All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Who has been elected as Vice-Chair of the UN Panel of Auditors for 2024?
  • a)
    R G Viswanathan
  • b)
    Parveen Mehta
  • c)
    Ram Mohan Johri
  • d)
    Girish Chandra Murmu
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Girish Chandra Murmu has been elected as Vice-Chair of the UN Panel of Auditors for 2024.
  • CAG Girish Chandra Murmu participated in the sixty-third session of the Panel of External Auditors.
  • It was held in New York on 20-21 November 2023.
  • The Panel of external auditors comprises heads of 12 Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs) of the world.
  • It sees the external audit of the UN Secretariat, funds and programmes, and specialised agencies.
Hence, (d) is the correct answer.

As per WHO 2023 Global TB report, which county accounted for the highest number of tuberculosis (TB) cases in the world in 2022?
  • a)
    China
  • b)
    India
  • c)
    Indonesia
  • d)
    Ethiopia
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

India accounted for the highest number of tuberculosis (TB) cases in the world in 2022, representing a staggering 27 percent of the global burden, as revealed by the new World Health Organization (WHO) 2023 Global TB report released. According to the report, India recorded 2.8 million (28.2 lakh) TB cases in 2022, with a case fatality ratio of 12 per cent.  Featuring data from 192 countries an

Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP), recently seen in the news, is located in:
  • a)
    Odisha
  • b)
    Gujarat
  • c)
    Tamil Nadu
  • d)
    Telangana
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Joshi answered
Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP) is located in Telangana.

Introduction
The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP) is one of the largest lift irrigation projects in the world. It is designed to provide irrigation water to drought-prone areas of Telangana and meet the water requirements of farmers and industries. The project aims to harness the Godavari river water and divert it to various regions of Telangana through a network of canals, reservoirs, and pumping stations.

Location
The KLIP is located in the state of Telangana, which is located in southern India. It is specifically situated in the Kaleshwaram village of Bhoopalpally district. The village is located on the banks of the Godavari river, which is the main water source for the project.

Objective
The primary objective of the KLIP is to provide irrigation water to drought-prone areas of Telangana and enhance agricultural productivity. The project aims to irrigate around 18.82 lakh acres of land and benefit thousands of farmers in the region. It also aims to recharge groundwater levels, mitigate water scarcity, and promote sustainable development in the state.

Components
The KLIP consists of several components that work together to achieve the project's objectives. These include:

1. Medigadda Barrage: It is the starting point of the project and is located on the Godavari river. The barrage diverts water into a series of canals.

2. Kannepalli Pump House: This pump house lifts water from the Godavari river and pumps it into the Mid Manair reservoir.

3. Mid Manair Reservoir: It is a large reservoir that stores water and supplies it to the Lower Manair Dam and other destinations.

4. Lower Manair Dam: This dam is located on the Manair river and acts as a balancing reservoir for the project.

5. Package 8: This package includes the construction of a tunnel and pumping station to lift water from the Yellampally Barrage to the Mid Manair reservoir.

6. Package 6: It involves the construction of a tunnel and pump house to lift water from the Yellampally Barrage to the Mallanna Sagar reservoir.

7. Package 10: This package includes the construction of a tunnel and pump house to lift water from the Kondapochamma Sagar reservoir to the Kondapochamma Sagar canal.

Benefits
The KLIP is expected to bring numerous benefits to Telangana. Some of the key benefits include:

- Improved agricultural productivity: The project will provide irrigation water to a large area of agricultural land, leading to increased crop yields and improved livelihoods for farmers.

- Drinking water supply: The project will also cater to the drinking water needs of several towns and villages in the region, thereby addressing water scarcity issues.

- Industrial development: The availability of water through the project will attract industries to the region, promoting industrial development and creating employment opportunities.

- Recharge of groundwater: The project aims to recharge groundwater levels by providing a sustainable source of water for irrigation and other purposes.

Conclusion
The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP) is a significant initiative undertaken by the Telangana government to address water scarcity and promote agricultural and economic development in the state.

One Nation One Registration platform is an initiative launched by:
  • a)
    Ministry of Education
  • b)
    Ministry of Commerce
  • c)
    NITI Aayog
  • d)
    National Medical Commission
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The National Medical Commission (NMC) is all set to launch its “one nation, one registration platform’‘ for doctors across India.
  • The NMC will unveil a patch pilot of the National Medical Register (NMR) in the next six months where doctors will be allotted a unique identification number.
  • Doctors can also apply for their licence to work in any State depending on where they are.
  • The commission had earlier this year issued a gazette notification titled “Registration of Medical Practitioners and Licence to Practice Medicine Regulations, 2023”
  • The idea is to provide a masked ID to undergraduate students on the NMR and depending on when they complete their course the ID is unmasked and allotted.
  • This ID can be used to update any further qualification and all State registers for licence to work in any part of the country will be linked here 
  • Aim: To eliminate duplication, red tape and allow the public to access information on any physician working in India.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Future Leaders scholarship programme:
  1. It supports students studying Master's programmes in engineering and medical research.
  2. It reserves the half of the scholarships for female scholars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Kumar answered
Introduction:
The Future Leaders scholarship programme is being discussed in this question. Two statements are given regarding the programme and we have to determine which statement(s) is/are correct.

Explanation:
Let's evaluate each statement one by one.

Statement 1: It supports students studying Masters programmes in engineering and medical research.
This statement implies that the Future Leaders scholarship programme provides support to students pursuing Masters programmes in the fields of engineering and medical research.

- The statement does not mention any other fields or subjects, so we cannot conclude that the programme supports students in other disciplines.
- Since the statement does not provide any contradictory information or limitations, we can assume that the programme indeed supports students in engineering and medical research.

Statement 2: It reserves half of the scholarships for female scholars.
This statement suggests that the Future Leaders scholarship programme allocates 50% of the scholarships specifically for female scholars.

- The statement clearly states that half of the scholarships are reserved for females, indicating a focus on promoting gender diversity and inclusivity.
- This allocation of scholarships based on gender is a deliberate effort to encourage more female participation in the programme.
- By reserving half of the scholarships for female scholars, the programme aims to address the underrepresentation of women in engineering and medical research.

Conclusion:
Based on the evaluation of the two statements, it can be concluded that both statements are correct. The Future Leaders scholarship programme supports students pursuing Masters programmes in engineering and medical research, and it reserves half of the scholarships for female scholars.

What is ‘Scabies’, recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    Spyware
  • b)
    Coral species
  • c)
    Parasitic infestation
  • d)
    Neurotransmitter
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Malawi has seen a resurgence of the infectious skin disease scabies in an outbreak that is being linked to the climate crisis.
About Scabies:
  • Scabies is a parasitic infestation caused by a mite known as Sarcoptesscabiei.
  • This causes an itchy rash to form on the skin.
  • Untreated, these microscopic mites can live on the skin for months.
  • They reproduce on the surface of the skin and then burrow into it to lay eggs.
  • Scabies is often found in the skin folds. But scabies can appear on many parts of the body.
  • Transmission: It is contagious and can spread quickly from person-to-person through close skin contact (e.g. living in the same residence) with an infested individual.
  • Symptoms: Scabies symptoms include
    • severe itch, often worse at night;
    • itchy lines (linear burrows) and bumps (papules) on the fingers, wrists, arms, legs,and belt area;
    • larger rash in infants and small children, including on the palms, soles of the feet, ankles, and scalp.
    • A more severe type of scabies, called crusted scabies, makes the skin crusty and scaly, and affects large areas of the body.
  • Treatment: Scabies is easily treated. Medicated skin creams or pills kill the mites that cause scabies and their eggs. But the itching may not stop for many weeks after treatment.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Black Stork:
  1. It is a migratory bird mainly found in the swampy coniferous forests.
  2. It is categorized as least concern species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, a Black Stork species rarely seen, has been spotted in the Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh.
  • The black stork (Ciconia nigra ) is a large bird in the stork family Ciconiidae
  • Habitat: It breeds in swampy coniferous and mixed forests.
  • It can also be found in grasslands, agricultural fields, and on the margins of lakes and rivers during winter.
  • It is a long-distance migrant, with European populations wintering in tropical Sub-Saharan Africa, and Asian populations in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Distribution: It is mainly found in Europe, Asia and African countries.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN: Least concern
Key facts about Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary
  • It is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It lies alongside the northern tip of the River Ganga, flowing through the districts of Muzaffarnagar and Bijnor.
  • Flora: It has a variety of landforms and is a mixture of different habitats such as wetlands, marshes, dry sand beds and gently sloping ravines.
  • Fauna: Swamp Deer, Leopard, Wild Cats, Wild Otter, Pythons etc.
  • It is a part of the "Asia Flyway" project, and many migratory Birds, both local and foreign, flock in numbers near the numerous water bodies present in the region.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Treaty of Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE):
  1. It was signed between the NATO and the Warsaw Pact members to put limits on the deployment of military equipment.
  2. Its obligations were supervised under a treaty compliance mechanism requiring information sharing and reciprocal inspections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Russia formally withdrew from the Treaty of Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE) recently.
About Treaty of Conventional Armed Forces in Europe (CFE):
  • Negotiated during the final years of the Cold War and signed a year after the fall of the Berlin Wall, CFE placed limits on the deployment of military equipment to maintain military balance between North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and the then-Warsaw Pact countries.
  • Its purpose was to stop Cold War rivals from building up forces that could be used in a swift assault. 
  • Twenty-two member states of the two military alliances, the NATO and the Warsaw Pact, came together in Paris on 19 November 1990 to sign the agreement.
  • It finally entered into force on 9 November 1992. The Warsaw Pact by this time had disintegrated and its treaty obligations were consequently passed to the pact’s successor states.
  • Specifically, the Treaty required NATO and Warsaw Pact states to have in total no more than 40,000 battle tanks, 60,000 armoured combat vehicles, 40,000 pieces of artillery, 13,600 combat aircraft and 4,000 attack helicopters on the whole territory of the respective alliance.
  • To reach these targets, the CFE states parties destroyed in subsequent years more than 50,000 weapons systems. 
  • These steps were supervised under a treaty compliance mechanism requiring information sharing and reciprocal inspections.
  • Moreover, the scope of the treaty was soon widened to cover troop numbersThe 1992 follow-up agreement known as the CFE-1A arranged limits on the level of military personnel.
  • Meeting at the Istanbul summit of the Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE), CFE Treaty partners finally agreedon 19 November 1999, on an updated and modified arrangement: the Adapted CFE Treaty. 
  • major change was that limitations on conventional weapon systems were no longer aligned to two “blocs” but to the territorial borders of individual states.
  • Russia suspended its participation in the treaty in 2007 and halted active participation in 2015.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Krishi 24/7:
  1. It is Artificial Intelligence (AI) powered solution for automated agricultural news monitoring and analysis.
  2. It is capable of translating news from multiple languages into English.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the Union Agriculture Ministry in collaboration with Wadhwani Institute for Artificial Intelligence (Wadhwani AI) developed Krishi 24/7.
  • It is the first-ever AI-powered solution for automated agricultural news monitoring and analysis with support from Google.org.
  • Features
  • The tool scans news articles in multiple languages and translates them into English.
  • It extracts essential information from news articles, such as headline, crop name, event type, date, location, severity, summary, and source link, ensuring that the ministry receives timely updates on relevant events published on the web.
  • Significance
    • It addresses the need for an efficient mechanism to identify and manage agricultural news articles of interest to aid timely decision-making.
    • It will aid Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (DA&FW) to identify relevant news, generate timely alerts, and take prompt action to protect farmers' interests and promote sustainable agricultural growth through improved decision-making.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Swamp deer, consider the following statements:
1. It is found in open forests and grasslands of India and Nepal. 
2. It is listed under the Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Recently, the Manas National Park & Tiger Reserve announced that the population of swamp deer at the park has witnessed a rise.
  • The swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii) also called as barasingha is a deer species distributed in the Indian subcontinent.
  • It belongs to the family Cervidae (order Artiodactyla), found in open forests and grasslands of India and Nepal. 
  • It eats predominantly wetland plants and herbaceous plants which are common in this deer’s natural habitat. 
  • Its population is now restricted to isolated and scattered locations in Nepal, Assam and the northern areas of India.
  • It is now extinct in both Bangladesh, and in Pakistan 
  • There are three subspecies of swamp deer found in the Indian Subcontinent.
  • The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii) found in Nepal,
  • Southern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi) found in central and north India.
  • Eastern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found in the Kaziranga and Dudhwa National Parks.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
  • CITES: Appendix I
  • The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence both statements are correct.

Guindy National Park, recently seen in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Kerala
  • b)
    Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Assam
  • d)
    West Bengal
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shraddha Basak answered
Guindy National Park in Tamil Nadu

Guindy National Park is located in the state of Tamil Nadu in India. It is a prominent national park that has recently been in the news. Let's explore more about this park and its significance.

Location
Guindy National Park is situated in the city of Chennai, the capital of Tamil Nadu. It covers an area of approximately 2.82 square kilometers and is one of the smallest national parks in the country. Despite its small size, it holds great ecological value and serves as a vital green lung in the midst of a bustling city.

Flora and Fauna
The park is home to a diverse range of flora and fauna. It houses around 350 species of plants, including rare and endangered ones. The vegetation primarily consists of tropical dry evergreen forests, which are unique to this region. The park also has a large number of trees, including the famous Raj Bhavan tree, which is believed to be over 200 years old.

In terms of fauna, Guindy National Park is inhabited by various species of mammals, reptiles, and birds. Some of the commonly spotted animals include blackbucks, spotted deer, jackals, bonnet macaques, and Indian civets. The park is also a haven for bird enthusiasts as it attracts a wide variety of avian species, including parakeets, peafowls, and migratory birds.

Conservation Efforts and Importance
Guindy National Park holds significant importance in terms of conservation and biodiversity preservation. It serves as a crucial habitat for several endangered and vulnerable species. The park plays a vital role in maintaining the ecological balance of the region and acts as a natural buffer against pollution.

The park also offers various educational and recreational opportunities for visitors. It has a children's park, a snake park, and a forest museum, providing an interactive learning experience about the rich biodiversity of the region. Moreover, it serves as a peaceful green oasis, providing a respite from the urban chaos.

Conclusion
Guindy National Park, located in Tamil Nadu, is a small yet significant national park known for its diverse flora and fauna. It serves as a green lung in the bustling city of Chennai and plays a crucial role in biodiversity conservation. With its educational and recreational facilities, it offers a unique experience for nature lovers and wildlife enthusiasts.

The Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
  • a)
    Gujarat
  • b)
    West Bengal
  • c)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sai Sengupta answered
The Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary:
The Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area situated in the Prakasam district of Andhra Pradesh, India. It covers an area of approximately 119.00 square kilometers. The sanctuary is named after the Gundla Brahmeswaram hill, which is located within its boundaries.

Flora and Fauna:
The sanctuary is known for its rich biodiversity and diverse range of flora and fauna. It is home to various species of plants, animals, and birds. The vegetation in the sanctuary consists of dry deciduous forests, thorny scrublands, and grasslands. Some of the common plant species found here include teak, bamboo, neem, neeredu, and sandalwood.

The sanctuary is inhabited by a variety of wildlife species. Mammals such as sloth bear, leopard, jungle cat, sambar deer, spotted deer, wild boar, and Indian pangolin can be found here. Reptiles like monitor lizard, Indian python, cobra, and Russell's viper are also present in the sanctuary.

Avian species are abundant in the Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary. It is a paradise for birdwatchers with over 150 species of birds recorded in the area. Some of the common bird species found here include peafowl, Indian roller, painted stork, black ibis, grey heron, and white-breasted kingfisher.

Importance and Conservation:
The Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is significant for its ecological value and conservation efforts. It provides a protected habitat for endangered and vulnerable species. The sanctuary also serves as an important corridor for wildlife movement between the Nallamala forests and Srisailam Tiger Reserve.

Efforts are being made to conserve the biodiversity of the sanctuary and promote eco-tourism. The Andhra Pradesh Forest Department conducts regular patrols to prevent illegal activities such as poaching and illegal logging. Eco-development programs are also being implemented to involve local communities in the conservation efforts.

Conclusion:
The Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh is a haven for diverse flora and fauna. It serves as a crucial habitat for many species and plays a significant role in the conservation of biodiversity. The sanctuary's natural beauty and ecological importance make it a popular destination for nature lovers and wildlife enthusiasts.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Tribal Youth Exchange Programme:
  1. Its objective is to give exposure to tribal youth about technological and industrial advancement happening in different States of India.
  2. It is organized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Gupta answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Explanation:
The given statements are:

1) Its objective is to give exposure to tribal youth about technological and industrial advancement happening in different States of India.
2) It is organized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Let's analyze each statement separately.

1) Objective of the Tribal Youth Exchange Programme:
The objective of the Tribal Youth Exchange Programme is to provide exposure to tribal youth about the technological and industrial advancements taking place in different states of India. This program aims to bridge the gap between tribal communities and the mainstream society by giving them an opportunity to learn about the technological advancements and industrial practices happening in various states. By doing so, the program aims to empower tribal youth and enhance their skills and knowledge in order to contribute effectively to the development of their communities.

2) Organizer of the Tribal Youth Exchange Programme:
The Tribal Youth Exchange Programme is organized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency of the Government of India responsible for the welfare and development of tribal communities. It formulates and implements various policies, programs, and schemes for the socio-economic development of tribal communities. The ministry works towards the preservation and promotion of tribal culture, protection of tribal rights, and ensuring the overall well-being of tribal people. The Tribal Youth Exchange Programme is one such initiative taken by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to provide exposure and opportunities to tribal youth.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. The objective of the Tribal Youth Exchange Programme is to provide exposure to tribal youth about technological and industrial advancements happening in different states of India. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the program is organized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Consider the following statements regarding the World Local Production Forum:
  1. It is an initiative of the World Health Organisation.
  2. It aims to improve timely and equitable access to quality assured health products. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Rane answered
The correct answer is option C: Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The World Local Production Forum (WLFP) is indeed an initiative of the World Health Organisation (WHO). It was established to enhance global and regional collaboration and coordination for local production of health products, especially in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs).

Aims of the World Local Production Forum:
The primary aim of the WLFP is to improve timely and equitable access to quality assured health products. It recognizes that many LMICs face challenges in accessing essential health products, such as medicines, vaccines, and diagnostics. Therefore, the forum focuses on promoting local production as a means to address these challenges and ensure sustainable access to high-quality health products.

Key Objectives of the World Local Production Forum:
1. Capacity Building: The WLFP aims to strengthen the capacity of LMICs to produce health products locally. This includes providing technical assistance, sharing knowledge and best practices, and facilitating technology transfer and innovation.

2. Quality Assurance: The forum emphasizes the importance of quality assurance in local production. It promotes the establishment of robust regulatory frameworks, good manufacturing practices, and quality control systems to ensure the safety, efficacy, and quality of health products.

3. Collaboration and Coordination: The WLFP facilitates collaboration and coordination among different stakeholders, including governments, industry, academia, and international organizations. It encourages partnerships and knowledge sharing to foster innovation, efficiency, and sustainability in local production.

4. Access and Affordability: The forum recognizes the need for affordable health products and aims to address barriers to access. It promotes strategies such as price transparency, intellectual property management, and equitable distribution to ensure that health products reach those who need them the most.

5. Health Security: The WLFP also focuses on strengthening health security by reducing dependency on external sources for essential health products. Local production can enhance countries' resilience to health emergencies and ensure continuity of supply, especially during crises or pandemics.

In summary, the World Local Production Forum is an initiative of the World Health Organisation that aims to improve timely and equitable access to quality assured health products. It focuses on capacity building, quality assurance, collaboration, access, and health security to promote local production in LMICs. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

‘Kavro Doma 360’, that was in the news recently, is:
  • a)
    anti-tank missile
  • b)
    missile defence system
  • c)
    ballistic helmet
  • d)
    unmanned aerial vehicle
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

There are many possible explanations for why the Earth is round. Here are a few:

1. Gravity: The Earth's gravitational force pulls everything towards its center. A sphere is the most efficient shape for distributing mass evenly around a central point, which is why planets tend to become spherical in shape.

2. Rotation: The Earth rotates on its axis, causing the equator to bulge outwards slightly. This rotation, combined with gravity, helps to give the Earth its round shape.

3. Plate tectonics: The Earth's crust is made up of several large plates that are constantly moving and colliding with each other. This movement causes the Earth's surface to deform and change shape over time, ultimately leading to a more rounded appearance.

4. Geological processes: Over millions of years, various geological processes such as erosion, weathering, and volcanic activity have shaped the Earth's surface into a more rounded form.

5. Observations and measurements: Throughout history, explorers and scientists have observed the curvature of the Earth from various vantage points, such as ships at sea or from space. Additionally, modern technology allows us to measure the Earth's shape using satellites and other instruments.

Overall, the evidence from gravity, rotation, plate tectonics, geological processes, and observations all support the conclusion that the Earth is round.

Consider the following statements regarding Trishakti Prahar Exercise, recently seen in the news:
  1. It is a multilateral military exercise involving India, Australia and USA.
  2. It seeks to serves as a platform to evaluate the effectiveness of modern warfare technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Much-anticipated joint exercise 'Trishakti Prahar' recently began near the western border of Rajasthan in Jaisalmer.
About Trishakti Prahar:
  • It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, and the Indian Air Force.
  • Objectives:
  • It aims to enhance mutual coordination and operational efficiency.
  • It seeks to create new strategies and assess operational capabilities in the context of modern warfare.
  • During the exercise, all three wings of the Indian Army actively engage in live practice sessions, simulating real war scenarios with complete coordination.
  • The exercise includes long-range attacks by reconnaissance aircraft, emphasizing precision and high-volume attacks to effectively neutralize hypothetical adversaries.
  • It involves a diverse array of military assets, including various types of howitzers, helicopters, and weaponry. This encompasses the deployment of the Army's T-90s and Arjun main battle tanks.
  • A major highlight of the exercise is the demonstration of the operational capability and readiness of the Pune-based Southwestern Command of the Indian Air Force. This segment showcases the Air Force's preparedness for integrated air-land operations, combined arms operations, and its fast mobility and deep strike offensive capabilities.
  • Fighter aircraft, Apache attack helicopters, Chinook heavy lift helicopters, and various Navy aircraft contribute to the multifaceted nature of the exercise.
  • It serves as a platform to evaluate the effectiveness of modern warfare technologies such as unmanned aerial vehicles, precision-guided missiles, loiter munitions, counter-drone systems, communication systems, and automatic spectrum monitoring systems in a simulated operational environment.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Vadhavan Port is a proposed container port to be developed in which one of the following States?
  • a)
    Gujarat
  • b)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • c)
    Kerala
  • d)
    Maharashtra
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Atharva Ghosh answered
Proposed Container Port: Vadhavan Port
State: Maharashtra

Explanation:

Introduction:
Vadhavan Port is a proposed container port that is planned to be developed in the state of Maharashtra, India. It is part of the Sagarmala project, which aims to promote port-led development in the country.

Importance of Vadhavan Port:
Vadhavan Port is strategically located on the west coast of India, near Dahanu in Maharashtra. It is expected to be a deep-water, all-weather port that can handle large container ships. The port is being developed to cater to the growing demand for container handling and to decongest the existing ports in the region.

Advantages of Maharashtra:
1. Connectivity: Maharashtra has a well-developed network of road, rail, and air connectivity, making it an ideal location for a port. The state is well-connected to major industrial and commercial hubs in the country, which will facilitate the movement of goods to and from the port.

2. Industrial Hubs: Maharashtra is home to several industrial hubs, including Mumbai, Pune, Nashik, and Aurangabad. The state has a thriving manufacturing sector and is a major contributor to India's GDP. The development of Vadhavan Port will further enhance the state's industrial growth and attract investments.

3. Proximity to Mumbai: The proposed Vadhavan Port is located near Mumbai, the financial capital of India. Mumbai is a major trading center and has a high demand for container handling services. The development of Vadhavan Port will help in meeting this demand and also reduce the burden on the existing ports in Mumbai.

4. Coastal Advantage: Maharashtra has a long coastline of around 720 kilometers, providing ample opportunities for the development of ports. The state has already established ports like Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) and Mumbai Port Trust. The addition of Vadhavan Port will further strengthen Maharashtra's position as a maritime state.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, Vadhavan Port is a proposed container port that is planned to be developed in Maharashtra. The state's strategic location, well-developed connectivity, presence of industrial hubs, and coastal advantage make it an ideal choice for the development of a port. The establishment of Vadhavan Port will boost Maharashtra's economy, attract investments, and contribute to the overall growth of the country.

Consider the following statements regarding International Sugar Organisation (ISO):
  1. It is an inter-governmental body that aims to improve conditions of the world sugar market.
  2. It administers the internationally negotiated 1992 International Sugar Agreement (ISA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

India, the largest consumer and second-largest producer of sugar globally, was recently named the Chair of the International Sugar Organisation (ISO) for the year 2024.
About International Sugar Organisation (ISO):
  • ISO is an inter-governmental body completely devoted to improving conditions on the world sugar market.
  • Its 87 member states represent 87% of global production, 64% of consumption, 92% of sugar exports, and 34% of sugar imports.
  • ISO is based in London.
  • The ISO exists to administer the internationally negotiated 1992 International Sugar Agreement (ISA), the objectives of which are: 
  • to ensure enhanced international cooperation in connection with world sugar matters and related issues.
  • to provide a forum for intergovernmental consultations on sugar and on ways to improve the world sugar economy.
  • to facilitate trade by collecting and providing information on the world sugar market and other sweeteners.
  • to encourage increased demand for sugar, particularly for non-traditional uses.
  • To fulfill these objectives, the ISO undertakes many distinct activities, including workshops, seminars, and its long-established and widely-recognized statistical and analytical work.
Hence both statements are correct.

‘Kambala’, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    Folk sport
  • b)
    Martial art
  • c)
    Tribal dance
  • d)
    Miniature painting
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Some possible reasons for not being able to find happiness could include:

1. Unresolved emotional trauma or past events that are affecting one's ability to find joy and contentment.
2. Persistent negative thought patterns or self-limiting beliefs that prevent one from experiencing happiness.
3. Lack of self-awareness and understanding of one's own needs, desires, and values.
4. External circumstances such as poverty, illness, or other life challenges that make it difficult to find happiness.
5. Relationship difficulties or lack of meaningful connections with others.
6. Unrealistic expectations or constant comparison to others, leading to dissatisfaction.
7. Lack of purpose or meaning in one's life.
8. Mental health issues such as depression or anxiety that can affect one's mood and overall well-being.
9. Chronic stress or burnout from work or other obligations.
10. Difficulty practicing self-care and prioritizing one's own well-being.

It's important to note that everyone's journey to happiness is different and what works for one person may not work for another. Seeking support from a therapist or counselor can be helpful in exploring and addressing these underlying issues and finding strategies for finding happiness.

Haploclastusnilgirinus, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    Spider
  • b)
    Gecko
  • c)
    Frog
  • d)
    Snake
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Recently, researchers opinioned that the Haploclastusnilgirinusa species of tarantula could be under threat from habitat loss and climate change.
  • It is an elusive Nilgiri large burrowing spider and a venomous species of tarantula.
  • It is endemic to the Nilgiris hills of Western Ghats.
  • It shows sexual dimorphism, the males are much smaller than the females.
  • Threats: It is threatened by the illegal trade in wildlife as well as by climate change,
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chenab Bridge:
  1. It is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link project.
  2. It is the highest single-arch railway bridge in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nitya Chavan answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Chenab Bridge, also known as the Chenab Arch Bridge, is a significant infrastructure project in India. Let's examine each statement to understand why both are correct.

1. It is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link project:
The Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link project is a major railway project in the northern region of India. It aims to connect the city of Jammu in Jammu and Kashmir with the rest of the country through a railway network. The project includes the construction of several bridges and tunnels to overcome the challenging topography of the region. The Chenab Bridge is one of the key components of this project, and it plays a crucial role in connecting the Kashmir Valley with the rest of India.

2. It is the highest single-arch railway bridge in the world:
The Chenab Bridge is indeed the highest single-arch railway bridge in the world. It is an engineering marvel that spans the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir. The bridge stands at a height of approximately 359 meters (1,178 feet) above the riverbed, making it an impressive feat of engineering. The arch of the bridge is a prominent feature and adds to its architectural significance.

The construction of the Chenab Bridge involves advanced engineering techniques and materials to ensure its stability and durability. It is designed to withstand extreme weather conditions, including high-speed winds and earthquakes. The bridge's arch is made of steel and concrete, and its construction required extensive planning and expertise.

Once completed, the Chenab Bridge will provide a crucial railway link to the remote regions of Jammu and Kashmir, improving connectivity and facilitating economic development. It will also serve as a major tourist attraction, offering breathtaking views of the surrounding landscapes.

In conclusion, both statements regarding the Chenab Bridge are correct. It is an integral part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link project and holds the distinction of being the highest single-arch railway bridge in the world.

Consider the following statements regarding National Digital Nagrik Forum:
  1. It is an online platform that aims to advance the rights of traders and consumers and shape policy to boost the digital trade economy.
  2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Keerthana Sen answered
Answer:

The correct answer is option 'A', i.e., statement 1 only.

Explanation:
The National Digital Nagrik Forum is an online platform that aims to advance the rights of traders and consumers and shape policy to boost the digital trade economy. It is not an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

The National Digital Nagrik Forum is a platform that brings together stakeholders from various sectors including traders, consumers, startups, and other organizations to discuss and address issues related to digital trade. It aims to provide a platform for dialogue, collaboration, and knowledge sharing to promote the growth of the digital trade economy in India.

The platform focuses on addressing various challenges faced by traders and consumers in the digital trade ecosystem. It aims to provide a forum for them to voice their concerns and seek solutions to issues such as consumer protection, data privacy, cybersecurity, logistics, taxation, and regulatory compliance.

The National Digital Nagrik Forum is not an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. However, it is expected to collaborate with government agencies, industry associations, and other stakeholders to develop policy recommendations and guidelines for the digital trade sector. It aims to work closely with the government to shape the policy framework and regulations to facilitate the growth of digital trade in India.

In conclusion, the National Digital Nagrik Forum is an online platform that aims to advance the rights of traders and consumers and shape policy to boost the digital trade economy. It is not an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Therefore, statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) scheme:
  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for the development of existing schools across the country.
  2. Schools under the scheme will be selected through Challenge Mode competition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme for the development of existing schools across the country. It aims to provide holistic development to students and improve the quality of education in government schools. Let's analyze each statement given in the question:

Statement 1: It is a centrally sponsored scheme for the development of existing schools across the country.

This statement is correct. The PM SHRI scheme is indeed a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at the development of existing schools across the country. The scheme focuses on enhancing the quality of education, infrastructure, and facilities in government schools.

Statement 2: Schools under the scheme will be selected through Challenge Mode competition.

This statement is also correct. The selection of schools under the PM SHRI scheme is done through a Challenge Mode competition. The competition is aimed at encouraging schools to come up with innovative ideas and initiatives for the improvement of education. Schools are required to submit detailed proposals outlining their plans for development and improvement.

The proposals are evaluated based on various parameters such as the quality of infrastructure, availability of basic facilities, participation of students in co-curricular activities, etc. The schools with the best proposals are selected for funding under the scheme.

Conclusion:

Both statements given in the question are correct. The Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme for the development of existing schools across the country. The selection of schools under the scheme is done through a Challenge Mode competition. This scheme aims to improve the quality of education and provide holistic development to students in government schools.

Deepor Beel is a perennial freshwater lake located in:
  • a)
    Kerala
  • b)
    Manipur
  • c)
    Assam
  • d)
    Himachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepor Beel is a perennial freshwater lake located in Assam, India. It is an important wetland ecosystem and serves as a home to a diverse range of flora and fauna. Here is a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is option 'C':

1. Location:
Deepor Beel is situated in the south-western part of Guwahati city, the capital of Assam. It is located in the Kamrup district of Assam.

2. Importance as a Wetland Ecosystem:
Deepor Beel is recognized as a Ramsar site, which is a wetland of international importance. It is one of the largest natural freshwater lakes in the Brahmaputra valley of Assam. The lake is surrounded by marshes, swamps, and grasslands, creating a unique ecosystem that supports a wide variety of plant and animal species.

3. Biodiversity:
The lake is known for its rich biodiversity. It serves as a habitat for numerous resident and migratory birds, including several endangered and critically endangered species. Some of the commonly sighted bird species in Deepor Beel include the greater adjutant stork, Pallas's fish eagle, and black-necked stork. The lake also supports a significant population of waterfowls and waterbirds.

4. Flora:
The wetland ecosystem of Deepor Beel is characterized by aquatic vegetation, reeds, and grasses. The lake is surrounded by dense vegetation, including floating and submerged plants such as water hyacinth, water lilies, and lotus. These plants provide shelter and food for various aquatic species.

5. Fauna:
Apart from birds, Deepor Beel is home to several mammals, reptiles, and amphibians. The lake supports populations of Gangetic dolphins, otters, fishing cats, and various species of turtles. It also serves as a breeding ground for the endangered Indian python.

6. Threats and Conservation:
Like many other wetlands, Deepor Beel faces various threats such as encroachment, pollution, and habitat degradation. Human activities like solid waste dumping and discharge of untreated sewage have led to water pollution and degradation of the lake's ecosystem. However, efforts are being made by the government and environmental organizations to conserve and protect Deepor Beel.

In conclusion, Deepor Beel is a significant freshwater lake located in Assam, India. It is known for its diverse flora and fauna, serving as an important wetland ecosystem. The lake's Ramsar site status highlights its international importance and the need for its conservation.

Exercise AUSTRAHIND-23, recently seen in news, is conducted between India and:
  • a)
    Australia
  • b)
    France
  • c)
    South Africa
  • d)
    Russia
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Indian Armed Forces contingent comprising of 81 personnel departed for Australia to take part in the second edition of Joint Military Exercise AUSTRAHIND-23.
  • It was instituted in 2022 and the first edition was conducted in Mahajan, Rajasthan.
  • It is planned to be an annual training event to be conducted alternatively in India and Australia.
  • Aim of the exercise is to foster collaborative partnership and share best practices between the two sides.
  • This year the exercise will be conducted at Perth, Australia from 22nd November to 06th December 2023.
  • Indian Army contingent comprises 60 personnel from a Battalion of the GORKHA Rifles will take part in this exercise.
  • The exercise will also promote inter- operability while undertaking multi-domain operations in Urban and Semi- Urban terrain under Chapter VII of United Nations on peace keeping operations.
  • The joint exercise will promote exchange of ideas and jointly rehearse tactics, technique and procedures for conducting tactical operations.
  • The exercise will also help in promoting understanding between the two militaries and further strengthen the defence cooperation between the two friendly nations.
Hence option a is the correct answer.

Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR, recently in news, is conducted between India and:
  • a)
    Bhutan
  • b)
    Sri Lanka
  • c)
    Nepal
  • d)
    United States of America (USA)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Desai answered
Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR: India-USA Joint Military Exercise

Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR is a joint military exercise conducted between India and the United States of America (USA). It is a bilateral training exercise aimed at enhancing cooperation and interoperability between the armed forces of both countries.

Objective of Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR
The main objective of Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR is to strengthen the strategic partnership between India and the USA by improving coordination, sharing best practices, and enhancing combat capabilities. The exercise provides an opportunity for both countries to learn from each other's experiences and develop a better understanding of each other's military tactics, techniques, and procedures.

Duration and Location
Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR is usually conducted for a duration of two weeks. The exercise takes place in both India and the USA, with different phases held in different locations.

Participants
The exercise involves the participation of special forces units from both countries. Special forces troops from the Indian Army's Parachute Regiment and the US Army's Special Forces (Green Berets) are the main participants in the exercise. These elite units undergo rigorous training together to improve their operational capabilities and develop mutual trust and confidence.

Activities
During the exercise, the participating forces engage in a series of joint training activities, including simulated combat scenarios, counter-terrorism operations, hostage rescue missions, and specialized training in urban warfare and jungle warfare. The exercise also includes exercises in airborne operations, close-quarter combat, and tactical live-fire exercises.

Significance
Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR plays a crucial role in strengthening the defense ties between India and the USA. It allows both countries to exchange knowledge and expertise in special operations and counter-terrorism operations. The exercise also serves as a platform for building camaraderie and fostering interoperability between the armed forces of both nations.

Conclusion
Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR is a significant initiative that enhances the defense cooperation and strategic partnership between India and the USA. Through this joint military exercise, both countries aim to improve their operational capabilities and strengthen their ability to respond to various security challenges.

Consider the following statements regarding risk-Weighted Asset:
  1. It is used to determine the minimum amount of capital a bank hold in relation to the risk profile of its lending activities.
  2. It does not impact the pricing of loans for borrowers in any way.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the cost of funds for banks and non-bank financial companies (NBFCs), by increasing the risk weight of such loans.
  • It is the every rupee lent by the bank is a cost or has an implication on its capital position. 
  • Risk-Weighted Assets: These are used to determine the minimum amount of capital a bank must hold in relation to the risk profile of its lending activities and other assets.
  • The Reserve Bank of India decided in April 1992 to introduce a risk asset ratio system for banks (including foreign banks) in India as a capital adequacy measure in line with the Capital Adequacy Norms prescribed by Basel Committee.
  • Impacts
  • Lower the risk weight, lower the rate of interest. Therefore, risk weights impact borrowers indirectly and is felt through the pricing of loans.
  • The increase in risk weights by the RBI will elevate funding costs for NBFCs and impact capital requirements.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Organisation for Migration (IOM):
  1. It only deals with international migration and not internally displaced persons.
  2. All the members of the United Nations are members of the IOM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The International Organisation for Migration recently said 662 illegal migrants were rescued off the coast of Libya.
About International Organisation for Migration (IOM):
  • Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental organization in the field of migration. 
  • The IOM defines the term migrant as: “a person who moves away from his or her place of usual residencewhether within a country or across an international border, temporarily or permanently, and for a variety of reasons.” 
  • It offers, at the request of States, its support to migrants but also to internally displaced persons, refugees and other uprooted people in the four broad areas of migration and development, facilitating migration, regulating migration and addressing forced migration.
  • IOM works to ensure
  • the orderly and humane management of migration
  • to promote international cooperation on migration issues
  • to assist in the search for practical solutions to the challenges of migration
  • to provide humanitarian assistance to migrants in need, including refugees and internally displaced people.
  • In 2016, IOM entered into an agreement with the United Nations, becoming a related organization. 
  • IOM serves as coordinator of the United Nations network on migration, established by the Secretary-General in 2018.
  • IOM is the UN agency in charge of labour mobility and migration in general
  • It currently has 172 member states and 8 states holding observer statusIndia is a member of IOM.
  • Its headquarters are located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sophisticated Analytical & Technical Help Institutes (SATHI) Initiative:
  1. It is an initiative by the Department of Science and Technology to boost access to research and testing facilities.
  2. It will be readily accessible to academia, industries and R&D labs. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. The Sophisticated Analytical is a software tool used for data analysis and modeling.
2. It is designed for advanced users who have a strong understanding of statistical methods and techniques.
3. The tool allows users to perform complex data manipulations, generate statistical models, and visualize results.
4. It supports a wide range of statistical techniques, including regression analysis, factor analysis, and cluster analysis.
5. The Sophisticated Analytical has a user-friendly interface that allows users to easily navigate through the various features and functions.
6. It provides users with the ability to import data from various sources, such as Excel spreadsheets and SQL databases.
7. The tool also offers advanced data visualization capabilities, allowing users to create charts, graphs, and other visual representations of their data.
8. It has built-in tools for data cleaning and preprocessing, making it easier for users to prepare their data before analysis.
9. The Sophisticated Analytical provides users with the ability to export their results in various formats, such as Excel, PDF, and HTML.
10. It offers a range of customization options, allowing users to tailor the tool to their specific needs and preferences.

Onattukara sesame, which recently got Geographical Indication (GI)-tag, is from:
  • a)
    Karnataka
  • b)
    Gujarat
  • c)
    Tamil Nadu
  • d)
    Kerala
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Efforts are being made by the Kerala state authorities to expand the cultivation of geographical indication (GI)-tagged Onattukara sesame.
  • It is cultivated in the state of Kerala.
  • Onattukara Ellu and its oil are famous for its unique health benefits.
  • Relatively higher antioxidant content in Onattukara Ellu helps in fighting the free radicals, which destroy the body cells.
  • It has the high content of unsaturated fat makes it beneficial for heart patients.
  • This sesame grown in the region contains high levels of Vitamin E and antioxidants.
  • It also contains oleic acid, linoleic acid, palmitoleic acid and so on which help maintain good health.
Key facts about Geographical Indication (GI) tag
  • It is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
  • This is typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, wine and spirit drinks, handicrafts and industrial products.
  • The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 seeks to provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to goods in India.
  • This GI tag is valid for 10 years following which it can be renewed.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

With reference to Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), consider the following statements:
  1. CBAM is part of the European Union's “Fit for 55 in 2030 package".
  2. CBAM is aimed at reducing Carbon Emissions by ensuring that imported goods are subject to the same carbon costs as products produced within the EU.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Chawla answered
Efforts to combat climate change and reduce carbon emissions.
2. CBAM aims to level the playing field for EU industries by ensuring that imported goods are subject to the same carbon pricing as domestic goods.
3. CBAM applies to a wide range of sectors, including energy-intensive industries such as steel, cement, and chemicals.
4. CBAM is designed to discourage carbon leakage, which occurs when businesses relocate their production to countries with less stringent carbon regulations.
5. CBAM has faced criticism from some countries, who argue that it could be used as a protectionist tool and hinder global trade.

All of these statements are correct. CBAM is indeed part of the European Union's efforts to combat climate change and reduce carbon emissions. It aims to level the playing field for EU industries by ensuring that imported goods are subject to the same carbon pricing as domestic goods. It applies to a wide range of sectors, including energy-intensive industries such as steel, cement, and chemicals. The mechanism is designed to discourage carbon leakage, which occurs when businesses relocate their production to countries with less stringent carbon regulations. Finally, CBAM has faced criticism from some countries who argue that it could be used as a protectionist tool and hinder global trade.

Consider the following statements regarding the Vitrimer plastic:
  1. It can be reshaped numerous times when exposed to higher temperatures. 
  2. It is biodegradable plastic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Researchers at the University of Tokyo have successfully created “sustainable plastic,” which is based on an epoxy resin vitrimer.
  • These represent a relatively recent category of plastics known for their impressive strength at low temperatures.
  • They also possess the unique ability to be reshaped numerous times when exposed to higher temperatures. 
  • It is also partially biodegradable.
  • Nonetheless, they do have a notable drawback - extreme brittleness, as they cannot be stretched far before breaking.
  • To address this issue, researchers introduced a molecule called polyrotaxane into the plastic synthesis process, resulting in a novel plastic variant they've dubbed VPR, an abbreviation for "vitrimer incorporated with polyrotaxane." 
  • VPR is over five times as resistant to breaking as a typical epoxy resin vitrimer.
  • At high temperature of around 150 degrees Celsius, VPR start to recombine, allowing the material to take on different forms.
  • It also repairs itself 15 times as fast, can recover its original memorised shape twice as fast and can be chemically recycled 10 times as fast as the typical vitrimer.
  • It even biodegrades safely in a marine environment, which is new for this material,”
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Igla-S:
  1. It is a man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) developed by Russia.
  2. It has an effective range of more than 500 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Russia recently signed a contract to supply Igla-S hand-held anti-aircraft missiles to India and has allowed the production of the Igla under license.
About Igla-S:
  • It is a man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) developed by Russia.
  • It is known in the West as SA-24 Grinch.
  • It entered service with the Russian Army in 2004. 
  • It can be fired by an individual or crew to bring down an enemy aircraft.
  • It has the capability of bringing down low-flying aircraft. It can also identify and neutralise air targets, such as cruise missiles and drones.
  • Features:
  • The Igla-S system comprises of combat equipment, including the 9M342 missile and the 9P522 launching mechanism, along with maintenance equipment, including the 9V866-2 mobile test station and the 9F719-2 test set.
  • It has an effective range upto 6 km.
  • The limiting altitude of effective target destruction for the "Igla-S" complex is 3.5 km.
  • It has a heavier, more powerful warhead to maximize damage capabilities, as well as contact and timed fuzes for increased attack range.
  • The warhead is a high-explosive fragmentation (HE-FRAG) and weighs 2.5 kg.
  • Guidance is homing via infrared.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Gambusia fish:
  1. It is used as a biological agent for controlling mosquito larvae.
  2. It is native to the Indian Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Recently, various government and non-governmental organisations in Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Punjab have released Gambusia fish into local water bodies to address a mosquito menace.
  • It is known as mosquito fish, is widely used as a biological agent for controlling mosquito larvae.
  • It is native to the waters of the south-eastern United States.
  • It has been a part of mosquito-control strategies for over a century in various parts of the world, including India.
  • A single full-grown fish eats about 100 to 300 mosquito larvae per day.
  • Also, it has been part of various malaria control strategies in India since 1928, including the Urban Malaria Scheme.
  • The International Union for Conservation of Nature declare Gambusia one of the 100 worst invasive alien species in the world. 
Key points about Malaria
  • It is a disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite.
  • The parasite can be spread to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
  • Transmission
  • The plasmodium parasite is spread by female Anopheles mosquitoes, which are known as "night-biting" mosquitoes because they most commonly bite between dusk and dawn.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Amplifi 2.0 Portal:
  1. It aims to provide data on Indian cities which helps in data-driven policy making.
  2. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Recently, the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched the Amplifi 2.0 portal.
  • Amplifi (Assessment and Monitoring Platform for Liveable, Inclusive and Future-ready urban India) portal aims to provide data on Indian cities.
  • It is making raw data from Indian cities available on a single platform for academics, researchers, and stakeholders to help data-driven policy making.
  • Currently, 258 urban local bodies (ULB) have been on-boarded, and data for 150 cities is available on the portal. 
  • It provides data on a range of information for several cities, including, for example, the total diesel consumption; the number of samples tested for water quality; 
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Loss and Damage Fund, consider the following statements:
  1. This fund recognizes and aims to compensate for the real losses incurred by communities, countries, and ecosystems due to the impacts of climate change.
  2. After intense negotiations at the UNFCCC Conference of Parties (COP 26), representatives of the UNFCCC’s member states agreed to set up the Loss and Damage fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Agreed to establish the Loss and Damage Fund in 2013. The fund is primarily financed by contributions from developed countries, who are considered to be the main contributors to climate change. The fund provides financial support for adaptation measures and projects that help vulnerable communities and countries cope with the impacts of climate change. The fund also covers non-economic losses, such as loss of cultural heritage and human lives, caused by climate change.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO):
  1. NOTTO is set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, located in New Delhi.
  2. NOTTO's National Network division oversees all activities related to organ and tissue donation and transplantation, serving as the central hub for procurement, distribution, and registry nationwide.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Niharika Roy answered
The correct answer is option 'D', Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:
1. NOTTO is set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, located in New Delhi: This statement is correct. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is indeed set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which is located in New Delhi. NOTTO is responsible for coordinating and promoting organ and tissue transplantation in the country.

2. NOTTO's National Network division oversees all activities related to organ and tissue donation and transplantation, serving as the central hub for procurement, distribution, and registry nationwide: This statement is not correct. NOTTO's National Network division is not responsible for overseeing all activities related to organ and tissue donation and transplantation. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) is divided into different divisions with specific responsibilities. The National Organ Retrieval and Transplantation Network (NORTON) is responsible for overseeing all activities related to organ and tissue donation and transplantation. It serves as the central hub for procurement, distribution, and registry nationwide.

Therefore, both statements are not correct. NOTTO is set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, but its National Network division does not oversee all activities related to organ and tissue donation and transplantation. The correct division responsible for these activities is NORTON.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Somalia is a landlocked country situated in the Horn of Africa.
  2. Bajuni Islands and the Socotra Archipelago are a part of and are administered by Somalia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Chirag Chawla answered
The correct answer is option 'D', neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:
1. Somalia is a landlocked country situated in the Horn of Africa.
- This statement is incorrect. Somalia is not a landlocked country. It is located on the eastern coast of Africa, bordered by the Gulf of Aden to the north, the Indian Ocean to the east, Kenya to the southwest, and Ethiopia to the west.

2. Bajuni Islands and the Socotra Archipelago are a part of and are administered by Somalia.
- This statement is also incorrect. The Bajuni Islands and Socotra Archipelago are not part of Somalia and are not administered by Somalia. The Bajuni Islands are located off the coast of Kenya and are part of Kenya's Lamu County. The Socotra Archipelago is located in the Arabian Sea and is part of Yemen.

In summary, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct. Somalia is not a landlocked country, and the Bajuni Islands and Socotra Archipelago are not part of and not administered by Somalia.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR):
  1. It is located in the Vindhyan mountain range in Madhya Pradesh.
  2. Ken River flows from south to north through the reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) is located in the Vindhyan mountain range in Madhya Pradesh. The reserve is spread across the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. It is situated in the northern part of the state and covers an area of approximately 542 square kilometers.

The Ken River flows through the Panna Tiger Reserve from south to north. The river is a lifeline for the reserve as it provides water for the diverse ecosystem and supports the wildlife population. The Ken River originates from the Kaimur Hills in Uttar Pradesh and passes through several states before finally entering Madhya Pradesh. It is one of the major tributaries of the Yamuna River.

The Panna Tiger Reserve is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to various species of flora and fauna. It is particularly famous for its tiger population and is one of the important tiger reserves in India. The reserve was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1994 and a National Park in 1981. It was also recognized as a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve in 2011.

The reserve is characterized by a diverse landscape, including rivers, plateaus, hills, and valleys. It is covered with dense forests consisting of teak, sal, mahua, tendu, and other tree species. These forests provide a suitable habitat for a wide range of wildlife species, including tigers, leopards, deer, antelope, wild boars, and various species of birds.

The Ken River flowing through the reserve adds to its scenic beauty and supports a variety of aquatic species. It also offers opportunities for boating and other recreational activities for tourists visiting the reserve.

In conclusion, the Panna Tiger Reserve is located in the Vindhyan mountain range in Madhya Pradesh, and the Ken River flows from south to north through the reserve. Both statements are correct.

Nidirana noadihingrecently seen in news, is a:
  • a)
    Snake
  • b)
    Butterfly
  • c)
    Fish
  • d)
    Frog
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagnik Shah answered
Introduction:
The organism "Nidirana noadihing" recently seen in the news is a frog. It is important to have a clear understanding of the characteristics and features of this species to correctly identify it as a frog.

Characteristics of Nidirana noadihing:
Nidirana noadihing, commonly known as the Noa's Toad or Noa's Stream Frog, is a species of frog belonging to the family Ranidae. It is endemic to the northeastern region of India, specifically in the states of Assam and Meghalaya.

Physical Appearance:
The Noa's Stream Frog is a relatively small-sized frog with a maximum recorded snout-vent length of about 4.5 centimeters. It has a robust body structure with relatively short limbs. The dorsal surface of the frog is typically brown or reddish-brown in color, while the ventral surface is pale yellow or whitish.

Habitat and Distribution:
This frog species is usually found in the hilly areas of northeastern India, particularly in the evergreen and semi-evergreen forests of Assam and Meghalaya. It prefers to inhabit streams and small water bodies in the forested regions, where it feeds on various invertebrates.

Conservation Status:
Nidirana noadihing is currently classified as a data-deficient species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). This classification implies that there is insufficient information available to assess the conservation status of this frog species accurately.

Importance of Nidirana noadihing:
Understanding and conserving species like Nidirana noadihing is crucial for maintaining the biodiversity of the region. Frogs play a significant role in the ecosystem as both predator and prey. They help control insect populations and serve as an important food source for other animals.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, Nidirana noadihing, recently seen in the news, is a frog species endemic to the northeastern region of India. With its unique characteristics and habitat preferences, this frog species holds ecological importance. Conservation efforts should be made to gather more information about this species and protect its habitat to ensure its survival in the future.

The Adaptation Gap Report, sometimes seen in the news, is published by:
  • a)
    United Nations Environment Programme
  • b)
    World Economic Forum
  • c)
    United Nations Development Programme
  • d)
    World Bank
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Joshi answered
The Adaptation Gap Report is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It is an annual report that assesses the difference between the financial resources that are needed to support developing countries in adapting to climate change and the actual funds that are available for this purpose. The report aims to highlight the financial gaps and challenges faced by developing countries in implementing climate adaptation measures.

The report is an important tool in advocating for increased funding and support for adaptation efforts. It provides a comprehensive analysis of the adaptation finance landscape, including information on current funding levels, sources of funding, and the areas where investment is needed the most. By examining the gap between the resources needed and the resources available, the report helps to identify the areas where additional funding is required.

The report also analyzes the effectiveness of existing adaptation finance mechanisms and identifies potential opportunities for scaling up funding. It provides insights into the barriers and challenges faced by developing countries in accessing and utilizing adaptation finance. This information is crucial for policymakers, governments, and international organizations in designing and implementing effective adaptation strategies.

Key points covered in the report include:

1. Assessment of adaptation finance levels: The report provides an overview of the current levels of adaptation finance, including public and private sector funding. It examines trends over time and identifies areas where funding has been inadequate.

2. Identification of funding gaps: The report assesses the financial gaps between the resources needed for adaptation and the funds that are currently available. It highlights the areas where additional funding is required to support adaptation efforts.

3. Analysis of funding sources: The report examines the sources of adaptation finance, including international public finance, domestic resources, and private sector investment. It analyzes the effectiveness of these funding sources and identifies opportunities for increasing investment.

4. Challenges and barriers: The report identifies the challenges and barriers faced by developing countries in accessing and utilizing adaptation finance. It examines issues such as limited capacity, lack of awareness, and institutional barriers that hinder effective use of funds.

Overall, the Adaptation Gap Report plays a crucial role in raising awareness about the financial challenges faced by developing countries in adapting to climate change. It provides important insights and recommendations for policymakers and stakeholders to bridge the adaptation gap and accelerate climate action.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF):
  1. It was launched by the United States to build economic integration in the Indo-Pacific region.
  2. It will work as a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) among member countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) recently signed an agreement to strengthen its supply chain and ensure adherence to labor rules.
About Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF):
  • It is a regional arrangement to build cooperation and economic integration in the Indo-Pacific region.
  • It was launched by United States President Joe Biden on May 23, 2022.
  • This framework is intended to advance resilience, sustainability, inclusivenesseconomic growth, fairness, and competitiveness for member economies
  • IPEF will seek to complement and build on existing regional architecture and support the global rules-based trading system.
  • It currently includes 14 partner countriesAustralia, Brunei Darussalam, Fiji, IndiaIndonesiaJapan, the Republic of KoreaMalaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, the United States, and Vietnam.
  • The economic framework broadly rests on four pillars
  • Trade
  • Supply chain resilience
  • Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure
  • Taxes and anti-corruption measures
  • The IPEF is not a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), but allows members to negotiate the parts they want to.
  • Indian and IPEF:
  • India has been actively participating in the IPEF, but not in all pillars.
  • India has decided to opt out of the trade pillarof the IPEF as most issues promoted by the IPEF do not align with India's trade policies.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Call for Safer and Healthier Working Environments’ report released recently by the ILO:
  1. This report underscores that fatalities resulting from work-related accidents and diseases are more prevalent in the Asia-Pacific region.
  2. Fatal Occupational Injury Rate (FOIR) is a statistical measure used to quantify the number of deaths resulting from work-related accidents or injuries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • The International Labour Organization (ILO) has released a report titled ‘A Call for Safer and Healthier Working Environments’.
  • This report underscores that fatalities resulting from work-related accidents and diseases are more prevalent in the Asia-Pacific region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Sectors such as mining and quarrying, construction, and utilities were identified as the most hazardous globally based on fatal occupational injury rates.
  • Fatal Occupational Injury Rate (FOIR) is a statistical measure used to quantify the number of deaths resulting from work-related accidents or injuries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Global Tuberculosis (TB) Report 2023 released by the WHO, consider the following
statements:
  1. In 2022, TB became the world’s leading cause of death from a single infectious agent followed by Covid-19.
  2. 30 high burden TB countries collectively accounted for 87% of the world's TB cases in 2022 and India is one
    of them.
  3. Despite being one of the high-burden countries, India’s TB fatality ratio is less than 5%.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

's leading cause of death from a single infectious agent, surpassing HIV/AIDS.
India accounted for the highest number of TB cases globally in 2022.
The report highlighted the urgent need for increased funding and political commitment to address the global TB epidemic.
Which of the statements are true according to the report?

1. In 2022, TB became the world's leading cause of death from a single infectious agent, surpassing HIV/AIDS.
2. India accounted for the highest number of TB cases globally in 2022.
3. The report highlighted the urgent need for increased funding and political commitment to address the global TB epidemic.

Based on the information provided, statements 1 and 3 are true according to the Global Tuberculosis (TB) Report 2023 released by the WHO. TB indeed became the world's leading cause of death from a single infectious agent in 2022, surpassing HIV/AIDS. Additionally, the report emphasized the urgent need for increased funding and political commitment to address the global TB epidemic. However, the report's findings about India accounting for the highest number of TB cases globally in 2022 are not mentioned, so statement 2 cannot be confirmed.

Consider the following statements regarding the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment:
  1. It is an initiative of G20 member countries to narrow the infrastructure gap in developing countries.
  2. It aims to build projects through grants and investments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Recently, the Union Minister for Commerce and Industry participated in the Investor Forum of the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) & Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF).
  • It is a developmental initiative aimed at narrowing the infrastructure gap in developing countries as well as help towards accelerating progress on SDGs globally.
  • The infrastructure plan was first announced in June 2021 during the G7 Summit in the UK.
  • Funding: It aims to build projects through grants and investments.
  • The emphasis of the PGII is on building human infrastructure in the developing world, and improving the quality of education and of health care facilities.
Key facts about G7 Group
  • It is an intergovernmental organisation of leading industrialised nations formed in 1975.
  • Member countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United State.
  • It meets annually to discuss issues such as global economic governance, international security, and energy policy.
  • The host of the G7 summit, also known as the presidency, rotates annually among member countries.
  • It was formerly referred to as the G-8 until Russia was suspended from the group in 2014 after annexing Crimea.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Pavana River, recently seen in the news, flows through which one of the following cities?
  • a)
    Hyderabad
  • b)
    Bengaluru
  • c)
    Bhopal
  • d)
    Pune
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Iyer answered
Introduction:
The Pavana River is a significant river that flows through the city of Pune, Maharashtra, making option D the correct answer.

Details:
The Pavana River is a tributary of the Bhima River and is located in the western part of Maharashtra. It originates in the Western Ghats near Lonavala and flows through the city of Pune before eventually joining the Bhima River.

Significance:
The Pavana River holds great importance for the city of Pune and its surrounding areas. It provides a source of water for irrigation purposes, as well as for domestic and industrial use. The river also plays a vital role in maintaining ecological balance and biodiversity in the region.

Hydroelectric Projects:
The Pavana River has been utilized for hydroelectric power generation. Several small and medium hydroelectric projects have been constructed along its course to harness its water potential. These projects not only contribute to the electricity generation but also aid in water management and flood control.

Recreational Activities:
The Pavana River also offers recreational opportunities for the residents of Pune. The riverbanks are often frequented by locals and tourists for picnics, boating, and other water sports. The serene and picturesque surroundings of the Pavana River make it an ideal spot for leisure activities and relaxation.

Environmental Concerns:
However, the Pavana River faces several environmental challenges, including pollution and encroachments along its banks. Industrial and domestic waste discharge, as well as the dumping of solid waste, have led to the deterioration of water quality. Efforts are being made by the authorities and environmental organizations to address these concerns and restore the river's health.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Pavana River flows through the city of Pune, Maharashtra, making option D the correct answer. This river holds significant importance for the region, serving as a source of water, hydroelectric power generation, and recreational activities. However, it also faces environmental challenges that need to be addressed for its conservation and sustainable use.

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