All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Anoxic Marine Basins:
1. They form when there is a strong layering of the water column created in a cup-like formation on the ocean floor.
2. They are one of the world’s most productive ecosystems with a wide range of species diversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhay Malik answered
Explanation:
Anoxic Marine Basins are unique ecosystems that have specific characteristics that differentiate them from other marine environments. Let's break down the statements provided in the question to understand them better:

Statement 1:
Anoxic Marine Basins form when there is a strong layering of the water column created in a cup-like formation on the ocean floor. This statement is correct because anoxic marine basins are characterized by low oxygen levels in the water column, leading to the formation of anoxic (oxygen-deprived) conditions in the basin.

Statement 2:
Anoxic Marine Basins are one of the world's most productive ecosystems with a wide range of species diversity. This statement is incorrect because anoxic marine basins are actually known for their low oxygen levels, which can limit the diversity of species that can thrive in such environments. While some specialized organisms have adapted to survive in anoxic conditions, overall species diversity tends to be lower compared to more oxygen-rich marine environments.
In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct regarding Anoxic Marine Basins. These unique ecosystems play a crucial role in the marine environment, and understanding their characteristics is essential for conservation and management efforts.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Generic Document Registration System:
1. It is developed for registration departments across the country under One Nation One Software initiative.
2. It is initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Kumar answered
Background:
The National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS) is a software developed for registration departments across the country as part of the One Nation One Software initiative.

Correct Statements:
- Statement 1: The first statement is correct. NGDRS is indeed developed for registration departments across the country under the One Nation One Software initiative. This initiative aims to standardize and streamline the registration process by providing a common software platform for registration departments in different states.
- Statement 2: The second statement is also correct. The Department of Land Resources, which falls under the Ministry of Rural Development, has initiated the National Generic Document Registration System. This initiative is part of the government's efforts to modernize land records management and make the registration process more efficient and transparent.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The National Generic Document Registration System is a significant step towards digitizing and standardizing the registration process across the country, ultimately benefiting both the government and the citizens.

The Statue of Unity is located on the banks of:
  • a)
    Luni
  • b)
    Sabarmati
  • c)
    Tapi
  • d)
    Narmada
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Saini answered


Location of the Statue of Unity

The Statue of Unity is located on the banks of the Narmada River in the state of Gujarat, India.

Narmada River

- The Narmada River is one of the major rivers in central India, known for its beauty and cultural significance.
- It is considered to be one of the holiest rivers in India and is often referred to as the "lifeline of Gujarat".

Significance of the Narmada River

- The Narmada River is believed to be a sacred river and is worshipped by millions of people in India.
- It is also an important source of water for irrigation, drinking, and industrial purposes in the region.

Development of the Statue of Unity

- The Statue of Unity was built as a tribute to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who played a crucial role in the unification of India.
- The statue stands at a height of 182 meters, making it the tallest statue in the world.

Tourist Attraction

- The Statue of Unity has become a major tourist attraction in India, drawing visitors from all over the country and the world.
- The location of the statue on the banks of the Narmada River adds to its beauty and charm, making it a picturesque destination for tourists.

With reference to the Balsams (genus Impatiens), consider the following statements:
  1. It grows only in the tropical regions of the world.
  2. In India most balsam species are found in the Western Ghats region.
  3. It is an indicator species.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Choudhury answered
Correct Answer: b) Only two

This option is correct because statement 2 and statement 3 are accurate, while statement 1 is incorrect. Let's break down each statement individually:

- It grows only in the tropical regions of the world: This statement is incorrect. Balsams, belonging to the genus Impatiens, can be found in various regions around the world, not just limited to tropical areas. They are known to thrive in temperate climates as well.

- In India most balsam species are found in the Western Ghats region: This statement is correct. The Western Ghats region in India is known for its rich biodiversity, and many species of balsams can indeed be found in this area. The Western Ghats are home to a wide variety of plant and animal species, making it an important ecological hotspot.

- It is an indicator species: This statement is also correct. Balsams are considered indicator species because they are sensitive to changes in their environment. Their presence or absence can provide valuable information about the health of an ecosystem. Therefore, they are often used by researchers and conservationists to monitor ecological conditions.

In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2 and 3 are accurate, making option b) Only two the correct choice.

‘Roen olmi’, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    virus
  • b)
    mushroom
  • c)
    bacteria
  • d)
    algae
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Saranya Dey answered


Explanation:

Roen olmi:
Roen olmi is a type of mushroom that has been recently seen in the news. It is not a virus, bacteria, or algae, but a specific type of fungus.

Mushroom:
Mushrooms are fungi that belong to the kingdom Fungi. They are known for their unique shape, texture, and flavor. Mushrooms can be found in various habitats such as forests, grasslands, and even in some urban environments.

Uses of Mushrooms:
- Mushrooms are used in cooking and are a popular ingredient in many dishes around the world.
- Some mushrooms have medicinal properties and are used in traditional medicine for various health benefits.
- Mushrooms are also used in bioremediation to clean up environmental pollutants.

Risks of Mushrooms:
- While many mushrooms are edible and safe to consume, some mushrooms can be toxic and even deadly if ingested.
- It is important to be cautious when foraging for wild mushrooms and to only consume mushrooms that have been properly identified as safe to eat.

In conclusion, Roen olmi is a type of mushroom that has been in the news recently. Mushrooms play an important role in various aspects of human life, from food to medicine, but it is essential to be aware of the potential risks associated with consuming certain types of mushrooms.

Consider the following statements regarding National Sports Awards:
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years.
2. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is given to an individual for top performance in inter-university tournaments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the President of India presented the National Sports and Adventure Awards 2023 at a function in Rashtrapati Bhavan.
  • National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
  • Categories of National Sports Award
  • Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: It is considered India’s highest sporting honour, the Khel Ratna was established in 1991-92.
  • The award is named after the Indian hockey legend, Major Dhyan Chand
  • The award is given for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years and the Khel Ratna winners receive a medallion, certificate and a cash prize.
  • Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (MAKA): It was instituted in 1956–1957. It is given to an institution or university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Law Commission of India:
1. It is a non-statutory body constituted with a definite terms of reference.
2. The first Law Commission of independent India was established under the chairmanship of M. C. Setalvad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The 22nd Law Commission of India led by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi has recommended that the offence of criminal defamation should be retained in the new criminal laws.
  • It is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice.
  • It is constituted with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
  • It functions to the Ministry of Law and Justice as an advisory body.
  • History of Law Commission of India
  • The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India.
  • It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay.
  • The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 under the chairmanship of the former Attorney General for India M. C. Setalvad.
  • This Commission was created for a period of three years and this practice has persisted ever since then, resulting in the reconstitution of Law Commissions every three years via executive orders.
  • The executive orders that constitute the Law Commissions also specify their scope and purpose, and thus these fluctuate periodically.
  • Since then, twenty one more Law Commissions have been constituted, each with a three-year term and with certain terms of reference.
  • The Law Commission has taken up various subjects on references made by Department of Legal Affairs, Supreme Court and High Courts.
  • The Twenty Second Law Commission has been notified with effect from 21st February, 2020 for a term of 3 years.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Investor Information and Analytics Platform:
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. It acts as a one-stop solution for startups to seamlessly access Venture Capitalists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Isha Pillai answered


Explanation:

Incorrect Statement:

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
This statement is incorrect. The Investor Information and Analytics Platform is not an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Correct Statement:

2. It acts as a one-stop solution for startups to seamlessly access Venture Capitalists.
This statement is correct. The Investor Information and Analytics Platform provides startups with a platform to access venture capitalists easily and efficiently.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 2 only.

With reference to the IUCN threat categories, consider the following statements: 
  1. The IUCN Red List is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of both plant and animal species.
  2. A taxon facing a high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future is classified in the vulnerable category.
  3. The Indian Flapshell Turtle is categorised as critically endangered by the IUCN.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Statement 1 is correct:  The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species. The IUCN Red List Categories define the extinction risk of species assessed. The IUCN Red List is a rich compendium of information on threats, ecological requirements, and habitats of species; and on conservation actions that can be taken to reduce or prevent extinctions. It is based on an objective system for assessing the risk of extinction of a species based on past, present, and projected threats.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the IUCN, a taxon is critically endangered when it is facing high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future. This designation signifies that the population of the taxon has dwindled to a critical level, and urgent conservation actions are required to prevent its extinction. 
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indian flapshell turtle is a freshwater species of turtle found in South Asia. The Indian flapshell turtle is characterised by its unique flap-like, hinged shell, which gives it its name. Indian flapshell turtles are omnivorous in nature. It is categorised as Vulnerable by the IUCN.

What substance is generally injected into the stratosphere in Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI)?
  • a)
    Carbon dioxide (CO2)
  • b)
    Nitrous oxide (N2O)
  • c)
    Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
  • d)
    Oxygen (O2)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Roy answered

Substance Used in Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI):

Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI) is a proposed method to artificially cool the Earth by injecting aerosols into the stratosphere to reflect sunlight and reduce global warming. The substance generally injected into the stratosphere in SAI is sulfur dioxide (SO2).

Explanation:

Sulfur Dioxide (SO2):
- Sulfur dioxide is commonly used in SAI because it reacts with water vapor in the stratosphere to form sulfate aerosols.
- These aerosols act as a reflective barrier, blocking a portion of the sunlight from reaching the Earth's surface, thus reducing the overall temperature.
- Sulfur dioxide is chosen for its ability to form stable and long-lasting aerosols in the stratosphere.

Effects of Sulfur Dioxide Injection:
- The injection of sulfur dioxide in the stratosphere can potentially offset the warming effects of greenhouse gases by reflecting sunlight back into space.
- It can help in reducing global temperatures and mitigating the impacts of climate change.
- However, there are concerns about the potential side effects of SAI, such as ozone depletion and changes in precipitation patterns.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, sulfur dioxide is the substance generally injected into the stratosphere in Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI) due to its ability to form stable aerosols that reflect sunlight and help in cooling the Earth. While SAI shows promise in combating global warming, further research and careful consideration of its potential consequences are necessary before implementation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Collective Security Treaty Organisation:
1. It is an intergovernmental military alliance.
2. All central Asian countries are member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Disha Bose answered
<b>Explanation</b>

<b>1. Intergovernmental Military Alliance</b>
The Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) is indeed an intergovernmental military alliance that was established in 2002. It aims to ensure the collective security of its member states and promote peace and stability in the region.

<b>2. Membership of Central Asian Countries</b>
Not all central Asian countries are members of the CSTO. The organization currently consists of six member states: Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan. While some central Asian countries like Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan are part of the CSTO, others like Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan have not joined the organization.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct as the CSTO is indeed an intergovernmental military alliance. Statement 2 is incorrect as not all central Asian countries are members of the organization. Hence, the correct answer is option 'A) 1 only'.

Consider the following statements regarding the Muthuvan tribe:
1. They follow a unique system of governance called the 'Kani System'.
2. They live in the hill forest bordering Karnataka and Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

According to the Tamil Nadu Forest Department, Muthuvan tribe will be part of Nilgiri Tahr conservation project.
  • These people live on the border hill forests of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • They speak slightly two different dialects and call each other Malayalam Muthuvan and Pandi Muthuvan.
  • They are animists and spirit worshippers and also worship the forest gods,
  • They believe that the spirits of their ancestors are to be the first migrants to the hill forests.
  • They are known for coexisting with the wildlife with their traditional knowledge.
  • These tribal people follow a unique system of governance called the 'Kani System'.
  • Under this system, each village is headed by a 'Kani', who is responsible for the administration of the village.
  • They have expertise in traditional medicines which are very effective and these medicines and the medicine men are confidentially preserved and passed on to the generations.
  • Occupation: Agriculture is the main occupation of these Muthuvan tribes, producing quite a number of products like ragi, cardamom and lemon grass.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Aldabra giant tortoise:
1. It is found on grasslands called platins.
2. It is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Pillai answered
Statement 1: Aldabra giant tortoise is found on grasslands called platins.

Statement 2: Aldabra giant tortoise is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise.

Explanation:

Statement 1: It is correct that Aldabra giant tortoise is found on grasslands called platins. The Aldabra Atoll, located in the Seychelles in the Indian Ocean, is home to the Aldabra giant tortoise. The atoll consists of four main islands, and these islands are covered with grasslands known as platins. The tortoises inhabit these grasslands and can be found in abundance in the Aldabra Atoll.

Statement 2: It is correct that Aldabra giant tortoise is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise. The Aldabra giant tortoise can weigh up to 500 kilograms and have a carapace length of up to 120 centimeters. It is one of the largest tortoise species in the world. However, it is second in size to the Galapagos giant tortoise, which can weigh up to 417 kilograms and have a carapace length of up to 183 centimeters. The Galapagos giant tortoise is the largest species of tortoise in the world.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Aldabra giant tortoise is found on grasslands called platins, and it is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise.

Consider the following statements regarding the Micellar water:
1. It contains clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances. 
2. It contains micelles which are hydrophobic in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Chavan answered

Explanation:

1. Micellar Water and its Composition
- Micellar water contains clusters of molecules called micelles.
- These micelles have a unique structure where the hydrophilic (water-attracting) part is on the outside and the hydrophobic (oil-attracting) part is on the inside.

2. Effectiveness in Removing Oily Substances
- The hydrophobic nature of micelles allows them to attract and trap oil, dirt, and makeup from the skin.
- This makes micellar water very effective at removing oily substances without drying out the skin.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct as micellar water indeed contains clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances. Statement 2 is incorrect because micelles are actually hydrophilic in nature, with their hydrophobic tails facing inwards.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development:
1. It is an intergovernmental knowledge centre working for the communities of the Hindu Kush Himalayas.
2. India is a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallabi Basu answered
Overview of the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD)
The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) is a regional intergovernmental organization dedicated to sustainable mountain development in the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) region.
Key Statements Explained
- Statement 1: It is an intergovernmental knowledge centre working for the communities of the Hindu Kush Himalayas.
- ICIMOD focuses on addressing the challenges faced by mountain communities, promoting sustainable development, and enhancing regional cooperation.
- It serves as a platform for knowledge sharing, research, and capacity building, specifically targeting the environmental and socio-economic issues in the HKH region.
- Statement 2: India is a member of this organization.
- India is indeed a member of ICIMOD and plays an active role in its initiatives and projects.
- The organization includes multiple member countries from the HKH area, fostering collaboration among nations to address shared challenges.
Conclusion
Both statements are correct, affirming the role of ICIMOD as a pivotal organization supporting mountain communities and the membership of India. Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': Both 1 and 2.
This highlights the importance of regional cooperation in tackling the unique challenges faced by mountain ecosystems and communities.

Consider the following statements regarding Soliga community in India:
1. They reside in the Cauvery River Basin region.
2. They are the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India to get their forest rights officially recognised by a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Diya Singh answered
The correct answer is option 'C', both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
1. Residing in the Cauvery River Basin region:
The Soliga community is an indigenous tribal community residing in the Cauvery River Basin region. They primarily inhabit the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT Tiger Reserve) located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka, India. The BRT Tiger Reserve is spread over an area of 540 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity.

2. Recognition of forest rights by a court of law:
The Soliga community has made significant efforts to protect their traditional rights and the forests they inhabit. They have been engaged in the conservation of the BRT Tiger Reserve and have been living in harmony with nature for generations. In recognition of their rights and efforts, they became the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India to get their forest rights officially recognized by a court of law.

The recognition of forest rights is crucial for tribal communities as it provides them with legal ownership and access to the forest resources upon which they depend for their livelihood and cultural practices. The recognition ensures their participation in decision-making processes regarding the management and conservation of forests, thereby empowering them to protect their traditional way of life.

The recognition of forest rights for the Soliga community is a significant milestone in the conservation efforts of the BRT Tiger Reserve. It not only acknowledges their historical presence in the region but also highlights the importance of involving local communities in the conservation and management of protected areas.

Overall, the Soliga community's recognition of forest rights and their coexistence with nature exemplify the significance of inclusive and sustainable conservation practices that take into account the rights and needs of indigenous communities.

Consider the following:
  1. India
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Maldives
  4. Myanmar
How many of the above countries participate in Exercise Dosti?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    Only three
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Dey answered




Explanation:

The countries that participate in Exercise Dosti are India, Sri Lanka, and Maldives. Let's break down the answer:

India:
India is one of the countries that participate in Exercise Dosti. It is a key participant in the exercise due to its strategic location and military capabilities.

Sri Lanka:
Sri Lanka is another country that participates in Exercise Dosti. The exercise aims to enhance cooperation and interoperability between the armed forces of the participating countries.

Maldives:
Maldives is the third country that participates in Exercise Dosti. The exercise provides an opportunity for the Maldivian armed forces to engage with their counterparts from India and Sri Lanka.

Therefore, out of the given countries - India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Myanmar - only three countries, India, Sri Lanka, and Maldives, participate in Exercise Dosti. Hence, the correct answer is option 'c) Only three'.


Consider the following statements regarding Shompen Tribe, recently seen in the news:
1. It resides on the Lakshadweep group of islands.
2. It is one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Menon answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is incorrect. The Shompen Tribe does not reside on the Lakshadweep group of islands. They actually inhabit the Great Nicobar Island, which is a part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is correct. The Shompen Tribe is indeed one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. PVTGs are a classification created by the Government of India to identify specific tribes that are at risk of extinction due to their dwindling population and unique cultural practices.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which is "2 only."

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:
1. It is a free electricity scheme which will provide 300 units of free electricity per month to its beneficiaries.
2. In this scheme Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats shall be incentivised to promote rooftop solar systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Prime Minister of India launched PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana to provide free electricity to its beneficiaries.
  • In this scheme, the central government will provide 300 units of free electricity per month to its beneficiaries by investing worth ₹75,000 crores.
  • The free electricity scheme was earlier announced by Finance Minister in interim budget speech.
  • Target: It aims to light up 1 crore households.
  • Under the scheme Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats shall be incentivised to promote rooftop solar systems in their jurisdictions. 
  • The Central Government will guarantee no financial burden on the people by providing significant subsidies directly to their bank accounts and offering highly concessional bank loans.
  • Expected benefits:
  • Savings up to fifteen to eighteen thousand rupees annually for households from free solar electricity and selling the surplus to the distribution companies;
  • Charging of electric vehicles;
  • Entrepreneurship opportunities for a large number of vendors for supply and installation;
  • Employment opportunities for the youth with technical skills in manufacturing, installation and maintenance.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements about the Lokpal in India:
Statement 1: The Lokpal has jurisdiction over the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, and Members of Parliament.
Statement 2: The Lokpal is a constitutional body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only Statement 1
  • b)
    Only Statement 2
  • c)
    Both Statement 1 and Statement 2
  • d)
    Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mahi Khanna answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The Lokpal has jurisdiction over the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, and Members of Parliament. This statement is correct as per the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. The Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority that has the power to investigate complaints of corruption against public officials, including the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, and Members of Parliament.

Statement 2:
- The Lokpal is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. The Act was passed by the Parliament of India to provide for the establishment of the institution of Lokpal to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct. The Lokpal is not a constitutional body but a statutory body with jurisdiction over the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, and Members of Parliament.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Cooperative Exports Limited:
1. It is established under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, 2002.
2. Any individual can become an ordinary member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Recently, the Union Minister of Cooperation informed the Lok Sabha about the National Cooperative Exports Limited.
  • It was set up by the Ministry of Cooperation under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, 2002.
  • It will provide a complete ecosystem for the promotion of exports mainly of agri commodities for the benefit of our farmers, in which India has a comparative advantage.
  • All cooperative societies from the level of primary to apex that are interested in exports are eligible to become members.
  • The NCEL has provision of two kinds of members namely
  • Ordinary Members: The following shall be eligible to become ordinary members of the NCEL: -
  • Any multi-state co-operative society or any co-operative society registered or deemed to be registered under any law relating to co-operative societies for the time being in force in any State or UT;
  • The National Co-operative Development Corporation (NCDC) established under the National Co-operative Development Corporation Act,1 962 (26 of 1962);
  • Such class or classes of persons or associations of persons as may be permitted by the Central Registrar having regard to the nature and activities of the Society.
  • No individual shall be eligible to become an ordinary member of the NCEL.
  • Nominal or associate member: The society may, in the interest of the promotion of its business, admit any person, including cooperative banks, as a nominal member or associate member 
  • This society will focus on exporting the surpluses available in the Indian cooperative sector by accessing wider markets beyond the geographical contours of the country.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the ANUBHAV Awards scheme:
1. It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to Nation building while working in Government.
2. All retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are eligible for this award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Athul Chauhan answered

ANUBHAV Awards Scheme

Statement 1: It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to Nation building while working in Government.
- This statement is correct. The ANUBHAV Awards scheme aims to acknowledge and appreciate the valuable contributions made by retired officials towards nation-building during their tenure in the government.

Statement 2: All retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are eligible for this award.
- This statement is also correct. The ANUBHAV Awards scheme is open to all retiring Central Government employees and pensioners, regardless of their rank or position.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The ANUBHAV Awards scheme serves as a way to honor and recognize the dedicated service and significant impact of retired officials in shaping the nation's development and progress.

Regarding the International Astronomical Union (IAU), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The IAU is responsible for the naming of celestial bodies.
Statement 2: The IAU's headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only Statement 1
  • b)
    Only Statement 2
  • c)
    Both Statement 1 and Statement 2
  • d)
    Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?


Explanation:

Statement 1: The International Astronomical Union (IAU) is indeed responsible for the naming of celestial bodies. It establishes the rules and guidelines for the naming of planets, moons, and other objects in our solar system and beyond.

Statement 2: The headquarters of the IAU is not located in Geneva, Switzerland. The IAU headquarters is actually located in Paris, France. This is where the organization conducts its official business and coordinates international astronomical efforts.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct. The IAU plays a crucial role in standardizing the names of celestial bodies to avoid confusion and ensure consistency in the field of astronomy.

Regarding the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: CBAM aims to encourage cleaner industrial production worldwide by equalizing the price of carbon between domestic and imported products.
Statement 2: CBAM will apply to all products imported into the EU without any exceptions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only Statement 1
  • b)
    Only Statement 2
  • c)
    Both Statement 1 and Statement 2
  • d)
    Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Kumar answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- This statement is correct. The main objective of the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is to prevent carbon leakage by ensuring that the price of carbon is equalized between domestic producers in the EU and foreign producers. By imposing a carbon price on imports, CBAM aims to create a level playing field for industries within the EU and encourage cleaner industrial production globally.

Statement 2:
- This statement is incorrect. CBAM will not apply to all products imported into the EU without any exceptions. The EU has indicated that certain products may be exempted from the CBAM, such as those originating from countries with ambitious climate policies or subject to equivalent carbon pricing mechanisms. The final scope and exemptions of the CBAM are still under discussion and will be determined through further negotiations.

Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise Vayu Shakti:
1. It is held once every three years.
2. It demonstrates the offensive and defensive capabilities of the Indian Air Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Indian Air Force will be conducting Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 on 17 February 2024 at the Pokhran Air to Ground Range, near Jaisalmer.
  • The Indian Air Force is slated to carry out three large scale war games on February 17, namely, Vayu Shakti, Gagan Shakti and Tarang Shakti.
  • It will be a riveting demonstration of the offensive and defensive capabilities of the IAF, spanning across day and night.
  • The exercise will also showcase joint operations with the Indian Army.
  • Exercise Vayu Shakti
  • The IAF will first undertake the major "Vayu Shakti" firepower demonstration, which is held once every three years, with 135 fighters, aircraft, helicopters and drones at the Pokhran field firing ranges.
  • Gagan Shakti’
  • The second mega exercise will be ‘Gagan Shakti’.
  • In this, almost the entire air fleet race would be activated from north to south, and from west to east to test integrated war fighting strategies and tactics with the other two forces and other stakeholders.
  • All the potent weapon systems like the Rafale fighter aircraft and the S-400 air defense systems would be participating in the ‘Gagan Shakti’ exercise.
  • The exercise, which is held once in five years, is also going to be the biggest ever of the series with active participation from other two services.
  • Tarang Shakti
  • The third major exercise, Tarang Shakti, would be the first ever multinational exercise to be held in the country.
  • This will see aircraft from friendly air forces like the US, Germany, France, Australia and neighbouring and other friendly countries taking part in it.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Coffee Organization:
  1. It was established under the aegis of the United Nations in 1963.
  2. India is not a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Saini answered

Explanation:

Statement 1:
The first statement is correct. The International Coffee Organization (ICO) was indeed established under the aegis of the United Nations in 1963. The ICO is an international organization composed of coffee exporting and importing countries. Its objective is to strengthen the global coffee sector and promote its sustainable development.

Statement 2:
The second statement is incorrect. India is actually a member of the International Coffee Organization. India is one of the major coffee-producing countries in the world and plays an active role in the global coffee market.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A - 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Momentum investing:
1. It is a style of investing where investors buy assets with rising prices.
2. Momentum investors generally do not conduct a deep analysis of the intrinsic value of the asset.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shraddha Basak answered


Explanation:

1. Statement 1:
- Momentum investing involves buying assets that have shown an upward price trend in the belief that the trend will continue.
- This statement is correct as momentum investors indeed focus on assets with rising prices to capitalize on the momentum.

2. Statement 2:
- Momentum investors typically do not delve deep into the fundamental analysis of the assets they are buying.
- They rely more on technical analysis and trends rather than the intrinsic value of the asset.
- Hence, this statement is also correct.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are accurate in describing momentum investing. Investors following this strategy prioritize the momentum of asset prices over fundamental analysis, aiming to profit from the continuation of existing trends.

Which one of the following best describes the ‘30 Doradus B’?
  • a)
    An Earth-size exoplanet
  • b)
    A supermassive black hole
  • c)
    A supernova remnant
  • d)
    A space observatory
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Nasa's Chandra X-ray Observatory recently captured a stunning image of 30 Doradus B, a supernova remnant that is part of a vibrant region of space where stars have been forming for millions of years.
About 30 Doradus B:
  • 30 Doradus B, also cataloged as NGC 2060, is a supernova remnant found in the Large Magellanic Cloud, a small satellite galaxy of the Milky Way.
  • It is part of a large star-forming region where stars have been continuously forming for the past 8 to 10 million years.
  • It is a complex landscape of dark clouds of gas, young stars, high-energy shocks, and superheated gas, located 160,000 light-years away from Earth.
What is a Supernova?
  • A supernova is the explosion of a star whose luminosity after an eruption suddenly increases many millions of times its normal level.
  • Supernovas are "the largest explosion that takes place in space."
  • A star can go supernova in one of two ways:
  • Type I supernova: The star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbour until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites.
  • Type II supernova: The star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity.
  • Supernovas can briefly outshine entire galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its entire lifetime.
  • They're also the primary source of heavy elements in the universe.
  • They heat up the interstellar mediumdistribute heavy elements throughout the Galaxy, and accelerate cosmic rays.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements about the General Diary (GD) and First Information Report (FIR):
Statement 1: Both GD and FIR are sent to the Judicial Magistrate.
Statement 2: The signature of the complainant is required in the FIR but not in the GD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only Statement 1
  • b)
    Only Statement 2
  • c)
    Both Statement 1 and Statement 2
  • d)
    Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anushka Tiwari answered


Explanation:

Statement 1:
- This statement is incorrect. General Diary (GD) is not sent to the Judicial Magistrate, but it is maintained at the police station for internal record-keeping.
- On the other hand, the First Information Report (FIR) is sent to the Judicial Magistrate as per legal requirements.

Statement 2:
- This statement is correct. In an FIR, the signature of the complainant is required as it is a formal document that initiates the criminal investigation process.
- In contrast, a General Diary (GD) does not require the signature of the complainant as it is used for recording non-cognizable offenses, complaints, and other incidents that do not require immediate police action.

Therefore, the correct answer is:
b) Only Statement 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Thiruvalluvar:
1. He was a Tamil poet and philosopher.
2. His most popular work is Thirukkuṛaḷ which is a collection of couplets on ethics and politics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prateek Kumar answered
Explanation:

Thiruvalluvar:
Thiruvalluvar was a Tamil poet and philosopher who is believed to have lived sometime between the 4th and 1st century BCE in Southern India.

Statement 1:

He was a Tamil poet and philosopher.
This statement is correct. Thiruvalluvar is widely regarded as one of the greatest Tamil poets and philosophers. His works have had a profound influence on Tamil literature and culture.

Statement 2:

His most popular work is Thirukkural which is a collection of couplets on ethics and politics.
This statement is also correct. Thirukkural, also known simply as the Kural, is a classic Tamil text consisting of 1330 couplets or kurals, each dealing with various aspects of life such as ethics, politics, love, and virtue.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Thiruvalluvar's Thirukkural remains a timeless work that continues to be studied and revered for its wisdom and moral teachings.

Consider the following statements regarding Nazool Land in north India:
  1. It is owned by the respective State Governments.
  2. It is generally used for public purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
     1 only
  • b)
     2 only
  • c)
     Both 1 and 2
  • d)
     Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Bajaj answered

Explanation:

  • Ownership of Nazool Land: Nazool Land in north India is owned by the respective State Governments. This land is usually acquired by the government for various purposes such as development projects, public infrastructure, etc.
  • Usage of Nazool Land: Nazool Land is generally used for public purposes. This can include setting up government offices, schools, hospitals, parks, or other facilities that benefit the public at large.


Therefore, both statements are correct as Nazool Land is owned by State Governments and is typically utilized for public purposes.

The Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is located in:
  • a)
    Tamil Nadu
  • b)
    Assam
  • c)
    Karnataka
  • d)
    Bihar
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Recently, the union Environment Minister said that five more Indian wetlands have been added to the global list of wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
  • Of the five wetlands added to the Ramsar list, Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, and Aghanashini Estuary are in Karnataka and Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest are in Tamil Nadu.
  • Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary 
  • It is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu, and is a significant source of groundwater recharge for the area.
Hence option a is the correct answer.

Exercise ‘Dharma Guardian’, recently seen in news, is conducted between India and:
  • a)
    Russia
  • b)
    Japan
  • c)
    France
  • d)
    Australia
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Recently, India and Japan kicked-off a two-week military exercise ‘Dharma Guardian’ in Rajasthan's Mahajan field firing range to foster deeper cooperation in confronting common security challenges.
  • It is an annual exercise and conducted alternatively in India and Japan.
  • It is the 5th edition of joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Japan 
  • Aim of the Exercise is to foster Military Cooperation and enhance combined capabilities to execute joint operations in semi-urban environment under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter.
  • The Exercise would focus on high degree of physical fitness, joint planning, joint tactical drills and basics of special arms skills.
  • Significance
  • It will enable the two sides to share their best practices in Tactics, Techniques and Procedures of conducting tactical operations.
  • The Exercise will also facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between troops of both the sides.
  • This will enhance the level of defence cooperation, further fostering bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
Bottom of Form
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Malaprabha River, recently seen in the news, is a tributary of:
  • a)
    Ganga
  • b)
    Krishna
  • c)
    Godavari
  • d)
    Cauvery
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) recently deferred the decision on diverting forest land from the Kali and Sahyadri tiger reserves for the construction of a part of the Karnataka government's Kalasa-Banduri Project.
About Kalasa-Banduri Project:
  • The project involves the construction of dams and a canal system to divert water from the Mahadayi Riverlocated in Goato the Malaprabha River (a tributary of the Krishna River) basin in Karnataka.
  • The main goal of the project is to meet the drinking water needs of the districts of Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, and Gadag in Karnataka.
  • Though the project was first proposed in the early 1980s, it has remained on paper owing to a dispute between Karnataka, Goa, and Maharashtra.
  • As per plans, barrages are to be built against Kalasa and Banduri streams — tributaries of Mahadayi — and water diverted towards Karnataka’s parched districts.
Key facts about Mahadayi River:
  • Origin: It rises in the Western Ghats from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Khanapur taluk of Karnataka’s Belagavi district.
  • The river travels 35 km in Karnataka, 82 km in Goa before joining the Arabian Sea at Panji (North-Goa).
  • Also called Mandovi in Goa, Mahadayi is a rain-fed river that is shared between Karnataka and Goa for their water needs.
  • The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on the island of Chorao in the Mandovi River.
  • Major TributariesKalasa Nala, Banduri Nala, Surla Nala, Haltar Nala, Poti Nala, Mahadayi Nala, Pansheer Nala, Bail Nala and Andher Nala.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Golden-backed Frog:
1. It is endemic only to Himalayan region.
2. It is primarily insectivorous which prefers to reside near streams and ponds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Scientists made a surprising discovery in the foothills of the Western Ghats in India — a Bonnet mushroom growing out of the side of the Golden-backed Frog (Hylarana inter-media) frog.
  • It is endemic to the Western Ghats of Karnataka and Kerala, specifically above the Palghat Gap, where it is known to thrive in relative abundance.
  • It is about the size of a human thumb.
  • Habitat: The Golden backed frog is predominantly found in evergreen and semi-evergreen forests in the Western Ghats of India.
  • These frogs prefer to reside near streams, ponds, and other water bodies, where they can lay their eggs and find their food.
  • They are primarily insectivorous and feed on a range of small insects and arthropods such as ants, beetles, and crickets.
  • Threats: The major threats to the survival of these frogs are habitat loss and fragmentation, pollution of water bodies, and the introduction of non-native species.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bobbili veena:
1. It is a large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic music.
2. It is crafted from Jack-wood tree logs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Despite the longstanding fame of the Bobbili veena, the livelihoods of craftsmen face challenges due to a lack of demand from the public and required patronage from the government.
  • It is the traditional ‘Saraswati Veena’ from Bobbili is famed for its fine tune and distinctive notes.
  • It is a large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic music.
  • The making of the veena began in the 17th century during the reign of Pedda Rayudu, the king of Bobbili Samsthanam who was a great patron of music.
  • Features
  • These veenas are painstakingly crafted from Jack-wood tree logs in Gollapalli, a town in Bobbili (AndhraPradesh).
  • It takes almost a full month for a log of mute wood to be crafted into a fine musical instrument.
  • Jack-wood is preferred as it is light and the unique grain of the wood renders the quality of swara or tone.
  • A single piece of wood is used to create the instrument giving it the name ‘Ekandi Veena’.
  • These Veenas are also remarkable for the exquisite designs etched on the body, making each piece exclusive.
  • With their origin dating back to the Seventeenth Century, these veenas are played in a distinctive style, which also led to the coinage of the ‘Bobbili Veena Sampradayam’.
  • It earned a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2012 for its unique design and high-quality craftsmanship.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of GST Intelligence:
1. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is investigating Mahadev Online Book, an allegedly illegal betting application, and its promoters for suspected violation of GST rules and non-payment of tax.
  • The Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI) now renamed as Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI).
  • It is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, and Ministry of Finance.
  • It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all India basis.
  • Functions of DGGI
  • Intelligence gathering: It is responsible for gathering intelligence about potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other documents.
  • It develops intelligence, especially in new areas of tax evasion through its intelligence network across the country and disseminates such information, by issuing Modus Operandi Circulars and Alert Circulars to sensitize the field formations about the latest trends in duty evasion.
  • Investigation: It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons, examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures.
  • Enforcement: It is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and recovering any taxes or duties due.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following organisations releases the World Tourism Index? 
  • a)
    World Bank 
  • b)
    World Economic Forum 
  • c)
    World Tourism Organisation 
  • d)
    UNESCO
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The organisation that releases the “World Tourism Index” is the World Economic Forum. They publish the Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Report, which includes the World Tourism Index as a part of their assessment of the competitiveness of countries in the travel and tourism sector. India, with a score of 4.2, ranks 54th out of 117 countries 

Consider the following statements regarding Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah:
1. He was contemporary of Tulasidas.
2. He laid the foundation of Hyderabad. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Rane answered
Explanation:

1. Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah:
- Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah was the fifth ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, which ruled the kingdom of Golconda in southern India.
- He was a contemporary of famous poet Tulsidas, who was a prominent Hindu poet-saint and philosopher.
- Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah was known for his patronage of literature, arts, and architecture during his reign.

2. Foundation of Hyderabad:
- Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah is credited with founding the city of Hyderabad in the year 1591.
- He established the city on the southern banks of the Musi River, as a new capital for the Qutb Shahi dynasty.
- The city was named Bhagyanagar initially, but later it was renamed Hyderabad in honor of Hyder Mahal, a beloved wife of Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah.

Therefore, both statements given in the question are correct. Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah was indeed a contemporary of Tulsidas, and he also laid the foundation of Hyderabad, which went on to become a significant cultural and historical center in India.

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Regulatory Sandbox’?
  • a)
    It is a live testing of new low-cost financial products.
  • b)
    It is a framework to curb drug racketing across the country.
  • c)
    It is a technology to test adulteration of food products.
  • d)
    It is a single window system to get license for AI startups.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Recently, the Reserve Bank tweaked guidelines for Regulatory Sandbox (RS) scheme.
  • It refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled regulatory environment.
  • It acts as a "safe space" for business as the regulators may or may not permit certain relaxations for the limited purpose of testing. 
  • It can provide a structured avenue for the regulator to engage with the ecosystem and to develop innovation-enabling or innovation-responsive regulations that facilitate delivery of relevant, low-cost financial products.
  • It is potentially an important tool which enables more dynamic, evidence-based regulatory environments which learn from, and evolve with, emerging technologies.
  • Objectives
  • It provides an environment to innovative technology-led entities for limited-scale testing of a new product or service that may or may not involve some relaxation in a regulatory requirement before a wider-scale launch.
  • The RS is, at its core, a formal regulatory programme for market participants to test new products, services or business models with customers in a live environment, subject to certain safeguards and oversight.
  • The proposed financial service to be launched under the RS should include new or emerging technology, or use of existing technology in an innovative way and should address a problem, or bring benefits to consumers.
  • To foster responsible innovation in financial services, promote efficiency and bring benefit to consumers.
  • The RBI had issued the 'Enabling Framework for Regulatory Sandbox' in August 2019, after wide ranging consultations with stakeholders.
  • The recently updated framework requires
  • The sandbox entities to ensure compliance with provisions of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
  • The timelines of the various stages of the Regulatory Sandbox process have been revised from seven months to nine months
  • The target applicants for entry to the RS are fintech companies, including startups, banks, financial institutions, any other company, Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) and partnership firms, partnering with or providing support to financial services businesses.
Hence option a is the correct answer.

The Papikonda National Park, recently seen in the news, is located in:
  • a)
    Odisha
  • b)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • c)
    Maharashtra
  • d)
    Madhya Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Papikonda National Park is located in Andhra Pradesh. It is a protected area known for its rich biodiversity and scenic beauty. Let's delve into the details of this national park:
- **Location**:
The Papikonda National Park is situated in the East Godavari and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. It covers an area of about 1,012 square kilometers and is known for its diverse flora and fauna.
- **Biodiversity**:
The national park is home to a wide variety of flora and fauna. It is known for its dense forests, rivers, and water bodies that support a diverse range of plant and animal species. Some of the wildlife species found in the park include tigers, leopards, elephants, sloth bears, sambar deer, and various species of birds.
- **Importance**:
Papikonda National Park plays a crucial role in the conservation of biodiversity in the region. It helps in preserving the natural habitat of various endangered species and provides a sanctuary for wildlife to thrive.
- **Tourism**:
Apart from its conservation significance, the national park also attracts tourists and nature enthusiasts. Visitors can enjoy activities like trekking, wildlife safari, bird watching, and nature walks in the park. The picturesque landscapes and the opportunity to observe wildlife in their natural habitat make it a popular destination for eco-tourism.
- **Conservation Efforts**:
Efforts are being made to conserve and protect the biodiversity of Papikonda National Park. Conservation initiatives include habitat restoration, anti-poaching measures, and community participation in wildlife conservation.
In conclusion, the Papikonda National Park in Andhra Pradesh is a vital natural reserve that contributes to the conservation of biodiversity and provides a unique opportunity for visitors to experience the beauty of nature.

Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) primarily deals with which one of the following?
  • a)
    Property seizure regulations
  • b)
    Maintenance of wives, children and parents
  • c)
    Witness protection
  • d)
    Juvenile justice
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagar Chavan answered
Maintenance of wives, children and parents

Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) primarily deals with providing maintenance to wives, children, and parents who are unable to maintain themselves. This provision is aimed at preventing destitution and ensuring the basic needs of these dependents are met.

Provisions of Section 125

1. Applicability: Section 125 applies to wives, children (legitimate or illegitimate), and parents who are unable to maintain themselves.

2. Scope: It mandates that a person who has sufficient means must provide maintenance to their dependents.

3. Procedure: An application for maintenance can be made to a Magistrate who has the jurisdiction over the concerned area. The Magistrate may pass an order for monthly allowance to be paid by the person who is obliged to provide maintenance.

4. Criteria for Maintenance: The amount of maintenance to be paid is determined based on various factors such as the financial status of the parties, the needs of the dependents, and any other relevant circumstances.

5. Enforcement: If the person obligated to pay maintenance fails to comply with the Magistrate's order, it can be enforced through various mechanisms including attachment of property or imprisonment.

Significance of Section 125

1. Social Welfare: It ensures that vulnerable family members are not left without financial support.

2. Legal Protection: Section 125 provides a legal remedy for dependents who are entitled to maintenance but are not receiving it voluntarily.

3. Gender Equality: It applies to wives and children, irrespective of their gender, ensuring equal rights to maintenance.

In conclusion, Section 125 of the CrPC is a crucial provision that safeguards the rights of dependent family members by ensuring they receive necessary maintenance from those who are obligated to provide it.

Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayan griffon:
1. It is a diurnal, solitary vulture.
2. It is monogamous and pairs return to the same nesting and roosting sites from year to year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
In the first-ever tri-State synchronised vulture survey 320 individual vultures were counted in the seven-protected areas spread over Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Himalayan griffon is only reported from Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • It is an Old World vulture in the family Accipitridae.
  • It is one of the two largest Old World vultures and true raptors.
  • These are monogamous and pairs return to the same nesting and roosting sites from year to year.
  • These are diurnal and mostly solitary species.
  • Distribution:
  • It is found along the Himalayas and the adjoining Tibetan region and is also found in the Central Asian Mountains.
  • Occasionally it migrates to northern India but migration usually only occurs altitudinally.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN: Near Threatened
Hence both statements are correct.

World Government Summit (WGS), an annual event, is held by:
  • a)
    Switzerland
  • b)
    United States of America
  • c)
    United Arab Emirates
  • d)
    Singapore
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?



United Arab Emirates

The World Government Summit (WGS) is an annual event held in the United Arab Emirates (UAE). It brings together leaders from various sectors of society to discuss the challenges facing the world and collaborate on finding solutions. The UAE has been hosting the summit since 2013 and has become a global platform for shaping the future of governments worldwide.

Significance of the Summit

The World Government Summit serves as a forum for government officials, experts, and thought leaders to exchange ideas, share best practices, and explore innovative approaches to governance. The summit covers a wide range of topics, including technology, sustainability, healthcare, and education, among others.

Global Participation

The summit attracts participants from around the world, including heads of state, policymakers, business leaders, and representatives from international organizations. It provides a unique opportunity for networking, learning, and collaboration on global challenges.

Key Themes and Discussions

Each year, the World Government Summit focuses on key themes and issues that are relevant to the global community. These themes may include artificial intelligence, climate change, public health, economic development, and social inclusion, among others. Through panel discussions, workshops, and networking sessions, participants engage in meaningful conversations and explore possible solutions to complex problems.

Conclusion

The World Government Summit in the United Arab Emirates plays a crucial role in fostering collaboration, innovation, and dialogue among global leaders. By bringing together diverse perspectives and expertise, the summit contributes to shaping a more sustainable and inclusive future for all.

Consider the following statements regarding Rashtrapati Nilayam:
1. It is one of the official Presidential retreats in India.
2. It is located in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The President of India inaugurated various tourist attractions at Rashtrapati Nilayam recently. 
About Rashtrapati Nilayam:
  • Rashtrapati Nilayam (literally the "President's House"), originally known as Residency House, is the official retreat of the President of India. 
  • It is located in Secunderabad Cantonment in Hyderabad, Telangana.
  • It is one of the Presidential retreats in India and the only one present in Southern India.
  • History:
  • Residency House was constructed in 1860 as the country house of the British Resident.
  • It also served as a place of refuge, given its secure location, amid several battles. 
  • After Hyderabad’s annexation in 1948, it became the President's retreat and used as the Southern Sojourn of the President of India.
  • It has a total land area of 90 acres.
  • A single-storey building, it contains on its premises 11 rooms. It also has a Dining Hall, Cinema Hall, Darbar Hall, Morning room, Dining room, etc. 
  • The President stays at the residence at least once a year and conducts official business.
  • It was also used as a guest house for visiting dignitaries.
President’s Retreats:
  • While the Rashtrapati Bhavan in Delhi is the official residence of the President, there are two retreats for the head of state in India.
  • Rashtrapati Nilayam is one, and the other is Rashtrapati Niwas at Mashobra in Shimla.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Manatees:
1. They are large herbivorous aquatic mammals.
2. All the species of manatees inhabit freshwater ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
A record number of manatees converged at a Florida state park recently.
About Manatees:
  • Manatees are large aquatic mammals, and sometimes they're referred to as “sea cows.”
  • They belong toa group of animals called Sirenia. This group also contains dugongs.
  • Dugongs and manatees are very similar in appearance and behavior, but there is one key difference: their tails.
  • Manatees have paddle-shaped tails, and dugongs have fluked tails, giving it a whale-like appearance.
  • Habitat: Manatees inhabit shallow, marshy coastal areas and rivers.
  • There are three species, or types, of manatee.
  • The Amazonian manatee lives in the Amazon River and in fresh water in South America. This species is only found in freshwater.
  • The African manatee lives in tropical West Africa.
  • The Caribbean manatee is found in Florida and the West Indies.
  • Features:
  • Adult manatees may reach a length of 15 feet (4.6 meters) and a weight of 1,660 kilograms. 
  • Females tend to be larger and heavier than males.
  • Dull gray, blackish, or brown in colour, all three manatee species have stout tapered bodies ending in a flat rounded tail used for forward propulsion
  • The forelimbs are modified into flippers; there are no hind limbs.
  • In order to breathe, they must swim to the water’s surface for air. 
  • Lifespan: 50 to 60 years
  • They are herbivores. They spend up to eight hours a day grazing and can consume 4 to 9 percent of their body weight in aquatic vegetation daily.
  • Apart from mothers and their young, or males following a receptive female, manatees are generally solitary animals.
  • Conservation Status: All three manatee species are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN’s Red List of Threatened Species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the NaViGate Bharat portal:
1. It is developed by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
2. It hosts videos of Government’s development-related and citizen welfare-oriented measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Kumar answered
NaViGate Bharat Portal

Statement Analysis:
- Statement 1: It is developed by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- Statement 2: It hosts videos of Government’s development-related and citizen welfare-oriented measures.

Correct Answer: C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The NaViGate Bharat portal is indeed developed by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, making statement 1 correct. This portal serves as a platform for hosting videos related to the Government's development initiatives and citizen welfare measures, confirming the accuracy of statement 2. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct in this context.
In conclusion, the NaViGate Bharat portal is an initiative by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting to showcase videos of the Government's development-related efforts and citizen welfare-oriented measures.

Consider the following statements regarding the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX):
1. It aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector in India.
2. It is entirely funded and managed by the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nishanth Jain answered
Explanation:

1. Aim of iDEX:
- The first statement is correct. iDEX aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector in India.
- It seeks to foster innovation and technology development to meet the needs of the Indian armed forces.

2. Funding and Management:
- The second statement is incorrect. iDEX is not entirely funded and managed by the Ministry of Defence.
- It is a collaborative initiative that involves multiple stakeholders including the Ministry of Defence, industry partners, startups, and academia.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

The MakhaBucha ceremony, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with:
  • a)
    Buddhism
  • b)
    Vaishnavism
  • c)
    Jainism
  • d)
    Sikhism
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The sacred MakhaBucha (Magh Puja) ceremony, one of the five most revered events for Buddhists in Thailand, was gracefully conducted by the esteemed Somdet and other senior monks of Thailand. 
  • MakhaBucha Day (Magha Puja) is a religious celebration marking Lord Buddha’s teachings to his disciples.
  • It is celebrated according to the traditional lunar calendar, on the day of full moon of the third lunar month.
  • The term makha comes from the word “Magha” in Pali and it refers to the third lunar month, while bucha can translate as “to worship,” both of which are derived from the Pali language used in Buddhist scripture.
  • The term MakhaBucha refers to a day intended for worshiping on the third lunar month.
  • The aim of this day is to purify one's mind and do only good. Some celebrate by offering food to monks and also attend candle light processions in the evening.
  • It is the first important religious festival in the Buddhist calendar, takes place in nations including Thailand, Laos and Cambodia, where the majority of Buddhists practice Theravada Buddhism, also known as “Buddhism of the south”.
Bottom of Form
Hence option a is the correct answer.

Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

Chapter doubts & questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.

Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!

Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev