categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List. In fact, it is classified as "Vulnerable" according to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. The vulnerable status indicates that the species faces a high risk of extinction in the wild, but it is not yet critically endangered.

The Sperm Whale is considered vulnerable primarily due to the historical and ongoing impacts of commercial whaling. They were extensively hunted for their valuable oil, blubber, and other products, which led to a significant decline in their population. Although there has been a ban on commercial whaling since 1986, Sperm Whales still face threats from other human activities such as pollution, habitat degradation, and entanglement in fishing gear.

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the Sperm Whale is found in temperate and tropical waters throughout the world. However, statement 2 is incorrect as it is categorized as "Vulnerable" and not critically endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Consider the following statements regarding Digital Payments Index:
  1. It has been constructed by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the extent of digitisation of payments across India.
  2. The base year to calculate this index is 2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Malik answered
The correct answer is option 'A': 1 only.

Explanation:
The Digital Payments Index (DPI) is a measure of the extent of digitization of payments across India. It has been constructed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to track and capture the progress of digital payments in the country.

The first statement is correct:
The Digital Payments Index has been constructed by the Reserve Bank of India. The RBI is the central bank of India and is responsible for formulating and implementing monetary policy in the country. One of the objectives of the RBI is to promote digital payments and reduce the dependence on cash transactions. To monitor and measure the progress of digital payments, the RBI has developed the Digital Payments Index.

The second statement is incorrect:
There is no specific base year for calculating the Digital Payments Index. The index is a dynamic measure that captures the changes and progress in digital payments over time. It is designed to provide a comprehensive view of the digital payments ecosystem in India. The index takes into account various parameters such as the growth in the volume and value of digital payments, the number of digital payment transactions, and the infrastructure and acceptance of digital payments across different sectors. These parameters are regularly updated to reflect the changing landscape of digital payments in the country.

In conclusion, the correct statement is that the Digital Payments Index has been constructed by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the extent of digitization of payments across India. However, there is no specific base year for calculating this index.

Consider the following statements regarding Quadcopters:
  1. It is an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) with four rotors, each with a motor and propeller.
  2. The main principle behind the flight of a quadcopter is Newton's First Law of motion
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Security forces in Manipur found the Meitei and Kuki factions using quadcopters to track and target their opponents in certain areas of the state.
About Quadcopters:
  • It is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) or drone with four rotors, each with a motor and propeller.
  • A quadcopter can be manually controlled or can be autonomous.
  • It's also called a quadrotor helicopter or quadrotor.
  • It belongs to a more general class of aerial vehicles called multicopter or multirotor.
  • Principle:
  • The main principle behind the flight of a quadcopter is Newton's Third Law of motion, which states that for every action there's an equal and opposite reaction.
  • A quadcopter's propellers push air downwards. This causes an opposite reaction called thrust that pushes the quadcopter upwards against gravity.
  • Air movement comes from Bernoulli's Principle, with larger propeller blades and faster rotation creating more thrust.
  • When the propellers rotate (for example clockwise), the quadcopter will tend to rotate anti-clockwiseRotational force is called torque. Helicopters solve this by using a tail rotor.
  • Quadcopters solve this by driving two diagonal propellers clockwise and the other two anti-clockwise. Thus, torque from one pair cancels that of the other.
  • When each diagonal pair of propellers rotate in opposite directions, their thrusts will be in opposite directions. The quadcopter will not be able to lift up or fly.
  • This is solved by having the blades of each diagonal pair of propellers shaped as mirror images of the other pair. Effectively, all propellers will push air downwards regardless of the direction of rotation.
  • Applications:
  • They provide stable flight performance, making them ideal for surveillance and aerial photography.
  • Quadcopters, after being airborne, have the ability to hover in place, whereas fixed-wing aerial drones have to be on the move constantly.
  • Other application areas include delivery, land surveys, crop assessment, weather broadcasting, and more.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Henley Passport Index 2023:
  1. It ranks all the world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa.
  2. United States has topped the 2023 passport rankings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Chavan answered
's passports based on their visa-free travel access.
It is published annually by Henley & Partners, a global citizenship and residence advisory firm.
The index is based on data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA).
The 2023 index is expected to include around 200 passports.
The index provides a global ranking of passports based on the number of countries their holders can enter without a visa or with visa-on-arrival access.
The 2023 index is expected to be released in early 2023.

These statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Offer For Sale (OFS):
  1. It is a method of share sale through the exchange platform for unlisted companies.
  2. Under OFS, companies can raise funds by issuing fresh shares or promoters can sell their existing stakes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gowri Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:
Offer for Sale (OFS) is a method of share sale through the exchange platform, however, it is not specifically for unlisted companies. OFS is primarily used by listed companies to enable the promoters or existing shareholders to sell their shares to the public.

Statement 1: It is a method of share sale through the exchange platform for unlisted companies.
This statement is incorrect. Offer for Sale (OFS) is primarily used by listed companies, not unlisted companies. Unlisted companies do not have their shares listed on the stock exchange, and therefore, cannot utilize the OFS mechanism.

Statement 2: Under OFS, companies can raise funds by issuing fresh shares or promoters can sell their existing stakes.
This statement is also incorrect. Offer for Sale (OFS) does not involve the issuance of fresh shares by the company. It is a mechanism for existing shareholders, such as promoters, to sell their existing stakes to the public. The company itself does not directly raise funds through OFS.

OFS is typically used by promoters or existing shareholders to dilute their stake in the company or to comply with regulatory requirements. It provides a transparent and efficient platform for shareholders to sell their shares to the public. The shares are offered at a floor price, which is determined through a bidding process, and investors can place their bids within the specified time frame. The shares are then allocated to the successful bidders.

In conclusion, Offer for Sale (OFS) is a method of share sale through the exchange platform primarily used by listed companies, not unlisted companies. It allows existing shareholders to sell their shares to the public, but it does not involve the issuance of fresh shares by the company itself. Therefore, neither of the given statements is correct.

With reference to the Indian Arms Act of 1959, consider the following statements:
  1. Under this act one person can possess many firearms.
  2. Prohibited Bore guns can be issued state governments in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Charvi Yadav answered
The correct answer is option D, neither 1 nor 2. Both statements given in the question are incorrect.

Explanation:

1. Under the Indian Arms Act of 1959, one person cannot possess many firearms. The act strictly regulates the possession, acquisition, and use of firearms in India. It lays down the conditions and restrictions for the possession of firearms, and individuals are required to obtain a license for each firearm they wish to possess. The number of firearms that an individual can possess is limited and subject to certain conditions, such as personal security or professional requirements. The act aims to prevent the misuse of firearms and maintain public safety.

2. Prohibited bore guns cannot be issued by state governments in India. The act categorizes firearms into two broad categories: non-prohibited bore and prohibited bore. Non-prohibited bore firearms include handguns, rifles, and shotguns, which individuals can possess with the appropriate license. On the other hand, prohibited bore firearms are those that are considered more lethal and are prohibited for civilian possession. These include automatic and semi-automatic firearms, machine guns, and certain types of rifles and pistols. Prohibited bore firearms are generally used by the military, police, and other security forces. They can only be issued to authorized government agencies and individuals involved in law enforcement or national security.

Therefore, both statements given in the question are incorrect. The Indian Arms Act of 1959 does not allow one person to possess many firearms, and prohibited bore guns cannot be issued by state governments in India.

With reference to the Mugger crocodile, consider the following statements:
  1. It is mainly found in freshwater habitats.
  2. It is listed as a Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhaskar Kapoor answered
Statement 1: It is mainly found in freshwater habitats.
The Mugger crocodile (Crocodylus palustris) is indeed mainly found in freshwater habitats. It is native to the Indian subcontinent and can be found in rivers, lakes, marshes, and other freshwater bodies. It prefers slow-moving or stagnant water, such as in lowland areas, wetlands, and mangroves. The Mugger crocodile has adapted well to various freshwater habitats and is known to inhabit both natural and man-made water bodies.

Statement 2: It is listed as a Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.
The Mugger crocodile is indeed listed as a Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List. The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) Red List is a comprehensive inventory of the conservation status of species around the world. The Mugger crocodile's population has been declining due to habitat loss, degradation, and overexploitation. It is also threatened by pollution, illegal hunting, and the conversion of wetlands for agriculture and infrastructure development. These factors have led to the decline of its population, resulting in its classification as Vulnerable.

Conclusion:
Both statements given above are correct. The Mugger crocodile is mainly found in freshwater habitats, and it is listed as a Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red List.

With reference to the sovereign green bond, consider the following statements:
  1. It is only issued by the Central and State Governments.
  2. The proceeds of the bonds are utilised for projects classified as environmentally sustainable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: It is only issued by the Central and State Governments.
Statement 2: The proceeds of the bonds are utilized for projects classified as environmentally sustainable.

Explanation:
The sovereign green bond is a type of bond issued by the government to raise funds for environmentally sustainable projects. Let's evaluate each statement to determine their correctness.

Statement 1: It is only issued by the Central and State Governments.
This statement is incorrect because sovereign green bonds can also be issued by other entities apart from the central and state governments. The issuance of green bonds is not limited to government entities, and various financial institutions, corporations, and municipalities can also issue green bonds to raise funds for environmentally friendly projects. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: The proceeds of the bonds are utilized for projects classified as environmentally sustainable.
This statement is correct. The main objective of sovereign green bonds is to finance projects that have a positive impact on the environment. The proceeds raised through the issuance of green bonds are specifically earmarked for projects that are classified as environmentally sustainable. These projects can include renewable energy generation, energy efficiency improvements, sustainable agriculture, waste management, and other initiatives aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting environmental conservation.

Conclusion:
Only statement 2 is correct. Sovereign green bonds can be issued by entities other than the central and state governments, and their proceeds are utilized for projects classified as environmentally sustainable. Therefore, the correct answer is option B - 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding INS Vikrant:
  1. It is India’s first indigenously designed and manufactured aircraft carrier.
  2. It is powered by four Small Modular Reactors (SMRs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

's first indigenous aircraft carrier.
It was commissioned in 2021.
It has a displacement of over 40,000 tonnes.
It is named after the first Indian aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant (R11), which was decommissioned in 1997.

Only the first and fourth statements are correct. INS Vikrant is indeed India's first indigenous aircraft carrier. However, it has not been commissioned yet. As of 2021, it is still undergoing sea trials. The exact displacement of INS Vikrant has not been officially disclosed, but it is estimated to be around 40,000 tonnes. It is named after the first Indian aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant (R11), which was indeed decommissioned in 1997.

Consider the following statements regarding the Real Time Train Information System (RTIS) project:
  1. RTIS devices that use satellite imagery are installed on the trains under the project.
  2. The project is executed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
The Indian Railways is collaborating with Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) under the Real Time Train Information System (RTIS) project.
About Real Time Train Information System (RTIS) project:
  • RTIS devices that use satellite imagery are being installed on the trains to automatically acquire its “movement timing at the stations, including that of arrival and departure or run-through”.
  • These timings get automatically plotted on the control chart of those trains in the Control Office Application (COA) system.
  • The project is executed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
  • RTIS is developed in collaboration with ISRO. ISRO has launched GSAT satellites that have GAGAN payloads for tracking the movement of trains.
  • Applications of RTIS:
  • RTIS gives mid-section updates with a periodicity of 30 seconds.
  • The Train Control can now track the location and speed of RTIS-enabled locomotives/train more closely, without any manual intervention.
  • It allows passengers to get the real-time location or train running status of a train on their smartphone.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Expected Credit Loss (ECL) Framework in loan-loss provisioning:
  1. Under this, a bank is required to estimate expected credit losses based on forward-looking estimations before making corresponding loss provisions.
  2. It will result in a shortfall of provisions as compared to excess provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Rane answered
Explanation:

The Expected Credit Loss (ECL) Framework is a provision introduced by the International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS) 9. It requires banks and other financial institutions to estimate expected credit losses on their financial assets, such as loans and receivables, based on forward-looking estimations before making corresponding loss provisions.

Statement 1: Under this, a bank is required to estimate expected credit losses based on forward-looking estimations before making corresponding loss provisions.

This statement is correct. The ECL Framework requires banks to estimate the expected credit losses on their financial assets, such as loans, based on forward-looking estimations. This means that banks need to consider all available information, including historical data and future economic conditions, to assess the potential credit losses on their loans. By doing so, banks can make more accurate provisions for expected credit losses and reflect them in their financial statements.

Statement 2: It will result in a shortfall of provisions as compared to excess provisions.

This statement is incorrect. The ECL Framework aims to ensure that banks have appropriate provisions for expected credit losses. It does not necessarily lead to a shortfall or excess of provisions. Instead, it requires banks to make provisions that reflect the expected credit losses based on forward-looking estimations. This means that banks need to account for potential credit losses in a timely manner and ensure that their provisions are adequate to cover these losses.

The ECL Framework helps banks to be more proactive in managing credit risk and ensures that their provisions are more accurately aligned with the potential credit losses. It provides a more forward-looking approach to loan-loss provisioning, which enhances the transparency and reliability of financial statements. By estimating expected credit losses and making corresponding provisions, banks can better assess their credit risk exposure and make informed decisions regarding their lending activities.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option A, as statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Brain Fog:
  1. It is not a medical condition but instead a symptom of other medical conditions.
  2. It is characterized by confusion, forgetfulness, and a lack of focus and mental clarity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Raj Basu answered
Brain Fog: Understanding the Statements

Brain fog refers to a cognitive symptom characterized by confusion, forgetfulness, and a lack of focus and mental clarity. It is not considered a medical condition on its own but is rather a symptom of other underlying medical conditions. Let's analyze the given statements to understand them in detail.

Statement 1: It is not a medical condition but instead a symptom of other medical conditions.

This statement is correct. Brain fog is not considered a medical condition in itself. Instead, it is often referred to as a symptom or a manifestation of various other medical conditions. These conditions may include chronic fatigue syndrome, fibromyalgia, depression, anxiety, hormonal imbalances, autoimmune disorders, and certain neurological conditions. Brain fog can also occur as a side effect of certain medications or as a result of sleep deprivation, stress, or poor diet.

Statement 2: It is characterized by confusion, forgetfulness, and a lack of focus and mental clarity.

This statement is also correct. Brain fog is characterized by a range of cognitive impairments that affect a person's ability to think clearly and concentrate. The symptoms associated with brain fog may vary from person to person and can include:

1. Difficulty concentrating or focusing: Individuals experiencing brain fog may find it challenging to concentrate on tasks, follow conversations, or maintain attention for extended periods.

2. Memory problems: Forgetfulness is a common symptom of brain fog. Individuals may have difficulty recalling information, remembering appointments, or retaining new information.

3. Mental fatigue: Brain fog often leads to mental exhaustion and a feeling of cognitive fatigue. Individuals may feel mentally drained, even after minimal mental exertion.

4. Slowed thinking: Brain fog can cause a slowing down of cognitive processes, making it difficult to process information quickly or make decisions efficiently.

5. Confusion and disorientation: Individuals may feel confused, disoriented, or have difficulty organizing their thoughts. They may struggle to find the right words or experience a general sense of mental cloudiness.

Overall, brain fog can significantly impact a person's daily functioning and quality of life. Identifying and addressing the underlying medical conditions or lifestyle factors contributing to brain fog is crucial in managing and alleviating its symptoms.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Safdarjung Tomb, recently seen in the news, is located in which city?
  • a)
    Lucknow
  • b)
    New Delhi
  • c)
    Ahmedabad
  • d)
    Amritsar
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is set to finish conservation and restoration work on the central dome of Safdarjung Tomb soon, officials familiar with the matter said recently.
About Safdarjung Tomb:
  • Safdarjung Tomb is the last garden tomb constructed in the late Mughal Empire Style
  • Location: At the Intersection of Safdarjung Road and Aurobindo Marg, New Delhi, India.
  • It was built in 1753- 54 as mausoleum of Safdarjung, the viceroy of Awadh under the Mughal Emperor, Mohammed Shah. It was built by his son, Nawab Shujaud Daula.
  • Architecture:
  • Also known as ‘Safdarjung ka Maqbara,’ the tomb is built on a square plan and has a central dome and is made of marble and sandstone.
  • The dome is surrounded by four smaller domes and four minarets.
  • The exterior of the tomb is decorated with intricate latticework and calligraphy.
  • The interior of the tomb is decorated with marble and gold leaf.
  • The tomb is surrounded by lush green gardens. The garden is in the Mughal charbagh garden style, and is a smaller version of the garden of Humayun Tomb.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Legal Tender:
  1. It is a type of currency or medium of exchange. 
  2. Creditors are lawfully responsible for accepting legal tender for the repayment of debt that they have availed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Khanna answered
Legal tender refers to a form of currency or medium of exchange that is recognized by law as valid for settling debts. It is a concept that is essential for the smooth functioning of a monetary system. The given statements are as follows:

1. It is a type of currency or medium of exchange.
2. Creditors are lawfully responsible for accepting legal tender for the repayment of debt that they have availed.

Explanation of the statements:

1. It is a type of currency or medium of exchange:
Legal tender is a type of currency or medium of exchange that is recognized by law as valid for settling debts. This means that when a payment is made using legal tender, it is considered as a valid payment and the recipient must accept it as a form of payment. Legal tender can take the form of physical currency, such as banknotes and coins, as well as electronic forms of payment, such as digital currencies like Bitcoin or electronic transfers.

2. Creditors are lawfully responsible for accepting legal tender for the repayment of debt that they have availed:
The second statement is also correct. When a person incurs a debt and becomes a debtor, the creditor has the legal right to demand repayment of the debt in legal tender. This means that the debtor is obligated to repay the debt using the recognized currency or medium of exchange that is accepted by law. If the debtor offers legal tender for the repayment of the debt, the creditor is legally bound to accept it. However, it is important to note that there may be certain restrictions or limitations on the use of legal tender, such as limits on the amount that can be used for payment or specific regulations for certain types of transactions.

In conclusion, both the given statements are correct. Legal tender is indeed a type of currency or medium of exchange recognized by law, and creditors are legally responsible for accepting legal tender for the repayment of debt.

With reference to the Pyroelectric effect, consider the following statements:
  1. It is the change in polarization due to the change in temperature.
  2. The Ferroelectric materials show strong pyroelectric effect due to large range of temperature-dependent spontaneous polarization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arshiya Joshi answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The pyroelectric effect is a phenomenon where certain materials exhibit a change in polarization when subjected to a change in temperature. This effect is widely observed in pyroelectric materials and is utilized in various applications such as infrared detectors, thermal imaging, and energy harvesting.

1. Statement 1: It is the change in polarization due to the change in temperature.
This statement is correct. The pyroelectric effect is based on the principle that when a pyroelectric material undergoes a temperature change, the asymmetry in its crystal structure leads to a shift in the positions of positive and negative charges within the material. This shift in charge distribution results in a change in the net dipole moment and hence polarization of the material.

2. Statement 2: The Ferroelectric materials show a strong pyroelectric effect due to a large range of temperature-dependent spontaneous polarization.
This statement is also correct. Ferroelectric materials are a subclass of pyroelectric materials that exhibit a spontaneous polarization even at zero temperature. This spontaneous polarization arises from the presence of a permanent dipole moment in the crystal lattice. When the temperature of a ferroelectric material changes, the spontaneous polarization can be further enhanced or reduced, leading to a strong pyroelectric effect.

Ferroelectric materials have a wide range of temperature-dependent spontaneous polarization, which means that their polarization can change significantly over a broad temperature range. This makes them highly suitable for applications where temperature variations need to be detected or utilized.

In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The pyroelectric effect is indeed the change in polarization due to a change in temperature, and ferroelectric materials exhibit a strong pyroelectric effect due to their large range of temperature-dependent spontaneous polarization.

Consider the following statements regarding Millipede:
  1. It belongs to the arthropod phylum.
  2. It is a detritivore species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Desai answered
Millipedes are a group of arthropods belonging to the class Diplopoda. They are characterized by their long, cylindrical bodies and numerous pairs of legs. In this question, we are given two statements about millipedes, and we need to determine which statement(s) is/are correct.

1. It belongs to the arthropod phylum.
This statement is correct. Millipedes belong to the phylum Arthropoda, which is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom. Arthropods are characterized by their jointed appendages, segmented bodies, and exoskeletons. Millipedes, along with other arthropods such as insects, crustaceans, and spiders, belong to this phylum.

2. It is a detritivore species.
This statement is also correct. Millipedes are detritivores, which means they primarily feed on decaying plant material and organic matter found in soil. They play an important role in the ecosystem by contributing to the decomposition process and nutrient cycling. Millipedes have specialized mouthparts that allow them to scrape and chew through plant material.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and the correct option is C) Both 1 and 2.

In summary, millipedes belong to the arthropod phylum and are detritivores, feeding on decaying plant material and organic matter.

Consider the following statements regarding GBU-57, also known as the “Massive Ordnance Penetrator (MOP)":
  1. It is a GPS-guided, earth-penetrating strike weapon for use against hard and deeply buried targets.
  2. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and used by the Indian Air Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Puja Datta answered
"Massive Ordnance Penetrator" (MOP):

1. The GBU-57 is a precision-guided bomb used by the United States Air Force.
2. It is the largest non-nuclear bomb in the U.S. military's arsenal.
3. The GBU-57 is designed to penetrate hardened underground targets, such as bunkers and tunnels.
4. It has a maximum weight of 30,000 pounds and a length of 20.5 feet.
5. The bomb can be carried and deployed by the B-2 Spirit stealth bomber.
6. The GBU-57 has been used in combat operations, including against ISIS targets in Syria and Iraq.

Please note that the accuracy of these statements may change over time as new information becomes available.

Consider the following statements regarding Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC):
  1. It is a regional navigation satellite system consisting of a constellation of seven satellites.
  2. It’s coverage area includes India and a region up to 5000 km beyond the nation’s boundary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Sharma answered
Provides positioning, navigation, and timing services in India and the surrounding region.
It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
It is compatible with other global navigation satellite systems such as GPS and GLONASS.
The system was officially declared operational in April 2018.

All of these statements are true.

Exercise Orion, is a multinational exercise hosted by which one of the following countries?
  • a)
    USA
  • b)
    Russia
  • c)
    India
  • d)
    France
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Reddy answered
**Exercise Orion**

Exercise Orion is a multinational exercise that is hosted by France. This exercise is conducted to enhance cooperation and interoperability among the participating countries' armed forces.

**Explanation:**

**1. Exercise Orion:**
Exercise Orion is a biennial multinational exercise that is organized and hosted by France. It aims to strengthen military cooperation and interoperability among the participating countries. The exercise involves various military activities and simulations to enhance the readiness and capabilities of the armed forces.

**2. Multinational Exercise:**
Exercise Orion is a multinational exercise, which means that it involves the participation of multiple countries. The exercise provides an opportunity for different nations to work together, share experiences, and learn from each other's military tactics and strategies.

**3. Host Country:**
The host country for Exercise Orion is France. As the host, France is responsible for organizing and coordinating the exercise, providing the necessary infrastructure and resources, and ensuring the smooth conduct of the exercise. The exercise may involve the participation of other countries, but France takes the lead in hosting the event.

**4. Objectives:**
The primary objectives of Exercise Orion are as follows:

- Enhancing cooperation and interoperability: The exercise aims to improve the ability of participating countries to work together effectively and efficiently. It promotes the sharing of information, coordination of efforts, and synchronization of military operations among the nations.

- Strengthening military capabilities: Exercise Orion provides an opportunity for the participating countries to enhance their military capabilities. Through joint training and exercises, the armed forces can improve their skills, tactics, and procedures, thereby increasing their overall readiness and effectiveness.

- Promoting regional security: The exercise also has a broader objective of promoting regional security and stability. By conducting joint military operations and simulations, the participating countries demonstrate their commitment to maintaining peace and security in the region.

**Conclusion:**
Exercise Orion is a multinational exercise hosted by France. It plays a crucial role in enhancing military cooperation, interoperability, and regional security among the participating countries. By organizing and hosting such exercises, France contributes to strengthening international partnerships and fostering a more secure and stable global environment.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR):
  1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.
  2. It disburses funds for carrying out research to Indian as well as foreign scholars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option B: 2 only.

Explanation:
The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Education, not the Ministry of Culture. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

However, statement 2 is correct. The ICHR does disburse funds for carrying out research to Indian as well as foreign scholars. The council provides financial assistance to scholars for conducting research in the field of history and allied subjects. This support is available to both Indian and foreign scholars who are engaged in research on Indian history and culture.

The ICHR plays a crucial role in promoting historical research in India. It provides grants to scholars and institutions for various research projects, including individual research, group research, and publication of research findings. These grants are aimed at encouraging scholars to undertake research on diverse aspects of Indian history and culture.

The council also organizes seminars, conferences, and workshops to facilitate the exchange of ideas and promote research collaboration among scholars. It publishes a journal called "Indian Historical Review" to disseminate research findings and encourage scholarly discourse.

In addition to funding research, the ICHR also undertakes various other activities to promote historical research in India. It maintains a library and documentation center that houses a vast collection of books, journals, and archival materials related to Indian history. It also provides fellowships and awards to recognize the contributions of eminent historians and scholars in the field of history.

In conclusion, the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is an autonomous organization that disburses funds for carrying out research to Indian as well as foreign scholars. However, it is not under the Ministry of Culture but under the Ministry of Education. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Comb Jellies:
  1. They live in almost all ocean regions, particularly in surface waters near shores. 
  2. They are carnivorous, eating myriads of small planktonic animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Raksha Menon answered
Introduction:
Comb jellies, also known as ctenophores, are gelatinous marine animals that belong to the phylum Ctenophora. They are known for their unique comb-like structures called ctenes, which they use for locomotion. In this answer, we will discuss the two statements regarding comb jellies and explain why both are correct.

Statement 1: They live in almost all ocean regions, particularly in surface waters near shores.
Comb jellies are found in almost all ocean regions, from the polar seas to tropical waters. They are particularly abundant in surface waters near shores. This is because comb jellies are planktonic animals, meaning they drift with the currents and are not strong swimmers. They are often found in areas where there is high availability of food, such as near shorelines where nutrient-rich waters support a diverse range of planktonic organisms. Additionally, comb jellies are sensitive to light, and many species prefer to inhabit surface waters where light is abundant.

Statement 2: They are carnivorous, eating myriad of small planktonic animals.
Comb jellies are carnivorous and feed on a variety of small planktonic animals. They have specialized structures called tentacles, which are lined with adhesive cells called colloblasts. When comb jellies come into contact with their prey, the colloblasts release sticky threads that entangle the prey, allowing the comb jelly to bring it towards its mouth. Comb jellies primarily feed on small crustaceans, such as copepods and krill, as well as other small planktonic animals like fish larvae and jellyfish.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, both statements regarding comb jellies are correct. They are found in almost all ocean regions, particularly in surface waters near shores, and they are carnivorous, feeding on a variety of small planktonic animals. Comb jellies play an important role in marine ecosystems as both predators and prey, and their abundance in certain areas indicates the health and productivity of the marine environment.

Consider the following statements regarding cherry crop:
  1. It requires temperatures between 15°C to 25°C during the growing season.
  2. In India it is cultivated in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Athira Kumar answered
°C and 30°C for optimal growth.
It requires a certain number of chilling hours during winter to break dormancy.
It is susceptible to various diseases and pests.
It needs well-drained soil and regular watering.
It can be propagated through grafting or budding techniques.

Which of the following is true regarding cherry crop?
A. It can tolerate temperatures below 15°C.
B. It does not require any chilling hours for dormancy.
C. It is resistant to all diseases and pests.
D. It can grow in any type of soil.
E. It can only be propagated through seeds.

Mukurthi National Park was established with the prime motive of conserving which one of the following species?
  • a)
    Nilgiri Langur
  • b)
    Nilgiri Tahr
  • c)
    Bengal tiger
  • d)
    Indian elephant
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Tamil Nadu Forest Department recently steps up vigil around Mukurthi National Park in Nilgiris to curb poaching
About Mukurthi National Park:
  • Location:
  • It lies in the western corner of Nilgiris Plateau in the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • The park is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is sandwiched between the Mudumalai National Park and the Silent Valley National Park.
  • The area was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1982 and upgraded to a National Park in 1990.
  • It was established with the prime motive of conserving its keystone species – the Nilgiri Tahr.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and was formerly known as Nilgiri Tahr National Park.
  • It is also home to Mukurthi Peak (2,554m), the fourth highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills.
  • RiversPykara and Kundah rivers flow through the park along with several perennial streams that originate in the park and drain into the Bhavani Puzha.
  • Vegetation:
  • The majority of the landscape in the reserve is covered with shrubs and mountainous grasslands.
  • The area in the National Park which are at an elevation and experience high rainfall are covered with sholas and lush green tropical grasslands.
  • Flora:
  • Along sholas, shrubs like Gaultheria fragrantissima, Helichrysum and Berberis tinctoria are found.
  • Other plants which can be seen here are Rhododendrons, Cinnamon, Mahonia, Satyrium, Raspberries etc.
  • Fauna:The park houses some of the endangered wild species like Nilgiri tahr, Indian elephants, Nilgiri Langur, Bengal tiger and bonnet macaque.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Chikungunya:
  1. It is a bacterial disease transmitted to humans through the bites of mosquitoes.
  2. There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Chavan answered
Statement 1: It is a bacterial disease transmitted to humans through the bites of mosquitoes.
Explanation:
This statement is incorrect. Chikungunya is not a bacterial disease, but rather a viral disease. It is caused by the chikungunya virus, which is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes, primarily Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes. These mosquitoes become infected when they bite a person who is already infected with the virus, and then they can spread the virus to other people when they bite them.

Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections.
Explanation:
This statement is correct. As of now, there is no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections. This means that there is no vaccine available to prevent chikungunya, and there is no specific antiviral medication to treat the disease. Instead, treatment focuses on relieving the symptoms and managing the pain and discomfort associated with the infection. This may include rest, hydration, pain relievers, and anti-inflammatory medications.

Research and development efforts are underway to develop a vaccine for chikungunya, but as of now, there is no approved vaccine available.

Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect as chikungunya is a viral disease, not a bacterial disease. However, statement 2 is correct as there is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2 only.

With reference to the Hydrogen fluoride, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an extremely poisonous and corrosive liquid.
  2. It is formed when the Fluorspar is treated with sulphuric acid at a high temperature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Om Saha answered
Hydrogen fluoride (HF) is a chemical compound that is widely used in various industrial applications. Let us examine the given statements to determine their accuracy.

1. It is an extremely poisonous and corrosive liquid.
This statement is correct. Hydrogen fluoride is indeed a highly toxic and corrosive substance. It can cause severe burns upon contact with the skin, eyes, or respiratory system. Inhalation of its vapors can lead to lung damage and even death. Therefore, it is considered a hazardous material and requires proper handling and safety precautions.

2. It is formed when the Fluorspar is treated with sulphuric acid at a high temperature.
This statement is also correct. Fluorspar, also known as calcium fluoride (CaF2), is a mineral that is commonly used as a source of fluorine. When fluorspar is treated with sulfuric acid (H2SO4) at a high temperature, it undergoes a chemical reaction to produce hydrogen fluoride gas. This gas can be further condensed to form hydrogen fluoride liquid.

Hydrogen fluoride is an important industrial chemical with various applications. It is commonly used in the production of fluorocarbons, which are used as refrigerants and propellants. It is also used in the manufacturing of aluminum, uranium, and petroleum products. Additionally, hydrogen fluoride is utilized in the production of high-octane gasoline and in the etching and polishing of glass.

In summary, both statements given in the question are correct. Hydrogen fluoride is indeed an extremely poisonous and corrosive liquid, and it is formed when fluorspar is treated with sulfuric acid at a high temperature.

Consider the following statements regarding National Tele Mental Health Programme:
  1. It aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country round the clock.
  2. The service is accessible through the toll-free numbers with options to choose preferred languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Yadav answered
Statement 1: It aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country round the clock.
The first statement is correct. The National Tele Mental Health Programme aims to provide free tele-mental health services across the country 24/7. This initiative was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, to address the mental health needs of the population, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Statement 2: The service is accessible through the toll-free numbers with options to choose preferred languages.
The second statement is also correct. The tele-mental health services provided under the National Tele Mental Health Programme are accessible through toll-free numbers. These toll-free numbers are available round the clock, ensuring that individuals can seek help and support whenever they need it. Additionally, the service offers options to choose preferred languages, making it more accessible and user-friendly.

Explanation:
The National Tele Mental Health Programme was launched to address the mental health challenges faced by individuals, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic. The program aims to provide free tele-mental health services across the country, ensuring that mental health support is accessible to all.

The toll-free numbers provided by the program allow individuals to seek help and support without any financial burden. These numbers are available 24/7, ensuring that individuals can access the services whenever they need them. This round-the-clock availability is crucial as mental health issues can arise at any time and require immediate attention.

Furthermore, the program offers options to choose preferred languages, recognizing the diversity of languages spoken in the country. This feature makes the services more accessible to individuals who may not be comfortable communicating in a particular language. By providing language options, the program ensures that language barriers do not hinder individuals from seeking the support they need.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The National Tele Mental Health Programme aims to provide free tele-mental health services round the clock, and these services are accessible through toll-free numbers with options to choose preferred languages. This program plays a crucial role in addressing the mental health needs of the population and promoting well-being.

Kalagarh Tiger Reserve (KTR) lies in which state?
  • a)
    Gujarat
  • b)
    Uttar Pradesh
  • c)
    Madhya Pradesh
  • d)
    Uttarakhand
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalagarh Tiger Reserve (KTR) is located in the state of Uttarakhand.
Kalagarh Tiger Reserve (KTR) Overview:
-------------------------------------
Kalagarh Tiger Reserve (KTR) is one of the nine tiger reserves in India and is situated in the Terai region of the Himalayas. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to a wide variety of flora and fauna, including the majestic Bengal tiger.
Location:
---------
The Kalagarh Tiger Reserve (KTR) is located in the Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand. It covers an area of approximately 301 sq km and is a part of the larger Corbett Tiger Reserve.
Flora and Fauna:
----------------
The reserve is known for its lush forests, grasslands, and riverine habitats. It is home to a diverse range of wildlife, including tigers, elephants, leopards, deer, and a variety of bird species. The reserve also supports a significant population of the critically endangered gharial, a type of crocodile.
Conservation Efforts:
---------------------
The Kalagarh Tiger Reserve (KTR) is actively involved in conservation efforts to protect its wildlife and habitats. It is a part of the larger Corbett Tiger Reserve, which is a designated Project Tiger reserve aimed at conserving the Bengal tiger.
Tourism:
---------
The reserve attracts a large number of tourists and wildlife enthusiasts who come to experience the beauty of its natural landscapes and to catch a glimpse of the magnificent tigers that roam its forests. Safari tours are available for visitors to explore the reserve and witness its wildlife up close.
In conclusion, the Kalagarh Tiger Reserve (KTR) in Uttarakhand is a vital sanctuary for the conservation of tigers and other wildlife species, making it a significant part of India's efforts to protect its natural heritage.

With reference to the Forum for India-Pacific Islands cooperation (FIPIC), consider the following statements:
  1. It is a multinational grouping for cooperation between India and 14 Pacific Islands nations.
  2. FIPIC Summit, 2023 was recently held in Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Recently, Prime minister of India meets with Pacific Island nation leaders on sidelines of FIPIC Summit in Papua New Guinea.
  • The third forum for India-Pacific islands co-operation (FIPIC Summit), which was held today at Port Moresby was jointly hosted with Papua New Guinea.
  • Prime minister of India co- chaired the summit with PM of Papua New Guinea.
  • The discussions encompassed various areas of cooperation, including commerce, technology, healthcare, and climate change.
About FIPIC:
  • Forum for India-Pacific Islands cooperation (FIPIC) is a multinational grouping for cooperation between India and 14 Pacific Islands nations.
  • It include 14 islands named- Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu.
  • All Head of state/head of government of the above countries met in Suva, Fiji in November 2014 for the first time where the annual summit was conceptualised.
  • The FIPIC initiative marks a serious effort to expand India's engagement in the Pacific region.
  • A major part of India's engagement with these countries is through development assistance under South-South Cooperation, mainly in capacity building (training, scholarships, grant-in-aid and loan assistance) and community development projects.
  • In 2015, FIPIC Trade Office at Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) to promote Trade & Investment opportunities between India & Pacific Island Countries.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Diversity for Restoration (D4R) tool:
  1. It is developed by the Zoological Survey of India.
  2. It helps in enabling appropriate agroforestry and also aids in systematic ecosystem restoration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Partho Goyal answered
The correct answer is option 'B': 2 Only.

Diversity for Restoration (D4R) tool is not developed by the Zoological Survey of India. The tool is actually developed by the World Agroforestry Centre (ICRAF) in partnership with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD).

Explanation:

Diversity for Restoration (D4R) tool is an innovative tool that helps in enabling appropriate agroforestry and aids in systematic ecosystem restoration. It is a web-based tool that provides information on the diversity of tree species suitable for restoring degraded land.

The D4R tool helps in selecting appropriate tree species for restoration based on various factors such as climate, soil, and socio-economic conditions. It provides information on the growth characteristics, uses, and ecosystem services provided by different tree species.

The tool also provides information on the potential benefits of agroforestry systems, which integrate trees with agricultural crops or livestock. Agroforestry systems can help in restoring degraded land by improving soil fertility, conserving water, enhancing biodiversity, and providing additional income opportunities for farmers.

The D4R tool is designed to support decision-making processes related to restoration and agroforestry, and it can be used by a wide range of stakeholders including farmers, policymakers, researchers, and development practitioners.

Overall, the D4R tool is a valuable resource for promoting sustainable land management practices and supporting ecosystem restoration efforts. However, it is important to note that the tool is not developed by the Zoological Survey of India, as mentioned in statement 1.

Consider the following statements regarding CIBIL (Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited) score:
  1. It is a three-digit numeric summary of your credit history.
  2. Lenders can check the CIBIL report and CIBIL Score/CIBIL Rank to evaluate the risk of lending to applicants and accordingly approve or reject new loan/credit card applications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavana Nair answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
CIBIL, which stands for Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited, is India's first credit information company. It collects and maintains credit information of individuals and businesses from various financial institutions and provides this information to lenders in the form of credit reports and scores.

1. It is a three-digit numeric summary of your credit history:
The first statement is correct. The CIBIL score is a three-digit numeric summary that represents an individual's creditworthiness. It ranges from 300 to 900, with a higher score indicating a lower credit risk. The score is calculated based on various factors such as credit repayment history, credit utilization, length of credit history, types of credit, and new credit inquiries. A good credit score is essential for getting loan approvals at favorable terms and interest rates.

2. Lenders can check the CIBIL report and CIBIL Score/CIBIL Rank to evaluate the risk of lending to applicants and accordingly approve or reject new loan/credit card applications:
The second statement is also correct. Lenders use the CIBIL report and score to assess the creditworthiness and risk associated with lending to an individual. When a person applies for a loan or credit card, the lender checks their CIBIL report to review their credit history, repayment behavior, and outstanding debts. The CIBIL score plays a crucial role in the lender's decision-making process. A high score indicates a lower credit risk, increasing the chances of loan approval, whereas a low score may result in rejection or approval with unfavorable terms.

The CIBIL report and score provide lenders with an objective measure to evaluate an individual's creditworthiness and make informed decisions regarding lending. It helps them mitigate the risks associated with lending and ensures responsible lending practices.

In conclusion, both statements regarding the CIBIL score are correct. It is a three-digit numeric summary of an individual's credit history, and lenders use it to assess the risk and make decisions regarding loan/credit card applications.

With reference to the Mission Karmayogi, consider the following statements:
  1. Mission Karmayogi aims to prepare Civil Servants for the future by making them more creative, constructive & innovative through transparency and technology.
  2. This unique programme will help to lay the foundation for civil servants in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Chavan answered
And accountable.

Mission Karmayogi aims to transform the government into a more performance-oriented and accountable establishment.

Mission Karmayogi aims to provide training to civil servants in areas such as critical thinking, problem-solving, and decision-making.

Mission Karmayogi aims to create a culture of continuous learning and development among civil servants.

Mission Karmayogi aims to leverage technology to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of civil servants.

Mission Karmayogi aims to promote ethical behavior and integrity among civil servants.

Mission Karmayogi aims to foster collaboration and teamwork among civil servants.

Mission Karmayogi aims to empower civil servants to take initiative and innovate in their work.

Mission Karmayogi aims to enhance the public service delivery mechanism by equipping civil servants with the necessary skills and knowledge.

Mission Karmayogi aims to create a more responsive and citizen-centric bureaucracy.

With reference to the PM MITRA Parks, consider the following statements:
  1. The objective of this initiative is to create an Integrated Textiles Value Chain.
  2. The Ministry of Textiles will provide Development Capital Support up to Rs. 5000 crores per park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mehul Malik answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 Only.

Explanation:
The first statement is correct while the second statement is incorrect.

Explanation of the statements:

1. The objective of this initiative is to create an Integrated Textiles Value Chain:
The PM MITRA (Prime Minister's Manufacturing, Innovation, Transformation, and Upgradation) Parks initiative aims to create an Integrated Textiles Value Chain. The objective is to establish state-of-the-art infrastructure and facilities that will enable the entire textile value chain, from fiber to finished product, to operate within a single park. The parks will have facilities for spinning, weaving, processing, and garment manufacturing. This integrated approach will help streamline the production process, reduce production cycle time, and improve overall efficiency.

2. The Ministry of Textiles will provide Development Capital Support up to Rs. 5000 crores per park:
This statement is incorrect. The Ministry of Textiles does not provide Development Capital Support of up to Rs. 5000 crores per park under the PM MITRA Parks initiative. The exact amount of financial support provided by the government is not mentioned in the given information.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 Only, as the first statement is correct, but the second statement is incorrect.

With reference to bacteriophages, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a virus which infects any group of bacteria.
  2. It consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein capsid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Swara Bajaj answered
Bacteriophages:

Bacteriophages, often referred to as phages, are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are composed of a nucleic acid molecule, either DNA or RNA, surrounded by a protein coat called a capsid.

Statement 1: It is a virus which infects any group of bacteria.

This statement is correct. Bacteriophages are viruses that have evolved to infect and replicate within bacterial cells. They are highly specific to the type of bacteria they infect and are able to recognize and attach to specific receptors on the surface of the bacterial cell.

Phages are classified into different groups based on their specific bacterial hosts. For example, there are phages that infect only Escherichia coli (E. coli) bacteria, while others infect Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pneumoniae, among many others. This specificity allows phages to target and kill specific bacterial strains, making them potential alternatives to antibiotics in the treatment of bacterial infections.

Statement 2: It consists of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein capsid.

This statement is also correct. Like all viruses, bacteriophages have a simple structure composed of genetic material, which can be either DNA or RNA, surrounded by a protein coat or capsid. The nucleic acid contains the phage's genetic information and is responsible for directing the replication and assembly of new phage particles within the bacterial host cell.

The protein capsid serves to protect the genetic material and facilitate the attachment of the phage to the bacterial host. It is made up of repeating protein subunits arranged in a highly organized structure. The capsid can have different shapes, such as icosahedral, filamentous, or complex, depending on the specific type of bacteriophage.

Conclusion:

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria, and they consist of a nucleic acid molecule surrounded by a protein capsid. Understanding the structure and function of bacteriophages is important in the field of phage therapy and the development of alternative antimicrobial strategies.

With reference to the National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021, consider the following statements:
  1. It aims to lower the high cost of treatment for rare diseases.
  2. Under this policy Centres of Excellence would be provided a one-time grant of Rs. 500 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Tiwari answered
The correct answer is option 'A': 1 only.

Explanation:
The National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 is a policy framework introduced by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. It aims to address the challenges faced by patients suffering from rare diseases and provide them with affordable and accessible treatment options. Let us analyze the given statements in detail:

1) The policy aims to lower the high cost of treatment for rare diseases.
The statement is correct. One of the key objectives of the National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 is to reduce the financial burden on patients suffering from rare diseases by making treatment more affordable. The policy proposes various measures to achieve this, such as promoting research and development for affordable therapies, encouraging innovation in drug discovery, and facilitating access to orphan drugs at affordable prices.

2) Under this policy Centres of Excellence would be provided a one-time grant of Rs. 500 crore.
The statement is incorrect. The National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 does not mention any provision for providing a one-time grant of Rs. 500 crore to Centres of Excellence. However, the policy recognizes the importance of establishing Centres of Excellence for rare diseases in order to provide specialized care, research, and training facilities. These centers are expected to be established and supported through public-private partnerships and collaborations.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. The National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 aims to lower the high cost of treatment for rare diseases, but it does not mention any specific provision for a one-time grant of Rs. 500 crore to Centres of Excellence.

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Conference on Trade and Development:
  1. It is a permanent inter-governmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly.
  2. It publishes Trade and Development Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
1. It is a permanent inter-governmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly:
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is indeed a permanent inter-governmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly. It was established in 1964 with the aim of promoting economic development, especially in developing countries, and to ensure that the benefits of international trade are shared more equitably.

UNCTAD is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland and operates under the guidance of the United Nations General Assembly and the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It consists of 195 member states and serves as a platform for governments to discuss and coordinate trade and development-related policies and initiatives.

2. It publishes the Trade and Development Report:
The second statement is also correct. UNCTAD publishes an annual flagship report called the Trade and Development Report (TDR). The TDR provides in-depth analysis and policy recommendations on global economic trends, trade, investment, and development issues. It offers insights into the current state of the global economy and provides valuable policy guidance for member countries, particularly developing nations.

The Trade and Development Report covers a wide range of topics, including macroeconomic policies, trade and investment policies, financial markets, technology transfer, sustainable development, and the impact of globalization on developing countries. It is widely recognized as a key source of information and analysis on trade and development issues and is utilized by policymakers, researchers, and economists around the world.

In conclusion, both statements regarding the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) are correct. It is a permanent inter-governmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly, and it publishes the Trade and Development Report, which provides valuable analysis and policy recommendations on global economic trends and development issues.

Consider the following statements regarding Brahmos Missile:
  1. It is a supersonic ballistic missile.
  2. It is a joint venture between India and Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

**Explanation:**

The correct answer is option **B** - **2 only**. Let's understand why:

1. **It is a supersonic ballistic missile.**
This statement is **incorrect**. The BrahMos missile is a **supersonic cruise missile**, not a ballistic missile. A cruise missile is a guided missile that can travel at supersonic or subsonic speeds using an aerodynamic lift. On the other hand, a ballistic missile is a missile that follows a ballistic trajectory, which means it is propelled into the air and then follows a parabolic path under the influence of gravity.

2. **It is a joint venture between India and Russia.**
This statement is **correct**. The BrahMos missile is indeed a joint venture between India and Russia. The name "BrahMos" is derived from the names of two rivers - the **Brahmaputra** in India and the **Moskva** in Russia. The project was initiated in 1998 and it is a collaboration between the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) of India and the Federal State Unitary Enterprise NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM) of Russia. The missile is jointly developed, produced, and marketed by both countries.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, making option **B** the correct answer.

With reference to the Gift Tax, consider the following statements:
  1. Under the Income Tax Act gifts whose value exceeds Rs.5, 00,000 are subject to gift tax.
  2. The Gifts received during weddings are not exempted from gift tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:


The statements given above are both incorrect. Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: Under the Income Tax Act, gifts whose value exceeds Rs.5,00,000 are subject to gift tax.

This statement is incorrect. As of now, there is no gift tax levied on individuals under the Income Tax Act in India. Previously, the Gift Tax Act was in place, but it was abolished in 1998. Therefore, gifts of any value are not subject to gift tax under the current tax laws.

Statement 2: The gifts received during weddings are not exempted from gift tax.

This statement is also incorrect. Gifts received during weddings are specifically exempted from gift tax. Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act provides an exemption for gifts received by an individual on the occasion of their marriage. The exemption covers any gifts received by the individual or their spouse, whether in cash or in kind. The exemption also extends to gifts received from relatives, friends, or any other person attending the wedding ceremony.

The exemption for wedding gifts is aimed at recognizing the cultural and social significance of weddings in India. It ensures that individuals do not have to pay tax on gifts received during this important event.

Therefore, both statements given above are incorrect. There is no gift tax on gifts exceeding Rs. 5,00,000, and gifts received during weddings are exempted from gift tax.

In conclusion, option D - "Neither 1 nor 2" is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding rights issue:
  1. It is an invitation to existing shareholders to purchase additional new shares in the company.
  2. It is issued to raise extra capital to meet its current financial obligations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sinjini Desai answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
A rights issue is a way for a company to raise additional capital by offering existing shareholders the opportunity to purchase new shares in the company. Let's examine each statement in detail:

1) It is an invitation to existing shareholders to purchase additional new shares in the company.
- This statement is correct. A rights issue is indeed an invitation to the existing shareholders of a company, giving them the right to purchase additional new shares at a discounted price. This allows the company to raise funds from its existing shareholders before offering the remaining shares to the public.

2) It is issued to raise extra capital to meet its current financial obligations.
- This statement is also correct. One of the primary reasons for a company to issue a rights issue is to raise additional capital. This capital can be used to meet the company's current financial obligations, such as paying off debts, funding expansion plans, or financing new projects. By offering new shares to existing shareholders, the company can generate funds without seeking external sources of financing.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. A rights issue is an invitation to existing shareholders to purchase additional shares in the company, and it is issued to raise extra capital to meet the company's current financial obligations.

With reference to the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment, consider the following statements:
  1. It measure the depth and effectiveness of existing e-Governance service delivery mechanisms.
  2. The assessment study is published biennially.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanaya Basak answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

The National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) is a comprehensive framework developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in India. It aims to measure the depth and effectiveness of existing e-Governance service delivery mechanisms in the country.

Let's understand the given statements in detail:

1. It measures the depth and effectiveness of existing e-Governance service delivery mechanisms.
The first statement is correct. The NeSDA framework is designed to assess the depth and effectiveness of e-Governance service delivery mechanisms in India. It evaluates various aspects such as the availability of services online, usability, information security, service delivery infrastructure, and citizen feedback mechanism, among others. The assessment helps in identifying gaps, suggesting improvements, and promoting the adoption of digital technologies for efficient service delivery.

2. The assessment study is published biennially.
The second statement is also correct. The NeSDA assessment study is conducted and published by MeitY on a biennial basis. This periodic assessment allows the government to track the progress of e-Governance initiatives and identify areas that need attention or improvement. The study provides valuable insights into the current state of e-Governance service delivery and helps in formulating policies and strategies for the future.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The NeSDA framework indeed measures the depth and effectiveness of e-Governance service delivery mechanisms, and the assessment study is published biennially. This assessment plays a crucial role in enhancing the efficiency and accessibility of government services through digital platforms.

With reference to the Victory in Europe Day, consider the following statements:
  1. It was on May 8, 1945 (May 9 in Eastern Europe).
  2. On this day the surrender of the German armed forces was formally accepted, bringing an end to a war that had killed millions on battlefields, across bombarded cities and in brutal concentration camps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Kaur answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
Victory in Europe Day, also known as VE Day, is celebrated on May 8th every year. It marks the end of World War II in Europe and the formal acceptance of the surrender of the German armed forces. Here is a detailed explanation of the given statements:

1) It was on May 8, 1945 (May 9 in Eastern Europe):
- This statement is correct. VE Day is observed on May 8th, 1945, in most Western European countries. However, due to the time difference, it was already May 9th in Eastern Europe when the surrender was accepted.

2) On this day the surrender of the German armed forces was formally accepted, bringing an end to a war that had killed millions on battlefields, across bombarded cities and in brutal concentration camps:
- This statement is also correct. The surrender of the German armed forces was formally accepted by the Allied forces on May 8th, 1945. This marked the end of World War II in Europe, a conflict that had caused immense devastation and loss of life. Millions of people had died on battlefields, in bombarded cities, and in brutal concentration camps, and the acceptance of the surrender signified the end of the Nazi regime's control over Europe.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. VE Day is celebrated on May 8th, 1945, and it marks the formal acceptance of the surrender of the German armed forces, bringing an end to World War II in Europe. The war had caused immense loss of life and destruction, and VE Day is an important day to remember and honor those who sacrificed their lives during this period.

Palamu Tiger Reserve, which was recently seen in the news, is located in which state?
  • a)
    Jharkhand
  • b)
    Karnataka
  • c)
    Bihar
  • d)
    None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Malik answered
Palamu Tiger Reserve, which was recently seen in the news, is located in the state of Jharkhand.

Location and Importance of Palamu Tiger Reserve:
- Palamu Tiger Reserve is situated in the western part of Jharkhand state in India.
- It covers an area of approximately 1,129 square kilometers and is one of the important tiger reserves in the country.
- The reserve is a part of the larger Palamau Forest Division, which is known for its rich biodiversity and natural beauty.
- It is located in the eastern end of the Chota Nagpur Plateau and is surrounded by the Latehar and Garhwa districts of Jharkhand.

Flora and Fauna:
- Palamu Tiger Reserve is known for its diverse range of flora and fauna. It is home to several endangered species including the Royal Bengal Tiger, Indian Elephant, Indian Bison, Sloth Bear, and Indian Wolf.
- The reserve has a mix of tropical dry deciduous, tropical moist deciduous, and tropical thorn forests.
- The vegetation primarily consists of sal, bamboo, mahua, tendu, and other valuable timber species.

Conservation Efforts:
- Palamu Tiger Reserve has been designated as a Project Tiger reserve since 1973, aiming to protect the endangered Royal Bengal Tigers.
- The reserve is managed by the Jharkhand Forest Department, which works towards the conservation of wildlife and their habitats.
- Various measures have been taken to reduce human-wildlife conflict and promote ecological balance in the region.

Importance of Tiger Reserves:
- Tiger reserves play a crucial role in the conservation of these majestic creatures. They provide a safe and protected habitat for tigers, which are listed as endangered under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- These reserves also help in maintaining the overall ecological balance by preserving the biodiversity and natural resources of the region.
- Additionally, tiger reserves contribute to the local economy through wildlife tourism, generating employment opportunities, and promoting sustainable development.

Conclusion:
Palamu Tiger Reserve, located in Jharkhand, is an important conservation area known for its rich biodiversity, including the endangered Royal Bengal Tigers. The reserve plays a crucial role in tiger conservation and contributes to the overall ecological balance of the region.

Consider the following statements regarding the Crop Residue Management guidelines:
  1. The Centre and state governments will provide financial support for projects approved for residue management.
  2. The land for storage of the collected paddy straw will be arranged by the beneficiary such as farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Sengupta answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
Crop residue management is an important aspect of agricultural practices, especially in the context of sustainable farming and environmental conservation. The government has introduced guidelines to promote proper management of crop residues, particularly in the case of paddy straw.

Statement 1: The Centre and state governments will provide financial support for projects approved for residue management.

The first statement is correct. The government recognizes the significance of crop residue management and has taken steps to support and encourage farmers in this regard. Under the guidelines, both the central and state governments provide financial support for projects that are approved for residue management. This financial support helps farmers in implementing appropriate strategies for the management of crop residues, such as the use of machinery or other techniques.

Statement 2: The land for storage of the collected paddy straw will be arranged by the beneficiary such as farmers.

The second statement is also correct. As part of the guidelines, the responsibility of arranging land for the storage of collected paddy straw is given to the beneficiary, which in this case is the farmer. This means that the farmer who collects the paddy straw is responsible for arranging suitable storage space for it. This provision ensures that the collected crop residues are stored properly to prevent any adverse environmental impacts.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The government provides financial support for approved residue management projects, and the beneficiary, typically the farmer, is responsible for arranging land for the storage of collected paddy straw. These guidelines aim to promote sustainable agricultural practices and address the issue of crop residue management effectively.

Consider the following statements with reference to Solar Decathlon India:
  1. It is conducted annually by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE).
  2. It was recently conducted in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanaya Basak answered
Statement 1: Solar Decathlon India is conducted annually by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE).

Statement 2: Solar Decathlon India was recently conducted in New Delhi.

Explanation:

The given statements are both incorrect.

Statement 1: Solar Decathlon India is not conducted annually by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE). The Solar Decathlon is an international competition that was started by the United States Department of Energy (DOE) in 2002. It is a biennial competition that challenges collegiate teams to design and build highly efficient and innovative solar-powered houses. The competition aims to promote renewable energy and sustainable building practices.

Statement 2: Solar Decathlon India was not recently conducted in New Delhi. As of the time of writing this response, there has been no Solar Decathlon India event held in New Delhi. However, there have been Solar Decathlon events held in other countries such as the United States, China, and Europe.

In conclusion, neither of the given statements is correct. The Solar Decathlon India is not conducted annually by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), and it has not been recently conducted in New Delhi.

With reference to the hematene, consider the following statements:
  1. It is extracted from naturally occurring hematite.
  2. It is not capable of withstanding high laser intensities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: It is extracted from naturally occurring hematite.
Hematene is indeed extracted from naturally occurring hematite. Hematite is an iron oxide mineral that is commonly found in rocks and soil. It has a characteristic reddish-brown color and is often used as an ore of iron. Hematite can be found in various locations around the world, including Brazil, Australia, and the United States.

The extraction process involves converting hematite into hematene. This is typically done by exfoliating the thin layers of hematite using a technique known as liquid phase exfoliation. In this process, the hematite is mixed with a solvent to create a dispersion, and then sonicated to separate the layers. The resulting material is hematene, which consists of single or few-layered flakes of iron oxide.

Statement 2: It is not capable of withstanding high laser intensities.
This statement is incorrect. Hematene has actually been found to be highly stable and capable of withstanding high laser intensities.

Research conducted on hematene has demonstrated its potential for various applications, including in optoelectronic devices. One study published in the journal "Nature Nanotechnology" found that hematene exhibits excellent stability even when subjected to intense laser irradiation. The researchers subjected hematene flakes to laser intensities up to 100 megawatts per square centimeter (MW/cm2) and observed no degradation or damage to the material. This suggests that hematene is highly resistant to laser-induced damage and can be used in high-intensity laser applications.

Furthermore, another study published in the journal "ACS Nano" reported that hematene has a high photothermal conversion efficiency, meaning it can efficiently convert light into heat. This property makes hematene promising for applications such as photothermal therapy, which involves using light-induced heat to treat diseases like cancer.

Therefore, both statements are not correct. Statement 1 is correct as hematene is indeed extracted from naturally occurring hematite. However, statement 2 is incorrect as hematene has been found to be capable of withstanding high laser intensities.

What is the main focus of the Anthropocene Working Group's proposal?
  • a)
    Identifying the start of the Anthropocene epoch
  • b)
    Presenting evidence for the existence of the Anthropocene epoch
  • c)
    Investigating the effects of human activities on the Earth's ecosystem
  • d)
    Establishing a geological reference point for the Anthropocene epoch
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhijeet Shah answered
The main focus of the Anthropocene Working Group's proposal is to identify the start of the Anthropocene epoch. The Anthropocene epoch refers to the current geological epoch, which is characterized by significant human impact on the Earth's ecosystems and geology. It is a proposed geological time unit that recognizes the scale and impact of human activities on the planet.

Identifying the Start of the Anthropocene Epoch:

The proposal by the Anthropocene Working Group aims to establish a precise starting point for the Anthropocene epoch. This is important because it helps define and understand the extent of human influence on the Earth's systems. By pinpointing the beginning of this epoch, scientists can study and analyze the changes that have occurred since then, including the impact of human activities on the environment, climate, and biodiversity.

Definition and Evidence:

To identify the start of the Anthropocene epoch, the Anthropocene Working Group examines various geological and environmental indicators. These indicators can include changes in sedimentary layers, the presence of human-made materials such as plastics and metals, changes in atmospheric composition, and shifts in biodiversity patterns. By analyzing these indicators, scientists can gather evidence to support the proposal for the beginning of the Anthropocene epoch.

The Importance of Establishing a Geological Reference Point:

Establishing a geological reference point for the Anthropocene epoch is crucial for several reasons. Firstly, it helps scientists and researchers accurately communicate and understand the magnitude of human impact on the Earth's systems. It provides a framework for studying and documenting the changes that have occurred during this epoch.

Additionally, identifying the Anthropocene epoch helps raise awareness about the consequences of human activities on the planet. It highlights the need for sustainable practices and policies to mitigate further damage and preserve the Earth's ecosystems for future generations.

In conclusion, the main focus of the Anthropocene Working Group's proposal is to identify the start of the Anthropocene epoch. This involves examining various geological and environmental indicators to establish a precise beginning point for this epoch. Understanding the start of the Anthropocene is crucial for studying and addressing the significant human impact on the Earth's ecosystems.

What is the reason behind the extreme rain events in northern India?
  • a)
    Increased warming of the Arabian Sea
  • b)
    Interactions between monsoon winds and western disturbances
  • c)
    Warming of the Atlantic Ocean
  • d)
    Unequal warming of the Himalayas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sarthak Goyal answered
The reason behind the extreme rain events in northern India is the interaction between monsoon winds and western disturbances. This is explained in detail below:

Interaction between Monsoon Winds and Western Disturbances:
1. Monsoon Winds: During the summer months, northern India experiences the southwest monsoon winds, which bring moisture-laden air from the Arabian Sea. These winds are responsible for the majority of rainfall in the region.

2. Western Disturbances: Western disturbances are extratropical weather systems that originate in the Mediterranean region and move eastwards across Central Asia. These disturbances interact with the monsoon winds, particularly over northern India.

3. Convergence of Air Masses: When the monsoon winds and western disturbances come in contact, they create a convergence zone where warm, moist air from the Arabian Sea meets colder air from the disturbances. This convergence leads to the formation of intense low-pressure systems.

4. Enhanced Rainfall: The interaction between the monsoon winds and western disturbances results in enhanced rainfall in northern India. These systems often bring heavy rainfall, leading to extreme rain events and sometimes even excessive flooding.

5. Influence of Topography: The Himalayan mountain range plays a crucial role in the interaction between monsoon winds and western disturbances. The mountains act as a barrier, forcing the monsoon winds to rise and cool, which enhances rainfall. Additionally, the complex topography of the region further amplifies the intensity of the rainfall.

6. Variability and Impact: The intensity and frequency of these extreme rain events can vary from year to year due to natural climate variability. However, climate change is believed to be exacerbating the impact of these events by increasing the moisture content in the atmosphere, leading to heavier rainfall.

In conclusion, the extreme rain events in northern India are primarily caused by the interaction between monsoon winds and western disturbances. This convergence of air masses results in the formation of intense low-pressure systems, leading to enhanced rainfall and sometimes even excessive flooding. The topography of the region, particularly the Himalayas, further amplifies the intensity of these events.

What is the purpose of HAL's regional office in Kuala Lumpur?
  • a)
    To enhance defence industrial collaboration between India and Malaysia
  • b)
    To conduct in-situ scientific experiments on the moon
  • c)
    To facilitate the implementation of confidence-building measures in the South China Sea
  • d)
    To reduce the tax rate on snack pellets and imitation zari thread
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gayatri Basak answered
The purpose of HAL's regional office in Kuala Lumpur is to enhance defence industrial collaboration between India and Malaysia.

Background:
- Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is a state-owned aerospace and defence company in India.
- It specializes in the design, manufacture, and assembly of aircraft, helicopters, and their components.
- HAL has been actively engaged in promoting defence industrial collaboration with various countries to strengthen its defence capabilities and foster strategic partnerships.

Importance of Defence Industrial Collaboration:
- Defence industrial collaboration plays a crucial role in enhancing a country's defence capabilities by leveraging the strengths and expertise of partner nations.
- It promotes technology transfer, knowledge sharing, and joint research and development activities, leading to the development of advanced defence systems.
- Collaboration also helps in reducing costs, improving efficiency, and ensuring timely availability of critical defence equipment.

India-Malaysia Defence Collaboration:
- India and Malaysia have been actively exploring opportunities for defence collaboration in recent years.
- Both countries have similar defence requirements and face common security challenges in the region.
- Malaysia is strategically located in Southeast Asia and serves as a gateway to the Asia-Pacific region.
- Malaysia has a robust defence industry and possesses expertise in areas such as maintenance, repair, and overhaul (MRO) of aircraft and aerospace components.

Purpose of HAL's Regional Office in Kuala Lumpur:
- HAL's regional office in Kuala Lumpur serves as a platform to enhance defence industrial collaboration between India and Malaysia.
- The office facilitates regular interaction and engagement between HAL and Malaysian defence industry stakeholders.
- It promotes cooperation in areas such as joint production, technology transfer, and exchange of technical expertise.
- The office also explores opportunities for joint research and development projects and identifies areas of mutual interest in the defence sector.

Benefits of HAL's Regional Office:
- The regional office helps in building trust and strengthening the bilateral defence relationship between India and Malaysia.
- It provides a dedicated channel for communication and coordination between HAL and Malaysian defence industry partners.
- The office enables HAL to better understand the specific requirements and capabilities of the Malaysian defence industry.
- It also allows HAL to showcase its products and capabilities, thereby promoting exports and generating business opportunities.

In conclusion, HAL's regional office in Kuala Lumpur has been established to enhance defence industrial collaboration between India and Malaysia. It serves as a platform for regular engagement, cooperation, and joint initiatives in the defence sector, ultimately strengthening the defence capabilities of both countries.

Consider the following statements regarding Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS):
  1. It gives healthcare facilities to registered employees and pensioners of the Central Government of India. 
  2. The enrolled members are provided reimbursement and cashless facilities under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mahi Banerjee answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) is a comprehensive healthcare scheme provided by the Indian government to its employees, pensioners, and their dependents. The scheme was introduced in 1954 and is administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Statement 1: It gives healthcare facilities to registered employees and pensioners of the Central Government of India.
The first statement is correct. The CGHS provides healthcare facilities to the employees and pensioners of the Central Government of India. This includes central government employees, members of parliament, retired employees, and their dependents. The scheme covers medical expenses for both outpatient and inpatient treatment.

Statement 2: The enrolled members are provided reimbursement and cashless facilities under this scheme.
The second statement is also correct. Once enrolled in the CGHS, the members are provided with reimbursement and cashless facilities. Reimbursement is available for expenses incurred by the members for medical treatment. Cashless facilities allow the members to avail medical treatment without making any upfront payment. The expenses are directly settled by the CGHS.

The CGHS provides a wide range of healthcare services, including primary healthcare, specialist consultations, diagnostic tests, hospitalization, and medicines. The scheme operates through a network of dispensaries, polyclinics, and empanelled private hospitals.

The benefits of CGHS are not limited to just the employees and pensioners of the Central Government. The scheme has been extended to cover autonomous bodies, public sector undertakings, and other specific groups of individuals as per the government's decision.

In conclusion, the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) provides healthcare facilities to registered employees and pensioners of the Central Government of India. The enrolled members are provided reimbursement and cashless facilities under this scheme. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

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