All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
1. Marsupials raise their newborn offspring inside an external pouch at the front or underside of their bodies.
2. Placentals are egg-laying mammals.
3. Most marsupials can be found in Australia and South America.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only One
  • b)
    Only Two
  • c)
    All Three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaideep Roy answered


Explanation:

- Marsupials raise their newborn offspring inside an external pouch at the front or underside of their bodies:
This statement is correct. Marsupials, such as kangaroos and koalas, have a unique way of nurturing their young. The newborn offspring are born at a very early stage of development and continue to grow and develop inside the mother's pouch.
- Placentals are egg-laying mammals:
This statement is incorrect. Placentals are mammals that give birth to live young. They nourish their offspring through a placenta, which is a temporary organ that provides nutrients and oxygen to the developing fetus.
- Most marsupials can be found in Australia and South America:
This statement is partially correct. While the majority of marsupials are indeed found in Australia, there are also some species that inhabit South America. The most well-known marsupials, such as kangaroos and wallabies, are native to Australia.
Therefore, out of the three statements given, only the first statement about marsupials raising their offspring in an external pouch is correct. The second statement about placentals being egg-laying mammals is incorrect, and the third statement about the distribution of marsupials is partially correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Controller General of Accounts (CGA):
1. CGA, in the Department of Expenditure, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India.
2. The CGA is responsible for exchequer control and internal audits for the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Iyer answered
Controller General of Accounts (CGA)

Statement 1: CGA, in the Department of Expenditure, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India.
The first statement is correct. The Controller General of Accounts (CGA) is indeed the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India. The CGA functions under the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, and plays a crucial role in advising the government on accounting policies and practices.

Statement 2: The CGA is responsible for exchequer control and internal audits for the central government.
The second statement is also correct. The CGA is responsible for maintaining and formulating accounting policies for the central government, as well as ensuring effective internal audits to promote transparency and accountability in government finances.
Therefore, both statements are accurate, making option 'C' the correct answer. The Controller General of Accounts (CGA) holds a significant position in the financial management of the government, providing crucial advice and oversight to ensure the proper utilization of public funds.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fact Check Unit of the Press Information Bureau (PIB):
1. It is headed by the Union Minister of Electronics and Information Technology.
2. It acts as a deterrent to creators and disseminators of fake news and misinformation. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Unni answered
Explanation:
1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The Fact Check Unit of the Press Information Bureau (PIB) is not headed by the Union Minister of Electronics and Information Technology. The unit is typically headed by a senior official or expert in the field of journalism or communication. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Fact Check Unit of the PIB plays a crucial role in debunking fake news and misinformation. By verifying and clarifying information, the unit acts as a deterrent to creators and disseminators of false information. Through fact-checking, the unit helps ensure that accurate and verified information reaches the public, thereby combating the spread of fake news.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2 only.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), consider the following statements:
1. It is a credit-linked subsidy scheme initiated to provide affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents across the country.
2. PMAY-G (Gramin) beneficiaries are identified using the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Roy answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is indeed a credit-linked subsidy scheme launched by the Government of India.
- The primary objective of PMAY is to provide affordable housing to the economically weaker sections, low-income groups, and middle-income groups in urban areas.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is also correct. PMAY-G (Gramin) beneficiaries are identified using the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
- The SECC data is used to determine the eligibility of households living in rural areas for the PMAY-G scheme. This helps in targeting the right beneficiaries and ensuring that the benefits reach those who need them the most.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. PMAY aims to address the housing needs of various income groups in both urban and rural areas, and the identification of beneficiaries for the PMAY-G scheme is done using the SECC 2011 data.

The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is chaired by which one of the following?
  • a)
    Union Defence Minister of India
  • b)
    Home Minister of India
  • c)
    Prime Minister of India
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Chair of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is one of the most important and powerful committees in the Government of India. It is responsible for making decisions related to national security and foreign affairs. The CCS is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Role of Prime Minister in CCS
As the chair of the CCS, the Prime Minister plays a pivotal role in the decision-making process regarding matters of national security. The Prime Minister leads discussions, sets the agenda, and ultimately makes final decisions on important security issues.

Composition of CCS
The CCS is composed of senior Cabinet ministers, including the Defence Minister, Home Minister, Finance Minister, and External Affairs Minister. The Chief of Defence Staff and the National Security Advisor also participate in meetings of the CCS.

Significance of CCS
The decisions taken by the CCS have far-reaching implications for the security and well-being of the country. The committee discusses and decides on issues such as military strategy, intelligence operations, counter-terrorism measures, and responses to external threats.

Conclusion
In conclusion, the Cabinet Committee on Security is a crucial body that plays a key role in safeguarding the national security interests of India. With the Prime Minister at its helm, the CCS ensures that important decisions are made in a timely and effective manner to protect the country from various threats.

With reference to Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH), consider the following statements:
1. Its highest peak, Tirich Mir, is located in India.
2. It contains the largest volume of ice and snow outside of the Arctic and Antarctica.
3. The inner valleys of the Hindu Kush see little rain and have desert vegetation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
A recent report by the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) analysed data on snow persistence from 2003 to 2024 and found it to be significantly lower than normal in the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) this year.
About Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH):
  • The HKH region stretches 3,500 kilometres and spans eight countriesAfghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan.
  • The range has numerous high snow-capped peaks, with the highest point being Tirich Mir or Terichmir at 7,708 meters (25,289 ft) in Chitral, Pakistan.
  • It is considered the Third Pole (after the North and South Poles) and has significant implications for climate.
  • It contains the largest volume of ice and snow outside of the Arctic and Antarctica.
  • The HKH region is the source of ten large Asian river systems: the Amu Darya, Indus, Ganges, Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy, Salween, Mekong, Yangtse, Yellow River, and Tarim.
  • The basins of these rivers provide water to 1.9 billion people, a fourth of the world’s population.
  • HKH may be divided into three main sections: the eastern Hindu Kush, the central Hindu Kush, and the western Hindu Kush, also known as the Bābā Mountains.
  • The inner valleys of the Hindu Kush see little rain and have desert vegetation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
1. It is an instrument issued by the government as a directive to its immigration authorities to restrict and regulate the physical movement of a person. 
2. It is issued by law enforcement agencies in India under the Passports Act, 1967.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Kumar answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- Look Out Circulars (LOCs) are indeed issued by the government to its immigration authorities to regulate the physical movement of a person.
- LOCs are issued to prevent individuals from leaving the country to evade investigation or legal proceedings.

Statement 2:
- Look Out Circulars are not issued under the Passports Act, 1967.
- They are issued by law enforcement agencies like the CBI (Central Bureau of Investigation) and the ED (Enforcement Directorate) to prevent individuals from leaving the country.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Consider following statements about Striped Caecilian:
1. It is characterised by its worm-like body with a limited sense of vision and primarily rely on touch and smell to navigate.
2. Their presence provides critical insights into the evolution and intercontinental speciation due to their ancient lineage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
  • limbless amphibian called the Striped Caecilian (Ichthyophis spp) has been discovered for the first time in the Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve, during a rapid herpetofauna survey.
    • Reptiles and amphibians are collectively called herpetofauna. Caecilians belong to the family of Ichthyophiidae. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
      • It is characterised by its worm-like body. They have a limited sense of vision and primarily rely on touch and smell to navigate their environment.
      • They spend most of their lives burrowed under soil and are carnivorous.
      • Their presence provides critical insights into the evolution and intercontinental speciation due to their ancient lineage. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
      • They are indicator species for the environment and play a crucial role in controlling pests.

Consider following statements about Kavach System:
1. It is a cab signaling train control system launched in 2020 with anti-collision features developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
2. It adheres to Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards and acts as a vigilant watchdog over the existing signaling system.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    Only 2
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Saini answered
Incorrect Statement in the Given Options:

Statement 1:
The statement is incorrect. Kavach System is not a cab signaling train control system launched in 2020 by DRDO. It is actually an indigenously developed Anti-Collision Device (ACD) for the Indian Railways.

Statement 2:
The statement is correct. The Kavach System adheres to Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards and acts as a vigilant watchdog over the existing signaling system.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Only 1.

Namaqualand, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following regions?
  • a)
    Southeast Asia
  • b)
    Middle East
  • c)
    Southwestern Africa
  • d)
    South America
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Scientists recently discovered the world’s oldest inhabited termite mounds along the Buffels River in Namaqualand, dating back 34,000 years.
About Namaqualand:
  • It is a desert region of southwestern Africa.
  • From north to south, it stretches from the Karas region of Namibia to the Northern Cape province of South Africa.
  • From west to east, it stretches from the Namib Desert to the Kalahari.
  • It covers an area of 400,000 square kilometres.
  • The Namibian sectionnorth of the Orange River, is sometimes called Great Namaqualand.
  • The South African sectionsouth of the Orange River, is sometimes called Little Namaqualand.
  • It is very dry. For a large part of the year succulents are almost the only plants that can be seen on the vast plains.
  • Succulents can hold water for long periods and can survive in droughts.
  • Rain falls mostly in the winter. If there is enough rain, wildflowers cover Namaqualand for a few weeks during springtime.
  • The area was traditionally inhabited by the Nama people before the German occupation of the region in the 19th century.
  • There are large deposits of copper in Namaqualand. The Nama mined them for hundreds of years.
  • In the early 1900s diamonds were discovered in several places in Namaqualand, including Sperrgebiet in Namibia and the Richtersveld in South Africa.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Hydrographic Organisation:
1. It is an intergovernmental organization which promotes uniformity in nautical charts and documents.
2. India is not a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

On 21 June every year, the International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) celebrates the World Hydrography Day to raise awareness about hydrography.
  • It is an intergovernmental organization that works to ensure all the world's seas, oceans and navigable waters are surveyed and charted.
  • It was established in 1921, it coordinates the activities of national hydrographic offices and promotes uniformity in nautical charts and documents.
  • It issues survey best practices, provides guidelines to maximize the use of hydrographic survey data and develops hydrographic capabilities in Member States.
  • Member countries: It has currently 100 Member States.
  • The IHO Secretariat has been hosted by the Principality of Monaco.
  • India has been an active member of the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO) since 1955.
  • The Indian Naval Hydrographic Department (INHD), or the Marine Survey of India earlier, was established in 1874 in Kolkata.
  • It is the nodal agency for hydrographic surveys and has a fleet of indigenously built modern survey ships.
World Hydrography Day
  • It is celebrated annually on June 21.
  • The theme for 2024 is "Hydrographic Information - Enhancing Safety, Efficiency and Sustainability in Marine Activities"
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to Methane, consider the following statements:
1. It is a short-lived greenhouse gas.
2. It is a colorless, odorless and flammable water insoluble gas.
3. It leads to ground-level ozone pollution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Geetika Bajaj answered
Correct Answer: c) All three
One of the statements provided is indeed correct, while the other two are inaccurate. Let's break down each statement to understand why:
- Methane is a short-lived greenhouse gas: This statement is correct. Methane is considered a short-lived greenhouse gas compared to carbon dioxide. It has a shorter atmospheric lifespan but is significantly more potent in trapping heat, contributing to global warming.
- Methane is a colorless, odorless, and flammable water-insoluble gas: This statement is also accurate. Methane is indeed colorless and odorless, making it difficult to detect without specialized equipment. Additionally, it is flammable and does not dissolve in water.
- Methane leads to ground-level ozone pollution: This statement is incorrect. While methane itself does not directly lead to ground-level ozone pollution, its reactions in the atmosphere can contribute to the formation of ozone, which is a harmful air pollutant.
In conclusion, two out of the three statements provided are correct. Methane is a short-lived greenhouse gas that is colorless, odorless, and flammable. However, it does not directly lead to ground-level ozone pollution.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) 2023:
1. It is released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
2. Mundra Port is the highest-ranked Indian port in CPPI 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
As many as nine ports of India have made it to the global top 100 rankings in the latest edition of Container Port Performance Index.
About Container Port Performance Index:
  • It is a highly regarded benchmark that assesses the performance of ports on parameters such as productivity, efficiency, and reliability.
  • It is released by the World Bank and S&P Global Market Intelligence.
  • It serves as a reference point for key stakeholders, including national governments, port authorities, development agencies, supra-national organisations, and private operators, in trade, logistics and supply chain services.
  • Highlights of CPPI 2023:
  • Yangshan port in China and Salalah port in Oman emerged as the top two ports in the rankings.
  • Nine Indian ports have secured places among the top 100 global ports.
  • While Visakhapatnam Port made it to the top 20 ports of the world at 19 in 2023, Mundra Port also climbed up the index at 27 in the current ranking.
  • This also marks an advancement from Visakhapatnam’s 115th rank and Mundra’s 48th position in the 2022 rankings.
  • Vishakhapatnam Port has demonstrated impressive performance with a turnaround time (TRT) of 21.4 hours, achieving 27.5 moves per crane hour, and minimizing berth idle time.
  • Additionally, seven more Indian ports, secured ranks in the top 100:Pipavav (ranked 41), Kamarajar (47), Cochin (63), Hazira (68), Krishnapatnam (71), Chennai (80), and Jawaharlal Nehru JNPA (96).
Hence both statements are not correct.

Indira Point, the southernmost point of India, is located on which one of the following islands?
  • a)
    Little Andaman Island
  • b)
    Great Nicobar Island
  • c)
    Car Nicobar Island
  • d)
    Middle Andaman Island
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Great Nicobar Island
Indira Point, the southernmost point of India, is located on Great Nicobar Island.

Location
- Great Nicobar Island is the largest of the Nicobar Islands in the eastern Indian Ocean.
- It is situated at the southern tip of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands chain.

Significance
- Indira Point is not only the southernmost point of India but also one of the southernmost points of the entire Indian subcontinent.
- The area is known for its rich biodiversity and unique ecosystem.

Accessibility
- Due to its remote location and restricted access, reaching Indira Point can be challenging.
- The island is not open to tourists, and special permission is required to visit the area.

Natural Disasters
- Great Nicobar Island, including Indira Point, has been prone to natural disasters such as tsunamis and earthquakes.
- The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami caused significant devastation to the island, including the submergence of parts of Indira Point.
In conclusion, Indira Point, the southernmost point of India, is located on Great Nicobar Island, which is known for its unique biodiversity and challenging accessibility.

AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0 is an initiative under which one of the following?
  • a)
    Central Water Commission (CWC)
  • b)
    Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • c)
    Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
  • d)
    NITI Aayog
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog (AIM) announced the launch of two groundbreaking initiatives aimed at fostering innovation and sustainability in India: the ‘AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0’ and the fifth edition of ‘Innovations for You’ handbook, spotlighting SDG entrepreneurs of India.
About AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0
  • The AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0 is an initiative launched by the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under NITI Aayog to address critical water-related challenges through inventive solutions.
  • The challenge is a collaborative effort with the Innovation Centre Denmark (ICDK) at the Royal Danish Embassy in India.
Objectives
  • Address water challenges: To address critical water-related challenges through innovative solutions.
  • Global participation: The selected teams from India will participate in the global Next Generation Digital Action program, engaging with young talents from leading universities and innovation hubs in nine countries (India, Denmark, Ghana, Kenya, Korea, Tanzania, South Africa, Ghana, Colombia, and Mexico).
  • Focus on sustainability: The program emphasizes sustainability, digital solutions, inclusion, and universal design principles.
  • Showcase innovations: Participants will be able to showcase their innovations at the Digital Tech Summit in Copenhagen from October 30th to 31st, 2024, funded by the Government of Denmark.
  • Two Tracks: The challenge invites entries under two tracks: one for students and the other for young entrepreneurs under the age of 35, including early-stage startups, researchers, and young innovators committed to driving positive environmental change.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

With reference to the “None Of The Above” (NOTA) option in elections, consider the following statements:
1. It is a voting option on the ballot that allows voters to indicate disapproval of all contesting candidates without choosing any of them.
2. It was used for the first time in the 2009 General elections to the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The "None of the Above" (NOTA) option has emerged as the runner-up in Madhya Pradesh's Indore constituency, securing a record-breaking 2,18,674 votes, the highest-ever tally.
About NOTA (None of the Above)
  • It is a voting option on the ballot that allows voters to indicate disapproval of all contesting candidates without choosing any of them.
  • NOTA empowers the electors to express their negative opinions and a lack of support for the contenders.
  • It gives them the right to reject while maintaining the secrecy of their decision.
  • When was it first used?
    • NOTA was used for the first time in the 2013 Assembly elections in five states-Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi, and Madhya Pradesh-and later in the 2014 General Elections.
    • It was introduced into the electoral process following the 2013 Supreme Court directive in the PUCL versus Union of India case.
  • Does NOTA Vote Count?
    • The Election Commission clarified that votes cast as NOTA are counted, but are considered ‘invalid votes’.
    • Even if NOTA votes get the most number of votes in a constituency, the next candidate with the second-most number of votes is declared the winner.
    • Therefore, votes made to NOTA do not change the outcome of an election.
  • Current Petition: The Supreme Court is considering a petition to frame guidelines for elections to be declared "null and void" if NOTA receives the highest number of votes in the constituency.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to Ringwoodite:
1. It is a mineral that exists in the transition zone of Earth.
2. It has a crystal structure that allows it to absorb water and hydrogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Gupta answered
Overview of Ringwoodite
Ringwoodite is a significant mineral in the context of Earth's geology, particularly within the transition zone, which lies between the upper and lower mantle.
Statement 1: Existence in the Transition Zone
- Ringwoodite is indeed found in the transition zone of the Earth, which extends from about 410 to 660 kilometers beneath the surface.
- This mineral is a high-pressure form of olivine and plays a crucial role in our understanding of the mantle's composition and behavior.
Statement 2: Crystal Structure and Absorption
- Ringwoodite has a unique crystal structure that allows it to incorporate water and hydrogen into its lattice.
- This property is vital as it suggests that the mantle can contain significant amounts of water, which has implications for understanding geological processes, such as magma formation and tectonic activity.
Conclusion: Correctness of Statements
- Both statements about Ringwoodite are accurate.
- Its existence in the transition zone and its ability to absorb water and hydrogen are well-supported by scientific research.
Correct Answer
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' (Both 1 and 2).
This highlights the importance of Ringwoodite in both mineralogy and geophysics, underscoring its role in the Earth's deep interior and its influence on geological phenomena.

With reference to Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.), consider the following statements:
1. It is a digital health promoter prototype powered by generative artificial intelligence.
2. It is an initiative of the World Health Organisation (WHO).
3. It can provide information about diseases in all major languages of the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) announced the launch of S.A.R.A.H., a digital health promoter prototype.
  • Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.) is a digital health promoter prototype with enhanced empathetic response powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
  • It is launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
  • It aims to provide an additional tool for people to realize their rights to health, wherever they are.
  • Features
  • It is trained to provide information across major health topics, including healthy habits and mental health, to help people optimize their health and well-being journey.
  • It has the ability to support people in developing better understanding of risk factors for some of the leading causes of death in the world, including cancer, heart disease, lung disease, and diabetes.
  • It can help people access up-to-date information on quitting tobacco, being active, eating a healthy diet, and de-stressing among other things. 
  • It can engage users 24 hours a day in 8 languages on multiple health topics, on any device.
  • It is now powered by generative AI rather than a pre-set algorithm or script helping her to provide more accurate responses in real-time.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Space MAITRI mission:
1. It is an initiative between NewSpace India Limited and Australia.
2. It aims to foster closer ties between commercial, institutional, and governmental space organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mainak Mehra answered
Explanation:

Space MAITRI Mission:
The Space MAITRI mission is an initiative between NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) and Australia.

Objectives:
The main objective of the Space MAITRI mission is to foster closer ties between commercial, institutional, and governmental space organizations of both countries.

Collaboration:
The collaboration aims to enhance cooperation in various aspects of space technology, including satellite development, launch services, and space exploration.

Significance:
This initiative not only strengthens the bilateral relationship between India and Australia but also paves the way for future joint ventures and collaborations in the space sector.
Therefore, both statements given in the question are correct. The Space MAITRI mission is indeed an initiative between NewSpace India Limited and Australia, aimed at fostering closer ties between commercial, institutional, and governmental space organizations.

Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in which state?
  • a)
    Madhya Pradesh
  • b)
    Uttar Pradesh
  • c)
    Maharashtra
  • d)
    Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Location of Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is prominently situated in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India. This sanctuary is part of the larger Chambal River ecosystem and plays a crucial role in the conservation of various wildlife species.
Geographical Significance
- The sanctuary is located near the Gandhi Sagar Dam, which is constructed on the Chambal River.
- It encompasses a diverse range of ecosystems, including forests, grasslands, and water bodies, making it a habitat for numerous species.
Wildlife and Biodiversity
- The sanctuary is home to several endangered species, including the Indian crocodile and various migratory birds.
- It supports a rich biodiversity, with flora and fauna unique to the region, attracting nature enthusiasts and researchers alike.
Conservation Efforts
- The sanctuary is an essential part of conservation initiatives aimed at protecting the delicate balance of the ecosystem.
- Various programs have been implemented to safeguard the wildlife and their habitats, highlighting the importance of environmental protection.
Tourism and Education
- The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary also serves as a popular eco-tourism destination, promoting awareness about wildlife conservation.
- Educational programs are conducted to inform visitors about the significance of the sanctuary in preserving natural heritage.
In conclusion, the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Madhya Pradesh, is a vital area for wildlife conservation and biodiversity, making it an important topic in discussions related to environmental preservation.

In which of the following pair of states do the Koya tribe predominantly live?
  • a)
    Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
  • b)
    Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh and Odisha
  • c)
    Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
  • d)
    Bihar, West Bengal, Assam and Jharkhand
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
In Godavari Valley, the Koya tribe faces a cultural crisis as raids by the Special Enforcement Bureau threaten their cherished tradition of Mahua liquor consumption.
About Koya Tribe: 
  • Koya are one of the few multi-racial and multi-lingual tribal communities in India.
  • They live in the forests, plains, and valleys on both sides of the Godavari River, in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha
  • The Koya are said to have migrated to central India from their original home in Bastar, northern India.
Language:
  • The Koya language, also called Koyi, is a Dravidian language. It is closely related to Gondi and has been strongly influenced by Telugu.
  • Most Koya speak either Gondi or Teluguin addition to Koyi.
Occupation
  • Traditionally, they were pastoralists and shifting cultivators, but now-a-days, they have taken to settled cultivation supplemented by animal husbandry and seasonal forest collections.
  • They grow Jowar, Ragi, Bajra, and other millets. 
Society and Culture:
  • All Koya belong to one of five sub-divisions called gotramsEvery Koya is born into a clan, and he cannot leave it.
  • The Koyas have a patrilineal and patrilocal family. The family is called "Kutum". The nuclear family is the predominant type.
  • Monogamy is prevalent among the Koyas.
  • The Koya practice their own ethnic religion, but also worship a number of Hindu gods and goddesses.
  • Many Koya deities are female, the most important being the "mother earth."
  • They maintain community funds and grain banks at the village level to help the needy families and provide food security.
  • Koyas either bury or cremate the dead. They erect menhirs in memory of the dead.
  • Their main festivals are Vijji Pandum (seeds charming festival) and Kondala Kolupu (festival to appease Hill deities). 
  • Koyas perform a robust, colourful dance called Permakok (Bison horn dance) during festivals and marriage ceremonies
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019:
1. It provides a path to Indian citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan who migrated to India before December 31, 2014.
2. It does not apply to the tribal areas included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) recently notified the Citizenship Amendment Rules, 2024 that would enable the implementation of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) passed by the Parliament in 2019.
About Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019:
  • The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 to provide a path to Indian citizenship for Hindus, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jains, and Parsis who migrated from neighbouring Muslim-majority countries such as Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan, before December 31, 2014.
  • Under the CAA, migrants who entered India till December 31, 2014and had suffered “religious persecution or fear or religious persecution” in their country of their origin would be made eligible for accelerated citizenship.
  • It relaxed the residence requirement for naturalisation of these migrants from twelve years to just six.
  • The cut-off date for citizenship is December 31, 2014, which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date.
  • The law exempts the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura as included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, including the tribal areas of Karbi Anglong in Assam, Garo Hills in Meghalaya, Chakma district in Mizoram, and Tribal areas district in Tripura.
  • It also includes a provision for the cancellation of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) registration if the OCI cardholder violates any provision of the Citizenship Act or any other applicable law.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Huntington’s Disease (HD), consider the following statements:
1. It is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die.
2. It usually causes movement, cognitive and psychiatric disorders.
3. There is no cure for HD and the goal of treatment is to slow the symptoms.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Roy answered
Correct Statements about Huntington's Disease:

1. Inherited Disorder:
- Huntington's Disease is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die.

2. Symptoms:
- HD usually causes movement, cognitive, and psychiatric disorders.
- Movement disorders include jerky body movements, difficulty walking, and involuntary movements.
- Cognitive symptoms can include difficulty concentrating, memory lapses, and difficulty making decisions.
- Psychiatric symptoms may include depression, anxiety, irritability, and even psychosis.

3. Treatment:
- Currently, there is no cure for Huntington's Disease.
- The goal of treatment is to manage and slow down the progression of symptoms through medication, therapy, and other supportive measures.
Therefore, all three statements provided are correct when discussing Huntington's Disease. This genetic condition can have a significant impact on an individual's physical, cognitive, and emotional well-being, making early detection and appropriate management crucial for improving quality of life for affected individuals.

With reference to Zero First Investigation Report (FIR), consider the following statements:
1. It refers to an FIR that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed.
2. It was recommended by the Justice Verma Committee.
3. It aims to provide speedy redressal to the victim.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Roy answered



Zero First Investigation Report (FIR)

1. Area of Offense
- The Zero First Information Report (FIR) refers to an FIR that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed.

2. Recommendation by Justice Verma Committee
- The concept of Zero FIR was recommended by the Justice Verma Committee to ensure that victims receive timely justice without any jurisdictional hurdles.

3. Aim of Zero FIR
- The main objective of Zero FIR is to provide speedy redressal to the victim by allowing the FIR to be registered immediately, regardless of the location of the offense. This helps in initiating the investigation promptly and ensuring that the victim's rights are protected.

The term ‘Air LORA’, recently seen in the news, refers to:
  • a)
    a cyber defense system for protecting critical infrastructure
  • b)
    a satellite launched for global internet coverage
  • c)
    an air-to-ground ballistic missile
  • d)
    a new energy-efficient jet engine
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Israel Aerospace Industries unveiled a new air-launched variant of its Lora ballistic missile recently.
About Air LORA:
  • It is an air-launched variant of the Long-Range Artillery (LORA) ballistic missile.
  • It is designed and developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI).
  • It is a long-range air-to-ground missile (AGM) developed for strike missions against high-value and well-protected targets such as command centres, air force bases, infrastructure, and naval vessels in dense littoral environments.
  • With a robust warhead of various types, Air LORA enables air forces to strike enemy targets from far distances outside the reach of enemy air defences.
  • It features high survivability with advanced immune INS/GNSS navigation and strong anti-jamming capabilities, allowing for 24/7 operation in extreme weather conditions and highly contested battlefields.
  • It can be simply integrated into airborne platforms as a stand-alone configuration or through the avionics system” and is easy to operate, “with simple fire-and-forget and autonomous operation.
  • It has a very high mission success rate mainly due to its supersonic speed and its combat-proven GNSS anti-jamming system”, as well as terminal trajectory shaping and a 90° attack angle.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

With reference to the Ural River, consider the following statements:
1. It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan.
2. It empties into the Black Sea, which lies between Europe and Asia.
3. Melting snow constitutes the majority of the river’s water source.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ruchi Banerjee answered
b. Only two
The correct statements are:
1. It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan
The Ural River does flow through Russia and Kazakhstan. It originates in the Ural Mountains in Russia and flows southwards into Kazakhstan before eventually emptying into the Caspian Sea.
2. It empties into the Black Sea, which lies between Europe and Asia
This statement is incorrect. The Ural River does not empty into the Black Sea. As mentioned earlier, it actually empties into the Caspian Sea.
3. Melting snow constitutes the majority of the river’s water source
This statement is also incorrect. The Ural River's water source primarily comes from rainfall and groundwater sources rather than melting snow.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making the correct answer "b. Only two".

Consider the following:
1. Dengue
2. Chikungunya
3. Zika
4. Malaria
How many of the above diseases are transmitted by Aedes albopictus mosquito?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    Only three
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Reddy answered
Transmitted by Aedes albopictus mosquito:
- Chikungunya: Chikungunya is transmitted by the Aedes albopictus mosquito.
- Zika: Zika virus is also transmitted by the Aedes albopictus mosquito.
- Malaria: Malaria is not transmitted by the Aedes albopictus mosquito. It is primarily transmitted by the Anopheles mosquito.
Therefore, out of the four diseases mentioned, only three - Chikungunya, Zika, and Malaria - are transmitted by the Aedes albopictus mosquito.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Improvised Explosive Device (IED):
1. It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
2. The IED can contain biological components to increase its lethal effects. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Liquid explosives seem to have made a comeback in Jammu and Kashmir militancy theatre after 17 years as a recent raid by police in the Union territory led to the recovery of such "difficult-to-detect (d2d)" Improvised Explosive Devices.
  • Forensic examination indicated that it could be trinitrotoluene (TNT) or nitroglycerine, generally used in dynamites.
About Improvised Explosive Device (IED):
  • It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
  • They are used by criminals, vandals, terrorists, suicide bombers and insurgents.
  • Because they are improvised, IEDs can come in many forms, ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage and loss of life.
  • The extent of damage caused by an IED depends on its size, construction, and placement, and whether it incorporates a high explosive or propellant.
  • The term IED came into common usage during the Iraq War that began in 2003.
  • Components of an IED:
  • All IEDs consist of an initiating mechanism: a detonator, an explosive charge and a casing or collection of projectiles (such as ball bearings or nails) that produces lethal fragments upon detonation. 
  • Materials used as explosives in IEDs:
  • In practice, IEDs can be made of many different kinds of objects and materials, including artillery or mortar rounds, aerial bombs, certain types of fertilizers, TNT and other explosives. 
  • IEDs can also contain radiological, chemical or biological components to increase their lethal and psychological effects.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the e-Samridhi Portal:
1. It was launched by National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. and National Cooperative Consumers' Federation of India.
2. It aims to procure all horticultural crops from farmers at Minimum Support Prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development urged the state governments to encourage more and more farmers to register on e-Samridhi portal so that they can avail the facility of assured procurement.
  • It was launched through National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED) and National Cooperative Consumers' Federation of India Limited (NCCF).
  • It is for the registration of farmers and government is committed to procuring pulses at Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for farmers registered on the portal.
  • Portal registration of farmers can be done directly or through Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and FPO.
  • The payment to the farmers will be made by NAFED directly into their mapped bank account and no agency will be involved in between.
Key facts about National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd
  • It is an apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India.
  • It was founded on 2 October 1958 to promote the trade of agricultural produce and forest resources across the nation.
  • It is registered under Multi State Co-operative Societies Act.
  • With its headquarters in New Delhi, NAFED has four regional offices in Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata, apart from 28 zonal offices in capitals of states and important cities.
  • Functions
  • It is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under "Operation Greens" which aims to double the farmers' income by 2022.
  • Along with FCI the NAFED is involved in the procurement of oilseeds, pulses and copra under the Price Support Scheme (PSS).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Maharani Temple:
1. It is situated on a small hillock in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The temple's intricate carvings and designs reflect a beautiful blend of Indian and Persian styles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Kaur answered
Location of Maharani Temple:
The first statement is correct. The Maharani Temple is indeed situated on a small hillock in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir. The serene location adds to the charm and spirituality of the temple.

Architectural Style:
The second statement is also correct. The temple's intricate carvings and designs reflect a beautiful blend of Indian and Persian styles. The architecture of the Maharani Temple showcases a unique fusion of these two rich cultural traditions.

Significance:
The Maharani Temple is not just a place of worship but also a symbol of the cultural diversity and heritage of the region. Visitors are often mesmerized by the stunning architecture and the peaceful ambiance of the temple.

Tourist Attraction:
Due to its picturesque location and architectural beauty, the Maharani Temple attracts a large number of tourists and devotees throughout the year. The temple is not only a religious site but also a popular tourist attraction in Gulmarg.
Therefore, both statements are correct, making option (c) - Both 1 and 2, the right choice.

With reference to the Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, consider the following statements:
1. It is a treaty of the World Health Organization (WHO).
2. It sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Chawla answered
Explanation:


Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS):
- The Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement is not a treaty of the World Health Organization (WHO) but rather an agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- It aims to ensure that food is safe for consumption and to protect human, animal, and plant health by setting out basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards.

Correct Statement:
- Therefore, statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes the purpose and scope of the SPS Agreement.
- Statement 1 is incorrect as the SPS Agreement is not a treaty of the World Health Organization.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

With reference to Mid-Day Meal scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. It aims to increase the attendance of children in government and government-aided schools.
3. Under this scheme hot cooked meal is provided to all children of classes 1 to 8 in the local body school.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Verma answered
Correct Explanation:

1. Central Sector Scheme:
- The first statement is correct as the Mid-Day Meal scheme is indeed a Central Sector Scheme, which means that the funding and implementation of the program are done entirely by the central government.

2. Increase Attendance:
- The second statement is also correct as one of the main objectives of the Mid-Day Meal scheme is to increase the attendance of children in government and government-aided schools by providing them with a nutritious meal.

3. Hot Cooked Meal:
- The third statement is incorrect as under the Mid-Day Meal scheme, hot cooked meals are provided to children in primary and upper primary classes (class 1 to 8), not just in local body schools.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option B the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX):
1. It is the flagship initiative of the Union Ministry of Defence.
2. It aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace.
3. It will be funded and managed by a Defence Innovation Organization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

1. Statement 1:
The statement is correct. iDEX is indeed the flagship initiative of the Union Ministry of Defence.

2. Statement 2:
The statement is correct. iDEX aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace sectors.

3. Statement 3:
The statement is correct. iDEX will be funded and managed by a Defence Innovation Organization.
Therefore, all three statements are correct. The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) is a significant initiative aimed at promoting innovation and self-reliance in the Defence and Aerospace sectors.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Caribbean region, where Panama is situated, is experiencing sea level rise at an average rate of 3 to 4 millimetres per year.
Statement-II:
Since 1880, global sea levels have risen by approximately 21–24 centimeters. The rate of increase has accelerated in recent decades.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'OPTIONB'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Kaur answered
Understanding the Statements
Both statements pertain to the phenomenon of sea level rise, a critical issue facing coastal regions worldwide, including the Caribbean.
Statement-I Analysis
- The statement indicates that the Caribbean region, where Panama is located, is experiencing a sea level rise of 3 to 4 millimeters per year.
- This rate is consistent with scientific assessments indicating that various regions are experiencing localized rates of sea level rise, influenced by factors such as ocean currents and land subsidence.
Statement-II Analysis
- This statement notes that global sea levels have risen by approximately 21–24 centimeters since 1880, with an acceleration in the rate of increase in recent decades.
- Numerous studies support this assertion, indicating that global sea levels are indeed rising more rapidly now due to climate change, melting ice caps, and thermal expansion of seawater.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct. Statement-I provides a specific regional perspective, while Statement-II offers a broader global context.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I; it merely provides a backdrop for understanding the trends in sea level rise.
Thus, the correct choice is:
Option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements regarding Atomic Clock:
1. It is a device that measures time using the vibrations of atoms.
2. It is the most accurate time-keeping device available and used in many applications that require very precise timing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Researchers have built a portable optical atomic clock that can be used onboard ships. 
About Atomic Clock:
  • An atomic clock is a device that measures time using the vibrations of atoms.
  • Specifically, it uses the oscillations of the electrons in atoms to keep time.
  • It is the most accurate time-keeping device available, with a margin of error of just a few billionths of a second per day.
  • Atomic clocks are far more precise than conventional clocks because atomic oscillations have a much higher frequency and are much more stable.
  • They are used in many applications that require very precise timing, such as GPS systems, telecommunications networks, and scientific research.
  • How does an atomic clock work?
  • Atomic clocks work by using a type of atom called a "cesium atom".
  • Cesium atoms are very stable and have a very specific frequency at which their electrons vibrate.
  • This frequency is used as the basis for the atomic clock's timekeeping.
  • To measure time using cesium atoms, an atomic clock uses a device called a "microwave cavity".
  • The microwave cavity is a chamber that is filled with cesium vapor.
  • A microwave signal is then sent into the cavity, which causes the cesium atoms to vibrate.
  • As the cesium atoms vibrate, they emit radiation at a very specific frequency.
  • This frequency is then detected by a detector, which compares it to a standard frequency.
  • The difference between the two frequencies is used to adjust the clock's timekeeping.
  • Types of atomic clocks: There are two types of atomic clocks: cesium atomic clocks and hydrogen maser atomic clocks.
  • Cesium atomic clocks are the most common and are used to define the international standard for time, called Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
  • Hydrogen maser atomic clocks are even more accurate than cesium atomic clocks and are used in scientific research.
Hence both statements are correct.

What was the role of ICMR in the development of the Covaxin vaccine?
  • a)
    ICMR provided funding for the entire project
  • b)
    ICMR solely developed the vaccine
  • c)
    ICMR collaborated with BBIL on the vaccine's development
  • d)
    ICMR only conducted clinical trials for the vaccine
Correct answer is option '
OPTIONC
'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Chauhan answered
Role of ICMR in Covaxin Development
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) played a significant role in the development of the Covaxin vaccine, which was one of the first vaccines approved for emergency use in India during the COVID-19 pandemic.
Collaboration with Bharat Biotech
- ICMR collaborated with Bharat Biotech International Limited (BBIL) in the development of Covaxin.
- This partnership involved sharing resources, expertise, and infrastructure to expedite the vaccine's research and development process.
Research and Development Support
- ICMR provided crucial research support, which included guidance on the scientific and regulatory aspects of vaccine development.
- The collaboration facilitated the rapid progression of the vaccine from preclinical studies to clinical trials.
Clinical Trials Oversight
- ICMR was instrumental in overseeing the clinical trials for Covaxin, ensuring that the trials adhered to ethical standards and regulatory requirements.
- They played a pivotal role in recruiting participants and monitoring the safety and efficacy of the vaccine during the trials.
Regulatory Facilitation
- Through its collaboration with BBIL, ICMR helped streamline the regulatory process, aiding in faster approvals for the vaccine's trials and subsequent use.
- This collaboration was essential for addressing the urgent public health need during the pandemic.
In summary, the ICMR's collaboration with Bharat Biotech, rather than solely funding or developing the vaccine, was crucial in bringing Covaxin to the public. This partnership exemplified how collective efforts in research and health can lead to significant advancements in vaccine development during a health crisis.

Consider the following statements with reference to Coral:
1. It lives in symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.
2. High solar irradiance leads to the bleaching in shallow water corals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Coral and Its Relationship with Zooxanthellae
Corals are fascinating marine organisms that play a crucial role in marine ecosystems, particularly in coral reefs. Two important statements about corals are:
  • Symbiotic Relationship: Corals live in a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae known as zooxanthellae. These algae reside within the coral's tissues and perform photosynthesis, producing nutrients that the coral uses for growth and energy. In return, the coral provides the algae with a protected environment and access to sunlight. This relationship is vital for the health of coral reefs.
  • Impact of High Solar Irradiance: High solar irradiance, or intense sunlight, can lead to coral bleaching, particularly in shallow water corals. When corals are stressed by factors such as elevated temperatures or excessive light, they expel the zooxanthellae, leading to a loss of color and the vital nutrients they provide. Bleached corals are more susceptible to disease and can die if the stress persists.

Conclusion
Both statements regarding corals are accurate, establishing the correctness of option 'C'—both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Understanding these relationships and the impacts of environmental changes is essential for coral conservation and the protection of marine biodiversity.

Consider the following:
1. Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Sundarban Delta
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
The saltwater crocodile can be found in which of the above locations?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Puja Iyer answered
Saltwater Crocodile Habitat
The saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus) is known for its adaptability to various coastal environments. It is found in several regions, including:
Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary
- Located in Odisha, India.
- Known for its rich mangrove ecosystem.
- Provides a suitable habitat for the saltwater crocodile, which thrives in brackish waters.
Sundarban Delta
- The largest delta in the world, located in West Bengal and Bangladesh.
- Characterized by extensive mangrove forests and a complex network of waterways.
- Home to a significant population of saltwater crocodiles, making it an essential habitat for their survival.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- An archipelago in the Bay of Bengal, belonging to India.
- Offers a diverse range of habitats, including coastal areas, mangroves, and estuaries.
- The saltwater crocodile is present here, utilizing the islands' unique ecosystems.
Conclusion
The saltwater crocodile can indeed be found in all three locations mentioned: Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, Sundarban Delta, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Each of these habitats provides the necessary conditions for the crocodiles to thrive, such as access to brackish water and abundant food sources. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' – 1, 2, and 3.

With reference to the subduction zone, consider the following statements:
1. It is a spot where two of the planet's tectonic plates collide and one dives beneath the other.
2. It occurs only when a continental lithosphere and an oceanic lithosphere collide with each other.
3. It comprises the most seismically and volcanically active zones in the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sushant Yadav answered
Understanding Subduction Zones
Subduction zones are critical geological features resulting from the interactions of tectonic plates. Let's evaluate the statements provided:
Statement 1: Collision of Tectonic Plates
- This statement is correct. Subduction zones occur where two tectonic plates collide, and one plate is forced beneath the other, typically leading to the formation of deep ocean trenches.
Statement 2: Types of Lithosphere Collisions
- This statement is partially incorrect. While subduction often occurs between oceanic and continental lithospheres, it can also occur between two oceanic plates or even two continental plates in specific scenarios. Thus, this statement is misleading as it suggests exclusivity to oceanic-continental interactions.
Statement 3: Seismic and Volcanic Activity
- This statement is correct. Subduction zones are indeed among the most seismically and volcanically active regions on Earth due to the intense geological processes occurring as one plate is pushed into the mantle, resulting in earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.
Conclusion
- In summary, out of the three statements:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, only two statements are correct, confirming that the correct answer is option 'B'.

Consider the following statements regarding Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
1. It will be the second home for cheetahs in India, after the Kuno National Park.
2. The Betwa river cuts the sanctuary into two almost equal halves.
3. It has a savanna ecosystem comprising open grasslands interspersed with dry deciduous trees and shrubs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only One
  • b)
    Only Two
  • c)
    All Three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
  • The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary will be the second home for cheetahs in India, after the Kuno National Park. It has completed its preparations for the reintroduction of the cheetahs from Africa. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Chambal river cuts the sanctuary into two almost equal halves. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • It has a savanna ecosystem comprising open grasslands interspersed with dry deciduous trees and shrubs. The riverine valleys, however, are evergreen. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the superhydrophobic activated carbon catalyst:
1. It is highly affordable catalyst and derived from biomass.
2. It can be reused multiple times which makes the catalytic process more efficient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
A team of scientists from Assam, Odisha, China, and the United Kingdom have developed a water-repellent catalyst that can cut the cost of producing “environmentally benign” biodiesel substantially from the current levels.
  • The new catalyst named as “spherical superhydrophobic activated carbon catalyst” which is developed to withstand water by-product during the production of biodiesel. 
  • This catalyst imitates the anti-wetting or water-repulsing properties of natural surfaces such as lotus leaves.
  • Advantages
  • The catalyst is derived from biomass (cellulose), is ecologically benign, abundant, and highly affordable.
  • This breakthrough has the potential to significantly reduce the cost of biodiesel production, making sustainable energy more accessible.
  • It is highly effective and can be reused multiple times, making the catalytic process more efficient and cost-effective.
  • At present, the cost of biodiesel in India is about ₹100 or UD$1.2 per litre. Using the superhydrophobic activated carbon catalyst can bring down the cost to about 37 cents per litre. 
  • Biodiesel: It is a renewablebiodegradable fuel manufactured domestically from vegetable oils, animal fats, or recycled restaurant grease. 
What is activated carbon?
  • It is a class of amorphous carbonaceous material with large porosity and internal surface area.
  • Coconut shells, coal, and wood are the basic sources of activated carbon.
Hence both statements are correct.

The Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following States? 
  • a)
    Rajasthan
  • b)
    Uttarakhand 
  • c)
    Madhya Pradesh 
  • d)
    Chhattisgarh 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

About Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary:
  • Location: It is a protected area located in the state of Uttarakhand, India.
  • It is situated in the Kumaon region of the Himalayas, approximately 33 kilometres north of the Almora district, Uttarakhand.
  • The sanctuary covers an area of around 47 square kilometres. 
  • History:
  • Binsar was the erstwhile summer capital of the Chand Dynasty rulers, who ruled Kumaon from the 7th to 18th century AD. situated at the height of 2,420 m.
  • According to the local people Binsar was named after the Bineshwar Mahadev temple (A 16th century temple) dedicated to Lord Shiva. 
  • It is known for its rich biodiversity and stunning panoramic views of the Himalayan peaks such as Chaukhamba, Nanda Devi, Nanda Kot, Panchachuli and Kedarnath.
  • Flora: 
  • The sanctuary is covered by oak and rhododendron forests at higher altitudes and by chir pine forests at a lower height.
  • It has 25 types of trees, 24 types of bushes and seven varieties of grasses. 
  • Fauna:
  • It is host to more than 200 species of native and migratory birds and endangered species like Indian red fox, jackals, pine martens and porcupines. 
  • It also houses leopards, ghorals, wild boars, kakars, monkeys and Himalayan black bears and several species of birds including the Himalayan monal, koklass pheasant and Himalayan griffon.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following:
1. Minamata Convention 
2. Stockholm Convention 
3. Geneva convention
How many of the above are financed under the Global Environment Facility?
  • a)
    One only
  • b)
    Two only
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nishanth Goyal answered
Stockholm Convention and Minamata Convention
- Both the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and the Minamata Convention on Mercury are financed under the Global Environment Facility.
- The Stockholm Convention aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of POPs, which are chemicals that persist in the environment, bioaccumulate in living organisms, and pose a risk to human health and the environment.
- The Minamata Convention focuses on reducing mercury emissions and releases to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury.

Geneva Convention
- The Geneva Conventions are a set of international treaties that govern the conduct of armed conflict and seek to protect civilians, prisoners of war, and wounded combatants.
- The Geneva Conventions are not financed under the Global Environment Facility.

Conclusion
- In summary, the Stockholm Convention and the Minamata Convention are the two conventions that are financed under the Global Environment Facility, while the Geneva Convention is not.

Consider the following statements with reference to the eMigrate Portal:
1. It was launched in 2014 to make the emigration process online and transparent.
2. It has a feature of voluntary registration of emigrants holding ECNR (Emigration Check Not Required) category passports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nishanth Goyal answered
Explanation:

1. eMigrate Portal launched in 2014
The statement is correct. The eMigrate Portal was indeed launched in 2014 with the objective of making the emigration process online and transparent. This portal has been instrumental in streamlining the emigration process for Indian workers going abroad for employment.

2. Feature of voluntary registration for emigrants holding ECNR passports
This statement is also correct. The eMigrate Portal provides a feature for the voluntary registration of emigrants holding ECNR (Emigration Check Not Required) category passports. This registration process helps in maintaining a database of emigrants and ensures better monitoring and protection of their rights while working overseas.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and option (c) "Both 1 and 2" is the correct answer. The eMigrate Portal has significantly improved the emigration process by leveraging technology to enhance transparency and efficiency.

With reference to Lok Adalat, consider the following statements:
1. It has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. 
2. It can make awards/decisions which are deemed to be a decree of a civil court and are final and binding on all the parties concerned. 
3. It possesses jurisdiction over a diverse array of cases, including civil disputes, criminal cases (compoundable offences) and family matters.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statutory Status of Lok Adalat
- Statement 1 is correct. Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Decisions of Lok Adalat
- Statement 2 is correct. Lok Adalat can make awards/decisions which are deemed to be a decree of a civil court and are final and binding on all the parties concerned.
Jurisdiction of Lok Adalat
- Statement 3 is correct. Lok Adalat possesses jurisdiction over a diverse array of cases, including civil disputes, criminal cases (compoundable offences) and family matters.
Therefore, all three statements given above are correct. Lok Adalat plays a crucial role in providing an alternative dispute resolution mechanism and promoting speedy justice delivery in India.

Consider the following statements with reference to leap second:
1. It is used as a measure to combat the long-term slowdown in the Earth’s rotation.
2. The World Meteorological Organization makes decisions on whether to add or subtract a leap second from universal time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
A recent study highlighted that due to factors like climate change and geological shifts, Earth's changing rotation may prompt clocks to skip a second, potentially necessitating a "negative leap second" around 2029.
  • It is used as a measure to combat the long-term slowdown in the Earth’s rotation which is caused by the constant melting and refreezing of ice caps.
  • It is added every now and then to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize a clock worldwide with the Earth’s ever slowing rotation.
  • The system of leap seconds was introduced in the early 1970s. So far, there have been 27 positive leap seconds have been added.
  • UTC consists of a time scale that combines the output of more than 300 highly precise Atomic clocks worldwide. Atomic clocks are very accurate and are stable within 1 second over a period of millions of years.
  • On the other hand, the Astronomical Time known as Universal Time (UT1) refers to the Earth's rotation around its own axis and determines the length of a day.
  • Reason for addition: The Earth's rotation around its own axis is not regular, as sometimes it speeds up and sometimes it slows down, due to various factors including the moon’s gravitational Earth-braking forces that often results in ocean tides.
  • As a result, Astronomical Time (UT1) gradually falls out of synch with Atomic time (UTC), and as and when the difference between UTC and UT1 approaches 0.9 seconds, a “Leap Second” is added to UTC through Atomic clocks worldwide.
  • A leap second is normally inserted either on June 30 or December 31.
What is Negative Leap second?
  • It is a second that is subtracted from our clocks to keep them in sync with the Earth's rotation.
  • Till date, no negative leap second has been introduced because, in the last few decades the Earth's rotation has generally been a bit slow.
  • The International Earth Rotation and Reference Systems Service (IERS) monitors the Earth's rotation and takes decisions on when to add or subtract a leap second.
  • Since Earth is spinning faster than usual recently so timekeepers had thought of using negative leap seconds for the first time.
  • In other words, they thought of subtracting leap seconds from our clocks to synchronise them with Earth's rotation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Report 2024:
1. It reviews progress made each year on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by 193 UN Member States.
2. It has been released by the United Nations Environment Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikhil Kapoor answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
The statement is correct. The Sustainable Development Report reviews the progress made each year on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by 193 UN Member States. The report tracks the performance of countries towards achieving the SDGs.

Statement 2:
The statement is incorrect. The Sustainable Development Report is not released by the United Nations Environment Programme. It is published by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung. The SDSN was set up by the United Nations to mobilize global scientific and technological expertise to promote practical solutions for sustainable development.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' as only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to critical minerals:
1. It is a metallic or non-metallic element that is essential for the functioning of modern technologies.
2. Cobalt, Copper and Gallium are examples of critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Basu answered
Explanation:

1. Definition of Critical Minerals:
- Critical minerals are metallic or non-metallic elements that are essential for the functioning of modern technologies.
- They are crucial for various industries including defense, energy, electronics, and manufacturing.

2. Examples of Critical Minerals:
- Cobalt, copper, and gallium are examples of critical minerals.
- Cobalt is used in rechargeable batteries, copper is essential for electrical wiring, and gallium is used in semiconductors.
Thus, both statements are correct as critical minerals are indeed essential for modern technologies, and the examples provided (cobalt, copper, gallium) are considered critical minerals.

With reference to Vechur cow, consider the following statements:
1. It is a rare dwarf cattle breed of India.
2. It is mainly found in the State of Maharashtra.
3. It is a disease-resistant cow breed and easy to maintain with low food requirements.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sonal Gupta answered
Incorrect Statements:

Statement 2:
The statement that Vechur cow is mainly found in the State of Maharashtra is incorrect. Vechur cow is actually a rare dwarf cattle breed of India that is primarily found in the state of Kerala.

Statement 3:
The statement that Vechur cow is a disease-resistant cow breed and easy to maintain with low food requirements is also incorrect. Vechur cows are known to be disease-resistant, but they are not necessarily easy to maintain with low food requirements. In fact, they require specific care and attention to thrive.

Correct Statement:

Statement 1:
The statement that Vechur cow is a rare dwarf cattle breed of India is correct. Vechur cow is one of the smallest cattle breeds in the world, and it is known for its small size and unique characteristics.

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