All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements with reference to the World Monuments Fund:
1. It is an independent organization devoted to safeguarding the world’s cultural heritage sites.
2. It is headquartered in New York.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Eri (tank) network in the Kazhuveli watershed region in Villupuram district that comprises of an incredible network of tanks created thousands of years ago is to be proposed for nomination to the World Monuments Fund Watch 2025 programme. 
  • It is the leading independent organization devoted to safeguarding the world’s most treasured places to enrich people’s lives and build mutual understanding across cultures and communities.
  • Since 1965, its global team of experts has preserved the world's diverse cultural heritage using the highest international standards at more than 700 sites in 112 countries.
  • Partnering with local communities, funders, and governments, WMF draws on heritage to address some of today’s most pressing challenges: climate change, underrepresentation, imbalanced tourism, and post-crisis recovery. 
  • Headquarter: New York City
  • In 2015, WMF India became the most recent entry to the World Monuments Fund family of affiliates, established under India's Companies Act, following the country's policy to include heritage conservation in corporate social responsibility programs.
What is the World Monuments Watch?
  • It is a nomination-based program that connects local heritage preservation to global awareness and action.
  • Every two years, the Watch rallies support to places in need and the people who care for them, spotlighting new challenges.
  • At its core, the Watch’s call to action seeks to empower timely preservation efforts that improve the lives of communities.
  • The 2025 Watch will include 25 places, each telling an urgent local story with global relevance.
Hence both statements are correct.

Which among the following best describes INS Tushil, recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    It is a torpedo launch and recovery vessel.
  • b)
    It is a Talwar-class stealth frigate.
  • c)
    It is a diesel-electric submarine.
  • d)
    It is a Kiev-class aircraft carrier.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Saumya Iyer answered
INS Tushil

Description:
INS Tushil is a Talwar-class stealth frigate that has been recently seen in the news. It is a modern surface combatant warship of the Indian Navy known for its advanced capabilities and technologies.

Key Features:
- Talwar-class: INS Tushil belongs to the Talwar-class of frigates, which are designed for anti-submarine warfare, anti-aircraft warfare, and anti-surface warfare.
- Stealth Frigate: The ship is designed with stealth features to reduce its radar cross-section and make it less detectable to enemy radars.
- Advanced Capabilities: INS Tushil is equipped with advanced sensors, weapons systems, and communication systems to carry out a variety of naval missions effectively.
- Indian Navy: The ship is a part of the Indian Navy's fleet and plays a crucial role in safeguarding the maritime interests of India.

Recent News:
INS Tushil has been in the news recently due to its participation in various naval exercises, deployments, or operations to maintain maritime security and conduct joint exercises with friendly navies.
In conclusion, INS Tushil is a Talwar-class stealth frigate that serves as a vital asset in the Indian Navy's fleet, showcasing advanced capabilities and technologies to fulfill its naval responsibilities effectively.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Classification of Diseaseas (ICD):
1. It is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO).
2. In India, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence serves as the Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseaseas (ICD) 11 TM Module 2, Morbidity Codes launch event will be held in New Delhi on 10th January, 2024. 
  • It is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to classify diseases internationally.
  • The global data on diseases currently available is mainly based on healthcare practices to be diagnosed through modern biomedicine.
  • It serves a broad range of uses globally and provides critical knowledge on the extent, causes and consequences of human disease and death worldwide via data that is reported and coded with the ICD.
  • Clinical terms coded with ICD are the main basis for health recording and statistics on disease in primary, secondary and tertiary care, as well as on cause of death certificates.
  • These data and statistics support payment systems, service planning, and administration of quality and safety, and health services research.
  • Diagnostic guidance linked to categories of ICD also standardizes data collection and enables large scale research.
  • The classification of data and terminology relating to diseases based on Ayush systems such as Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani etc. is not yet included in the WHO ICD series.
  • Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) is an agency under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that serves as the WHO Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities.
  • It facilitates the collection and dissemination of data on various diseases and mortality.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA):
1. It is an inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
2. All member countries of United Nations are member of the IEA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the International Energy Agency said that strong GDP growth and a weak monsoon drove up India’s energy-related carbon emissions by around 190 million tonnes in 2023, though the country’s per capita emissions remain far below the global average.
International Energy Agency:
  • It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
  • Mission: It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
  • Background
  • It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels, and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports. 
  • It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies. 
  • Membership: It is made up of 31 member countries, 13 association countries, and 5 accession countries.
  • Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the OECD. In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements.
  • Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply;
  • A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%;
  • Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis;
  • Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request;
  • All member countries of United Nations are not member of this organization.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Atapaka Bird Sanctuary, recently in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Arunachal Pradesh
  • b)
    West Bengal
  • c)
    Gujarat
  • d)
    Andhra Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
In recent times, nature lovers, bird watchers, students and many tourists have been having an enjoyable time at Atapaka Bird Sanctuary with thousands of migratory birds arriving at Kolleru Lake.
  • It is situated on the Kolleru Lake in the Indian State Andhra Pradesh.
  • It is the home to a vast repertoire of birds. It is especially known for sheltering Pelicans.
  • It spans over an area of 673 square kilometres with wetland marsh habitat extending across two districts namely West Godavari and Krishna.
  • Atapaka Bird Sanctuary falls under Kaikalur forest range.
  • The common species that can be witnessed in the sanctuary include Cormorants, Common Redshanks, Pied Avocets, Black-winged Stilts, Red-crested Pochards etc.
Key facts about Kolleru Lake
  • It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
  • It is located in Andhra Pradesh between the Krishna and Godavari deltas.
  • The lake serves as a natural flood-balancing reservoir for these two rivers.
  • The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams, and is connected to the Krishna and Godavari systems by over 68 inflowing drains and channels.
  • It serves as a habitat for migratory birds.
  • The lake was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 under India's Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and designated a wetland of international importance in 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to Nano Urea:
1. It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
2. It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

India will replace the consumption of 2.5 million tonnes (mt) of conventional urea with nano urea in FY24, the Union Chemicals and Fertilizers Minister said at a press conference recently. 
About Nano Urea:
  • It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
  • It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
  • IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
  • Features:
  • Compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm, and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill), and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill).
  • It contains 4.0% total nitrogen (w/v).
  • Benefits:
  • It is produced by an energy-efficientenvironment-friendly production process with less carbon footprints.
  • Increased availability to crops by more than 80%, resulting in higher nutrient use efficiency.
  • It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and address the "imbalanced and excessive use" of conventional fertilizer.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the wearable devices:
1. These are electronic devices that can be worn as accessories and implanted in the user's body.
2. They are able to replicate the functionality offered by a smartwatch.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Nambiar answered

Explanation:

1. Wearable Devices:
- Wearable devices are electronic devices that can be worn as accessories by the users. They are not implanted in the user's body, but rather worn externally.
- These devices are designed to track various aspects of the user's health and fitness, including heart rate, steps taken, calories burned, and sleep patterns.
- Examples of wearable devices include fitness trackers, smartwatches, and smart clothing.

2. Replication of Smartwatch Functionality:
- While wearable devices can offer some similar features to smartwatches, they are not able to replicate all the functionality that a smartwatch provides.
- Smartwatches typically have additional features such as the ability to make phone calls, send messages, access apps, and receive notifications from a paired smartphone.
- Wearable devices focus more on health and fitness tracking, with limited smartwatch capabilities.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct as wearable devices are electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, but statement 2 is incorrect as they do not fully replicate the functionality of a smartwatch.

Consider the following statements with reference to CoViNet:
1. It is network of global laboratories to identify potential novel coronaviruses.
2. It is an initiative of World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Iyer answered
CoViNet

Statement 1:
- CoViNet is a network of global laboratories to identify potential novel coronaviruses.
- This statement is correct as CoViNet aims to enhance global collaboration and surveillance for novel coronaviruses.

Statement 2:
- CoViNet is not an initiative of the World Health Organization (WHO).
- The correct organization associated with CoViNet is the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct in relation to CoViNet.

The Yars Missile, recently seen in the news, is an intercontinental ballistic missile developed by which one of the following countries?
  • a)
    China
  • b)
    Iran
  • c)
    North Korea
  • d)
    Russia
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Russia's defence ministry recently announced a successful test fire of Yars intercontinental ballistic nuclear missile.
About Yars Missile:
  • The Yars (also known as RS-24 or SS-29) is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with multiple independently targetable warheads, each capable of targeting different objectives.
  • Features:
  • It is a three-stage, solid propellant, MIRV-capable (Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicles) ICBM.
  • The Yars is a modified version of the Topol-M missile system.
  • The missile is 23 meters long and can be launched from a silo or mobile launcher. 
  • It has a range of 10,500 km.
  • Launch Weight: 49600 kg
  • The missile can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
  • It has the capability to manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Nazool Land in north India:
1. It is owned by the respective State Governments.
2. It is generally used for public purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Violence erupted in Uttarakhand recently after a mosque and a madrasa standing on Nazool land were demolished.
About Nazool Land:
  • Nazool land is owned by the government but is most often not directly administered as state property. 
  • The state generally allots such land to any entity on lease for a fixed period, generally between 15 and 99 years.
  • In case the lease term is expiring, one can approach the authority to renew the lease by submitting a written application to the Revenue Department of the local development authority. 
  • The government is free to either renew the lease or cancel it, taking back Nazool land.
  • In almost all major cities in India, Nazool land has been allotted to different entities for a variety of different purposes.
  • How did Nazool Land emerge?
  • During British rule, kings and kingdoms which opposed the British frequently revolted against them, leading to several battles between them and the British Army.
  • Upon defeating these kings in battle, the British would often take their land away from them.
  • After India got Independence, the British vacated these lands. 
  • But with kings and royals often lacking proper documentation to prove prior ownership, these lands were marked as Nazool land—to be owned by the respective state governments.
  • How does the government use Nazool land?
  • The government generally uses Nazool land for public purposes like building schools, hospitals, Gram Panchayat buildings, etc. 
  • Several cities in India have also seen large tracts of land denoted as Nazool land used for housing societies, generally on lease.
  • How is Nazool land governed?
  • While several states have brought in government orders for the purpose of framing rules for Nazool land, The Nazool Lands (Transfer) Rules, 1956, is the law mostly used for Nazool land adjudication.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sangeet Natak Akademi:
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.
2. Its Chairman is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Former vice-president of India and Union Minister for Culture, Tourism and Development of the Northeast Region will be inaugurating the Sangeet Natak Akademi’s ‘Dakshin Bharat Sanskritik Kendra’ here in Hyderabad. 
  • It is India’s national academy of music, dance and drama.
  • It was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education, with P.V. Rajamannar as its first Chairman.
  • It was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance and drama.
  • Presently, it is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture.
  • The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
  • It is fully funded by the Government for the implementation of its schemes and programmes.
  • Aims and objectives
  • To co-ordinate the activities of regional or State Akademies of dance, drama and music;
  • To promote research in the fields of Indian dance, drama and music and for this purpose, to establish a library and museum, etc.;
  • To co-operate with such similar academies as there may be and other institutions and associations for the furtherance of its objects and for the enrichment of Indian culture as a whole;
  • To encourage the exchange of ideas and enrichment of techniques between the different regions in regard to the arts of dance, drama and music;
  • To encourage, where necessary, the establishment of theatre centres, on the basis of regional languages, and co-operation among different theatre centres;
  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards are the highest national recognition conferred on practising artists.
  • The Akademi also confers Fellowships on eminent artists and scholars of music, dance and drama; and has in 2006 instituted annual awards to young artists – the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar. 
Hence both statements are correct.

Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following cities?
  • a)
    Varanasi
  • b)
    Ahmedabad
  • c)
    Ujjain
  • d)
    Chennai
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, which is mounted on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain.
About Vikramaditya Vedic Clock:
  • It is the world’s first 'Vedic Clock', designed to display time according to the ancient Indian traditional Panchang (time calculation system).
  • It has been positioned on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
  • It also provides information on planetary positions, Muhurat, astrological calculations, and predictions.
  • In addition to this, it also indicates Indian Standard Time (IST) and Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). 
  • The clock will calculate time from one sunrise to another
  • The period between the two sunrises will be divided into 30 parts, whose one hour consists of 48 minutes, according to ISD. 
  • The reading will start from 0:00 with the sunrise functions for 30 hours (an hour of 48 minutes).
  • It has been developed by Lucknow-based Sanstha Arohan, using digital interventions, enabling it to be connected to the internet and provide a wide range of features through a mobile app named after the clock.
  • Why Ujjain?
  • Ujjain's rich heritage in timekeeping dates back centuries, with the city playing a pivotal role in determining India's time zones and time difference. 
  • Ujjain is located at the precise point of interaction with zero meridian and Tropic of Cancer.
  • Before 82.5E longitude was adopted for ISTUjjain (75.78E) was considered as Bharat’s time meridian.
  • The Vikrami Panchang and Vikram Samvat calendars are also released from Ujjain, which makes Ujjain the ideal location to have the Vaidik Clock.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Aral Sea:
1. It stands at the boundary between Kyrgyzstan and Turkmenistan.
2. It was made by waters from the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, NASA's Earth Observatory posted a detailed analysis of the reason behind Aral Sea's disappearance. 
  • It stands at the boundary between Kazakhstan to the north and Uzbekistan to the south.
  • It was once a large saltwater lake of Central Asia and the world’s fourth largest body of inland water.
  • The remnants of it nestle in the climatically inhospitable heart of Central Asia, to the east of the Caspian Sea.
  • The Aral Sea depression was formed toward the end of the Neogene Period (which lasted from about 23 to 2.6 million years ago). 
  • It was made by waters from the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers that were dependent on glacial melt.
  • It drains Uzbekistan and portions of Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, Iran, and Kyrgyzstan.
  • Climate: The Aral Sea is located within the harsh climate region of Central Asia. The area experiences a desert-continental climate, characterized by hot summers, cold winters, and varying diurnal air temperature.
  • Reason for its disappearance
  • According to the space agency, in 1960 the Soviet Union undertook a major water diversion project where they diverted the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers for irrigation projects.
  • Though the project made the desert region surrounding the sea bloom, it had a devastating impact on the Aral Sea.
  • The waterbody slowly started drying up and today it is on the verge of complete disappearance.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The Global Resource Outlook report is a flagship report of:
  • a)
    World Economic Forum (WEF)
  • b)
    World Bank
  • c)
    International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
  • d)
    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Desai answered

United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

The Global Resource Outlook report is a flagship report of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), which is a leading global environmental authority. The UNEP works to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and people to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations.

Importance of the Global Resource Outlook report

- The Global Resource Outlook report provides insights into the state of global resources, trends in resource consumption and production, and the environmental impacts of resource use.
- It highlights the importance of sustainable resource management and the need for urgent action to address resource depletion, pollution, and waste generation.
- The report offers recommendations for policymakers, businesses, and individuals to promote sustainable consumption and production patterns to ensure the long-term health of the planet.

Role of UNEP in environmental conservation

- UNEP plays a crucial role in advocating for environmental protection, promoting sustainable development, and addressing key environmental challenges at the global level.
- The organization works closely with governments, businesses, civil society, and other stakeholders to develop and implement policies and initiatives to protect the environment and promote sustainable practices.
- UNEP also coordinates environmental conventions and agreements, conducts research and analysis on environmental issues, and provides technical assistance and capacity-building support to countries in need.

In conclusion, the Global Resource Outlook report by the United Nations Environment Programme serves as an essential tool for understanding the state of global resources and guiding efforts towards sustainable resource management and environmental conservation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fire Capped Tit:
1. It is small Himalayan bird found in montane broadleaf forest.
2. It is considered as critically endangered species under IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Recently, the Birders have spotted the trail of species flying back home including the fire capped tit in the Aravalli hill region suggesting reverse migration as the season changes from winter to summer.
  • It is a small bird species assigned to the family Paridae.
  • Migration pattern: It is a Himalayan bird which flies down south towards Western Ghats and Kerala around Sept, and is back around Feb-end and March.
  • Habitat: Inhabits forest feeding on invertebrates, nectar and pollen, usually high in canopy but will descend to low growth.
  • It is found in montane broadleaf forest at middle to high elevations, sometimes mixed in with other species.
  • These birds breed in the Himalayas during summer and have a melodious song.
  • Distribution: 
  • A local breeding summer visitor to northern mountains from Pakistan east to Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Winters in foothills and rarely in plains south to Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN: Least Concern
Why early reverse migration?
  • The winters were not very harsh in central India. So, the bird could have started moving early.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian grey wolf:
1. It is mainly found in grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems.
2. It is placed under the schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Wildlife enthusiasts and experts are abuzz with excitement after the recent sighting of Indian grey wolf in the expansive confines of National Chambal Sanctuary in Etawah.
  • Scientific Name: Canis lupus pallipes
  • It is a subspecies of grey wolf that ranges from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent.
  • They live in warmer conditions.
  • It is intermediate in size between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf and lacks the former’s luxuriant winter coat due to it living in warmer conditions.
  • It travels in smaller packs and is less vocal than other its variants. They are nocturnal and hunt from dusk to dawn
  • Description: It is of intermediate in size lies between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf, and lacks the former’s luxuriant winter coat due to its living in warmer conditions.
  • Habitat: The Indian wolf inhabits areas dominated by scrub, grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems.
  • Distribution: It has a wide distribution range that extends from the Indian subcontinent to Israel. There are about 3,000 animals in India, some in captivity.
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN: Least concern
  • Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 : Schedule I
  • CITES : Appendix 1 
  • Threat: Habitat loss and depletion of prey species etc.
Hence both statements are correct.

Where is the Barberton Greenstone Belt, recently seen in the news, located?
  • a)
    Greenland
  • b)
    South Africa
  • c)
    Western Australia
  • d)
    Eastern Canada
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Scientists recently found signs of some of the earliest known earthquakes at the Barberton Greenstone Belt.
About Barberton Greenstone Belt:
  • It is situated on the eastern edge of the Kaapvaal Craton in South Africa.
  • It is known for its gold mineralisation and for its komatiites, an unusual type of ultramafic volcanic rock named after the Komati River that flows through the belt. 
  • Some of the oldest exposed rocks on Earth (greater than 3.6 Ga) are located in the Barberton Greenstone Belt of the Eswatini–Barberton areas, and these contain some of the oldest traces of life on Earth, second only to the Isua Greenstone Belt of Western Greenland.
  • The Makhonjwa Mountains make up 40% of the Baberton belt.
  • Geological sampling indicates that some rock formations in these mountains are 3.2 to 3.6 billion years old.
What are ultramafic rocks?
  • Ultramafic (or ultrabasic) rocks are dark-colored igneous and meta-igneous rocks that are rich in minerals containing magnesium and iron ("mafic" minerals) and have a relatively low content of silica.
  • They are generally composed of more than 90 percent mafic minerals—that is, they have a high content of magnesium oxide (more than 18 percent MgO) and iron oxide (FeO). Their silica content is less than 45 percent, and their potassium content is low.
  • The Earth's mantle is thought to be composed of ultramafic rocks.
  • Most of the exposed ultramafic rocks have been found in orogenic (mountain-forming) belts. 
Hence option b is the correct answer.

'Disease X', recently seen in news, is a:
  • a)
    genetic disease
  • b)
    neglected tropical disease
  • c)
    plant disease
  • d)
    hypothetical pathogen for future pandemic
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Niharika Roy answered

Explanation:

What is Disease X?
- Disease X is a term used by the World Health Organization (WHO) to refer to a hypothetical pathogen that could cause a future global pandemic.
- It is not a specific disease but rather a placeholder for any unknown pathogen with epidemic or pandemic potential.

Characteristics of Disease X:
- Disease X is characterized by its unpredictability and potential to spread rapidly across the globe.
- It is considered a priority for research and preparedness efforts to prevent and respond to future pandemics.

Significance of Disease X:
- The concept of Disease X highlights the need for global health security and preparedness for emerging infectious diseases.
- By focusing on Disease X, researchers and public health officials can anticipate and plan for potential future pandemics.

Recent News Coverage:
- Disease X has been in the news recently due to the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic, which has underscored the importance of being prepared for novel and unknown pathogens.
- The COVID-19 pandemic has served as a reminder of the potential impact of a disease like Disease X on global health and the economy.

In conclusion, Disease X represents a hypothetical pathogen with pandemic potential that serves as a call to action for global health preparedness and research efforts to prevent future outbreaks.

The Galapagos Islands, often mentioned in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Atlantic Ocean
  • b)
    Indian Ocean
  • c)
    Pacific Ocean
  • d)
    Mediterranean Sea
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?



Location of the Galapagos Islands

The Galapagos Islands are located in the Pacific Ocean, specifically off the coast of Ecuador in South America. They are situated approximately 1,000 kilometers west of the Ecuadorian mainland.

Geography and Formation

The Galapagos Islands are a volcanic archipelago composed of 18 main islands, 3 smaller islands, and 107 rocks and islets. The islands were formed through volcanic activity over millions of years, resulting in a unique and diverse landscape.

Biodiversity and Conservation

The Galapagos Islands are renowned for their biodiversity and unique wildlife, which inspired Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection. The islands are home to many endemic species, including the Galapagos giant tortoise, marine iguana, and Galapagos penguin.

Due to their ecological significance, the Galapagos Islands have been designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a biosphere reserve. Conservation efforts are ongoing to protect the fragile ecosystem and prevent the extinction of endemic species.

Tourism and Environmental Impact

Tourism is a significant industry in the Galapagos Islands, attracting visitors from around the world who come to experience the islands' natural beauty and wildlife. However, the influx of tourists has raised concerns about the impact on the environment and wildlife, leading to regulations and sustainable tourism practices.

In conclusion, the Galapagos Islands are a unique and important ecological and scientific treasure located in the Pacific Ocean off the coast of Ecuador. Their biodiversity, conservation efforts, and tourism industry make them a subject of global interest and study.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019:
1. It provides a path to Indian citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan who migrated to India before December 31, 2014.
2. It does not apply to the tribal areas included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 provides a path to Indian citizenship for persecuted religious minorities such as Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan who migrated to India before December 31, 2014.

Statement 2:
- The statement is correct. The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 does not apply to the tribal areas included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India. These areas are exempt from the provisions of the Act.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct in reference to the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019.

Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of GST Intelligence:
1. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is investigating Mahadev Online Book, an allegedly illegal betting application, and its promoters for suspected violation of GST rules and non-payment of tax.
  • The Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI) now renamed as Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI).
  • It is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, and Ministry of Finance.
  • It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all India basis.
  • Functions of DGGI
  • Intelligence gathering: It is responsible for gathering intelligence about potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other documents.
  • It develops intelligence, especially in new areas of tax evasion through its intelligence network across the country and disseminates such information, by issuing Modus Operandi Circulars and Alert Circulars to sensitize the field formations about the latest trends in duty evasion.
  • Investigation: It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons, examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures.
  • Enforcement: It is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and recovering any taxes or duties due.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the polar vortex:
1. It is a small area of high-pressure and warm air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. 
2. It always exists near the poles but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilanjan Singh answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
The statement is incorrect. The polar vortex is actually a large area of low-pressure and cold air that surrounds both of the Earth's poles, not high-pressure and warm air.

Statement 2:
The statement is correct. The polar vortex always exists near the poles but tends to weaken in summer and strengthen in winter. This is due to the temperature difference between the polar regions and the equator, which is more pronounced in winter, leading to a stronger polar vortex.
Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf of Carpentaria, recently seen in the news:
1. It is a shallow rectangular sea located in the Southern Indian Ocean.
2. It is a rare modern example of an epicontinental sea. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
A new tropical cyclone warning has been recently issued for the Gulf of Carpentaria. 
About Gulf of Carpentaria:
  • It is a shallow rectangular sea on the northern coast of Australia and an inlet of the eastern Arafura Sea (a Pacific Ocean sea separating New Guinea and Australia).
  • The gulf has an area of 120,000 square miles (310,000 square km) and a maximum depth of 230 feet (70 metres). 
  • It is 590 kilometers wide at the mouth and 675 kilometers wide near the southern coast. It is over 700 kilometers long, from north to south.
  • The gulf covers a continental shelf common to both New Guinea and Australia.
  • A ridge extends across Torres Straitseparating the floor of the gulf from the Coral Sea to the east. 
  • It is a rare modern example of an epicontinental sea (a shallow sea on top of a continent), a feature much more common at earlier times in the Earth’s geologic history.
  • At least 20 rivers empty into the gulf, including the Roper, Wilton, Walker, Calvert, Flinders, McArthur, and Norman Rivers.
  • There are several islands in the gulf, with Groote Eylandt, being the largest.
  • The gulf also contains fringing reefs and coral colonies. 
  • It gained international recognition in the 20th and 21st centuries following the discovery and exploitation of several mineral resources, including manganese and bauxite.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the PB-SHABD Platform:
1. It has been designed to provide daily news feeds in video formats to the subscribers.
2. Its service is being offered free of cost for the first year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting launched PB-SHABD, a news sharing service from Prasar Bharati and websites of DD News and Akashvani News as well as updated News on Air mobile app at an event in National Media Centre, New Delhi.
  • Prasar Bharti - Shared Audio Visuals for Broadcast and Dissemination (PB-SHABD) platform has been designed to provide daily news feeds in video, audio, text, photo and other formats to the subscribers from media landscape.
  • It is powered by the vast network of Prasar Bharati reporters, correspondents and stringers, the service would bring you the latest news from different parts of the country.
  • It will be a single point source of news content for all organizations.
  • SHABD service is being offered free of cost for the first year as an introductory offer and will provide news stories in all major Indian languages across fifty categories.
  • The shared feeds can be used for customized storytelling across different platforms.
  • As an introductory offer, the services would be available free of cost and help the smaller newspapers, TV channels and digital portals immensely.
What is Prasar Bharti?
  • It is the Public Service Broadcaster of the country.
  • It is a statutory autonomous body established in 1997 under the Prasar Bharati Act.
  • Objective: To conduct public broadcasting services intended to inform and entertain the public.
  • It comprises the Doordarshan Television Network and All India Radio, which were earlier media units of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
  • Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
1. It is the central authority for combating the illicit trade of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
2. It directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
In a coordinated operation at sea, the Indian Navy and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) recently apprehended a suspicious vessel carrying almost 3300 Kgs of contraband.
About Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
  • The NCB was created in March 1986 in terms of Section 4(3) of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, which envisages a Central Authority for the purpose of effectively preventing and combating abuse of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances and their illicit trade
  • The NCB works to identify, investigate, and prosecute drug trade offenders and implement preventive measures to reduce the demand and supply of drugs. 
  • The Bureau, subject to the supervision and control of the Central Government, is to exercise the powers and functions of the Central Government in taking measures with respect to:
  • Co-ordination of actions by various offices, State Governments and other authorities under the N.D.P.S. Act, Customs Act, Drugs and Cosmetics Act, and any other law for the time being in force in connection with the enforcement provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
  • Implementation of the obligation in respect of counter measures against illicit traffic under the various international conventions and protocols.
  • Assistance to concerned authorities in foreign countries and concerned international organisations to facilitate coordination and universal action for prevention and suppression of illicit traffic in these drugs and substances.
  • Coordination of actions taken by the other concerned Ministries, Departments and Organizations in respect of matters relating to drug abuse.
  • Other Functions:
  • It is the apex coordinating agency. It also functions as an enforcement agency through its zones and sub-zones. 
  • The zones and sub-zones collect and analyse data related to seizures of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance, study trends, modus operandi, collect and disseminate intelligence, and work in close cooperation with the Customs, State Police and other law enforcement agencies.
  • In addition to its enforcement activities, the NCB also works to improve awareness, educate the public on the dangers of drugs and drug abuse, and provide support to those affected by the illegal drug trade. 
  • NCB is responsible for maintaining and updating the National Data Bank on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, and related matters. 
  • NCB maintains and updates the National Register of Treatment Providers and Narcotic Drug Dependents.
  • NCB provides expert advice to the Central Government on narcotics, psychotropic substances, and related matters.
  • The NCB directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
  • The Government of India provides all administrative and financial support to NCB for its smooth functioning and strengthening, as required from time to time.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO):
1. It is an industry association for the real estate sector in India.
2. It works under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Real estate body NAREDCO recently said it plans to organise a builders' conference in Ayodhya to tap its commercial and residential opportunities.
About National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO):
  • It was established in 1998 under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of the Government of India.
  • It is the leading industry association for the real estate sector in the country.
  • Its primary objective is to provide a legitimate platform for the government, the real estate industry, and the general public to address their concerns and find effective solutions to the challenges faced by the real estate sector.
  • NAREDCO's mission is to improve the real estate industry's building, construction, and marketing standards.
  • It contributes to the development of national fiscal policies and acts as a catalyst for economic growth in the Indian real estate sector.
  • With a membership base comprising over 10000+ members across India with its State NAREDCO chapters, NAREDCO plays a crucial role in policy formulation by representing the viewpoints of its members to various ministries on a regular basis.
  • All major national developers and public sector organizations in the fields of housing and real estate development, finance, and marketing are members of NAREDCO.
  • Structure:
  • The organizational structure of NAREDCO includes National, State, and City Councils. 
  • The councils ensure that the policy recommendations accurately reflect the real conditions on the ground and cover the entire geography.
  • The National Council focuses on macro-level issues, the State Councils address state-level concerns, and the City Councils tackle local and on-ground issues.
  • The Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, Govt. of India, serves as the Chief Patron of NAREDCO.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding interim bail:
1. It is a temporary form of bail granted during the pendency of an application for anticipatory or regular bail. 
2. It is conditional and can be extended based on the circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sameer Ghoshal answered
Interim Bail
Interim bail is a temporary form of bail granted during the pendency of an application for anticipatory or regular bail. It serves as a relief to the accused individual while their bail application is being processed by the court.

Key Points:
- Interim bail is granted based on certain conditions set by the court, such as surrendering the passport, regular attendance at the police station, or refraining from contacting witnesses.
- It is intended to provide temporary relief to the accused individual until a final decision is made on their bail application.
- The duration of interim bail can vary based on the circumstances of the case and may be extended by the court if deemed necessary.
- Interim bail is not a permanent solution and does not guarantee that the accused individual will be granted regular bail in the future.
- The court may revoke interim bail if the conditions set are violated or if new evidence emerges that affects the case.
Therefore, both statements are correct regarding interim bail. It is a temporary form of bail granted during the pendency of an application for anticipatory or regular bail, and it is conditional and can be extended based on the circumstances.

Consider the following statements with reference to black carbon:
1. It is the dark, sooty material emitted when biomass is not fully combusted.
2. It is a long-lived climate pollutant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Raksha Ahuja answered
Explanation:
1. Black Carbon as a Dark Sooty Material:
- Black carbon is indeed the dark, sooty material emitted during incomplete combustion of biomass, fossil fuels, and biofuels. It is a major component of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) and is released into the atmosphere through various sources such as vehicle emissions, industrial processes, and biomass burning.
2. Black Carbon as a Long-Lived Climate Pollutant:
- Black carbon is considered a long-lived climate pollutant because it remains in the atmosphere for a relatively long time compared to other pollutants. It has a strong warming effect on the climate, as it absorbs sunlight and heats the atmosphere. Additionally, when black carbon settles on snow and ice surfaces, it reduces their albedo, leading to increased melting.
Therefore, the correct statement is:
a) 1 only - Black carbon is the dark, sooty material emitted when biomass is not fully combusted.

Consider the following statements with reference to the World Gold Council (WGC):
1. It is an intergovernmental organization whose members comprise the world’s largest gold producers.
2. It was established to promote the use of and demand for gold through marketing, research, and lobbying. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) bought 8.7 tonne of gold in January, making it the largest purchase by the central bank since July 2022, according to World Gold Council data.
About World Gold Council (WGC):
  • It is the market development organisation for the gold industry.
  • WGC is a nonprofit association formed in 1987 whose members comprise the world’s leading and most forward-thinking gold mining companies.
  • The WGC was established to promote the use of and demand for gold through marketing, research, and lobbying. 
  • Headquartered in London, with operations in India, China, Singapore, and the USA, the WGC covers the markets which comprise about three-quarters of the world's annual gold consumption.
  • The WGC is also the global authority on gold, and they offer comprehensive analyses of the industry. 
  • It is an advocate for gold consumption. The WGC aims to maximize the industry's potential growth by monitoring and defending existing gold consumption.
  • It achieves this by setting up gold standardsproposing policies, ensuring fairness and sustainability in the gold mining industry, and promoting the usage and demand for gold for individuals, industries, and institutions.
  • It also co-sponsors research in the development of new uses for gold, or of new products containing gold. 
  • WGC was the creator of the first gold exchange-traded fund. 
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:
1. It is a free electricity scheme which will provide 300 units of free electricity per month to its beneficiaries.
2. In this scheme Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats shall be incentivised to promote rooftop solar systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Chavan answered

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is indeed a free electricity scheme that aims to provide 300 units of free electricity per month to its beneficiaries. This initiative is a part of the government's efforts to provide affordable and clean energy to households across the country.

Statement 2:
- The statement is also correct. Under this scheme, Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats will be incentivized to promote rooftop solar systems. This is in line with the government's focus on promoting renewable energy sources and increasing the adoption of solar power in the country.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct, making the correct answer option C.

Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme:
1. It is an athlete-centric programme under the Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
2. It is aimed at school children between 9 and 18 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports inaugurated the unique Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme amidst much enthusiasm at the Sector 7 sports complex, in Chandigarh.
  • It is aimed at school children between nine and 18 years.
  • The nation-wide scheme will have two main objectives:
  • To hunt talent from every nook and corner of the country and
  • To use sports as a tool to curb addiction towards drugs and other gadgetry distractions.
  • KIRTI made a solid launch across 50 centres in India. Fifty thousand applicants are being assessed in the first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, wrestling, hockey, football and wrestling.
  • KIRTI aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments across the country throughout the year to identify talent through notified Talent Assessment Centres.
  • It wants to reach out to every block in the country and connect with those kids who want to play a sport but don’t know how.
  • KIRTI’s athlete-centric programme is conspicuous by its transparent selection methodology based on Information Technology.
  • Data analytics based on Artificial Intelligence is being used to predict the sporting acumen in an aspiring athlete.
  • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Hence both statements are correct.

Krutrim AI model, recently seen in news, is developed by:
  • a)
    Nvidia
  • b)
    Google
  • c)
    Microsoft
  • d)
    Ola
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Desai answered
Development of Krutrim AI Model by Ola
Developed by Ola, the Krutrim AI model is an artificial intelligence system that has recently been making headlines. Let's delve into the details of how Ola created this innovative AI model.

Collaboration with Microsoft
Ola collaborated with Microsoft to develop the Krutrim AI model. The partnership between Ola and Microsoft brought together the expertise of both companies in AI technologies.

Focus on Autonomous Vehicles
The Krutrim AI model is designed to enhance Ola's autonomous vehicle capabilities. By leveraging advanced AI technologies, Ola aims to improve the safety, efficiency, and overall performance of its autonomous vehicles.

Impact on the Industry
The development of the Krutrim AI model by Ola has significant implications for the automotive industry. It showcases the growing importance of AI in the development of autonomous vehicles and highlights Ola's commitment to innovation in this space.

Future Prospects
With the Krutrim AI model, Ola is poised to revolutionize the way autonomous vehicles operate. By harnessing the power of AI, Ola aims to set new standards for safety, reliability, and user experience in the autonomous vehicle industry.

Consider the following statements regarding the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024:
1. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Heavy Industries.
2. It is a fund-limited scheme to accelerate the adoption of Electric Vehicles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Recently, the Union Ministry of Heavy Industries announces Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024.
  • It aims to further accelerate the adoption of Electric Vehicles in the country.
  • This is a fund-limited scheme with a total outlay of Rs. 500 crore for the period of 4 months, w.e.f. 1st April 2024 till 31st July 2024.
  • It is for faster adoption of electric two-wheeler (e-2W) and three-wheeler (e-3W) to provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing eco-system in the country. 
  • Eligible EV categories:
  • Two Wheelers (electric) (e-2W)
  • Three-wheeler (electric) including registered e-rickshaws & e-carts and L5 (e-3W)
  • With greater emphasis on providing affordable and environment friendly public transportation options for the masses, scheme will be applicable mainly to those e-2W and e-3Ws registered for commercial purposes.
  • Further, in addition to commercial use, privately or corporate owned registered e-2W will also be eligible under the scheme.
  • To encourage advance technologies, the benefits of incentives, will be extended to only those vehicles which are fitted with advanced battery.
  • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Heavy Industries
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to genetic rescue:
1. It is the process of increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population.
2. It aims to alleviate genetic load and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Genetic rescue is proposed as a method to conserve Ranthambore National Park’s tiger population.
About Genetic Rescue:
  • Genetic rescue is the process of increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population (i.e., gene flow).
  • In practice, wildlife managers take individuals from a larger, healthier population and bring them to a smaller population to introduce new variation and eventually help grow the population. 
  • This conservation strategy aims to alleviate genetic load, decrease extinction risk, and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations. 
  • It is often employed in conservation biology to mitigate the negative effects of inbreeding depression, which can occur when individuals within a population mate with close relatives, leading to decreased reproductive success and viability of offspring.
  • Genetic rescue can have both beneficial and deleterious effects, depending on factors such as the magnitude and duration of gene flow, as well as the genetic and non-genetic factors influencing population dynamics.
  • There can be risks involved with moving animals around, so it’s often thought of as a last resort.
Hence both statements are correct.

Gorsam Kora festival, recently in news, is celebrated in:
  • a)
    Ladakh
  • b)
    Arunachal Pradesh
  • c)
    Manipur
  • d)
    Andhra Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The Gorsam Kora festival, symbolised the enduring friendship between India and Bhutan commenced on 7th March and concluded on 10th March this year.
  • It is held in Arunachal Pradesh’s Zeminthang Valley along the Nyanmjang Chu River.
  • History
  • This annual festival is held at Gorsam Chorten, a 93 feet tall Stupa, built during 13th century AD by a local monk- Lama Pradhar.
  • This is also the place where the 14th Dalai Lama had his first rest after fleeing from Tibet in 1959.
  • It features cultural performances and Buddhist rituals at the Gorsam Chorten, which is older than the Tawang Monastery.
  • Many devotees including large number of Bhutanese nationals visit during Gorsam Kora festival to celebrate the virtuous occasion during the last day of the first month of the Lunar calendar.
  • It attracted pilgrims and Lamas from Bhutan, Tawang, and neighbouring regions, epitomising the spirit of camaraderie and cultural exchange.
  • The festival featured a diverse array of events, including enthralling performances by local cultural troupes and by the Indian army bands, martial performances like Mallakhamb and Zanjh Pathaka.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bugun Liocichla:
1. It is a bird found only in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
2. It is categorized as a ‘critically endangered’ species under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallavi Rane answered
Explanation:

1. Bugun Liocichla:
- The Bugun Liocichla is a bird species that is endemic to the Eastern Himalayas in India.
- It is primarily found in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.

2. Conservation Status:
- The Bugun Liocichla is categorized as a 'critically endangered' species under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- This classification indicates that the species faces an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
Therefore, both statements are correct. The Bugun Liocichla is indeed found primarily in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary and is classified as 'critically endangered' by the IUCN Red List.

Consider the following statements regarding Coal Gasification:
1. It is the process of producing syngas.
2. It a cleaner option compared to the burning of coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Pillai answered
Understanding Coal Gasification
Coal gasification is an important process in the energy sector, transforming solid coal into syngas (synthetic gas) and offering a cleaner alternative to traditional coal burning methods. Let’s delve into the correctness of the provided statements.
Statement 1: It is the process of producing syngas.
- Correctness: This statement is true.
- Explanation: Coal gasification involves reacting coal with oxygen and steam at high temperatures. The result is syngas, primarily composed of hydrogen and carbon monoxide, which can be used for various applications, including electricity generation and chemical production.
Statement 2: It is a cleaner option compared to the burning of coal.
- Correctness: This statement is also true.
- Explanation: Coal gasification is considered a cleaner alternative because it produces fewer emissions compared to direct coal combustion. The syngas produced can be more efficiently converted into electricity with lower CO2 and pollutant emissions, making it a more environmentally friendly option.
Conclusion
Since both statements are correct, the correct answer is option 'C': Both 1 and 2. Coal gasification not only produces syngas but also provides a more sustainable and environmentally conscious method of utilizing coal resources.

Consider the following statements regarding the X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) mission:
1. It is launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
2. It aims to study black hole binaries and low-magnetic field neutron stars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

1. Statement 1:

- The statement is correct. The X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) mission is indeed launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). ISRO is India's national space agency and is responsible for the country's space program.
2. Statement 2:

- The statement is also correct. The main objective of the XPoSat mission is to study black hole binaries and low-magnetic field neutron stars using its X-ray polarimetry capabilities. This mission aims to enhance our understanding of these cosmic phenomena.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct in the context of the XPoSat mission. It is a significant step in India's space exploration efforts and will contribute to the study of astrophysics and high-energy phenomena in the universe.

The Nainativu Island, recently seen in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Gulf of Martaban
  • b)
    Gulf of Mannar
  • c)
    Gulf of Aqaba
  • d)
    Palk Strait
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Location of Nainativu Island:
Nainativu Island is located in the Palk Strait, which is a strait between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Mannar district of Sri Lanka. It is situated in the northern part of the Palk Strait.

Significance of Nainativu Island:
- Nainativu Island is known for its religious significance as it is home to the Nagapooshani Amman Temple, a popular Hindu temple dedicated to the goddess Bhuvaneswari.
- The island attracts a large number of devotees and tourists who visit the temple to seek blessings and enjoy the serene surroundings.

Recent News:
- Nainativu Island recently made headlines due to the visit of dignitaries or any significant event that took place on the island.
- The island may have been in the news for its cultural, religious, or environmental significance.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, Nainativu Island is located in the Palk Strait and is known for its religious importance. It is a popular destination for tourists and devotees visiting the Nagapooshani Amman Temple. The recent news coverage of the island highlights its significance in various aspects.

Consider the following statements regarding Alaskapox, recently seen in the news:
1. It is a DNA virus that can infect various mammals including humans.
2. It can easily transmit from human to human through direct contact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Parth Ghosh answered


Alaskapox

1. Statement 1:
The statement is correct. Alaskapox is indeed a DNA virus that can infect various mammals, including humans. This virus belongs to the Poxviridae family and is closely related to the virus that causes smallpox.

2. Statement 2:
The statement is incorrect. Alaskapox is not known to easily transmit from human to human through direct contact. In fact, the primary mode of transmission is believed to be through contact with infected animals, particularly rodents.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. Alaskapox is a virus that poses a potential threat to human health, especially in regions where interactions with infected animals are common.

Consider the following statements regarding Sindhudurg Fort:
1. It occupies an islet in the Arabian Sea, off the coast of Maharashtra.
2. It was built by Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in the 17th Century CE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaideep Sen answered
Explanation:

Sindhudurg Fort:
- The correct statement is 1 only.
- Sindhudurg Fort is located on an islet in the Arabian Sea, off the coast of Maharashtra.
- It was built by the Maratha king Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in the 17th century CE, not by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb.
- The fort was strategically built to protect the Maratha kingdom from foreign invasions and to safeguard the coastline.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Cavum clouds:
1. These are known as hole-punched clouds.
2. These are formed when aeroplanes pass through layers of cumulonimbus clouds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Banerjee answered
Explanation:
First, let's understand the two statements provided in the question:

1. Cavum clouds are known as hole-punched clouds:
Cavum clouds, also known as fallstreak holes or hole-punched clouds, are a phenomenon where a hole or gap appears in a layer of supercooled water droplet clouds. These holes are formed when the water droplets in the cloud freeze into ice crystals and fall below, leaving a gap or hole in the cloud layer.

2. Cavum clouds are formed when airplanes pass through layers of cumulonimbus clouds:
This statement is incorrect. Cavum clouds are not formed by airplanes passing through cumulonimbus clouds. As mentioned earlier, they are a natural atmospheric phenomenon caused by the process of supercooled water droplets freezing and falling.

Correct Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only, as the first statement accurately describes cavum clouds as hole-punched clouds. The second statement, however, is incorrect as it does not accurately explain how cavum clouds are formed.

Consider the following statements with reference to the semiconductor fabrication:
1. It is a process in which raw silicon wafers are turned into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
2. It uses photolithography technology which enables the creation of intricate circuitry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prateek Kumar answered

Explanation:

1. Raw Silicon Wafers to Integrated Circuits:
- Semiconductor fabrication is indeed a process where raw silicon wafers are transformed into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
- The process involves various steps such as deposition, etching, doping, and lithography to create the intricate circuitry on the silicon wafers.

2. Photolithography Technology:
- Photolithography is a key technology used in semiconductor fabrication.
- It involves transferring a pattern from a photomask to a light-sensitive chemical photoresist on the substrate, enabling the creation of intricate circuitry on the silicon wafers.
- This technology allows for the precise patterning required for the fabrication of ICs.

Therefore, both statements are correct. Semiconductor fabrication is a complex process that involves turning raw silicon wafers into Integrated Circuits using technologies like photolithography to create intricate circuitry.

Consider the following statements regarding the Eurozone:
1. It consists of all the European Union (EU) countries that have fully incorporated the euro as their national currency.
2. The member countries have the sole authority to set the monetary policy for their respective jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanvi Gupta answered


Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. The Eurozone consists of all the European Union (EU) countries that have fully incorporated the euro as their national currency. This means that these countries use the euro as their official currency for all transactions within their borders.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is incorrect. While the member countries of the Eurozone use the euro as their currency, they do not have the sole authority to set monetary policy for their respective jurisdiction. The monetary policy for the Eurozone as a whole is set by the European Central Bank (ECB), which is responsible for maintaining price stability and controlling inflation within the Eurozone.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Cooperative Database (NCD), recently seen in the news:
1. It is a digital dashboard wherein data of cooperative societies, including both National and State Federations have been captured.
2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Cooperation Minister will launch the National Cooperative Database (NCD) to foster a cooperative-centric economic model.
About National Cooperative Database (NCD):
  • It is an initiative of the Ministry of Cooperation. 
  • Under this initiative, the Ministry of Cooperation has recognized the imperative need for a robust database to capture vital information about India's vast cooperative sector
  • NCD has been developed in collaboration with State Governments, National Federations and stakeholders, and aims to foster a cooperative-centric economic model.
  • It is a web-based digital dashboard wherein data of cooperative societies, including National/State Federations have been captured.
  • The data of cooperative societies has been entered and validated by States/ UTs nodal officials at RCS/ DRCS offices, and the data of federations has been provided by various national/state federations.
  • NCD has collected/mapped information about 8 lakh cooperatives with collective membership of more than 29 crores spread across various sectors in the country. 
  • The information collected from cooperative societies are on various parameters, such as their registered name, date, location, number of memberssectoral informationarea of operation, economic activitiesfinancial statementsstatus of audit etc. 
  • NCD serves as a crucial tool for efficient communication between the Central Ministry, States/UTs, and Cooperative Societies, benefiting all stakeholders in the cooperative sector. 
  • The database provides comprehensive contact details for registered societies, facilitating smooth communication between government entities and these societies.
  • NCD offers a myriad of benefits, including:
  • Single-point access
  • comprehensive and updated data
  • user-friendly interface
  • vertical and horizontal linkages
  • query-based reports and graphs
  • Management Information System (MIS) reports
  • data analytics
  • Geographical Mapping
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Graphics Processing Unit:
1. It is a computer chip which provides graphics and images by performing rapid mathematical calculations.
2. It does not have its own Random Access Memory (RAM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranab Patel answered

Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

Statement 1: It is a computer chip which provides graphics and images by performing rapid mathematical calculations.
- This statement is correct. A GPU is a specialized electronic circuit designed to rapidly manipulate and alter memory to accelerate the creation of images in a frame buffer intended for output to a display device.

Statement 2: It does not have its own Random Access Memory (RAM).
- This statement is incorrect. GPUs have their own dedicated memory called Video RAM (VRAM) which is used to store graphics data and textures. This allows the GPU to access data quickly and efficiently, enhancing its performance in rendering graphics and images.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', which is "1 only".

Consider the following statements regarding Sloth bear:
1. They live in a variety of dry and moist forest habitats.
2. They are endemic to India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Karnataka has witnessed instances of human-sloth bear confrontations, raising concerns for both communities and wildlife enthusiasts.
  • Scientific Name: Melursus ursinus
  • Sloth bears are one of the eight bear species found across the world.
  • They are myrmecophagous, meaning, they find bugs and termites to be their most sought after meal.
  • Habitat: They live in a variety of dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands, where boulders, scattered shrubs and trees provide shelter.
  • Distribution: They mainly inhabit the region of India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and presumably Bhutan.
  • Appearance: They have long, shaggy dark brown or black fur and curved claws, which are the longest out of any of the bear species.
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN: Vulnerable
  • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
  • Key to mitigate human-sloth bear confrontations: Enhancing habitat connectivity, minimising human-wildlife interaction zones, and implementing responsible waste management practices.
  • Sloth Bear Sanctuaries in India: Daroji Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Karnataka)
    , Jessore Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Gujarat).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Open Network Digital Commerce:
1. It is an open-source network set up to democratise electronic commerce.
2. It was established by the union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

In a first, the Centre has on boarded 11 fair price shops on the state-run e-commerce portal Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC).
  • It is an open-source network set up to enable buyers and sellers to transact with each other irrespective of the e-commerce platform on which either of them are registered.
  • It will enable local commerce across segments, such as mobility, grocery, food order and delivery, hotel booking and travel, among others, to be discovered and engaged by any network-enabled application.
  • It is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • Purpose
  • To promote open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. 
  • To create new opportunities, curb digital monopolies and by supporting micro, small and medium enterprises and small traders and help them get on online platforms.
  • It seeks to democratise digital or electronic commerce, moving it from a platform-centric model to an open-network.
  • Benefits:
  • It offers small retailers an opportunity to provide their services, and goods to buyers across the country through an e-commerce system.
  • It enables merchants to save their data to build credit history and reach consumers.
  • It is expected to digitise the entire value chain, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiencies in logistics and enhance value for consumers.
  • ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management, order management and order fulfilment.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

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