All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements with reference to the Critical Tiger Habitats:
1. These are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972.
2. These are notified by the central government in consultation with the expert committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Hridoy Pillai answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- Critical Tiger Habitats are indeed identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972.
- These habitats are crucial for the conservation and protection of tigers in India.
- The WLPA aims to provide for the protection of wildlife and their habitats in the country.
- Therefore, the statement that Critical Tiger Habitats are identified under the WLPA is correct.

Statement 2:
- Critical Tiger Habitats are notified by the central government in consultation with the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and an expert committee.
- The NTCA is responsible for the implementation of the Project Tiger, which aims to protect and conserve tigers and their habitats in India.
- The expert committee consists of wildlife experts, conservationists, and other stakeholders who provide valuable inputs for identifying these habitats.
- Therefore, the statement that Critical Tiger Habitats are notified by the central government in consultation with the expert committee is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Jacaranda Tree:
1. It is a deciduous hard tree that grows well in tropical climatic region.
2. Its bark and roots are used for medicinal purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The early onset bloom of jacaranda set off alarm bells among residents and scientists in Mexico City.
  • It’s also known by its synonym Jacaranda acutifolia.
  • It is a deciduous tree, Jacaranda mimosifolia comes from the Bignoniaceae family.
  • Blue jacaranda is native of Brazil and North West Argentina.
  • These are hardy trees that grow well in tropical climes, well-drained soil and plenty of sun to showcase their lavender touch.
  • They are widely grown in warm parts of the world and in greenhouses for their showy blue or violet flowers and attractive, oppositely paired, compound leaves. 
  • Uses: In Brazil, its wood is used to make guitars. It has no edible use, its bark and root has medicinal advantages.
  • It is also recommended as an alternative wood carving tree species, especially in Kenya.
  • Ecological significance: They attract more hummingbirds and bees than many native trees, so a change in flowering could lead to a decrease in these populations.
  • Concern: Some jacarandas began blooming in early January, when they normally awaken in spring.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to carbon farming:
1. It is a whole farm approach to optimise carbon capture on working landscapes.
2. It can help ameliorate soil degradation and challenges related to climate variability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arshiya Khanna answered
Carbon Farming
Carbon farming is a practice that involves optimizing carbon capture on working landscapes. It focuses on enhancing the ability of agricultural lands to sequester carbon from the atmosphere, thereby helping to mitigate climate change.

Statement Analysis

Statement 1: It is a whole farm approach to optimize carbon capture on working landscapes.
- This statement is correct. Carbon farming involves implementing practices across the entire farm to maximize carbon sequestration, such as planting cover crops, reducing tillage, and implementing agroforestry systems.

Statement 2: It can help ameliorate soil degradation and challenges related to climate variability.
- This statement is also correct. Carbon farming practices not only sequester carbon but also improve soil health, enhance water retention, and increase resilience to climate change impacts. By sequestering carbon in the soil, carbon farming can help combat soil degradation and mitigate the effects of climate variability.

Conclusion
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Carbon farming plays a crucial role in sustainable agriculture by not only sequestering carbon but also addressing soil degradation and climate variability challenges. By adopting carbon farming practices, farmers can contribute to climate change mitigation while improving the health and productivity of their land.

Consider the following statements with reference to LockBit Ransomware:
1. It is malicious software designed to block user access to computer systems.
2. It only targets individuals and requests financial payment in exchange for decryption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the U.S. Department of Justice has indicted Russian national Dimitry Yuryevich Khoroshev and announced a $10 million reward for his alleged involvement with LockBit ransomware.
  • It is malicious software designed to block user access to computer systems in exchange for a ransom payment.
  • It was formerly known as “ABCD” ransomware, but it has since grown into a unique threat within the scope of extortion tools.
  • It is a subclass of ransomware known as a ‘crypto virus’ due to forming its ransom requests around financial payment in exchange for decryption.
  • It focuses mostly on enterprises and government organizations rather than individuals.
  • It functions as ransomware-as-a-service (RaaS). It is now working to create encryptors targeting Macs for the first time.
  • Working
  • It works as a self-spreading malware, not requiring additional instructions once it has successfully infiltrated a single device with access to an organisational intranet.
  • It is also known to hide executable encryption files by disguising them in the . PNG format, thereby avoiding detection by system defences.
  • Attackers use phishing tactics and other social engineering methods to impersonate trusted personnel or authorities to lure victims into sharing credentials.
  • Once it has gained access, the ransomware prepares the system to release its encryption payload across as many devices as possible.
  • It then disables security programs and other infrastructures that could permit system data recovery.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Which among the following is the causative agent of West Nile Fever, recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    Bacteria
  • b)
    Virus
  • c)
    Fungus
  • d)
    Protozoa
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Kerala's health department recently reported West Nile fever cases in three districts.
About West Nile Fever:
  • It is a disease caused by the West Nile Virus (WNV).
  • WNV is a member of the flavivirus genus and belongs to the Japanese encephalitis antigenic complex of the family Flaviviridae.
  • Birds are the natural hosts of WNV.
  • The virus is commonly found in Africa, Europe, the Middle East, North America, and West Asia.
  • It can cause a deadly neurological disease in humans.
  • It is named after the West Nile district of Uganda, where it was first identified in 1937.
  • Transmission:
  • It is most commonly spread to people by the bite of an infected mosquito. The mosquitoes get the virus when they bite an infected bird.
  • There is no evidence that WNV can be spread directly from one person to another.
  • But there have been a few cases where it has spread through organ transplants.
  • Symptoms:
  • Most people infected by the virus are asymptomatic (no symptoms).
  • Symptoms include fever, headachetiredness, body aches, nausea, vomiting, occasional skin rash, and swollen lymph glands.
  • The symptoms of severe disease (also called neuroinvasive disease, such as West Nile encephalitis or meningitis or West Nile poliomyelitis) include headache, high fever, neck stiffness, stupor (near-unconsciousness), disorientationcomatremors, convulsions, muscle weakness, and paralysis.
  • Treatment:
  • There is no medicine or vaccine available against the WNV.
  • Treatment is based on supportive care involving hospitalisation, intravenous fluids, respiratory support, and prevention of secondary infections.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Report Fish Disease app:
1. It is developed by the National Informatics Centre, Pune.
2. It has a Geo-tagging technology to empower fish farmers with a platform to report diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced a mobile app ‘Report Fish Disease’ to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.
  • The mobile application intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.
  • Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (CIFT) is one of the collaborative partners of the NSPAAD project of which ICAR-NBFGR is the lead institute, under which this app is developed.
  • Features
  • Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
  • The app offers easy disease reporting format, where farmers can easily report disease outbreaks by providing essential information such as location, species affected, symptoms observed, and images.
  • Significance
  • Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
  • The app also serves as an information hub, providing farmers with valuable resources on disease prevention, treatment, and best aquaculture practices.
  • It is to provide a comprehensive package to ensure diagnosis, prevention, control, and treatment of aquatic animal diseases, thereby providing solutions for encouraging the aquaculture farmers.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Artificial General Intelligence (AGI):
1. It is a machine or software that can perform any intellectual task that a human can do.
2. It can be used in healthcare and financial sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) refers to a machine or software that can perform any intellectual task that a human can do. This includes tasks such as reasoning, problem-solving, learning, and understanding natural language.
- AGI aims to replicate human-like intelligence in machines, enabling them to adapt to various scenarios and learn from experience.

Statement 2:
- AGI can indeed be used in various sectors, including healthcare and financial sectors.
- In healthcare, AGI can be used for tasks such as medical diagnosis, personalized treatment plans, drug discovery, and patient monitoring.
- In the financial sector, AGI can be utilized for tasks like fraud detection, risk assessment, algorithmic trading, and customer service.
Therefore, both statements are correct as AGI has the potential to revolutionize various industries by performing tasks that were previously limited to human intelligence.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Criminal Case Management System:
1. It enables easy and streamlined compilation of terror-related data across India.
2. It has been developed and designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

In a major fillip to India’s fight against terrorism and organised crime, Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation virtually inaugurated a unique digital Criminal Case Management System (CCMS) and  also launches a mobile app ‘Sankalan in New Delhi.
  • It will enable the National Investigation Agency (NIA) personnel to better coordinate in terrorism and organized crime cases, thereby improving justice delivery.
  • The new stand-alone version of CCMS has been developed and designed by the National Investigation Agency (NIA).
  • It is a user-friendly and easy-to-deploy, customizable, browser-based software to help the State Police forces in their investigations and prosecution.
  • The state-of-the-art CCMS software would not only bring standardisation into investigations but also enable easy and streamlined compilation of terror-related data across the country. 
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Iberian lynx:
1. It is generally nocturnal and its activity patterns are closely synchronized with its major prey.
2. It is distributed throughout the European continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rithika Basak answered
Correct answer: a) 1 only

Explanation:
1. It is generally nocturnal and its activity patterns are closely synchronized with its major prey:
- The Iberian lynx is indeed generally nocturnal, meaning it is most active during the night.
- Its activity patterns are closely synchronized with its major prey, which in this case is the European rabbit. This synchronization ensures that the lynx has a better chance of hunting successfully.
2. It is distributed throughout the European continent:
- This statement is incorrect. The Iberian lynx is not distributed throughout the European continent. It is actually a species native to the Iberian Peninsula in southwestern Europe. It is primarily found in Spain and Portugal.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. The Iberian lynx is nocturnal and its activity patterns are closely linked to its major prey, the European rabbit.

Which of the following best describes the term Vishing, recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    It is new method to analyse the protein content in humans
  • b)
    It is a type of phishing carried out through a call on a mobile phone or landline
  • c)
    It is new crypto currency mining technique
  • d)
    It is a traditional rice cultivation method practiced in South America
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the government released a circular warning its employees of a sophisticated cybercrime— vishing.
  • It is short form of voice+phishing, is carried out through a call on a mobile phone or landline.
  • It’s a technique wherein a threat actor calls the victim over the phone and tries to trick him/her into clicking on malicious files or emails, which can then take one to a legitimate-looking website asking to share personal information.
  • In other cases, the attacker can solicit sensitive information from the victim.
  • It can be so tricky that the caller might appear as the manager or colleague of the victim, enticing her to share sensitive information, at times using urgency as the tactic.
How to spot a vishing scam?
  • A pre-recorded message: On many occasions, a vishing call starts with an automated call claiming there’s an urgency related to financial or other matters, making you click a few numbers or take certain actions.
  • Pretending to be a government official: There’s a very slim chance that a government official would directly call you or even email or text. And if you get a call from somebody claiming to be a government official,chances are high that it’s not legitimate.
  • Using fear and urgency tactics: In case of a vishing attack, chances are that the scammer would stoke a sense of urgency using threat or fear.
  • Poor audio quality: If in doubt, also pay attention to the call’s audio quality and any background noises. At times, there could be robotic-sounding voices, which could mean that it’s a robocall.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome:
1. It is characterized by blood clots combined with low levels of platelets in human body.
2. It is more common among younger age groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, AstraZeneca (AZ) has admitted its Covid vaccine may cause Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS). 
  • It is characterized by blood clots (thrombosis) combined with low levels of platelets (thrombocytopenia), which are necessary for blood clotting.
  • It often involves unusual blood clot locations, such as in the brain (cerebral venous sinus thrombosis) or abdomen.
  • Symptoms of TTS: Severe or persistent headaches, blurred vision, Shortness of breath, Chest pain, Leg swelling, Persistent abdominal pain and Easy bruising or tiny blood spots under the skin beyond the injection site etc.
  • It is classified into two tiers based on the location of the blood clot and the severity of the symptoms.
  • Tier 1:
  • Uncommon site of thrombosis (like the brain-cerebral venous sinus thrombosis or the gut such as splanchnic vein, associated with bowel ischaemia and surgery, portal vein or other rare venous and arterial thromboses)
  • Thrombosis in more common locations (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism)
  • Platelet count is less than 1,50,000 per microlitre
  • A positive anti-PF4 ELISA result is supportive, but not required for diagnosis.
  • Tier 2:
  • Common sites of thrombosis include leg or lungs (venous thromboembolism, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism)
  • Platelet count is less than 1,50,000 per microlitre
  • A positive anti-PF4 ELISA result is required.
  • Tier 1 TTS carries a higher risk of mortality and morbidity than Tier 2. Tier 1 could be more common among younger age groups.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
1. It is an instrument issued by the government as a directive to its immigration authorities to restrict and regulate the physical movement of a person. 
2. It is issued by law enforcement agencies in India under the Passports Act, 1967.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Bombay High Court recently held that public sector banks (PSBs) cannot recommend or request the issuance of Look Out Circulars (LOCs) against loan defaulters.
About Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
  • A LOC is an instrument issued by the government as a directive to its immigration authorities to restrict and regulate the physical movement of a person. 
  • The immigration department is tasked to stop any such individual against whom such a notice exists from leaving or entering the country.
  • Law enforcement agencies often use LOCs as a coercive measure to stop any individual wanted or under suspicion by the police or an investigating agency from leaving or entering the country through designated land, air, and sea ports.
  • LOCs are usually issued by the police, intelligence agencies, or other government agencies authorised by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). 
  • LOC does not have express statutory backing in legislation, the power to issue LOCs and their regulation stems from the executive in the form of an Office Memorandum issued by the MHA in 2021, which provides consolidated guidelines for opening LOCs against Indian citizens or foreigners.
  • Guidelines:
  • The guidelines categorically provide that LOCs can only be opened in criminal or penal cases, and the reason for the LOC must be indicated with the issue of the circular. 
  • If there is no criminal or penal case pending, the LOC cannot be issued, and agencies can only request that they be informed of departure or arrival.
  • However, the guidelines provide that in exceptional cases, an LOC may be issued against an individual even when the case is not a criminal case. This is in specified circumstances, such as when it is detrimental to the “sovereignty, or security, or integrity of India”, the “bilateral relations with any State”, or to the “strategic and economic interests of India”.
  • LOCs are also permitted in cases where the individual is likely to engage in terrorism or offences against the State or when such departure would not be “in the larger public interest”.
  • LOCs cannot be issued unless basic details — including name/parentage, passport number, and date of birth — are available, and such requests must be constantly monitored.
  • It is the responsibility of the originator to constantly review the LOC requests and proactively provide additional parameters to minimise harassment to genuine passengers.
  • It is also required that any LOC issued must be reviewed on a quarterly and annual basis by agencies that request such restrictions, and the result of the review must be informed to the MHA.
  • MHA has categorically transferred the legal consequences of issuing an LOC to the originating agency, even though such OMs are issued by the Bureau of Immigration.
  • The power to issue such OMs and LOCs is sourced from The Passports Act, 1967, the key legislation for the grant of passports, travel documents, and “endorsements” to travellers at the time of emigration or immigration.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Innovations for Defence Excellence (Idex):
1. It aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the aerospace sector in collaboration with startups.
2. It is funded and managed by the Defence Innovation Organization. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Reddy answered
Overview of Idex:
Innovations for Defence Excellence (Idex) is an initiative launched by the Indian government to foster innovation in the aerospace and defense sectors. It aims to create an innovation ecosystem that encourages collaboration with startups and other stakeholders to drive technological advancements in these critical areas.

Statement Analysis:
1. Correct: The statement that Idex aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the aerospace sector in collaboration with startups is correct. This initiative is specifically designed to support and promote innovation by engaging with startups and other innovative entities to bring new ideas and technologies to the defense sector.
2. Correct: The statement that Idex is funded and managed by the Defence Innovation Organization is also correct. The Defence Innovation Organization plays a key role in managing the Idex initiative and ensuring that it fulfills its objectives of promoting innovation and technology development in the defense sector.

Conclusion:
Therefore, both statements are correct. Idex is focused on cultivating an innovation ecosystem in collaboration with startups and is funded and managed by the Defence Innovation Organization to drive innovation and technological advancements in the aerospace and defense sectors.

Consider the following statements with reference to Panama:
1. It is a country in Central America situated between the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico.
2. Panama Canal is a constructed waterway that connects the Atlantic and Pacific oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Sen answered
Explanation:

1. Panama:
Panama is a country located in Central America, but it is actually situated between the Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean, not the Gulf of Mexico. It is bordered by Costa Rica to the west, Colombia to the southeast, the Caribbean Sea to the north, and the Pacific Ocean to the south.

2. Panama Canal:
The Panama Canal is a constructed waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean. It is a key conduit for international maritime trade and is considered one of the most important engineering feats in the world. The canal cuts across the Isthmus of Panama and provides a shortcut for ships traveling between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, avoiding the long and treacherous journey around the southern tip of South America.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect. The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements with reference to the National Endangered Species Day:
1. It is observed every year on the third Friday of the May month.
2. The theme for the year 2024 was Celebrate Saving Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Desai answered
1. Statement 1:
National Endangered Species Day is observed every year on the third Friday of the May month. This statement is correct as the day is designated to raise awareness about the importance of protecting endangered species and their habitats.
2. Statement 2:
The theme for the year 2024 was Celebrate Saving Species. This statement is also correct as each year, National Endangered Species Day has a specific theme to focus on different aspects of endangered species conservation.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. This day serves as a reminder of the importance of preserving biodiversity and taking action to protect endangered species for future generations.

Consider the following statements with reference to the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement:
1. It was signed at the 7th ASEAN Economic Ministers-India Consultations in Bangkok in 2009.
2. It only applies to trade in physical goods and does not apply to trade in services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Saini answered
ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement:

1. Statement 1:
The first statement is correct. The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement was indeed signed at the 7th ASEAN Economic Ministers-India Consultations in Bangkok in 2009. This agreement aimed to enhance economic cooperation and trade relations between ASEAN member countries and India.

2. Statement 2:
The second statement is incorrect. The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement covers not only trade in physical goods but also trade in services. The agreement includes provisions for the reduction and elimination of tariffs, the liberalization of trade in services, and the facilitation of investment between ASEAN and India.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
c) Both 1 and 2
The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement is a significant step towards strengthening economic ties between ASEAN and India, promoting greater trade and investment flows, and fostering closer cooperation in various sectors.

Consider the following statements with reference to the eMigrate Project:
1. It aims to assist students who are going abroad for study purposes.
2. The eMigrate portal is integrated to Common Service Centre to facilitate registration of applicants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Recently, a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) is entered into between Ministry External Affairs (MEA), Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and Common Service Centre eGovernance Services India Limited to create a synergy between CSC SPV & MEA to provide the eMigrate services through CSCs in the country.
  • It is undertaken to assist mainly the blue-collar workers going to Emigration Check Required (ECR) countries.
  • The project was conceptualized to address issues faced by the migrant workers by making emigration process online seamless and also to bring foreign employers and registered recruitment agents and insurance companies on one common platform aimed at promoting safe and legal migration.
  • Under this MoU, eMigrate Portal of MEA would be integrated with CSC’s portal, to provide following eMigrate services to the citizens through CSCs
  • Facilitate registration of applicants on eMigrate portal through CSCs.
  • Facilitation of uploading and processing the required documents for the applicants on eMigrate portal through CSCs.
  • Facilitate and supporting booking for medical and other services required by migrant workers or applicants registered on eMigrate portal through CSC.
  • Creating awareness about eMigrate services amongst citizens across India.
Key facts about Common Service Centre
  • These are an integral part of the Digital India mission.
  • The CSCs are frontend services delivery points for the delivery of digital services to the citizens, especially in the rural and remote areas across the country.
  • This helps in contributing towards the fulfilment of the vision of Digital India and the Government’s mandate for a digitally and financially inclusive society.
  • Apart from delivering essential government and public utility services, CSCs also deliver a range of social welfare schemes, financial services, educational courses, skill development courses, healthcare, agriculture services, digital literacy, etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) System:
1. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
2. It consists of two-stage solid propulsion and precision inertial navigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Development:
- The Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) System has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India.

Components:
- The SMART System consists of a two-stage solid propulsion system.
- It also includes precision inertial navigation capabilities to ensure accuracy in targeting.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The SMART System is a technologically advanced weapon system developed by DRDO which incorporates solid propulsion and precision navigation to enhance its effectiveness in military operations.

Consider the following statements regarding the Igla-S defence system:
1. It is a hand-held defence system that can be operated by an individual or crew.
2. It has a capacity of attacking targets up to an altitude of 3.5 kilometres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshika Singh answered
Explanation:

1. Hand-held Defence System:
- The first statement is correct. The Igla-S defence system is a hand-held system that can be operated by an individual or a crew. It is designed to provide portable air defense against aircraft, helicopters, and cruise missiles.

2. Altitude Capacity:
- The second statement is also correct. The Igla-S system has a maximum altitude capacity of 3.5 kilometers, making it effective against aerial threats flying at medium to high altitudes.
Therefore, both statements are accurate, and the correct answer is option C) Both 1 and 2. The Igla-S defence system is a versatile and efficient tool for providing air defense in various operational scenarios.

Hopen Island, recently in news, is situated in:
  • a)
    South China Sea
  • b)
    Indian Ocean
  • c)
    Southern Ocean
  • d)
    Southeast of Svalbard
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Singh answered
Location of Hopen Island
Hopen Island is situated in the southern part of the Svalbard archipelago in the Arctic Ocean. It is located southeast of the main island of Svalbard.

Significance of Hopen Island
- Hopen Island is known for its diverse wildlife, including polar bears, walruses, and various bird species.
- The island is also an important breeding ground for seabirds, making it a popular destination for birdwatching enthusiasts.
- Hopen Island is part of the Svalbard Treaty, which grants Norway sovereignty over the archipelago while allowing other signatory countries to conduct research and economic activities in the region.

Recent News about Hopen Island
- Hopen Island has been in the news recently due to the increasing interest in the Arctic region for its strategic importance and potential for natural resources.
- As climate change continues to impact the Arctic, there is growing concern about the environmental conservation of Hopen Island and the surrounding areas.
In conclusion, Hopen Island is a small but significant island in the Arctic region, known for its wildlife and environmental importance. Its location southeast of Svalbard makes it a unique and valuable part of the archipelago.

Consider the following statements with reference to Project ISHAN:
1. It aims to streamline and enhance air traffic management.
2. It unifies four Flight Information Regions to single continuous airspace in Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of Project ISHAN
Project ISHAN, which stands for "Indian Smart Hub for Air Navigation," is an initiative aimed at improving the efficiency of air traffic management in India.
Key Statements Analysis
1. Streamlining and Enhancing Air Traffic Management
- Correct: The primary objective of Project ISHAN is to streamline and enhance the overall air traffic management system.
- Purpose: It focuses on integrating advanced technologies to improve operational efficiency, safety, and air navigation services.
2. Unifying Four Flight Information Regions
- Incorrect: Project ISHAN does not unify four Flight Information Regions into a single continuous airspace.
- Clarification: Instead, it aims to optimize current airspace usage and improve coordination among existing Flight Information Regions without necessarily merging them.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct as it aligns with the project’s goals of improving air traffic management.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the project does not unify the Flight Information Regions.
Thus, the correct answer is option A: 1 only.
This understanding highlights the focus of Project ISHAN on enhancing air traffic management while clarifying misconceptions about its scope regarding Flight Information Regions.

Consider the following statements with reference to the ZiG currency:
1. It is a new gold backed currency launched by the Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe.
2. It is launched with an aim to prevent currency devaluation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prerna Ahuja answered
Overview of the ZiG Currency
The ZiG currency represents a significant step taken by the Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe to stabilize its economy and address historical challenges related to hyperinflation and currency devaluation.

Statement 1: New Gold Backed Currency
- The ZiG currency is indeed a new gold-backed currency.
- This backing by gold is intended to instill confidence among the populace and investors, as it provides a tangible asset that supports the currency's value.

Statement 2: Aim to Prevent Currency Devaluation
- The primary aim of launching the ZiG currency is to prevent further currency devaluation.
- By being backed by gold, the currency aims to establish a more stable monetary system, thus reducing the volatility that has plagued previous currencies in Zimbabwe.

Conclusion
Both statements about the ZiG currency are accurate. The Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe launched this new currency to restore faith in its financial system, using gold as a means of ensuring stability. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Food Policy Research Institute:
1. It is a United Nations affiliated organization which provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty.
2. It releases the Global food policy report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Recently, Global food policy report 2024: Food systems for healthy diets and nutrition was released by International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)
Key highlights of Global food policy report 2024:
  • It mentions that at least 38 per cent of the Indian population ate unhealthy foods, while only 28 per cent ate all five recommended food groups, which include at least one starchy staple food, one vegetable, one fruit, one pulse, nut or seed and one animal-source food.
  • The consumption of such calorie-dense and nutrient-poor foods was not only high but was also increasing, while the consumption of vegetables and other micronutrient-rich foods was low.
  • In India and other South Asian countries, consumption of processed foods is on the rise. After cereals and milk, snacks and prepared foods accounted for the majority of Indian food budgets.
  • In India, the proportion of the population suffering from malnutrition increased from 15.4% in 2011 to 16.6% by 2021.
  • The prevalence of overweight in adults increased from 12.9% in 2006 to 16.4% in 2016. 
  • Similarly, the share of packaged (highly processed and calorie-dense) foods in household food budgets nearly doubled during this period, to 12 per cent from 6.5 per cent. 
  • In the South Asian region, the report highlighted that micronutrient-rich foods were expensive, whereas cereals, fats and oils, sugar, and sugary and salty snacks were relatively inexpensive. 
Key facts about the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) 
  • It was established in 1975 and provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries.
  • It is a research centre of CGIAR, which is the world’s largest agricultural innovation network.
  • It is not a UN affiliated organization.
  • Its research focuses on five strategic research areas:
  • Fostering Climate-Resilient and Sustainable Food Supply
  • Promoting Healthy Diets and Nutrition for Al
  • Building Inclusive and Efficient Markets, Trade Systems, and Food Industry
  • Transforming Agricultural and Rural Economies
  • Strengthening Institutions and Governance
  • Headquarters: Washington, D.C
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD):
1. It is a neurological disorder affecting animals.
2. It is non-contagious and does not transmit through contact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
In a concerning development, scientists are sounding the alarm about the potential spread of a condition known as chronic wasting disease (CWD) from animals to humans. 
About Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD):
  • CWD, also known as Zombie deer disease, is a neurological disorder affecting deer and other cervids (members of the deer family) caused by the abnormal growth of a misfolded protein called a prion.
  • This prion causes healthy brain proteins to become abnormal, leading to a range of symptoms.
  • CWD is contagious; it can be transmitted freely within and among cervid populations.
  • Transmission: CWD is transmitted directly through animal-to-animal contact and indirectly through contact with objects or environments contaminated with infectious material (including saliva, urine, feces, and carcasses of CWD-infected animals).
  • Symptoms: It may take over a year before an infected animal develops symptoms, which can include drastic weight loss (wasting), stumbling, listlessness, and other neurologic symptoms. 
  • CWD is particularly concerning because it has the potential to affect both animals and humans, with the possibility of transmission through the consumption of infected meat.
  • CWD can affect animals of all ages, and some infected animals may die without ever developing the disease.
  • CWD is fatal to animals, and there are no treatments or vaccines.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Lakshya Aircraft:
1. It is a re-usable high subsonic aerial target system powered by a gas turbine engine.
2. It is designed and built by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Chavan answered
Statement Analysis:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. The Lakshya Aircraft is indeed a re-usable high subsonic aerial target system powered by a gas turbine engine. It is used for target practice by the Indian Armed Forces.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is also correct. The Lakshya Aircraft is designed and built by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) of India. The DRDO is responsible for developing various indigenous defense technologies.

Conclusion:
- Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Lakshya Aircraft is a high subsonic target system powered by a gas turbine engine, designed and built by DRDO.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Lab-Grown Diamonds:
1. They have essentially the same chemical, optical, and physical properties and crystal structure as natural diamonds.
2. India accounts for more than 50% per cent of global production of Lab-Grown Diamonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

India is playing a significant role in the lab-grown diamond industry, positioning itself as the world's second-largest producer of precious stones created in laboratories rather than extracted from the earth.
About Lab-Grown Diamonds:
  • Laboratory-grown diamonds have essentially the same chemical, optical, and physical properties and crystal structure as natural diamonds.
  • Like natural diamonds, they are made of tightly-bonded carbon atoms.
  • They respond to light in the same way and are just as hard as natural diamonds.
  • The main differences between laboratory-grown and natural diamonds lie in their origin.
  • Lab-grown diamonds are diamonds that are produced using specific technology which mimics the geological processesthat grow natural diamonds.
  • The diamond simulants such as Moissanite, Cubic Zirconia (CZ), White Sapphire, YAG, and others are used to make them look like natural diamonds.
  • How are LGDs produced? There are multiple ways in which LGDs can be produced.
  • High pressure, high temperature” (HPHT) method:
  • It is the most common and cheapest method.
  • This method mimics the conditions under which natural diamonds are formed inside the earth.
  • To produce the lab diamond, a large machine is fed a certain amount of carbon materialthat it then crushes under pressures of more than 870,000 lbs. per square inch at extreme temperatures ranging from 1300 – 1600 degrees Celsius.
  • Lower-quality diamonds, whether natural or laboratory-grown, can also be put through the HPHT process to improve color. This process can also be used to change the color of diamonds to pink, blue or yellow. 
  • Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD):
  • This technique enables scientists to grow laboratory-grown diamonds using moderate temperatures (700°C to 1300°C) and lower pressures.
  • Carbon-containing gas is pumped into a vacuum chamber and deposits onto a diamond seed,crystallizing as laboratory-grown diamond.
  • The eventual size of the diamond depends on the time allowed for growth.
  • Application of Lab-grown diamonds:
  • Used for industrial purposes, in machines and tools and their hardness and extra strength make them ideal for use as cutters.
  • Pure synthetic diamonds are used in electronicsas a heat spreader for high-power laser diodes, laser arrays and high-power transistors.
  • India produces more than three million lab-grown diamonds a year and accounts for 15 per cent of global production.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Vivekananda Rock Memorial:
1. It is built on a small island off Tamil Nadu in honour of Swami Vivekananda.
2. It is surrounded by the Laccadive Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Mishra answered
Overview of Vivekananda Rock Memorial
The Vivekananda Rock Memorial is a significant monument located in Tamil Nadu, India. It commemorates the great spiritual leader Swami Vivekananda and serves as a place of meditation and reflection.
Statement 1: Location and Purpose
- The memorial is indeed built on a small island, known as Vivekananda Rock, which is situated off the coast of Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
- It was constructed in honor of Swami Vivekananda, who delivered his famous speech at the World Parliament of Religions in Chicago in 1893, emphasizing the importance of universal brotherhood.
Statement 2: Surrounding Sea
- The memorial is surrounded by the sea, but it is important to note that it is bordered by the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean, rather than the Laccadive Sea.
- The Laccadive Sea lies to the west of the Indian mainland, while the Vivekananda Rock is located at the southern tip of India.
Conclusion
- Since Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer is option 'C', which states that both statements are correct.
- This makes the Vivekananda Rock Memorial not only a tribute to Vivekananda's legacy but also a notable geographical landmark in Tamil Nadu.
Key Takeaway
- The Vivekananda Rock Memorial is a tribute to Swami Vivekananda, located on a small island off Tamil Nadu, surrounded by the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean, not the Laccadive Sea.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Goldman Environmental Prize:
1. It is awarded to individuals for sustained and significant efforts to enhance the natural environment.
2. It is only awarded to people from European continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Shukla, convenor of the Chhattisgarh Bachao Andolan and founding member of the Hasdeo Aranya Bachao Sangharsh Samiti, has been awarded the 2024 Goldman Prize from Asia.
  • The Prize recognizes individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment, often at great personal risk.
  • It is also known as the Green Nobel.
  • It recognizes grassroots environmental heroes from roughly the world’s six inhabited continental regions: Africa, Asia, Europe, Islands & Island Nations, North America and South & Central America
  • The Goldman Prize views “grassroots” leaders as those involved in local efforts, where positive change is created through community or citizen participation.
  • The first Goldman Environmental Prize ceremony took place on April 16, 1990. It was timed to coincide with Earth Day.
Key facts about Hasdeo Aranya region
  • It is a sprawling forest in the northern part of Chhattisgarh which is known for its biodiversity and also its coal deposits.
  • The forest falls under Korba, Surajpur and Sarguja districts with sizeable tribal population.
  • The Hasdeo River, a tributary of Mahanadi, flows through it.
  • It is the largest un-fragmented forests in Central India consisting of pristine Sal (Shorea robusta) and teak forests.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Bond Buyback:
1. It is a process in which central and state governments buy back their existing securities from holders by redeeming them prematurely.
2. It is aimed to decrease the liquidity in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has responded to tight liquidity conditions in the banking system by announcing a significant reduction in the government's treasury bill sales and introducing a new selection of bonds for the Centre's buyback operations.
  • Bond Buyback is a process whereby the central government and state governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the holders.
  • Bond buybacks is a liability management tools widely used in government securities markets to manage refinancing and liquidity risks.
  • It enables issuers to retire an outstanding debt before its maturity date against a cash payment.
  • The objectives of buyback can be
  • Reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon securities),
  • Reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs market (by buying back illiquid securities) and
  • Infusion of liquidity in the system.
What is a Bond?
  • It is a debt instrument in which an investor loans money to an entity (typically corporate or government) which borrows the funds for a defined period of time at a variable or fixed interest rate.
  • Bonds are used by companies, municipalities, states and sovereign governments to raise money to finance a variety of projects and activities. Owners of bonds are debt holders, or creditors, of the issuer.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the National Green Hydrogen Mission:
1. It aims to make India a Global Hub for the production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
2. The Ministry of Power, Government of India, will be responsible for the overall coordination and implementation of the mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Shah answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to make India a global hub for the production, utilization, and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives. This aligns with the government's vision of promoting clean energy and reducing carbon emissions.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is incorrect. The Ministry of Power, Government of India, is not responsible for the overall coordination and implementation of the National Green Hydrogen Mission. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for the mission.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', which is "1 only".

Consider the following statements with reference to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
2. It aims to lead the development of a balanced and effective international intellectual property (IP) system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vaibhav Kapoor answered
WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organization)

Statement 1: It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- This statement is correct. WIPO is indeed a specialized agency of the United Nations, established in 1967 to promote and protect intellectual property across the world.

Statement 2: It aims to lead the development of a balanced and effective international intellectual property (IP) system.
- This statement is also correct. WIPO's main objective is to lead the development of a balanced and effective international intellectual property system that encourages innovation and creativity while also ensuring that the rights of creators and inventors are protected.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. WIPO plays a crucial role in setting international standards for intellectual property protection, providing services to help protect IP rights, and facilitating cooperation among countries to ensure a harmonized global IP system.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Planetary alignments:
1. It is the positioning of planets in the solar system which appears to be in a straight line.
2. The planets visibility during this rare event is impacted by the moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:
Planetary Alignments:
- Planetary alignments refer to the positioning of planets in the solar system in such a way that they appear to be in a straight line.
- This phenomenon is rare and occurs when planets align in a specific pattern relative to the Earth.
Impact of Moon:
- The visibility of planets during planetary alignments is not impacted by the moon.
- The moon's position in the sky may vary during planetary alignments, but it does not affect the visibility of the aligned planets.
Correct Answer:
- Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect as the visibility of planets during planetary alignments is not impacted by the moon.

Consider the following statements with reference to the electric vertical take-off and landing (eVTOL) aircraft:
1. It is a low-altitude urban air mobility aircraft capable of intra and inter city transportation.
2. It works based on the distributed electric propulsion technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • An electric vertical take-off and landing (eVTOL) aircraft is one that uses electric power to hover, take off, and land vertically.
  • It is one of the newer technologies and developments in the aerospace industry.
  • It is a low-altitude urban air mobility aircraft capable of carrying only a few passengers- six seaters and eight seaters.
  • Technology used:
  • Most eVTOLs use distributed electric propulsion technology which means integrating a complex propulsion system with the airframe. There are multiple motors for various functions; to increase efficiency; and to also ensure safety.
  • This is technology that has grown on account of successes in electric propulsion based on progress in motor, battery, fuel cell and electronic controller technologies and also fuelled by the need for new vehicle technology that ensures urban air mobility (UAM). 
  • Applications: Air Taxi, Delivery, Medical assistance (EMS), Cargo Transport, Recreation.
  • Significance
  • In the near future, these eVTOLs will enhance “on-demand” mobility for intra and inter city transportation, improving connectivity between metropolitan city centers and airports.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the National Food Security Act (NFSA), consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court (SC) has directed the Centre to increase coverage under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
2. The coverage under the NFSA is still decided by the population figures of the 2011 census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mahi Banerjee answered
Explanation:
Statement 1:
The Supreme Court (SC) has indeed directed the Centre to increase coverage under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). The SC has urged the Centre to consider providing dry rations to all beneficiaries under the NFSA during the COVID-19 pandemic, rather than adhering to the current practice of providing cooked meals. This move is aimed at ensuring food security for vulnerable populations during the crisis.
Statement 2:
The coverage under the NFSA is still determined by the population figures of the 2011 census. This statement is also correct as the NFSA utilizes the population data from the 2011 census to identify eligible beneficiaries for food security measures. This system has been in place since the inception of the NFSA in 2013.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The SC's directive to expand NFSA coverage and the continued use of 2011 census data for determining beneficiaries are key aspects of the current implementation of the National Food Security Act.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Anopheles stephensi:
1. It is a mosquito species native to the African continent.
2. It rapidly adapts to changes in the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrita Saha answered
Anopheles stephensi:
Anopheles stephensi is a mosquito species that is not native to the African continent. It is primarily found in South Asia, including countries like India, Pakistan, and Iran.

Rapid Adaptation:
Anopheles stephensi is known for its ability to rapidly adapt to changes in the environment. This adaptability allows the species to thrive in various settings, making it a significant vector for diseases such as malaria.
Therefore, the correct statement is:
b) 2 only

‘Roen olmi’, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    virus
  • b)
    mushroom
  • c)
    bacteria
  • d)
    algae
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Two researchers in Goa have said that they synthesised gold nanoparticles from a wild mushroom species that is widely eaten as a delicacy in the coastal state.
  • It is a mushroom of the Termitomyces species.
  • It grows on termite hills and is locally known as ‘roen olmi’ in Goa.
  • It is an edible wild mushroom popular among Goans and consumed during the monsoons.
  • These mushrooms have no independent existence. They grow only in association with termites. 
  • Habitat: It is endemic to the Western Ghats, where the thick forest cover and high humidity provides an ideal breeding ground.
  • Ecological significance: It plays a very important role as a powerful biodegrading fungus in forest and grassland ecosystems converting 50% dead plant material on the ground into rich soil.
  • In fact, all Termitomyces species are edible and have unique food value attributed to their texture, flavour, nutrient content, and beneficial mediational properties.
  • Additionally, Termito-myces have been recognized for their ethno-medicinal importance in various indigenous communities throughout Asia and Africa.
  • Termitomyces species possess various beneficial antioxidant and antimicrobial properties
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Intelligence Unit:
1. It disseminates information relating to suspected financial transactions.
2. It works directly under the Prime Minister’s Office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) is responsible for disseminating information relating to suspected financial transactions. It plays a crucial role in combating money laundering, terrorist financing, and other financial crimes by analyzing and sharing information with relevant authorities.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is incorrect. The FIU does not work directly under the Prime Minister's Office. In most countries, including India, the FIU operates as an independent body or as a part of the country's central bank or financial regulatory authority.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. The FIU is an essential component in the fight against financial crimes, and it plays a vital role in safeguarding the integrity of the financial system.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Rangelands:
1. These are category of Earth’s land cover consisting mostly of the natural grasslands.
2. They include tallgrass prairies and steppes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Rangelands:
Rangelands are a category of Earth's land cover consisting mostly of natural grasslands. They are characterized by the presence of grasses, herbs, and shrubs rather than trees. These areas are primarily used for grazing livestock.

Statement Analysis:
1. Correct: The first statement is correct as rangelands are indeed a type of land cover dominated by natural grasslands.
2. Correct: The second statement is also correct as rangelands include tallgrass prairies and steppes, which are specific types of grassland ecosystems found in different regions of the world.
Therefore, both statements (1 and 2) are correct. Rangelands play a crucial role in supporting biodiversity, providing livelihoods for pastoral communities, and contributing to ecosystem services such as carbon sequestration and water filtration.

The Food Waste Index Report 2024 is published by:
  • a)
    World Bank
  • b)
    Food and Agriculture Organisation
  • c)
    World Health Organisation
  • d)
    United Nations Environment Programme
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

According to the Food Waste Index Report 2024, households across the globe wasted over one billion meals a day in 2022.
  • It a study jointly authored by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and WRAP (Waste and Resources Action Programme), a U.K.-based non-profit.
  • The Food Waste Index tracks the global and national generation of food and inedible parts wasted at the retail and consumer (household and food service) levels.
  • Highlights of the report
  • It noted that in 2022, there were 1.05 billion tonnes of food waste generated (including inedible parts), amounting to 132 kilograms per capita and almost one-fifth of all food available to consumers.
  • It stressed the importance of expanding and strengthening data infrastructure to enable the tracking and monitoring of food waste.
  • Many low- and middle-income countries continue to lack adequate systems for tracking progress to meet Sustainable Development Goal 12.3 of halving food waste by 2030, particularly in retail and food services.”
  • At present, only four G-20 countries (Australia, Japan, U.K., U.S.) and the European Union have food waste estimates suitable for tracking progress to 2030.
  • Hotter countries appear to generate more food waste per capita in households, potentially due to higher consumption of fresh foods with substantial inedible parts and a lack of robust cold chains.
  • As compared to urban areas, rural ones generally wasted less food, due to “greater diversion of food scraps to pets, livestock, and home composting”.
  • As of 2022, only 21 countries had included food loss and/or waste reduction in their climate plans or Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
  • The report defines “food waste” as “food and the associated inedible parts removed from the human food supply chain”.
  • Food loss” is defined as “all the crop and livestock human-edible commodity quantities that, directly or indirectly, completely exit the post-harvest/slaughter production/supply chain up to, and excluding, the retail level”.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

La Cumbre volcano, recently in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Andaman and Nicobar
  • b)
    Galápagos Islands
  • c)
    Baffin Island
  • d)
    Sicily Island
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Recent lava spewing from La Cumbre volcano on Galápagos Islands destroying habitat of rare land iguanas.
  • It is located on Fernandina Island – the third largest island in the Galápagos Islands.
  • It lies directly atop the mantle plume, or hot spot, that produced all of the Galápagos Island.
  • It is located around 1,125 kilometres off mainland Ecuador and erupted for the first time since 2020.
  • The volcano has a large crater, or caldera, at its summit that harbors a permanent crater lake.
  • This lake attracts a wide variety of animals including tens of thousands of Galápagos land iguanas (Conolophus subcristatus) that lay their eggs in nests within the caldera.
Key facts about Galápagos land iguana
  • It is one of three species of land iguana endemic to the Galapagos Islands (the others being the Santa Fe land iguana and the Galapagos pink land iguana).
  • It is a very large species of lizard in the family Iguanidae. It is primarily an herbivores species.
  • This large cold-blooded reptile has a mutualistic relationship with finches, which can often be seen sitting on their backs, picking ticks from between their scales. 
  • It is active during the day spending their time foraging or basking on rocks; at night they sleep in burrows.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Participatory Notes:
1. These are financial instruments used by investors to invest in the Indian securities.
2. These are issued by the Reserve Bank of India to overseas investors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Stuti Dey answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:These are financial instruments used by investors to invest in the Indian securities.

  • Participatory Notes (PNs) are financial instruments used by foreign investors who are not registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to invest in Indian securities.
  • These investors can invest in Indian stock markets through PNs without registering with SEBI.
  • PNs are used by foreign institutional investors (FIIs) and foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) to invest in Indian markets.


Statement 2:These are issued by the Reserve Bank of India to overseas investors.

  • This statement is incorrect. Participatory Notes are not issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or any other Indian regulatory authority.
  • PNs are issued by registered foreign institutional investors or their sub-accounts to overseas investors who wish to invest in Indian securities.
  • SEBI regulates the issuance and trading of PNs in India.


Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct, as Participatory Notes are financial instruments used by investors to invest in Indian securities without the need for registration with SEBI.

Which among the following best describes Spektr-RG (SRG), recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    A robotic rover deployed to explore the Martian surface.
  • b)
    A high-energy particle collider built by CERN.
  • c)
    A space observatory to study the universe in the X-ray range.
  • d)
    An underwater research station studying marine life in the Pacific Ocean.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Astronomers report the discovery of a new pulsar using the Spektr-RG space observatory.
About Spektr-RG (SRG):
  • Spektr-Rentgen-Gamma (Spektr-RG, SRG) is a German-Russian high-energy astrophysics space observatory to study the universe in the X-ray range of electromagnetic radiation.
  • It was launched in 2019 on a Proton-M rocket from the cosmodrome in Baikonur, Kazakhstan. 
  • It moves along a so-called halo orbit around the outer Lagrange point (L2) of the Sun-Earth system at a distance of 1.5 million km from the Earth with a period of about 6 months.
  • A Lagrange point is a position in space where the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the centripetal force required for a small object to move with them.
  • Instruments:
  • The primary instrument of the mission is eROSITA, built by the Max Planck Institute for Extraterrestrial Physics (MPE) in Germany.
  • It is designed to conduct a seven-year X-ray survey, the first in the medium X-ray band less than 10 keV energies, and the first to map an estimated 100,000 galaxy clusters. 
  • This survey may detect new clusters of galaxies and active galactic nuclei.
  • The second instrument, ART-XC, is a Russian high-energy X-ray telescope capable of detecting supermassive black holes.
  • It is intended to replace the Spektr-R, known as the “Russian Hubble”. Spektr-R was launched in 2011 to observe black holes, neutron stars, and magnetic fields, aiding understanding of cosmic expansion.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Aircraft Turbulence:
1. It is disruption of airflow over the wings of an airplane which makes it to enter irregular vertical motion.
2. Mechanical turbulence occurs when tall solid objects such as mountains disrupt the normal airflow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Aircraft Turbulence:
- Aircraft turbulence refers to the disruption of airflow over the wings of an airplane, leading to irregular vertical motion.
- It can be caused by various factors such as atmospheric conditions, jet streams, or mechanical disturbances.

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. Aircraft turbulence is indeed the disruption of airflow over the wings of an airplane, causing the aircraft to experience irregular vertical motion.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is also correct. Mechanical turbulence occurs when tall solid objects such as mountains disrupt the normal airflow around the aircraft.
- As the aircraft flies near these objects, the airflow is disturbed, leading to turbulence.
Therefore, both statements are correct as they accurately describe different causes of aircraft turbulence - disruption of airflow over the wings and mechanical disturbances from tall solid objects.

Consider the following statements regarding North Atlantic right whale:
1. It inhabits the temperate and subpolar waters of the north Atlantic and north Pacific oceans.
2. It is mostly found near bays and peninsulas and in shallow, coastal waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Sharma answered
Overview of North Atlantic Right Whale
The North Atlantic right whale is one of the most endangered marine mammals, known for its distinctive features and limited habitat range.
Statement Analysis
1. Habitat Range
- The North Atlantic right whale primarily inhabits the temperate and subpolar waters of the North Atlantic Ocean.
- Incorrect Information: The statement incorrectly includes the North Pacific Ocean, where the North Atlantic right whale does not occur.
2. Location Preferences
- This species is indeed mostly found near bays and peninsulas and prefers shallow, coastal waters.
- They are often seen in areas where they can feed on zooplankton, which is abundant in these coastal regions.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis of both statements:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because it inaccurately mentions the North Pacific Ocean.
- Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes the preferred habitat of the North Atlantic right whale.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C', which states that both statements are correct in terms of the North Atlantic right whale's habitat preferences, despite the error in the first statement about the North Pacific Ocean.

TacticAI, recently seen in news, is developed by:
  • a)
    Microsoft
  • b)
    Google
  • c)
    Nvidia
  • d)
    Facebook
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meghana Sharma answered
Google
TacticAI is developed by Google. It is an artificial intelligence-powered system designed to help military commanders make better decisions on the battlefield. Here are some key points about TacticAI:

Key Features:
- TacticAI uses machine learning algorithms to analyze vast amounts of data and provide real-time insights to military decision-makers.
- It can process information from various sources such as satellite imagery, drone footage, and reports from ground troops.
- The system can identify patterns, trends, and potential threats, allowing commanders to act more effectively and efficiently.

Benefits:
- TacticAI can help improve situational awareness, enhance operational planning, and ultimately save lives on the battlefield.
- By leveraging AI technology, military forces can gain a competitive edge and stay ahead of adversaries in complex and dynamic environments.

Implications:
- The development of TacticAI raises ethical concerns about the use of AI in military operations, particularly regarding accountability, transparency, and potential risks of autonomous decision-making.
- It also highlights the growing role of technology in modern warfare and the need for robust regulations and guidelines to ensure responsible AI deployment.
In conclusion, TacticAI by Google represents a significant advancement in AI-powered systems for military applications, showcasing the potential of technology to revolutionize defense strategies and tactics.

Consider the following statements with reference to the AI Krish and AI Bhoomi:
1. These are Artificial Intelligence anchors launched by the Door Darshan Kisan TV.
2. They provide information related to agriculture to school going students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Recently, DD Kisan deployed two Artificial Intelligence anchors as part of the initiative to present the television channel in a new avatar.
  • The anchors have been named as ‘AI Krish’ and ‘AI Bhoomi’, and can speak in 50 Indian and foreign languages.
  • These news anchors are a computer, which are exactly like a human, or rather, these can work like a human. They can read news 24 hours and 365 days without stopping or getting tired.
  • The farmer viewers will be able to see these anchors in all the States of the country.
  • These AI anchors will provide every necessary information about agricultural research happening in the country and at the global level, trends in agriculture mandis, changes in the weather, or any other information of government schemes.
Key facts about DD Kisan
  • It is the only TV channel in the country, which has been established by the Government of India and dedicated to the farmers. This channel was established on 26 May 2015.
  • The objective of establishing DD Kisan Channel
  • To always keep the farmers informed about the changes in weather, global and local markets etc., so that farmers can make appropriate plans in advance and take right decisions on time.
  • It is also working to bring forward the efforts of progressive farmers to all the people, with the aim of serving the agricultural and rural community in the country and working towards creating an environment of holistic development by educating them.
  • DD Kisan channel is strengthening the three-dimensional concept of agriculture which includes balanced farming, animal husbandry and plantation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Whip in India:
1. It is a written order issued by a political party to its elected members.
2. A one-line whip is issued on important occasions such as no-confidence motion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sameer Nambiar answered
Understanding the Whip in India
The concept of a whip is significant in the parliamentary system of India, and the statements provided require careful consideration.
Statement 1: Nature of a Whip
- A whip is indeed a written order issued by a political party to its elected members.
- This order directs members on how to vote in the legislature, ensuring party discipline during crucial votes.
- Thus, this statement is correct.
Statement 2: Context of a One-Line Whip
- A one-line whip is generally issued to instruct members to attend a session and vote according to the party line during significant events.
- However, it is not limited to occasions like a no-confidence motion; it can also be used for other important legislative matters.
- Therefore, while it is true that one-line whips are issued during important occasions, the statement is somewhat misleading because it suggests exclusivity to no-confidence motions.
Conclusion
- Since Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is overly restrictive in its context, the correct answer to the question is option 'A' (1 only).
- It highlights the importance of understanding the nuances of parliamentary procedures in India, especially for aspirants preparing for competitive exams like UPSC.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ):
1. It is a commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
2. It functions as a governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
After five days of discussions to strengthen crime prevention, criminal justice responses and cooperation, the 33rd session of the Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice, came to a conclusion recently.
About Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ):
  • CCPCJ is a commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
  • It acts as the principal policy making body of the United Nations (UN) in the fields of crime prevention and criminal justice
  • Membership: The CCPCJ has 40 member states that are elected by ECOSOC and is chaired by a Bureau.
  • ECOSOC provided for CCPCJ mandates and priorities in resolution 1992/22, which includes the following:
  • International action tocombat national and transnational crime, such as organized crime, economic crime and money-laundering
  • Promoting the role of criminal lawin protecting the environment
  • Crime prevention in urban areas, including juvenile crime and violence
  • Improving the efficiency and fairness of criminal justice administration systems
  • CCPCJ also offers Member States a forum for exchanging expertise, experience,and information in order to develop national and international strategies and to identify priorities for combating crime.
  • It also acts as preparatory bodyand as implementing body for the quinquennial United Nations Congress on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice.
  • In 2006, the General Assembly adopted resolution 61/252, which further expanded the mandates of CCPCJ to enable it to function as a governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), and to approve the budget of the United Nations Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Fund, which provides resources for technical assistance in the field of crime prevention and criminal justice worldwide.
  • The Commission maintains close linkswith the research institutes belonging to the UN Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Programme Network (PNI).
  • The network has been developed to assist the international community in strengthening cooperation in the area of crime prevention and criminal justice.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sea otters:
1. It is found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in North America and Asia.
2. It is considered one of the keystone species of the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vaibhav Kapoor answered
Sea Otters

Sea otters are fascinating marine mammals that play a crucial role in maintaining the health of coastal ecosystems. Let's break down the statements provided in the question and discuss them in detail.
Statement 1: It is found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in North America and Asia.

- This statement is correct. Sea otters are primarily found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in regions such as North America (including Alaska, Canada, and the west coast of the United States) and Asia (including Russia and Japan).
- They inhabit nearshore environments such as kelp forests, estuaries, and rocky coastlines where they can easily access their preferred prey, such as sea urchins, clams, and other invertebrates.
Statement 2: It is considered one of the keystone species of the environment.

- This statement is also correct. Sea otters are often referred to as keystone species due to their significant impact on the ecosystems they inhabit.
- By preying on sea urchins, sea otters help control the population of these herbivores, which in turn prevents overgrazing of kelp forests. This allows kelp forests to thrive and provides habitat for a diverse range of marine species.
- The presence of sea otters can have cascading effects on the entire ecosystem, influencing the abundance of various species and promoting biodiversity.
Conclusion

In conclusion, both statements are accurate. Sea otters are not only fascinating creatures found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean but also play a vital role as keystone species in maintaining the health and balance of coastal ecosystems. Their presence is essential for the overall well-being of marine environments in which they reside.

Consider the following statements with reference to the LignoSat:
1. It is developed by European space agency and NASA.
2. It is a wooden satellite that will be sent to the International Space Station.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding LignoSat
LignoSat is an innovative project in the realm of space exploration, particularly focusing on the use of sustainable materials.
Statement Analysis
1. Developed by European Space Agency and NASA:
- This statement is incorrect. LignoSat is primarily developed by the European Space Agency (ESA) in collaboration with various educational and research institutions, but NASA is not directly involved in its development.
2. A wooden satellite sent to the International Space Station:
- This statement is correct. LignoSat is indeed a wooden satellite designed to be launched and tested in the microgravity environment of the International Space Station (ISS). Its purpose is to assess the performance of wood as a material for space structures.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, only the second statement is accurate. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': 2 only.
Key Takeaways
- LignoSat represents a step towards sustainable materials in space technology.
- Its testing aboard the ISS will provide valuable insights into the feasibility of using wood in future space missions.
This innovative project highlights the ongoing exploration into eco-friendly solutions for aerospace engineering.

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