All questions of June 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following pairs:
1. Benefit - Proportional Representation System
2. Ensures fair representation based on vote share - Party list PR system
3. Allows voters to rank candidates - Single Transferable Vote (STV)
4. Combines FPTP and PR systems - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)
5. Leads to greater stability in the executive branch - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Desai answered
Overview of the Pairs
The pairs presented relate to different electoral systems and their characteristics. Let's analyze each pairing to determine their correctness.
1. Benefit - Proportional Representation System
- This pairing is vague; while proportional representation (PR) has various benefits, it does not explicitly clarify which benefit is being referred to. Thus, it is not a strong match.
2. Ensures fair representation based on vote share - Party list PR system
- This pairing is correct. The party list proportional representation system allocates seats based on the percentage of votes each party receives, ensuring fair representation according to vote share.
3. Allows voters to rank candidates - Single Transferable Vote (STV)
- This pairing is also correct. The STV system allows voters to rank candidates in order of preference, enabling a more nuanced expression of voter choice.
4. Combines FPTP and PR systems - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)
- This pairing is correct. The MMPR system incorporates elements of First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) and proportional representation, allowing for both local and proportional representation in the legislature.
5. Leads to greater stability in the executive branch - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)
- This statement is misleading. While MMPR can lead to a more proportional representation, it does not inherently guarantee greater stability in the executive branch compared to other systems.
Conclusion
- In summary, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making the total of correct pairs three.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.

Which Act constitutionalized the Panchayats in India and mandated all states to set up three-tier Panchayats?
  • a)
    74th Constitutional Amendment Act
  • b)
    Lord Ripon's Resolution of 1882
  • c)
    Government of India Act, 1919
  • d)
    73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, constitutionalized the Panchayats in India, making it mandatory for all states to establish three-tier Panchayats, consisting of Zilla Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Gram Panchayat at the village level.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Agniveer: Permanent commissioned officer
2. Disability Compensation: Up to Rs 44 lakh
3. Pension for Agniveers: Provided after 4-year service
4. Age limit for Agniveer recruitment: 17.5 to 23 years
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anushka Patel answered
Understanding the Pairs
To determine how many of the given pairs are correctly matched, let’s analyze each one in detail:
1. Agniveer: Permanent commissioned officer
- This pair is incorrect. Agniveers are not permanent commissioned officers; they serve a short-term contract in the Indian Armed Forces.
2. Disability Compensation: Up to Rs 44 lakh
- This pair is correct. The disability compensation for Agniveers can indeed go up to Rs 44 lakh, depending on the severity of the disability.
3. Pension for Agniveers: Provided after 4-year service
- This pair is incorrect. Agniveers do not receive a pension after 4 years of service. Instead, they are eligible for a one-time service fund and other benefits upon completion of their term.
4. Age limit for Agniveer recruitment: 17.5 to 23 years
- This pair is correct. The age limit for Agniveer recruitment is indeed set between 17.5 to 23 years.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct pairs: 2 and 4
- Incorrect pairs: 1 and 3
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched. The correct answer is option 'B'.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act 2023 enables private sector participation in the mining and exploration of certain minerals previously categorized as atomic minerals.
Statement-II:
Under the Amendment Act, the central government conducts auctions for composite licenses and mining leases for specific important and strategic minerals including lithium, cobalt, and nickel.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankit Roy answered
Explanation:
Statement-I:
- The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act 2023 does indeed enable private sector participation in the mining and exploration of certain minerals previously categorized as atomic minerals.
- This amendment opens up opportunities for private companies to engage in the exploration and mining of minerals like lithium, cobalt, and nickel, which are crucial for various industries including the electric vehicle sector.
Statement-II:
- Under the Amendment Act, the central government conducts auctions for composite licenses and mining leases for specific important and strategic minerals such as lithium, cobalt, and nickel.
- Through these auctions, interested private companies can bid for the rights to explore and mine these minerals, thereby promoting competition and efficiency in the sector.

Conclusion:
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II provides additional details about the specific minerals for which auctions are conducted under the amendment act. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B'.

Consider the following statements:
1. There are 23,772 women in Indian prisons, with 77% of them in the reproductive age group (18-50 years).
2. The 2016 Model Prison Manual recommends providing sterilized sanitary pads as needed.
3. The National Menstrual Hygiene Policy introduced in 2023 provides a specific action plan for improving menstrual hygiene management in prisons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Correct Answer: b) 1 and 2 Only

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- There are 23,772 women in Indian prisons, with 77% of them in the reproductive age group (18-50 years). This statement is correct as it provides statistical information about the number of women in Indian prisons and their age distribution.

Statement 2:
- The 2016 Model Prison Manual recommends providing sterilized sanitary pads as needed. This statement is correct as the Model Prison Manual does indeed recommend providing sanitary pads to female inmates to ensure proper menstrual hygiene management.

Statement 3:
- The National Menstrual Hygiene Policy introduced in 2023 provides a specific action plan for improving menstrual hygiene management in prisons. This statement is incorrect as there is no information given about the introduction of a National Menstrual Hygiene Policy in 2023.

According to the report, what is expected to be the global GDP growth for FY26 and FY27?
  • a)
    1.6%
  • b)
    2.7%
  • c)
    3.8%
  • d)
    4.9%
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Saumya Bose answered
Global GDP Growth Expectations for FY26 and FY27
Global GDP growth is expected to be 2.7% for FY26 and FY27 according to the report. This forecast is crucial for understanding the economic outlook on a global scale.

Factors influencing Global GDP Growth
- Economic indicators: Various economic indicators such as inflation rates, employment levels, and consumer spending play a significant role in determining global GDP growth.
- International trade: The volume of international trade and trade agreements between countries can impact the global GDP growth rate.
- Government policies: Fiscal and monetary policies implemented by governments can either stimulate or hinder economic growth.
- Technological advancements: Innovations and technological advancements can boost productivity levels and contribute to overall GDP growth.

Importance of Global GDP Growth Forecast
- Policy-making: Governments and international organizations use GDP growth forecasts to make informed decisions on policies related to trade, investment, and employment.
- Business planning: Corporations rely on GDP growth forecasts to make strategic business decisions regarding expansion, hiring, and investment.
- Investor confidence: Investors use GDP growth forecasts to assess the economic stability of countries and make investment decisions accordingly.

Conclusion
In conclusion, the projected global GDP growth of 2.7% for FY26 and FY27 indicates a moderate level of economic expansion. It is essential for policymakers, businesses, and investors to consider these forecasts when planning for the future.

Consider the following pairs:
1. World Environment Day - June 5
2. First World Environment Day Theme - Only One Earth
3. UNEP Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland
4. 2024 Theme of World Environment Day - Land restoration, desertification, and drought resilience
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. World Environment Day - June 5: Correct. World Environment Day is celebrated annually on June 5.
2. First World Environment Day Theme - Only One Earth: Correct. The theme for the first World Environment Day in 1973 was "Only One Earth."
3. UNEP Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland: Incorrect. The headquarters of UNEP is in Nairobi, Kenya.
4. 2024 Theme of World Environment Day - Land restoration, desertification, and drought resilience: Correct. The theme for World Environment Day 2024 is "Land restoration, desertification, and drought resilience."

Consider the following statements regarding the role of nuclear technology in food safety:
1. The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) test is a molecular nuclear technique used to rapidly detect animal diseases.
2. Food irradiation involves exposing food to ionising radiation to eliminate harmful bacteria, pathogens, and pests.
3. Stable isotope analysis, a nuclear technique, is used to measure the health of soils and rate of soil erosion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Nuclear Technology in Food Safety
The question evaluates the role of nuclear technology in enhancing food safety through three statements. Let's explore each statement for accuracy.
Statement 1: PCR Test
- The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) test is indeed a molecular technique widely used in laboratories.
- It is primarily utilized for amplifying DNA, helping to detect the presence of pathogens and animal diseases quickly.
- Therefore, this statement is correct.
Statement 2: Food Irradiation
- Food irradiation is a well-established method that involves exposing food to ionizing radiation.
- This process effectively eliminates harmful bacteria, pathogens, and pests, thereby enhancing food safety and shelf life.
- This statement is also correct.
Statement 3: Stable Isotope Analysis
- Stable isotope analysis is a nuclear technique, but its primary use is not directly related to measuring soil health or erosion rates.
- Instead, it is more commonly used in studies related to food authenticity, environmental science, and climate studies.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect in the context provided.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct Statements: 1 and 2
- Incorrect Statement: 3
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B' (1 and 2 only). This answer highlights the correct application of nuclear technology in food safety, while clarifying the misapprehension surrounding stable isotope analysis in this context.

What key challenge is highlighted in the report concerning the global economy due to higher interest rates and weaker risk appetite?
  • a)
    Increased consumer spending
  • b)
    Job creation
  • c)
    Stock market volatility
  • d)
    Inflation control
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Ahuja answered
Stock market volatility:
One key challenge highlighted in the report concerning the global economy due to higher interest rates and weaker risk appetite is stock market volatility.
  • Impact on investor confidence: Higher interest rates and weaker risk appetite can lead to increased volatility in the stock market, causing uncertainty and reduced investor confidence. This can result in fluctuations in stock prices and a lack of stability in the market.
  • Reduced investment: Investors may become more cautious and hesitant to invest in the stock market due to the increased risk and uncertainty. This can lead to reduced capital inflows and slower economic growth, as investment plays a crucial role in driving economic activity.
  • Global economic impact: Stock market volatility can have ripple effects across the global economy, as interconnected financial markets can transmit shocks and uncertainties. This can impact trade, investment, and overall economic stability on a global scale.
  • Policy challenges: Central banks and policymakers may face challenges in responding to stock market volatility caused by higher interest rates and weaker risk appetite. They may need to implement measures to stabilize the market and restore investor confidence, which can be a complex and delicate task.


In conclusion, stock market volatility is a key challenge that can arise in the global economy due to higher interest rates and weaker risk appetite. It is essential for policymakers and investors to closely monitor market conditions and take appropriate measures to mitigate the impact of volatility on economic stability.

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The RBI faces challenges related to cybersecurity threats in the context of digital payment systems.
Statement II: The internationalization of the Indian Rupee may lead to increased demand for the currency in global markets, potentially impacting Indian exports.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Shah answered
Analysis of Statements
Both statements address different aspects of the Indian economy and the role of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in managing monetary and financial challenges.
Statement I: Cybersecurity Threats
- The RBI does face significant challenges related to cybersecurity, particularly as digital payment systems gain popularity.
- Increased digital transactions have made the financial system more vulnerable to cyberattacks.
- Ensuring the security of these systems is critical for maintaining public trust and safeguarding financial data.
Statement II: Internationalization of the Indian Rupee
- The internationalization of the Indian Rupee refers to efforts to promote its use in global transactions.
- This could lead to greater demand for the currency in international markets.
- An increase in demand for the Rupee can potentially enhance the competitiveness of Indian exports, as it could stabilize exchange rates and make exports more attractive.

Conclusion
- Both statements are correct.
- However, Statement II does not explain Statement I, as they pertain to different issues: cybersecurity threats are specific to the operational integrity of payment systems, while internationalization relates to currency demand and trade implications.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Country - Type of Proportional Representation
2. Brazil - Party list PR system
3. USA - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)
4. Argentina - Party list PR system
5. Netherlands - Single Transferable Vote (STV)
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Proportional Representation Systems
In examining the pairs of countries and their types of proportional representation (PR), we must assess the accuracy of each match.

Correctly Matched Pairs
- **Brazil - Party list PR system**:
- This is correct. Brazil employs a party list system for legislative elections where voters choose parties, and seats are distributed proportionally based on the votes received.
- **USA - Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)**:
- This is incorrect. The USA primarily uses a single-member district system for elections. Some states may have variations, but MMPR is not a standard practice in federal elections.
- **Argentina - Party list PR system**:
- This is correct. Argentina also uses a party list system, where proportional representation is achieved through multi-member districts.
- **Netherlands - Single Transferable Vote (STV)**:
- This is incorrect. The Netherlands uses a party list proportional representation system, not STV. Voters select parties, and seats are allocated proportionally.

Conclusion on Correct Matches
Out of the four pairs, only two are accurately matched: Brazil and Argentina. Thus, the correct answer is **option 'B'**, indicating that only two pairs are correctly matched.
Understanding these systems is crucial for grasping how different countries approach electoral representation, which often reflects their political culture and historical context.

Consider the following statements about the rituals of the Koothandavar festival:
1. Transwomen congregate to wed on the 17th day of the ceremony.
2. The festival includes rituals of widowhood marking Aravan's death.
3. The sacrificial ritual of Lord Aravan occurs on the final day of the festival.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Bose answered
Explanation:

Transwomen Weddings on the 17th Day:
- The statement about transwomen congregating to wed on the 17th day of the Koothandavar festival is true.
- During this festival, transwomen participate in symbolic weddings to Lord Aravan, a patron god of transgender individuals.

Rituals of Widowhood:
- The festival indeed includes rituals of widowhood to mark Aravan's death.
- This aspect of the festival commemorates the sacrifice made by Aravan in the Mahabharata war, where he agreed to be sacrificed to ensure the victory of the Pandavas.

Sacrificial Ritual on the Final Day:
- The sacrificial ritual of Lord Aravan does not occur on the final day of the festival.
- The main sacrificial ritual, known as 'Aravan Koothu,' takes place on the penultimate day of the festival, where Aravan is symbolically beheaded as a sacrifice.

Conclusion:
- Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is inaccurate.
- The correct answer is option 'B,' which states that only statements 1 and 2 are true regarding the rituals of the Koothandavar festival.

What theory proposes that the universe originated from a singular point and expanded to its current size over time?
  • a)
    The Big Bang Theory
  • b)
    The Theory of Evolution
  • c)
    The Nebular Hypothesis
  • d)
    The Theory of Relativity
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The Big Bang Theory, proposed by Edwin Hubble in 1920, suggests that the universe began as a single point and then expanded and stretched to grow to its current size. This theory has been supported by various astronomical observations and is a fundamental concept in the field of cosmology, explaining the origin and evolution of the universe.

What consequence is associated with the rise in global temperatures in relation to sea levels?
  • a)
    Sea levels are decreasing.
  • b)
    Sea levels are stabilizing.
  • c)
    Sea levels are rising.
  • d)
    Sea levels are becoming more acidic.
Correct answer is option '
C
'. Can you explain this answer?

Rising global temperatures contribute to the melting of glaciers and ice sheets, leading to an increase in sea levels. This rise in sea levels poses significant challenges, including the inundation of coastal areas, displacement of communities, and disruptions to ecosystems.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the sessions of the Lower House and ensures discipline and decorum among its members.
  2. The Speaker has the power to punish unruly behavior and can disqualify members on grounds of defection under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
  3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha must resign from their political party upon assuming office to ensure complete non-partisanship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Yadav answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
The first statement is correct. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha indeed presides over the sessions of the Lower House and ensures discipline and decorum among its members. This includes regulating debates, maintaining order, and interpreting and enforcing the rules of the House.

Statement 2:
The second statement is also correct. The Speaker has the power to punish unruly behavior and can disqualify members on grounds of defection under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. The Tenth Schedule deals with anti-defection laws and provides the Speaker with the authority to make decisions regarding disqualification of members.

Statement 3:
The third statement is incorrect. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not required to resign from their political party upon assuming office. While the Speaker is expected to maintain impartiality and uphold the dignity of the office, they are not mandated to sever ties with their political party. In fact, the Speaker is usually a senior member of the ruling party or coalition.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B) 1 and 2 Only, as the first two statements are accurate while the third statement is not entirely correct.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) - Located in Seethakonda Reserve Forest
2. IGZP - Surrounded by Western Ghats on three sides
3. IGZP - Recognized by the Central Zoo Authority
4. IGZP - Close proximity to Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Correct: Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) is located in Seethakonda Reserve Forest.
2. Incorrect: IGZP is surrounded by the Eastern Ghats on three sides, not the Western Ghats.
3. Correct: IGZP is recognized by the Central Zoo Authority.
4. Correct: IGZP is in close proximity to Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: NTDs receive significantly less funding for research and development of treatments compared to diseases like HIV/AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis.
Statement-II: The epidemiology of NTDs is simple and straightforward, making them easier to control than other major diseases.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Statements
Statement-I highlights the disparity in funding for neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) when compared to more prominent diseases like HIV/AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis. This is a well-documented issue, as NTDs often struggle to attract sufficient financial support for research and development.
Statement-II claims that the epidemiology of NTDs is simple and straightforward, suggesting that this simplicity makes them easier to control. However, this assertion is misleading. The epidemiology of NTDs can be complex, involving various vectors, environmental factors, and socioeconomic determinants that complicate their management and control.
Analysis of Statement-I
- NTDs, which include diseases such as schistosomiasis and lymphatic filariasis, typically receive far less investment.
- Funding is often concentrated on diseases that have a higher visibility and urgency, like HIV/AIDS and malaria.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The complexity of NTDs arises from numerous factors:
- Diverse transmission routes
- Variability in affected populations
- Challenges in healthcare infrastructure
- These factors complicate control efforts, making the statement about their epidemiology being simple inaccurate.
Conclusion
Given the analysis:
- Statement-I is correct; NTDs indeed receive significantly less funding.
- Statement-II is incorrect; the epidemiology of NTDs is complex, not straightforward.
Thus, the correct option is that Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. The answer should be option 'c', not 'a'.

Consider the following pairs about the construction and oversight of Maitri Setu:
1. The bridge is 1.9 kilometers long.
2. Maitri Setu acts as a boundary between India and Myanmar.
3. NHIDCL is a nodal agency of the Ministry of External Affairs.
4. The bridge's construction was aimed to strengthen bilateral relations between India and Bangladesh.
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Bose answered
Pair Explanation:
1. The bridge is 1.9 kilometers long: This statement is correct as Maitri Setu is indeed a 1.9-kilometer-long bridge that connects India with Bangladesh, specifically between Sabroom in India and Ramgarh in Bangladesh.

2. Maitri Setu acts as a boundary between India and Myanmar: This statement is incorrect as Maitri Setu serves as a crucial link between India and Bangladesh, not India and Myanmar.

3. NHIDCL is a nodal agency of the Ministry of External Affairs: This statement is incorrect as the National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL) is actually a nodal agency of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, responsible for the development of highways and infrastructure in India.

4. The bridge's construction was aimed to strengthen bilateral relations between India and Bangladesh: This statement is correct as the construction of Maitri Setu was indeed aimed at enhancing connectivity and fostering stronger ties between India and Bangladesh by facilitating smoother trade and travel between the two countries.
Therefore, out of the four pairs provided, only the first pair is accurate, making the correct answer option A - Only one pair.

Consider the following statements about rangelands:
1. Rangelands cover about 47% of the Earth's surface.
2. Rangelands are characterized by high and consistent precipitation.
3. Rangelands provide habitats for wildlife and support various ecosystem services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


1. Rangelands cover about 47% of the Earth's surface. This statement is correct.
2. Rangelands are often characterized by low and erratic precipitation, not high and consistent precipitation. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
3. Rangelands indeed provide habitats for wildlife and support various ecosystem services such as grazing, watershed health, and recreational opportunities, making Statement 3 correct.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C.

Consider the following statements:
1. The availability of sanitary napkins in Indian prisons is consistent across all facilities.
2. Most Indian prisons do not offer menstrual products like tampons or menstrual cups.
3. Overcrowding and poor socio-economic conditions hinder access to basic necessities like water, detergent, and soap in prisons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Availability of Menstrual Products in Indian Prisons:
- Statement 1 is incorrect as the availability of sanitary napkins in Indian prisons is not consistent across all facilities.
- Statement 2 is correct as most Indian prisons do not offer menstrual products like tampons or menstrual cups to female inmates.
- This lack of access to a variety of menstrual products can impact the hygiene and comfort of women during their menstrual cycles.

Challenges in Indian Prisons:
- Statement 3 is correct as overcrowding and poor socio-economic conditions in Indian prisons hinder access to basic necessities like water, detergent, and soap.
- The lack of adequate resources in prisons can lead to unhygienic conditions, affecting the health and well-being of inmates.
- Addressing these challenges is crucial to ensure that prisoners have access to essential items for maintaining personal hygiene and overall health.
Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3.

Consider the following statements regarding the Greater Adjutant Stork:
1. The Greater Adjutant is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
2. The Greater Adjutant has three known breeding grounds, all of which are located in India.
3. The stork is considered a religious icon and is associated with Vishnu in Hindu mythology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered

Statement 1 is correct. The Greater Adjutant is indeed listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Greater Adjutant has three known breeding grounds, only two are in India (Assam and Bihar), and one is in Cambodia.
Statement 3 is correct. The stork is considered a religious icon and is associated with Vishnu in Hindu mythology, often referred to as 'Garuda Maharaj' or 'Guru Garuda.'
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding Food Irradiation:
1. Food irradiation can help in preventing the spoilage of food by killing germs and stopping pests.
2. India's hot and humid climate contributes significantly to the spoilage of food due to insect infestation and microbial contamination.
3. Post-harvest losses in India are less than 20% due to effective food preservation techniques.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Mehta answered
Food Irradiation in Preventing Food Spoilage
- Food irradiation involves exposing food to a controlled amount of ionizing radiation to kill germs and pests, thereby preventing spoilage.
- This process can significantly extend the shelf life of food products by reducing the microbial load and insect infestation.

Impact of Indias Climate on Food Spoilage
- Indias hot and humid climate creates favorable conditions for the growth of microbes and pests, leading to rapid food spoilage.
- The high temperature and humidity contribute to insect infestation and microbial contamination, increasing the need for effective food preservation methods.

Post-Harvest Losses in India
- Post-harvest losses in India are estimated to be around 30-40%, with a significant portion attributed to inadequate storage and preservation techniques.
- Despite various efforts to improve food preservation, including food irradiation, post-harvest losses in India remain a challenge, especially in perishable food items.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct as food irradiation can help prevent spoilage due to germs and pests, which are particularly prevalent in Indias climate conditions. Statement 3 is incorrect as post-harvest losses in India are higher than 20% due to various factors, including ineffective food preservation techniques. Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Model Prison Manual 2016 recommends providing hot water to women prisoners to manage menstruation.
2. The Suraksha Suvidha Napkins are available at Jan Aushadhi Kendras for Rs 1 each.
3. The Menstrual Hygiene Scheme provides subsidized sanitary napkin packs to adolescent girls through decentralized procurement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1, 2 and 3
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Model Prison Manual 2016 does not recommend providing hot water to women prisoners to manage menstruation.
Statement 2 is correct. The Suraksha Suvidha Napkins are available at Jan Aushadhi Kendras for Rs 1 each.
Statement 3 is correct. The Menstrual Hygiene Scheme provides subsidized sanitary napkin packs to adolescent girls through decentralized procurement.

Consider the following statements:
1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is a credit-linked subsidy scheme aimed at providing affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents.
2. The PMAY-U component specifically targets the rural poor by providing pucca houses with basic amenities.
3. Financial assistance of Rs. 1.2 lakh is provided under PMAY-G for houses in plain areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is indeed a credit-linked subsidy scheme aimed at providing affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents across the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The PMAY-U (Urban) component targets the urban poor, not the rural poor. The rural poor are targeted under PMAY-G (Gramin).
Statement 3 is correct. Under the PMAY-G scheme, financial assistance of Rs. 1.2 lakh is provided for houses in plain areas, and Rs. 1.3 lakh in hilly, difficult, and Integrated Action Plan (IAP) areas.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

What is the primary responsibility of Panchayats in India concerning socio-economic development?
  • a)
    Providing healthcare facilities and promoting agricultural development
  • b)
    Overseeing international trade agreements
  • c)
    Implementing national defense strategies
  • d)
    Regulating urban infrastructure development
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Panchayats in India play a crucial role in providing healthcare facilities and promoting agricultural development as part of their responsibilities for socio-economic development. They oversee initiatives to boost agricultural productivity, support sustainable farming practices, and enhance the economic resilience of rural areas.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The NOTA option on electronic voting machines (EVMs) was introduced by the Election Commission of India in 2013 to protect the secrecy of voters' choices.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of the NOTA option to ensure that whether a voter decides to cast a vote or not, secrecy must be maintained to uphold the integrity of elections.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Das answered
Explanation:
Statement-I and Statement-II both relate to the introduction of the NOTA (None of the Above) option on electronic voting machines (EVMs) in India. Let's analyze each statement:

Statement-I:
- The statement correctly mentions that the NOTA option was indeed introduced by the Election Commission of India in 2013.
- The purpose of introducing NOTA was to give voters the choice to reject all candidates if they found them unsuitable, without revealing their actual choice.
- Therefore, Statement-I is correct in stating the origin of the NOTA option.

Statement-II:
- This statement correctly highlights that the Supreme Court mandated the introduction of the NOTA option.
- The Supreme Court's decision was aimed at upholding the secrecy of voters' choices, whether they choose to cast a vote or not, to maintain the integrity of the electoral process.
- Hence, Statement-II is correct in explaining the reason behind the introduction of NOTA.

Conclusion:
- Both statements are correct, and they complement each other in providing a comprehensive understanding of the introduction of the NOTA option in Indian elections.
- However, Statement-II provides the broader context and rationale behind the Supreme Court's decision to mandate NOTA, making it a more explanatory statement.
- Therefore, the correct answer is that both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
  1. In the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, a member from the panel of Chairmen presides over the House.
  2. The Speaker can allow a 'secret' sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House.
  3. The Speaker's decisions on procedural matters can be challenged in the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
  • Statement 1 is correct: In the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, a member from the panel of Chairmen presides over the House. However, this member cannot preside when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Speaker can indeed allow a 'secret' sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House. During such sittings, no stranger can be present in the chamber, lobby, or galleries except with the permission of the Speaker.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Speaker's decisions on procedural matters within the House are not subject to the jurisdiction of any court, including the Supreme Court of India. This ensures the Speaker's authority in maintaining order and conducting business in the House.

Which government initiative aims to enhance the credibility of Panchayats through inducing greater devolution of funds to them?
  • a)
    Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) Scheme
  • b)
    Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
  • c)
    Panchayat Development Index (PDI)
  • d)
    e-Gram Swaraj e-Financial Management System
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Kumar answered
Overview of e-Gram Swaraj e-Financial Management System
The e-Gram Swaraj e-Financial Management System is a significant government initiative aimed at enhancing the credibility and efficiency of Panchayati Raj institutions in India.
Key Objectives
- Greater Devolution of Funds: The system is designed to ensure that funds allocated to Panchayati Raj institutions are decentralized, promoting local governance.
- Transparency and Accountability: By digitizing financial management, the initiative facilitates greater transparency and accountability in the utilization of funds at the grassroots level.
Features of e-Gram Swaraj
- Digital Platform: It provides a digital platform for Panchayati Raj institutions to manage their financial transactions, budgets, and expenditures effectively.
- Real-time Monitoring: The system allows for real-time monitoring of fund usage, enabling better decision-making and timely interventions if required.
Impact on Panchayati Raj Institutions
- Empowerment of Local Bodies: With enhanced financial management capabilities, Panchayati Raj institutions can better serve their communities and respond to local needs.
- Capacity Building: The initiative contributes to building the capacity of local governance structures, ensuring they are equipped to handle financial matters competently.
Conclusion
In summary, the e-Gram Swaraj e-Financial Management System plays a crucial role in improving the efficiency and credibility of Panchayati Raj institutions through greater devolution of funds, ultimately leading to more effective local governance.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Death on Duty Compensation: Rs 1 crore
2. Technological Integration: Leveraging tech-savvy younger recruits
3. Educational requirement: Minimum 10+2
4. Economic Impact: Reducing pension bill
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Pair 1: Death on Duty Compensation: Rs 1 crore
- Correct. The family of an Agniveer gets a combined sum of Rs 1 crore in case of death on duty.
- Pair 2: Technological Integration: Leveraging tech-savvy younger recruits
- Correct. The scheme aims to leverage the tech-savviness of younger recruits to better integrate emerging technologies into the Armed Forces.
- Pair 3: Educational requirement: Minimum 10+2
- Incorrect. The current educational requirement for Agniveers is 10th grade, not 10+2. There is a suggestion to raise it to 10+2, but it is not implemented yet.
- Pair 4: Economic Impact: Reducing pension bill
- Correct. One of the goals of the Agnipath scheme is to reduce the pension bill by having a shorter service duration for most recruits.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In 2022, approximately 848 million people received treatment for at least one neglected tropical disease through preventive chemotherapy interventions.
Statement-II: In 2022, the number of reported deaths from vector-borne neglected tropical diseases increased by 22% compared to 2016.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Statement-I correctly highlights that in 2022, approximately 848 million people received treatment for at least one neglected tropical disease through preventive chemotherapy interventions, as per the provided information. However, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that in 2022, the number of reported deaths from vector-borne neglected tropical diseases increased by 22% compared to 2016. This claim is not supported by the information provided in the text, making Statement-II incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is that Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Building Code (NBC) is India's central standard for fire safety, providing guidelines for construction, maintenance, and fire safety of buildings.
Statement-II: The Model Building Bye Laws 2016 guide states and urban areas in drafting building bylaws.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I correctly identifies the role of the National Building Code (NBC) in India as a central standard for fire safety, providing detailed guidelines for construction, maintenance, and fire safety of buildings. On the other hand, Statement-II incorrectly associates the Model Building Bye Laws 2016 guide with the drafting of building bylaws in urban areas, which is not directly related to the role of the NBC in setting fire safety standards. Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements about the Periyar River:
Statement-I: The Periyar River is the longest river in Kerala.
Statement-II: The Periyar River rises in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
- Statement-I: The Periyar River being the longest river in Kerala is a factual statement.
- Statement-II: The Periyar River does indeed rise in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu, providing an accurate description of its origin.
- Explanation: Both statements are accurate, and Statement-II provides the geographical context that explains why the Periyar is the longest river in Kerala. Therefore, Option A is the correct choice.

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Zero-Draft of the Pandemic Treaty emphasizes the need to strengthen health systems in low- and middle-income countries to better respond to global health emergencies.
Statement II: The International Health Regulations (IHR) legally bind 196 countries, including India, aiming for international collaboration in responding to the international spread of diseases.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Statement I is correct because the Zero-Draft of the Pandemic Treaty indeed stresses the importance of strengthening health systems in low- and middle-income countries to enhance preparedness for global health emergencies. Statement II is also correct as the International Health Regulations (IHR) are legally binding on 196 countries, including India, and focus on international collaboration to respond to the spread of diseases across borders. Furthermore, Statement II supports Statement I as the collaboration facilitated by IHR can help in implementing the measures outlined in the Zero-Draft of the Pandemic Treaty.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian House Crow:
1. The Indian House Crow is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act in India.
2. The Indian House Crow is native to East Africa and was introduced to India and parts of Asia via shipping activities.
3. The Indian House Crow's introduction to East Africa has led to a decline in indigenous bird populations due to its predatory behavior.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The Indian House Crow is indeed listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act in India.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian House Crow is native to India and parts of Asia and was introduced to East Africa via shipping activities, not the other way around.
- Statement 3 is correct. The introduction of the Indian House Crow to East Africa has led to a decline in indigenous bird populations due to its predatory behavior, including preying on endangered local bird species, destroying nests, and eating eggs and chicks.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Digital Payments: PhonePe, Paytm
2. Alternative Lending: Lending Club, GoFundMe
3. Insurance: Policybazaar, Digit Insurance
4. InvestmentTech: Zerodha, FidPay
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Digital Payments: PhonePe, Paytm - Correct. Both PhonePe and Paytm offer digital payment solutions.
2. Alternative Lending: Lending Club, GoFundMe - Incorrect. Lending Club is a marketplace lending platform, but GoFundMe is a crowdfunding platform, not strictly an alternative lending platform.
3. Insurance: Policybazaar, Digit Insurance - Correct. Both Policybazaar and Digit Insurance offer digital insurance solutions.
4. InvestmentTech: Zerodha, FidPay - Incorrect. Zerodha offers digital investment solutions, but FidPay is a Banking-as-a-Service Platform, not an investment tech platform.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) provides guidelines on fire safety in homes, schools, and hospitals.
Statement-II: The National Building Code (NBC) outlines measures to ensure fire safety, categorizing buildings into nine groups based on occupancy.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Statement-I correctly highlights the role of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in providing fire safety guidelines for various types of buildings. Statement-II accurately describes how the National Building Code (NBC) categorizes buildings based on occupancy for fire safety purposes. Moreover, Statement-II complements Statement-I by illustrating how the NBC's categorization aligns with the NDMA's guidelines. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I effectively.

Consider the following statements:
1. The National Menstrual Hygiene Policy of 2023 identifies prisoners as a target population with compromised access to menstrual hygiene facilities.
2. There is a lack of data on water availability in prisons, complicating efforts to address hygiene needs effectively.
3. The policy includes concrete plans for improving menstrual hygiene management in prisons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    3 Only
  • c)
    1 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Statement 1 is correct. The National Menstrual Hygiene Policy of 2023 does identify prisoners as a target population with compromised access to menstrual hygiene facilities.
Statement 2 is correct. There is a lack of data on water availability in prisons, complicating efforts to address hygiene needs effectively.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The policy does not include concrete plans for improving menstrual hygiene management in prisons.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Longevity India initiative - Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru
2. Insurance penetration in 2021 - 4.2%
3. Bismarck Model - Germany's health insurance system
4. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY - Funded by private insurers
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. Correct. The Longevity India initiative is introduced by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru.
2. Correct. Insurance penetration in India remained at 4.2% in 2021.
3. Correct. The Bismarck Model is Germany's health insurance system, characterized by mandatory participation and funding through employer and employee contributions.
4. Incorrect. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY is funded by the government, not private insurers.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY - Largest health assurance scheme globally
2. Parametric insurance - Based on pre-defined triggers
3. Bismarck Model - Funded solely by employers
4. PMJJBY - Scheme for health insurance
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Correct. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY is the largest health assurance scheme in the world.
2. Correct. Parametric insurance pays out based on pre-defined triggers.
3. Incorrect. The Bismarck Model is funded through contributions from both employers and employees, not solely by employers.
4. Incorrect. PMJJBY is a life insurance scheme, not a health insurance scheme.

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