All questions of January 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Ionosphere.
  1. The ionosphere is a layer of the Earth’s atmospherethat is made up of charged atoms, molecules, and electrons.
  2. It stretches from 50 kilometres to over 1,000 kilometres above the Earth.
  3. It is located below the Mesosphere.
  4. Satellite and communication systems cannot function in this layer.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Only statement 1 and 2 is correct.
  • Scientists from the Indian Institute of Geomagnetism (IIG) have conducted decade-long ionospheric observations at Bharati station in Antarctica, revealing significant seasonal variations in ionospheric density.
  • The researchers found the peak ionospheric density near local noon during the winter months, attributing it to particle precipitation and the transportation of convectional plasma from high latitudes.
  • These long-term studies aim to enhance understanding of ionospheric effects on satellite-based navigation and communication systems.
  • The ionosphere is a layer of the Earth’s atmosphere that is made up of charged atoms, molecules, and electrons. It stretches from 50 kilometres (30 miles) to over 1,000 kilometres (600 miles) above the Earth.

Consider the following statements regarding prehistoric Dancing Girl sculpture.
  1. The Dancing Girl figurine was discovered in Mohenjodaro after India’s independence.
  2. The sculpture was made in lost-wax casting method.
  3. Even though Mohenjodaro and Harappa became part of Pakistani territory after the Partition, the Dancing Girl remained in India as part of an agreement.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Dancing Girl figurine was discovered in Mohenjodaro in 1926.
Even though Mohenjodaro and Harappa became part of Pakistani territory after the Partition, the Dancing Girl remained in India as part of an agreement. Today, the bronze figurine sits in the National Museum of India.
The Dancing Girl is evidence of the civilisation’s knowledge of metal blending and lost-wax casting – a complicated process by which a duplicate sculpture is cast from an original sculpture to create highly detailed metallic artefacts.

Consider the following statements regarding Uttaramerur inscription.
  1. Uttaramerur inscription is found in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu.
  2. These provide a detailed description about the village’s self-governance.
  3. Uttaramerur is known for its historic temples built during Pallava and Chola rule.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Saini answered
Explanation:

Statements Analysis:
- Statement 1: Uttaramerur inscription is found in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu. This statement is correct as Uttaramerur inscription is indeed located in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu.
- Statement 2: These provide a detailed description about the village's self-governance. This statement is correct as Uttaramerur inscriptions provide detailed information about the self-governance system followed in the village.
- Statement 3: Uttaramerur is known for its historic temples built during Pallava and Chola rule. This statement is also correct as Uttaramerur has historic temples that were constructed during the Pallava and Chola dynasties.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Conclusion:
All the statements provided regarding the Uttaramerur inscription are accurate. The inscription is located in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu, and it contains detailed information about the village's self-governance system. Additionally, Uttaramerur is renowned for its historic temples that were built during the rule of the Pallava and Chola dynasties.

Consider the following statements regarding narco analysis test.
  1. In a narco analysis test, a drug called sodium pentothal is injected into the body of the accused.
  2. During the test, the person enters into a hypnotic or sedated state in which their imagination is neutralised.
  3. The procedure is similar to polygraph test, which is also a lie-detector test.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 3 is incorrect.
In a ‘narco’ or narco analysis test, a drug called sodium pentothal is injected into the body of the accused, which transports them to a hypnotic or sedated state in which their imagination is neutralised. In this hypnotic state, the accused is understood as being incapable of lying and is expected to divulge information that is true.
Because the drug is believed to weaken the subject’s resolve to lie, it is sometimes referred to as a “truth serum”.
However, narco tests must not be confused with polygraph tests, which, although having the same truth-decoding motive, work differently.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Natural gas is an odorless, gaseous mixture of hydrocarbons—predominantly made up of methane.
  2. It is a non-fossil fuel and renewable source of energy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Natural gas is an odorless, gaseous mixture of hydrocarbons—predominantly made up of methane (CH4).
Natural gas is a fossil fuel energy source. Natural gas contains many different compounds. The largest component of natural gas is methane, a compound with one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms (CH4). Natural gas also contains smaller amounts of natural gas liquids (NGLs, which are also hydrocarbon gas liquids), and nonhydrocarbon gases, such as carbon dioxide and water vapor. We use natural gas as a fuel and to make materials and chemicals.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Constitution of India stipulates that a state cannot raise a loan without the consent of the Government of Indiaif any part of a previous loan from the central government remains outstanding.
  2. States in India have a normal net borrowing ceiling set at 5% of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP)for the fiscal year 2024, as per the Fifteenth Finance Commission’s recommendation.
  3. States in India receive an extra 0.5% of GSDPin borrowing capacity as a performance-based incentive for power sector reforms.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1:
It is correct. The Constitution of India indeed stipulates that a state cannot raise a loan without the consent of the Government of India if any part of a previous loan from the central government remains outstanding.

Statement 2:
This statement is also correct. The Fifteenth Finance Commission has recommended a normal net borrowing ceiling of 5% of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) for the fiscal year 2024 for states in India.

Statement 3:
This statement is incorrect. Instead of receiving an extra 0.5% of GSDP in borrowing capacity for power sector reforms, states in India actually receive an extra 2.5% of GSDP as a performance-based incentive.
Therefore, only two of the above statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI).
  1. India is a founding member of GPAI.
  2. The initiative aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.
  3. GPAI summits are held in India every year.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Saini answered
India's Membership in GPAI
- India is indeed a founding member of the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI). This partnership was launched in June 2020 with the participation of 16 countries, including India.

Objectives of GPAI
- The initiative aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities. It focuses on fostering international collaboration on AI research, policy, and regulation.

GPAI Summits in India
- However, GPAI summits are not held in India every year. The summits are typically held in various member countries to facilitate discussions and collaborations on AI-related issues.
Therefore, only the first two statements are correct. India's presence in GPAI and the initiative's goal of advancing AI research and applications are accurate, but the claim about annual GPAI summits in India is not true.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Article 22 of the Constitution upholds the fundamental right of any person who is in custody to be informed as to why he has been arrested.
  2. As per the present rules, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) need to mandatorily furnish a person accused under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) with a copy of the grounds of detention at the time of his arrest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

  • The Supreme Court has clarified in a judgment that the Enforcement Directorate (ED) need not furnish a person accused under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) with a copy of the grounds of detention at the time of his arrest.
  • The judgment comes amid debate that non-communication of the grounds of arrest was a violation of Article 22(1) of the Constitution, which upholds the fundamental right of any person who is in custody to be informed as to why he has been arrested.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Warmer air can hold more moisture than cooler air.
  2. A psychrometer is a device for measuring air humidity.
  3. A wet-bulb temperature is the lowest temperature a surface reach when water evaporates from it.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Warmer air can hold more moisture than cooler air.
A more direct way to understand the implications of the relative humidity for your wellbeing is in the form of the wet-bulb temperature (a.k.a. the adiabatic saturation temperature). It is the lowest temperature a surface – like your skin – can reach when water evaporates from it. The wet-bulb temperature is equal to the dry-bulb temperature when the relative humidity is 100%.
A wet-bulb temperature in an environment of 32-35º C or higher can be quickly lethal, even if you are not doing any physical activity or are in the shade. (At least one study has shown that even a wet-bulb temperature of more than 29º C can be dangerous.)
A psychrometer is a device for measuring air humidity.

Consider the following statements regarding Natural gas.
  1. Natural gas is used to power appliances like stoves and furnaces.
  2. Natural gas is a relatively clean burning fossil fuel, resulting in fewer emissions of nearly all types of air pollutants and CO2 when compared with burning coal or petroleum products.
  3. Extraction of natural gas from the ground does not involve release of any greenhouse gas.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 3 is incorrect.
Natural gas, extracted from the earth, powers appliances like stoves and furnaces.
Natural gas is mainly methane, which is a greenhouse gas – capable of trapping significant amounts of heat in the atmosphere. Natural gas is a relatively clean burning fossil fuel, resulting in fewer emissions of nearly all types of air pollutants and CO2 when compared with burning coal or petroleum products to produce an equal amount of energy.
Extraction of natural gas from the ground also involves release of certain greenhouse gases.

The Strait of Bab el-Mandeb, connects 
  • a)
    Persian Gulf and Gulf of Aden 
  • b)
    Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea 
  • c)
    Red Sea and Gulf of Aden 
  • d)
    Suez Canal and Red Sea
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Strait of Bab el-Mandeb
The Strait of Bab el-Mandeb is a narrow waterway located between the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden. It serves as a strategic link between the Indian Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea.

Importance of the Strait
- The Strait of Bab el-Mandeb is one of the world's busiest and most important shipping lanes, providing a crucial connection for international maritime trade.
- It is a vital passage for oil tankers traveling from the Persian Gulf to Europe and the Americas, as well as for goods moving between Asia and Europe.

Geopolitical Significance
- The control of the Strait of Bab el-Mandeb is of great geopolitical importance, as it allows countries to exert influence over the flow of goods and resources through the region.
- The proximity of the strait to conflict zones such as Yemen adds to its strategic significance, with various regional powers vying for control over this crucial waterway.

Challenges and Risks
- Despite its importance, the Strait of Bab el-Mandeb is also vulnerable to piracy and security threats, which can disrupt maritime traffic and pose risks to international shipping.
- The presence of ongoing conflicts in nearby Yemen further complicates the security situation in the region, potentially impacting the safe passage of vessels through the strait.
In conclusion, the Strait of Bab el-Mandeb plays a pivotal role in global maritime trade and geopolitics, connecting the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden and serving as a critical link between major shipping routes.

Which of the following are the examples of Oxidation Reaction?
  1. The taste of butter changes if left for a longer time
  2. Wine gets sour with time
  3. A reddish brown powder gets coated on articles made of iron
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arya Chauhan answered
Explanation:

Taste of butter changes if left for a longer time:
When butter is left for a longer time, it undergoes oxidation reactions which can lead to a change in taste. The fats in butter react with oxygen in the air, causing the butter to become rancid.

Wine gets sour with time:
The souring of wine is a result of oxidation reactions taking place in the wine. Oxygen reacts with the compounds in wine, causing it to turn sour over time.

A reddish brown powder gets coated on articles made of iron:
The reddish brown powder that forms on iron articles is rust, which is the result of oxidation of iron in the presence of oxygen and moisture.
Therefore, all three statements are examples of oxidation reactions.

Consider the following statements regarding Reserve currency.
  1. A reserve currency is widely used in cross-border transactions.
  2. It is commonly held as reserves by central banks.
  3. Till now U.S. dollar is the only currency recognised as international reserve currency.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
A reserve currency refers to any currency that is widely used in cross-border transactions and is commonly held as reserves by central banks. 
Other currencies such as the British pound and the French franc have served as international reserve currencies in the past. It should be noted that it is the currencies of economic superpowers that have usually ended up being used as the global reserve currency. As the economic clout of these countries waned, their currencies faced a similar downfall. This was the case, for example, with the British pound which was gradually replaced by the U.S. dollar as Britain lost its status as a global economic superpower in the first half of the 20th century.

Consider the following statements regarding Simlipal Tiger Reserve.
  1. Simlipal Tiger Reserve, situated in the Eastern Ghats, is a UNESCO-listed Biosphere Reserve, National Park, and Tiger Reserve.
  2. It is positioned within the Mahanadian coastal region and the Chhotanagpur biotic province.
  3. Simlipal boasts varied vegetation, encompassing moist and dry deciduous forests and grasslands.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Simlipal Tiger Reserve, situated in the Eastern Ghats, is a UNESCO-listed Biosphere Reserve, National Park, and Tiger Reserve. Positioned within the Mahanadian coastal region and the Chhotanagpur biotic province, it spans diverse biogeographical realms. Comprising the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, which includes Similipal Tiger Reserve, Hadgarh, and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary, Simlipal boasts varied vegetation, encompassing moist and dry deciduous forests and grasslands.
 

Consider the following statements regarding Buildings Breakthrough Initiative.
  1. The goal of the Buildings Breakthrough Initiative is to make near-zero emissions and resilient buildings the new normal by 2030.
  2. The initiative was launched by India.
  3. It is hosted by the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Menon answered
Statement 1: The goal of the Buildings Breakthrough Initiative is to make near-zero emissions and resilient buildings the new normal by 2030.
The statement is correct. The goal of the Buildings Breakthrough Initiative is indeed to make near-zero emissions and resilient buildings the new normal by the year 2030. This initiative aims to address the environmental challenges posed by the construction and operation of buildings, which are responsible for a significant portion of greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement 2: The initiative was launched by India.
The statement is incorrect. The Buildings Breakthrough Initiative was not launched by India. It was actually launched by the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction (GABC). The GABC is a global partnership of countries, organizations, and stakeholders committed to promoting sustainable buildings and construction.

Statement 3: It is hosted by the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction.
The statement is correct. The Buildings Breakthrough Initiative is indeed hosted by the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction (GABC). The GABC provides a platform for collaboration and knowledge sharing among its members to accelerate the transition towards sustainable buildings and construction.

Conclusion:
Out of the three statements given, only two statements are correct. The first statement, which states that the goal of the Buildings Breakthrough Initiative is to make near-zero emissions and resilient buildings the new normal by 2030, is correct. The third statement, which mentions that the initiative is hosted by the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction, is also correct. However, the second statement, which claims that the initiative was launched by India, is incorrect.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The combination of high temperature and low humidity is referred to as the wet bulb temperature.
  2. High moisture content in the atmosphere makes it difficult for the sweat to evaporate and bodies to cool down.
  3. Oral rehydration solutions (ORS) can act as lifesavers during heatstroke.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: The combination of high temperature and low humidity is referred to as the wet bulb temperature.

Explanation:
This statement is incorrect. The wet bulb temperature is not a combination of high temperature and low humidity. The wet bulb temperature is the lowest temperature that can be reached by evaporating water into the air at constant pressure. It is a measure of the cooling effect of evaporation and is influenced by both temperature and humidity. The wet bulb temperature is usually lower than the dry bulb temperature (the temperature measured with a regular thermometer) and can be used to estimate the level of heat stress in the environment.

Statement 2: High moisture content in the atmosphere makes it difficult for the sweat to evaporate and bodies to cool down.

Explanation:
This statement is correct. High moisture content in the atmosphere (high humidity) can make it difficult for sweat to evaporate from our bodies. Evaporation is a cooling process, and when sweat evaporates from our skin, it helps to dissipate heat and cool down our bodies. However, when the air is already saturated with moisture, sweat evaporates more slowly or may not evaporate at all, which makes it difficult for our bodies to cool down effectively. This can increase the risk of heat-related illnesses such as heat exhaustion or heatstroke.

Statement 3: Oral rehydration solutions (ORS) can act as lifesavers during heatstroke.

Explanation:
This statement is also correct. Oral rehydration solutions (ORS) can be lifesavers during heatstroke. Heatstroke is a severe form of heat-related illness characterized by a body temperature of 104°F (40°C) or higher, along with other symptoms such as confusion, dizziness, nausea, and rapid heartbeat. During heatstroke, the body loses a significant amount of water and electrolytes through excessive sweating. ORS contains a balanced amount of electrolytes and glucose, which can help rehydrate the body and restore the electrolyte balance. It is an effective way to replace the lost fluids and prevent or treat dehydration during heatstroke.

Therefore, out of the three given statements, only statement 2 and statement 3 are correct. The correct answer is option B, "Only two."

Variola virus is commonly associated with which of the following disease? 
  • a)
    Measles 
  • b)
    Polio 
  • c)
    Smallpox 
  • d)
    Hepatitis B
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The history of smallpox holds a special place in the field of epidemiology. One of the deadliest diseases known to mankind, it is also the only one to have been eradicated by vaccination. However, the origins of smallpox have always been unclear. Until now, the earliest confirmed case of the disease was found in the mummified remains of a 17th-century Lithuanian child, even though written records suggest that it is much older. A new study carried out by an international team of researchers provides fresh insight into the origins of the disease caused by the Variola virus (VARV), suggesting that the smallpox was in existence as early as during the Viking age in the 8th century CE.

Consider the following statements regarding Internal Complaints Committee (ICC).
  1. The constitution of Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is mandated by law under the 2013 Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act.
  2. As per law, the Internal Complaints Committee needs to have a minimum of four members, with at least half of them women.
  3. A functional Internal Complaints Committee is one of the key conditions set up by the Ministry of Sports to grant annual recognition to the national sports federations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Nair answered
Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) - Correct Statements
Statement 1:
- The constitution of Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is mandated by law under the 2013 Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act.
Statement 2:
- As per law, the Internal Complaints Committee needs to have a minimum of four members, with at least half of them women.
Statement 3:
- A functional Internal Complaints Committee is one of the key conditions set up by the Ministry of Sports to grant annual recognition to the national sports federations.

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct as the formation of an Internal Complaints Committee is indeed a legal requirement under the Prevention of Sexual Harassment Act, 2013.
- Statement 2 is also accurate as the PoSH Act mandates that the ICC should have at least four members, with half of them being women to ensure gender balance and fairness in addressing complaints.
- Statement 3 is true as well, as the Ministry of Sports requires national sports federations to have a functioning ICC in place as part of the conditions for annual recognition.
Therefore, all three statements are correct, highlighting the importance of Internal Complaints Committees in addressing and preventing sexual harassment in various sectors, including sports organizations.

Consider the following statements regarding Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program.
  1. Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program, is a collaborative effort between World Bank and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD).
  2. India has been selected as the Partner Administration.
  3. It will facilitate the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skillsto developing country tax administrations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) program, a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), was recently launched in Saint Lucia.
  • India has been selected as the Partner Administrationand will contribute Tax Experts to the 12-18-month initiative. This marks the seventh TIWB program supported by India through the provision of Tax Experts.
  • Aim: The program’s focus is on the effective use of automatic exchange of information under the Common Reporting Standard (CRS) framework. TIWB will facilitate the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skills to developing country tax administrations using a practical, “learning by doing” approach.

Consider the following statements regarding Dark fibre.
  1. Dark fibre is unused fibre-optic cable and infrastructure that is available for purchase or rent from network service providers.
  2. Dark fibre is inactive because no information is passed throughit, so no light pulse is transmitted.
  3. SEBI bans the usage of Dark fibre in India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Unni answered
Dark fibre is unused fibre-optic cable and infrastructure that is available for purchase or rent from network service providers. It is called "dark" because it is inactive, meaning no information is being passed through it and no light pulse is transmitted. However, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) does not ban the usage of dark fibre in India. Therefore, only statement 1 and statement 2 are correct, making option B the correct answer.

Explanation:

Dark fibre refers to fibre-optic cables that have been laid but are not currently in use. These cables are typically installed by network service providers as a part of their infrastructure. Since these cables are not being utilized, they are considered "dark" or inactive.

Statement 1: Dark fibre is unused fibre-optic cable and infrastructure that is available for purchase or rent from network service providers.

This statement is correct. Dark fibre can be purchased or rented from network service providers. Organizations can lease or buy dark fibre to establish their own private network or to increase their network capacity.

Statement 2: Dark fibre is inactive because no information is passed through it, so no light pulse is transmitted.

This statement is also correct. Dark fibre is not being used to transmit any data or light pulses. It is essentially dormant until it is activated by the user.

Statement 3: SEBI bans the usage of dark fibre in India.

This statement is incorrect. SEBI, the regulatory authority for the securities market in India, does not ban the usage of dark fibre. Dark fibre can be used by financial institutions and other organizations to establish high-speed, low-latency connections for trading and data transmission.

In conclusion, only statement 1 and statement 2 are correct, making option B the correct answer. Dark fibre is indeed unused fibre-optic cable and infrastructure available for purchase or rent, and it is inactive because it does not transmit any information or light pulses. However, SEBI does not ban the usage of dark fibre in India.

Consider the following statements regarding Hydrographic survey.
  1. A hydrographic survey is a scientific process that involves mapping of physical features of underwater terrain.
  2. However it cannot study the depth and topography of the seabed and water bodies.
  3. India had a bilateral agreementwith Maldives that allowed collaboration in the hydrographic survey of Maldivian territorial waters.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Maldives has expressed its intention to terminate a bilateral agreement with India that allowed collaboration in the hydrographic survey of Maldivian territorial waters.
What is a Hydrographic Survey?
A hydrographic survey is a scientific process that involves mapping and measuring the physical features of underwater terrain. It includes the study of the depth, topography, and characteristics of the seabed and water bodies.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The issuance of Indian passports began during the First World War under the Defence of India Act.
  2. The League of Nations’ 1920conference aimed to standardize passport regulations, influencing the common British system.
  3. Before India’s Independence, the British government never mandated passports for International travel.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ishita Mehta answered
Was instrumental in the establishment of the Indian passport system.

The first statement is correct. The issuance of Indian passports did begin during the First World War under the Defence of India Act. This act was passed in 1915 to give the British government greater control over the movement of people in and out of India.

However, the second statement is incorrect. The League of Nations, which was established in 1920, had no role in the establishment of the Indian passport system. The League of Nations was an international organization created to promote peace and cooperation among nations, and it did not have jurisdiction over the internal affairs of individual countries, including passport issuance.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Glaciers are the largest source of freshwater in the Himalayan ecosystem.
  2. A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is caused by the failure of a dam containing a glacial lake.
  3. There is considerable shrinking of glacial lakes across the Himalayas, in recent decade.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanchita Singh answered
Statement 1: Glaciers are the largest source of freshwater in the Himalayan ecosystem.
Statement 2: A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is caused by the failure of a dam containing a glacial lake.
Statement 3: There is considerable shrinking of glacial lakes across the Himalayas, in recent decade.

Explanation:

Statement 1: Glaciers are the largest source of freshwater in the Himalayan ecosystem.
This statement is correct. Glaciers in the Himalayas are known to be the largest source of freshwater in the region. They store massive amounts of water in the form of ice and snow, which gradually melts and feeds the rivers and streams in the Himalayan ecosystem.

Statement 2: A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is caused by the failure of a dam containing a glacial lake.
This statement is correct. A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) occurs when the natural dams or moraine walls that hold glacial lakes in place suddenly fail or breach. This can happen due to various reasons such as the melting of glaciers, heavy rainfall, or earthquakes. The sudden release of water can lead to devastating floods downstream.

Statement 3: There is considerable shrinking of glacial lakes across the Himalayas, in recent decade.
This statement is incorrect. In recent decades, there has been an increase in the number and size of glacial lakes in the Himalayas due to the melting of glaciers caused by climate change. The melting glaciers contribute to the formation of new glacial lakes, and the existing lakes are expanding. This increase in glacial lakes poses a higher risk of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs) as mentioned in statement 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: Only two statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Iridescent clouds.
  1. Iridescent clouds occurs as sunlight diffracts around tiny ice crystals within the clouds, creating an effect similar to a thin layer of oil on water.
  2. Nacreous clouds are usually seen in UK as the cold air from the polar vortex always hovers over the region.
  3. The clouds are known for their pastel light reflections during sunset and sunrise.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanchita Singh answered
Statement 1: Iridescent clouds occur as sunlight diffracts around tiny ice crystals within the clouds, creating an effect similar to a thin layer of oil on water.

This statement is correct. Iridescent clouds are formed when sunlight passes through or around water droplets or ice crystals in the atmosphere. The light waves are diffracted, or bent, as they pass through these particles, resulting in the phenomenon known as iridescence. This creates a beautiful display of colors in the clouds, similar to the effect seen when light passes through a thin layer of oil on water.

Statement 2: Nacreous clouds are usually seen in the UK as the cold air from the polar vortex always hovers over the region.

This statement is incorrect. Nacreous clouds, also known as polar stratospheric clouds, are not commonly seen in the UK. These clouds form in the stratosphere, typically at altitudes of 15 to 25 kilometers, and are usually observed in polar regions such as the Arctic and Antarctic. They are associated with very cold temperatures and the presence of the polar vortex, which is a large-scale circulation pattern in the upper atmosphere. The polar vortex can bring cold air down to lower latitudes, but it does not necessarily hover over the UK.

Statement 3: The clouds are known for their pastel light reflections during sunset and sunrise.

This statement is correct. Iridescent clouds are often seen during sunrise or sunset when the angle of the sun is low in the sky. At these times, the sunlight has to pass through a greater thickness of the Earth's atmosphere, causing more scattering and diffraction of the light. This enhanced diffraction leads to the formation of iridescent clouds, which exhibit pastel hues and a shimmering or iridescent appearance.

In conclusion, only two of the given statements are correct. Iridescent clouds indeed occur as sunlight diffracts around tiny ice crystals within the clouds, creating an effect similar to a thin layer of oil on water. Additionally, these clouds are known for their pastel light reflections during sunset and sunrise. However, nacreous clouds are not usually seen in the UK as the cold air from the polar vortex does not always hover over the region.

Consider the following statements regarding International Energy Agency (IEA).
  1. The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organisation that provides policy recommendations, analysis and data on the entire global energy sector.
  2. India is a member of IEA.
  3. IEA recommends that countries should hold an emergency oil stockpile sufficient to provide 90 days of import protection.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Datta answered
Explanation:

International Energy Agency (IEA)
- The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organisation that provides policy recommendations, analysis, and data on the entire global energy sector.
- IEA is known for its work on energy security, economic development, and environmental protection around the world.
- India is not a member of IEA. However, India has been seeking membership to enhance its engagement with global energy issues.

Emergency Oil Stockpile Recommendation
- IEA recommends that countries should hold an emergency oil stockpile sufficient to provide 90 days of import protection.
- This recommendation is aimed at ensuring energy security and stability in the event of supply disruptions or crises.
- The 90-day stockpile requirement is considered a critical measure to mitigate the impact of oil price fluctuations and ensure that countries can meet their energy needs during emergencies.
Therefore, only the second statement is correct, as India is not currently a member of the International Energy Agency. The other statements regarding the IEA's role and recommendations are accurate.

Consider the following statements regarding Camelids.
  1. A Camelid refers to any of the even-toed ungulates of the family Camelidae.
  2. The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Camelids.
  3. Camelids contribute to food security, nutrition, and economic growth, especially for Indigenous Peoples and local communities.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Singh answered


Camelids

Statement 1: False
A Camelid refers to any of the even-toed ungulates of the family Camelidae. This statement is incorrect as Camelids specifically refer to members of the biological family Camelidae, which includes camels, llamas, alpacas, vicuñas, and guanacos.

Statement 2: True
The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Camelids. This statement is correct. The UN has recognized the importance of camelids in contributing to food security, nutrition, and economic growth, particularly for Indigenous Peoples and local communities.

Statement 3: True
Camelids contribute to food security, nutrition, and economic growth, especially for Indigenous Peoples and local communities. This statement is also correct. Camelids play a crucial role in providing food and income for communities, particularly in arid and mountainous regions where they thrive.

In conclusion, Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct, while Statement 1 is false.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR)is located in Andhra Pradesh.
  2. Recently Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR)was in news due to rapid decline of Tiger population from 2014 to current year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) Location:
- The first statement that Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) is located in Andhra Pradesh is incorrect. Valmiki Tiger Reserve is actually located in the state of Bihar, India.
- Valmiki Tiger Reserve is situated in the West Champaran district of Bihar and is one of the prominent tiger reserves in the country.

Tiger Population Decline:
- The second statement regarding the rapid decline of the Tiger population in Valmiki Tiger Reserve from 2014 to the current year is incorrect.
- There have been no reports or news regarding a decline in the Tiger population at Valmiki Tiger Reserve during the mentioned period.

Correct Answer:
- Hence, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2, as both statements are incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Forest Rights Act (FRA).
  1. The Forest Rights Act (FRA) enables tribal communities and forest-dwelling citizens to claim legal rights over the forest land they have occupied for generations.
  2. It gives gram sabhas, or village councils, the right to decide on how best their forest land can be used.
  3. Any transfer of forest land for non-forestry use does not require the consent of gram sabhas.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sharmila Datta answered
Explanation:

The Forest Rights Act (FRA) is a legislation enacted by the Government of India in 2006 to recognize and secure the rights of the tribal communities and forest-dwelling citizens over the forest land they have been occupying for generations. It has the following provisions:

Statement 1: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) enables tribal communities and forest-dwelling citizens to claim legal rights over the forest land they have occupied for generations.

This statement is correct. The FRA provides for the recognition and vesting of individual forest rights and community forest rights. It recognizes the rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers to live in and cultivate forest land for their livelihoods. It also recognizes their rights to use, access, and manage forest resources.

Statement 2: It gives gram sabhas, or village councils, the right to decide on how best their forest land can be used.

This statement is correct. The FRA empowers the gram sabhas, or village councils, to play a central role in the implementation of the Act. The gram sabhas have the right to protect, conserve, and manage community forest resources. They can also decide on the use and management of other forest lands in their jurisdiction.

Statement 3: Any transfer of forest land for non-forestry use does not require the consent of gram sabhas.

This statement is incorrect. The FRA requires the consent of the gram sabhas for any diversion of forest land for non-forestry purposes. The gram sabhas have the power to determine whether a proposed diversion is in the best interest of the community and the environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Only two of the statements are correct.

Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), sometimes seen in news is the initiative of 
  • a)
    G20 Grouping 
  • b)
    OECD 
  • c)
    European Union (EU) 
  • d)
    United States
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Malik answered
Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is an initiative of the European Union (EU). It is a policy tool designed to address the issue of carbon leakage and ensure a level playing field for industries in the EU that are subject to high carbon costs. The CBAM is aimed at reducing the risk of carbon leakage by imposing a carbon price on imports of certain goods from countries with less stringent climate policies.

The CBAM is an important part of the EU's efforts to achieve its climate goals and transition to a low-carbon economy. It is seen as a way to prevent the relocation of carbon-intensive industries to countries with lower climate standards, which would undermine the EU's efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Key features of the CBAM include:

1. Carbon Pricing: The CBAM would require importers of certain goods to purchase carbon certificates equivalent to the carbon emissions associated with the production of those goods. This would effectively impose a carbon price on imported products based on their carbon footprint.

2. Scope of Coverage: The CBAM is expected to initially cover a limited number of sectors, such as cement, steel, aluminum, electricity, and fertilizers, which are considered to be most at risk of carbon leakage. However, it may be expanded to include other sectors in the future.

3. Compliance and Enforcement: Importers would be required to provide data on the carbon content of their products and purchase the necessary carbon certificates. The EU would establish a monitoring and verification system to ensure compliance and prevent fraud.

4. Trade Relations: The CBAM would be implemented in a manner consistent with World Trade Organization (WTO) rules and international trade agreements. The EU aims to engage in dialogue with its trading partners to address any concerns and ensure a fair and transparent implementation of the mechanism.

Benefits and Challenges:

The CBAM has several potential benefits, including:

- Protecting the competitiveness of EU industries subject to high carbon costs.
- Encouraging other countries to adopt more ambitious climate policies.
- Generating revenue that can be used to support climate action and international cooperation.

However, there are also challenges associated with the CBAM, such as:

- Potential trade tensions with countries that are heavily reliant on carbon-intensive industries.
- The need to ensure the accuracy and reliability of carbon footprint data.
- The potential for unintended consequences, such as increasing global emissions if carbon-intensive industries relocate to countries with lower climate standards.

In conclusion, the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is an initiative of the European Union (EU) aimed at addressing carbon leakage and ensuring a level playing field for industries subject to high carbon costs. It involves imposing a carbon price on imports of certain goods based on their carbon footprint. While the CBAM has potential benefits, its implementation will require careful consideration and collaboration with trading partners to address challenges and ensure a fair and effective mechanism.

Recently the Ministry of Jal Shakti released a document, which is the first such census of water bodies in India. Consider the following statements in this context.
  1. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of lakes in India.
  2. Among the total number of utilised water bodies in India, majority is used for irrigation.
  3. More than 90% of water bodies can be found in rural regions.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • West Bengal boasts of the highest number of ponds and reservoirs; Andhra Pradesh the highest number of tanks; and Tamil Nadu the highest number of lakes.
  • The majority of water bodies serve as resources for fish farming, with their subsequent uses including irrigation, replenishing groundwater, and providing water for household and drinking needs. Among the total 20,30,040 utilised water bodies, 55.5% (11,26,830) are dedicated to fish farming, 16.5% (3,35,768) to irrigation, 12.1% (2,44,918) to groundwater replenishment, and 10.1% (2,05,197) to domestic and drinking water needs. The remaining are employed for recreational, industrial, religious and other purposes.
  • A substantial 97.1% of water bodies can be found in rural regions; only 2.9% are situated in urban areas. Of these, 83.7% are in use, while the rest are non-functional or unused due to factors such as construction, siltation, irreparable damage, and industrial effluents, among others.

Consider the following statements regarding Dare to Dream (D2D) scheme.
  1. The Dare to Dream (D2D) schemeis a contest that provides a unique opportunity for start-ups, entrepreneurs, and individuals to enhance India’s defence and aerospace capabilities.
  2. It is an annual initiative by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  3. It is initiated in memory of former President Dr APJ Abdul Kalam.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Dare to Dream Contest, initiated in memory of former President Dr APJ Abdul Kalam, is an annual initiative by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Launched in 2019, the contest provides a unique opportunity for start-ups, innovators, entrepreneurs, and individuals above 18 years old to address key challenges in emerging technologies, ultimately contributing to enhancing India’s defence and aerospace capabilities.

Which of the following is/are the advantages of Indian Raw Sugar in the International Market?
  1. Season advantage
  2. Indian sugar has a high amount of dextran
  3. High Sucrose content
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Advantages of Indian Raw Sugar in the International Market

- Season Advantage: Indian sugar production benefits from two harvest seasons, allowing for a more consistent and reliable supply throughout the year compared to other countries with only one harvest season. This can be advantageous in meeting the demands of the international market.
- High Sucrose Content: Indian raw sugar is known for its high sucrose content, which is a desirable quality in the international market. High sucrose content can lead to better taste, quality, and performance in various applications, making it a preferred choice for buyers.
- Incorrect Statement: Indian sugar does not have a high amount of dextran. Dextran is a type of carbohydrate that can negatively impact the quality of sugar. Indian raw sugar is typically processed to minimize the presence of dextran, ensuring better quality for export.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', as only the statements about Season Advantage and High Sucrose Content are correct.

Article 2 of the constitution empowers the Parliament to
  1. Admit into the Union of India new states
  2. Increase of the area of any state
  3. Alter the boundaries of any state
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Keerthana Rane answered
Explanation:

Article 2 of the Indian Constitution:
- Article 2 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to admit into the Union of India new states.
- This means that Parliament has the authority to make provisions for the admission of new states into the Indian Union.
- It does not specifically mention the Parliament's power to increase the area of any state or alter the boundaries of any state.
- Therefore, only the statement "Admit into the Union of India new states" is correct in the context of Article 2 of the Constitution.

Correct Answer: Option A (Only one)

Consider the following statements regarding TEMPO satellite.
  1. It is an Earth-observation satellite in geostationary orbit.
  2. It is designed to provide hourly measurements of pollutants over Indian Sub-continent.
  3. It is built by ISRO in collaboration with NASA.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shounak Desai answered

Correct Answer: a) Only one




Explanation:

Statement Analysis:

- Statement 1: It is an Earth-observation satellite in geostationary orbit.
- Statement 2: It is designed to provide hourly measurements of pollutants over the Indian Sub-continent.
- Statement 3: It is built by ISRO in collaboration with NASA.

Analysis:

- The first statement is incorrect as TEMPO satellite is not in geostationary orbit, but rather in a low Earth orbit.
- The second statement is correct as TEMPO satellite is indeed designed to provide hourly measurements of pollutants over the Indian Sub-continent.
- The third statement is incorrect as TEMPO satellite is a project led by NASA, not in collaboration with ISRO.

Therefore, only one of the above statements is correct, which is statement 2.

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India.
  1. Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) and Select Committees are usually chaired by ruling party MPs, and are disbanded after they have submitted their report.
  2. There are equal number of Departmentally Related Standing Committees for Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and are headed by members of these respective Houses.
  3. Committee meetings are independent of Parliament’s calendar.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Bose answered
Analysis of the Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India, let's evaluate each one:
Statement 1: Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) and Select Committees are usually chaired by ruling party MPs, and are disbanded after they have submitted their report.
- This statement is correct.
- JPCs and Select Committees are generally chaired by members from the ruling party.
- They are indeed disbanded once they submit their reports.
Statement 2: There are equal number of Departmentally Related Standing Committees for Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and are headed by members of these respective Houses.
- This statement is correct.
- There are 24 Departmentally Related Standing Committees, with 12 each in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
- Each committee is chaired by a member from the respective House.
Statement 3: Committee meetings are independent of Parliament’s calendar.
- This statement is incorrect.
- Committee meetings are generally scheduled according to the Parliament's calendar and can be affected by the sessions of Parliament.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1: Correct
- Statement 2: Correct
- Statement 3: Incorrect
Thus, only two out of the three statements are correct, making the answer option 'B'—only two statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Electronic soil’ (eSoil).
  1. eSoil is an electrically conductive growth substrate derived from cellulose and a conductive polymer (PEDOT).
  2. eSoil works by electrically stimulating plant roots.
  3. It is not compatible with hydroponics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Researchers introduced a ground-breaking study on “electronic soil” (eSoil) in hydroponics, offering the potential for sustainable urban agriculture and food security.
  • eSoil is an electrically conductive growth substrate derived from cellulose and a conductive polymer (PEDOT).
  • It stimulates plant roots and the growth environment with low power, providing a safer and environmentally friendly alternative to traditional methods.
  • eSoil works by electrically stimulating plant roots.
  • This promotes effective and sustainable development, expanding the range of crops that can be grown hydroponically—without soil, using only water, nutrients, and a substrate.
  • The benefits of eSoil include low energy consumption, safety, and its compatibility with hydroponics, enabling urban agriculture to meet the challenges of a growing population and climate change.

Consider the following statements regarding Formaldehyde.
  1. Formaldehyde is a colourless, flammable gas with a strong odour.
  2. It is used in Textiles, Disinfectants, Building materials and Automobile parts.
  3. It is classified as safe and non-carcinogenic without any adverse health effects.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 3 is incorrect.
About Formaldehyde
  • It is a colourless, flammable gas with a strong odour. It is classified as a human carcinogen and is linked to long-term adverse health effects and cancer.
  • Formaldehyde is used in many industries, including:
  • Glues and resins, Dyes, Textiles, Disinfectants, Building materials, Automobile parts, Embalming, Laboratories.

Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.
  1. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
  2. The amount so written off does not reduce the bank’s tax liability.
  3. After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Only statement 1 is correct.
  • Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset. By writing off loans, a bank can reduce the level of non-performing assets (NPAs) on its books. An additional benefit is that the amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
  • The bank writes off a loan after the borrower has defaulted on the loan repayment and there is a very low chance of recovery. The lender then moves the defaulted loan, or NPA, out of the assets side and reports the amount as a loss.
  • After the write-off, banks are supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan using various options. They have to make provisioning as well. The tax liability will also come down as the written-off amount is reduced from the profit.
  • However, the chances of recovery from written-off loans are very low.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched Project Prayas.
  1. The project aims to facilitate safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian workers and students.
  2. It consolidates state-level initiatives and focuses on improving coordination between state and central governments.
  3. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The International Organization for Migration (IOM) has launched Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs.
About Project Prayas:
  • The project aims to facilitate safe, orderly, and regular migrationfor Indian workers and students.
  • It consolidates state-level initiativesand focuses on improving coordination between state and central governments.
  • The project involves studying migration trends, understanding migrants’ needs, and launching initiatives to raise awareness about safe migration processes, with the goal of strengthening international migration governance.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Chamber of Princes is the Library Hall in the Old Parliament.
  2. The Chamber of Princes was established by a Royal Proclamation of King Emperor George V to advocate the common interests of British India and the princely states.
  3. The Federal Court of India began functioning from the Chamber of Princes, and later the Supreme Court of India was inaugurated here.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranavi Desai answered
Statement 1: The Chamber of Princes is the Library Hall in the Old Parliament.
This statement is incorrect. The Chamber of Princes and the Library Hall in the Old Parliament are two separate entities.

Statement 2: The Chamber of Princes was established by a Royal Proclamation of King Emperor George V to advocate the common interests of British India and the princely states.
This statement is correct. The Chamber of Princes was indeed established by a Royal Proclamation of King Emperor George V. It was created with the intention of providing a platform for the princely states of British India to voice their concerns and interests.

Statement 3: The Federal Court of India began functioning from the Chamber of Princes, and later the Supreme Court of India was inaugurated here.
This statement is correct. The Federal Court of India, which was the precursor to the Supreme Court of India, did begin functioning from the Chamber of Princes. Later, when the Supreme Court of India was inaugurated, it also initially used the Chamber of Princes as its premises.

Conclusion:
Both statement 2 and statement 3 are correct, so the correct answer is option c) All three statements.

Consider the following statements regarding Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET).
  1. The Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies is a framework agreed upon by India and South Korea.
  2. It focuses on addressing regulatory barriers and aligning export controls for smoother trade and deeper cooperation in critical areas.
  3. It includes cooperation in areas of artificial intelligence, quantum computing, semiconductors and wireless telecommunication.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • India and the United States unveiled a roadmap for enhanced collaboration in high-technology areas, with a focus on addressing regulatory barriers and aligning export controls for smoother trade and “deeper cooperation” in critical areas. This was part of the Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET) announced by President Joe Biden and Prime Minister Narendra Modi last year.
  • The Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies is a framework agreed upon by India and the U.S. for cooperation on critical and emerging technologies in areas including artificial intelligence, quantum computing, semiconductors and wireless telecommunication.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The size of the State Legislative Council cannot exceed one third of the membership of the State Legislative Assembly, with a lower cap of 40 members.
  2. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement Analysis:

- The first statement is about the size of the State Legislative Council.
- The second statement pertains to the total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers.
Correctness Explanation:

- Statement 1: The statement is correct. The size of the State Legislative Council cannot exceed one third of the membership of the State Legislative Assembly, with a lower cap of 40 members. This rule ensures a balance of power between the two houses of the state legislature.
- Statement 2: The statement is also correct. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People. This rule limits the size of the Council of Ministers to ensure effective governance.
Conclusion:

- Both statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the rules and guidelines governing the State Legislative Council and the Council of Ministers.

‘The Forest Pathways Report’ was published recently by: 
  • a)
    UNEP 
  • b)
    IUCN 
  • c)
    World Wildlife Fund 
  • d)
    UN Forum on Forests
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
  • A startling increase in the speed and intensity of global deforestation has derailed efforts to protect and restore forests by 2030, according to two new reports analyzing progress toward global forest conservation goals.
  • WWF’s Forest Pathways 2023 report and the Forest Declaration Assessment detail the immense scale of forest loss just two years after more than 130 countries representing 85% of the planet’s forests pledged to halt and reverse deforestation by the end of the decade. The lack of progress on commitments leaves the world in clear danger of missing vital targets.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Yemen is located at the northern end of the Arabian Peninsula.
  2. Yemen does not share its border with Saudi Arabia and Oman.
  3. Yemen is a member of United Nations and Non-Aligned Movement.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Only Statement 3 is correct.
Yemen is a country in West Asia located at the southern end of the Arabian Peninsula. It shares borders with Saudi Arabia and Oman and maritime borders with Eritrea, Djibouti, and Somalia. Yemen is a member of the Arab League, the United Nations, the Non-Aligned Movement, and the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Phytoremediation is a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds to reduce the concentrations or toxic effects of contaminants in the environment.
  2. Metals like cadmium, cobalt, nickel, lead and organic pollutants can be easily removed from the soil through Phytoremediation.
  3. Hyperaccumulator plants slows down the process of Phytoremediation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Only Statement 1 is correct.
“Phytoremediation”, a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds. One particular way to remove toxic heavy metals from the soil includes the use of “hyperaccumulator” plants that absorb these substances from the soil.
Phytoremediation refers to the usage of “hyperaccumulator” plants to absorb the toxic materials present in the soil and accumulate in their living tissue. Even though most plants do sometimes accumulate toxic substances, hyperaccumulators have the unusual ability to absorb hundreds or thousands of times greater amounts of these substances than is normal for most plants.
This process can be used to remove metals like silver, cadmium, cobalt, chromium, copper, mercury, manganese, molybdenum, nickel, lead and zinc; metalloids such as arsenic and selenium; some radionuclides; and non-metallic components such as boron. But it cannot be used to remove organic pollutants from the ground due to metabolic breakdown.

Consider the following pairs.
  1. Kakrapar Atomic power plant: Rajasthan
  2. Tarapur Atomic power plant: Gujarat
  3. Narora Atomic power plant: Uttar Pradesh
  4. Kaiga Atomic power plant: Karnataka
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Singh answered

Explanation:

Correctly Matched Pairs:

- Tarapur Atomic power plant: Gujarat: This pair is correctly matched as Tarapur Atomic power plant is located in Gujarat.
- Kaiga Atomic power plant: Karnataka: This pair is correctly matched as Kaiga Atomic power plant is located in Karnataka.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B) Only two'.

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