All questions of July 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog SDG India Index 2023-24:
1. The SDG India Index assesses the performance of states and union territories (UTs) across 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
2. Kerala and Uttarakhand emerged as the best-performing states in the SDG India Index 2023-24.
3. The Index promotes both competitive and cooperative federalism among states and UTs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Bajaj answered
Overview of NITI Aayog SDG India Index 2023-24
The NITI Aayog SDG India Index serves as a critical tool for evaluating the progress of states and union territories (UTs) in achieving the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) established by the United Nations.
Correctness of Statements
- Statement 1: The SDG India Index assesses the performance of states and union territories (UTs) across 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
- This statement is correct. The index indeed measures the progress of different regions based on the SDGs.
- Statement 2: Kerala and Uttarakhand emerged as the best-performing states in the SDG India Index 2023-24.
- This statement is incorrect. While Kerala consistently ranks high, Uttarakhand's specific ranking may vary. It is essential to verify the latest rankings to confirm the best-performing states.
- Statement 3: The Index promotes both competitive and cooperative federalism among states and UTs.
- This statement is correct. The SDG India Index encourages states to compete in achieving SDGs while also fostering collaboration among them to share best practices and resources.
Conclusion
Given the analysis above, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the right answer is option 'C': 2 and 3 only.
This understanding emphasizes the importance of the index in both competitive and cooperative frameworks, while also recognizing the comprehensive assessment of SDG achievements across India.

Consider the following pairs:
1. The share of Women in Top Management Positions in FY23 - 22%
2. The share of Women on Company Boards in India - 16%
3. The share of Women in Middle and Senior Management Roles globally - 20%
4. Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) Ratio for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) - 0.6%
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. The share of Women in Top Management Positions in FY23 - 22% (Correct)
Explanation: According to the NCAER report, the share of women in top management positions increased from nearly 14% in FY14 to about 22% in FY23.
2. The share of Women on Company Boards in India - 16% (Correct)
Explanation: The NCAER report states that the share of women on company boards in India is around 16%.
3. The share of Women in Middle and Senior Management Roles globally - 20% (Incorrect)
Explanation: The global average for women in middle and senior management roles is 33%, while in India it is only 20%.
4. Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) Ratio for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) - 0.6% (Incorrect)
Explanation: The GNPA ratio for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) is 2.8%, not 0.6%. The 0.6% figure refers to the Net Non-Performing Assets (NNPA) ratio.
Hence, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Sant Kabir Das was born into a Muslim weaver family in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Statement-II:
Kabir's literary works include Kabir Bijak, Kabir Parachai, and Adi Granth.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • c)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Shah answered
Statement Analysis

Statement-I: Sant Kabir Das was born into a Muslim weaver family in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.

Statement-II: Kabir's literary works include Kabir Bijak, Kabir Parachai, and Adi Granth.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement-I: This statement is correct. Sant Kabir Das was indeed born into a Muslim weaver family in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. He is one of the most revered saints and poets in India, known for his philosophical and spiritual poetry.

Statement-II: This statement is incorrect. Kabir's literary works include famous works like Kabir Bijak, Kabir Parachai, and various other collections of his poems and verses. However, Adi Granth is not a work attributed to Kabir. Adi Granth is the primary scripture of Sikhism, also known as Guru Granth Sahib.
Therefore, the correct answer is that Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. Kabir's works are an essential part of Indian literature and spiritual heritage, reflecting his deep insights and philosophy.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV) - Fully powered by electricity and more efficient compared to hybrid and plug-in hybrids.
2. Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV) - Uses a petrol engine to charge the battery.
3. Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV) - Uses both internal combustion engine and a battery charged from an external socket.
4. Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV) - Can run in both Hybrid Mode and All-electric Mode.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV) - Fully powered by electricity and more efficient compared to hybrid and plug-in hybrids. Correctly matched. BEVs are indeed fully powered by electricity and are more efficient than hybrids and PHEVs.
2. Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV) - Uses a petrol engine to charge the battery. Incorrectly matched. FCEVs produce electric energy from chemical energy, typically using hydrogen, and do not use a petrol engine to charge the battery.
3. Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV) - Uses both internal combustion engine and a battery charged from an external socket. Incorrectly matched. HEVs use both an internal combustion engine and a battery, but the battery is charged by the engine, not from an external socket.
4. Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV) - Can run in both Hybrid Mode and All-electric Mode. Correctly matched. PHEVs can indeed run in Hybrid Mode, using both the engine and the battery, and in All-electric Mode, using only the battery.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

What is the primary objective of the Smart Cities Mission (SCM)?
  • a)
    To promote rural development through sustainable practices
  • b)
    To enhance the quality of life for citizens through sustainable and inclusive development
  • c)
    To develop industrial hubs in urban areas
  • d)
    To focus solely on technological advancements
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Primary Objective of the Smart Cities Mission (SCM)
The Smart Cities Mission (SCM) is a transformative initiative launched by the Government of India aimed at promoting sustainable and inclusive urban development. The primary objective is encapsulated in enhancing the quality of life for citizens.
Key Aspects of the Smart Cities Mission
  • Quality of Life Improvement: The SCM focuses on creating urban spaces that are livable, sustainable, and resilient. This involves the development of infrastructure that meets the needs of citizens and promotes their well-being.
  • Sustainable Development: The mission aims to integrate sustainability into urban planning and development. This includes efficient use of resources, waste management, and reducing the carbon footprint.
  • Inclusive Growth: The SCM emphasizes participatory governance, ensuring that all segments of society, including marginalized communities, benefit from urban development initiatives.
  • Technological Integration: While technology plays a significant role, it is not the sole focus. The mission promotes smart solutions that enhance urban living, such as smart transportation, energy-efficient buildings, and digital governance.
  • Public Spaces and Amenities: Development of public spaces, parks, and community centers is encouraged, fostering social interaction and community engagement.

Conclusion
In summary, the Smart Cities Mission is primarily about enhancing the quality of life for citizens through sustainable and inclusive development. By focusing on holistic urban growth, the SCM aims to create cities that are not only technologically advanced but also socially equitable and environmentally sustainable.

Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
The Smart Cities Mission (SCM) was initially planned for completion by 2020 but has been extended until 31st March 2025.
Statement II:
The Smart Cities Mission includes components such as Area-based Development, Pan-City Solutions, Governance Structure, Financing, and Convergence with Other Government Schemes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Smart Cities Mission (SCM)
The Smart Cities Mission is a significant initiative by the Indian government aimed at promoting sustainable and inclusive cities through innovative solutions. Let's break down the two statements for clarity.

Statement I: Completion Timeline
- The SCM was originally set to be completed by 2020.
- It has indeed been extended to 31st March 2025 to allow for better implementation and progress of the projects.

Statement II: Components of the SCM
- The mission encompasses various essential components:
- **Area-based Development**: Focused on specific geographic regions to enhance urban living.
- **Pan-City Solutions**: Solutions that improve the entire city through technology and infrastructure upgrades.
- **Governance Structure**: Establishes a framework for efficient city management.
- **Financing**: Strategies to secure funds for project execution.
- **Convergence with Other Government Schemes**: Ensuring synergy with existing programs for greater impact.

Conclusion
- Both statements are accurate.
- Statement I describes the timeline of the SCM, while Statement II outlines its key components, which are integral to its success but do not directly explain the timeline.

Final Assessment
- Therefore, the correct option is:
- **a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.**
Understanding these facets of the Smart Cities Mission is crucial for grasping its objectives and current status in urban development in India.

Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I:
The Allahabad High Court emphasized that while Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of religion, it allows for the promotion of religion but does not explicitly sanction conversions.
Statement-II:
The Bombay High Court recently dismissed a plea from students challenging a college's dress code banning hijabs and other religious symbols, asserting it was in the "larger academic interest" of the students.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

Statement-I correctly reflects the Allahabad High Court's emphasis on the limitations of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution regarding religious conversions. The statement highlights that while Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion and the promotion of religion, it does not explicitly endorse conversions.
Statement-II accurately summarizes the recent decision by the Bombay High Court to dismiss a plea challenging a college's dress code that banned certain religious symbols like hijabs. The court justified this decision as being in the "larger academic interest" of the students, which aligns with the content of the statement.
Therefore, in this context, both Statement-I and Statement-II are factually correct, and Statement-II indeed provides additional context and explanation to Statement-I, making option (a) the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
1. Kozhikode has been recognized as the 'City of Literature' under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN).
2. The UNESCO Creative Cities Network was established in 2004 and includes cities recognized for their contributions in fields such as Crafts and Folk Art, Design, and Gastronomy.
3. Srinagar was designated as a 'World Crafts City' by the World Craft Council (WCC) in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anisha Singh answered
Understanding the Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding Kozhikode, the UNESCO Creative Cities Network, and Srinagar, let's analyze each one.

Statement 1: Kozhikode as 'City of Literature'
- Kozhikode, also known as Calicut, has indeed been recognized as a 'City of Literature' under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN).
- This recognition highlights its rich literary heritage and contributions to the field of literature.

Statement 2: UNESCO Creative Cities Network Establishment
- The UNESCO Creative Cities Network was established in 2004 with the aim of fostering international cooperation among cities that recognize creativity as a driver for sustainable urban development and social inclusion.
- It includes various categories such as Literature, Crafts and Folk Art, Design, and Gastronomy. Therefore, this statement is accurate.

Statement 3: Srinagar and World Crafts City
- Srinagar has not been designated as a 'World Crafts City' by the World Craft Council (WCC) in 2021. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
- While Srinagar is known for its rich handicrafts, the specific designation by WCC mentioned here does not hold true.

Conclusion
- Hence, the correct analysis reveals that Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
- Therefore, the answer to the question is option 'B': 1 and 2 Only.

What legal protection does Section 79 of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 provide to intermediaries regarding third-party content on their platforms?
  • a)
    Immunity from any legal action related to third-party content.
  • b)
    Authorization to modify transmitted information as needed.
  • c)
    Exemption from observing due diligence.
  • d)
    Obligation to comply with government directives.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaavya Basak answered
Understanding Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000
Section 79 of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 provides a legal framework that protects intermediaries, such as internet service providers, social media platforms, and online marketplaces, from liability for third-party content hosted on their platforms.
Key Provisions of Section 79:
- Immunity from Legal Action:
Intermediaries are granted immunity from any legal action related to third-party content as long as they do not initiate the transmission, select the receiver, or select the content. This means that if a user posts illegal or infringing content, the intermediary is not held liable, thus encouraging the free flow of information online.
- Conditions for Protection:
To maintain this immunity, intermediaries must adhere to certain conditions, such as observing due diligence and promptly removing content when they are made aware of it being unlawful. This balance helps protect users' rights while ensuring that intermediaries take responsible action when necessary.
- Limitations of Liability:
The immunity does not extend to cases where the intermediary is found to be actively involved in the creation or modification of the content. Therefore, while they are largely shielded from liability, they cannot completely disregard their responsibilities.
Conclusion:
In summary, Section 79 offers vital protection to intermediaries by providing them immunity from legal repercussions for third-party content, provided they observe due diligence and respond appropriately to unlawful content. This provision fosters a safe and open digital environment, crucial for the growth of the internet and digital communication.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament
2. Article 345: President to recognize any language spoken by a section of the population of a state if demanded
3. Article 346: Specifies the official language for communication between states and between states and the Union
4. Article 350A: Protects the interests of minorities
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament - Correctly matched. Article 120 indeed deals with the language to be used in Parliament.
2. Article 345: President to recognize any language spoken by a section of the population of a state if demanded - Incorrectly matched. Article 345 allows the state legislature to adopt any official language for the state.
3. Article 346: Specifies the official language for communication between states and between states and the Union - Correctly matched. Article 346 specifies the official language for communication between states and between states and the Union.
4. Article 350A: Protects the interests of minorities - Incorrectly matched. Article 350A directs states to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. The article that protects the interests of minorities is Article 29.
Thus, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

What is the primary function of the Cabinet in a parliamentary democracy?
  • a)
    Making laws and policies
  • b)
    Advising the President
  • c)
    Implementing judicial decisions
  • d)
    Overseeing state budgets
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranavi Desai answered
Understanding the Role of the Cabinet in a Parliamentary Democracy
In a parliamentary democracy, the Cabinet plays a crucial role in governance. However, the correct answer to the primary function of the Cabinet is not option 'B' (Advising the President), but rather option 'A' (Making laws and policies).

Primary Functions of the Cabinet
- Making Laws and Policies:
The Cabinet is composed of senior government officials, usually heads of government departments, who are responsible for formulating and implementing policies. They propose legislation to Parliament, which is essential for the governance of the country.
- Implementing Government Decisions:
Once laws are passed, the Cabinet ensures their execution through various ministries and agencies. They monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of these policies.
- Advising the Prime Minister:
The Cabinet provides advice to the Prime Minister on all aspects of governance, including economic, social, and foreign policy matters.
- Overseeing State Budgets:
The Cabinet is responsible for preparing and presenting the national budget, making decisions on expenditures and revenue generation.

Clarification on Advising the President
While the Cabinet may interact with the President in certain systems, their primary role is not to advise the President but to lead the government. The President's role often includes constitutional or ceremonial duties, whereas the Cabinet is directly involved in the day-to-day administration and legislative processes.
In conclusion, the Cabinet's primary function in a parliamentary democracy revolves around making laws and policies, rather than just advising the President. Understanding this distinction is vital for grasping the workings of a parliamentary system.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Lancet study revealed that over 33,000 deaths annually across 10 major cities in India could be attributed to air pollution.
2. Delhi exhibited the lowest mortality burden attributable to air pollution among the 10 cities studied.
3. Every 10 µg/m³ increase in PM2.5 concentration results in a 1.42% rise in mortality across the ten cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Sengupta answered
Understanding the Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding the Lancet study on air pollution in India, let’s evaluate each one:
Statement 1: Mortality due to Air Pollution
- The Lancet study reports that over 33,000 deaths annually across 10 major cities in India are indeed attributed to air pollution.
- This statement is correct and highlights the severe impact of air pollution on public health.
Statement 2: Delhi's Mortality Burden
- Contrary to this statement, Delhi is often noted to have one of the highest mortality burdens due to air pollution among major cities in India.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: PM2.5 Concentration and Mortality
- The study indicates that a 10 µg/m³ increase in PM2.5 concentration results in a 1.42% rise in mortality across the ten cities.
- This statement is also correct, emphasizing the direct correlation between increased PM2.5 levels and higher mortality rates.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluations:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only). This analysis shows the critical health implications of air pollution in urban India and highlights the need for effective pollution control measures.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Kozhikode has been recognized as the 'City of Literature' under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network.
Statement-II:
Jaipur is designated as a Creative City of Crafts and Folk Arts in 2015.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • c)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I is accurate based on the information provided in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network section, where Kozhikode is indeed recognized as the 'City of Literature'. However, Statement-II is incorrect as Jaipur is designated as a Creative City of Crafts and Folk Arts, not Kozhikode. This information is stated in the same section where it mentions the cities recognized under different creative fields within the UCCN. Therefore, the correct answer is option (c), as Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding the new study on spiral galaxies:
1. The study suggests that spiral galaxies may have formed much earlier than previously thought, around the same time as other types of galaxies were evolving.
2. The research used data from NASA's Hubble Space Telescope to analyze 873 galaxies, identifying at least 216 as spiral galaxies.
3. The study found that the proportion of galaxies with spiral shapes increased significantly between 3 billion and 7 billion years after the Big Bang.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Saha answered
Understanding the Study on Spiral Galaxies
The study in question presents new insights into the formation and evolution of spiral galaxies. Let's break down the provided statements to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Early Formation of Spiral Galaxies
- The study indicates that spiral galaxies may have formed earlier than previously believed, aligning their formation timeline with that of other galaxy types.
- This suggests a paradigm shift in understanding galaxy evolution and supports the claim that early universe conditions were conducive to the formation of diverse galaxy types.
Statement 2: Data from Hubble Space Telescope
- The research utilized data from NASA's Hubble Space Telescope to analyze a sample of 873 galaxies.
- Among these, at least 216 were identified as spiral galaxies, providing a substantial basis for the study’s conclusions.
- This statement is factual and supports the methodology of the research.
Statement 3: Increase in Spiral Galaxies Over Time
- The study did find a significant rise in the proportion of galaxies with spiral shapes between 3 billion and 7 billion years post-Big Bang.
- This indicates a dynamic evolution of galaxy morphology during that period, reinforcing the idea that spiral galaxies became more prevalent over time.
Conclusion
- Statements 1 and 2 are accurate, while statement 3 is also correct based on the findings.
- The correct answer is therefore option 'C' as it includes statements 1 and 3, which are both verified by the research findings.
Overall, the study contributes valuable information about the timeline and development of spiral galaxies in the cosmic landscape.

What is the term of a patent granted under the Indian patent system?
  • a)
    15 years from the date of filing the application
  • b)
    20 years from the date of filing the application
  • c)
    25 years from the date of filing the application
  • d)
    30 years from the date of filing the application
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shanaya Bajaj answered
Term of a Patent under the Indian Patent System
The term of a patent granted under the Indian patent system is 20 years from the date of filing the application.

Explanation
- Term of a Patent: In India, a patent is granted for a period of 20 years from the date of filing the application. This means that the patent holder has the exclusive right to use, make, sell, and distribute the patented invention for a period of 20 years.
- Protection Period: The purpose of granting a patent for a specific period is to provide the inventor with exclusive rights to their invention for a limited time, during which they can benefit from their innovation without competition.
- Renewal: After the expiration of the 20-year term, the patent protection ends, and the invention enters the public domain. The patent holder can choose to renew the patent by paying the necessary fees to extend the protection for an additional period.
- Importance: The term of a patent is crucial for inventors and companies as it allows them to recoup their investment in research and development, incentivizes innovation, and promotes economic growth by encouraging the creation of new and useful products and technologies.
- Legal Framework: The term of a patent in India is governed by the Patents Act, 1970, which outlines the rules and regulations related to patent protection, rights, and enforcement in the country.
In conclusion, the 20-year term of a patent under the Indian patent system plays a vital role in fostering innovation, protecting intellectual property, and driving economic progress.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Satellite communications primarily rely on ground-based stations to transmit and receive signals.
Statement-II:
Satellite communications involve the use of orbiting satellites and ground stations to transmit and relay information via microwaves between points on Earth.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Amar Nair answered
Understanding Satellite Communications
Satellite communications is a critical aspect of modern telecommunications, involving sophisticated technology and infrastructure. Let’s analyze the two statements to understand their accuracy and relationship.
Statement-I Analysis
- Satellite communications do rely on ground-based stations. These stations are essential for transmitting signals to and receiving signals from satellites orbiting the Earth.
- Ground stations facilitate the communication link between terrestrial devices and satellites, making Statement-I correct.
Statement-II Analysis
- This statement elaborates on the concept of satellite communications. It accurately describes the role of orbiting satellites and ground stations in transmitting and relaying information.
- The use of microwaves for signal transmission is a fundamental aspect of satellite communication, underscoring the statement's correctness.
Relationship Between Statements
- Statement-II provides a more comprehensive explanation of how satellite communications operate, which includes the involvement of ground stations and orbiting satellites.
- While both statements are true, Statement-II clarifies and expands on the context provided in Statement-I.
Conclusion
Given the analysis:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-II explains Statement-I by detailing the operational mechanism of satellite communications.
Thus, the correct answer is option A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Kerala - Best performing state with a score of 79 points
2. Bihar - Lowest performing state with a score of 57 points
3. Goal 7: Affordable and Clean Energy - Highest score amongst all SDGs with a significant improvement from 51 in 2018 to 96 in 2023-24
4. Goal 10: Reduced Inequalities - Significant improvement in score from 67 in 2020-21 to 75 in 2023-24
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Kerala - Best performing state with a score of 79 points: This statement is correct. Kerala is one of the best-performing states with a score of 79 points.
2. Bihar - Lowest performing state with a score of 57 points: This statement is correct. Bihar is the lowest performing state with a score of 57 points.
3. Goal 7: Affordable and Clean Energy - Highest score amongst all SDGs with a significant improvement from 51 in 2018 to 96 in 2023-24: This statement is correct. Goal 7 indeed has shown significant improvement and has the highest score among all SDGs.
4. Goal 10: Reduced Inequalities - Significant improvement in score from 67 in 2020-21 to 75 in 2023-24: This statement is incorrect. Goal 10 saw a decrease in points from 67 in 2020-21 to 65 in 2023-24, not an improvement.
Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched.

What percentage of rural households have improved their source of drinking water in the SDG India Index for 2023-24?
  • a)
    99.29%
  • b)
    94.7%
  • c)
    89.0%
  • d)
    96.35%
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Ahuja answered
Overview of SDG India Index 2023-24
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) aim to ensure access to safe and affordable drinking water for all by 2030. The SDG India Index evaluates the progress of states and union territories in achieving these goals, with a focus on various indicators, including improvements in drinking water sources.
Rural Households and Water Access
According to the SDG India Index for 2023-24, a significant achievement has been noted in rural areas:
  • Percentage of Improvement: 99.29% of rural households have improved their source of drinking water.
  • Access to Safe Water: This figure reflects enhanced access to safe and reliable drinking water sources, which is critical for public health.


Factors Contributing to Improvement
Several initiatives and programs have contributed to this positive trend:
  • Government Schemes: Programs like the Jal Jeevan Mission have been pivotal in providing functional tap water connections to rural households.
  • Community Involvement: Local participation in water management has ensured sustainable practices and maintenance of water sources.


Importance of Improved Water Sources
The improvement in drinking water sources has far-reaching implications:
  • Health Benefits: Access to clean water significantly reduces waterborne diseases.
  • Economic Impact: Improved water access boosts productivity and economic development in rural areas.


In conclusion, the 99.29% figure indicates remarkable progress in enhancing drinking water access for rural households, showcasing India's commitment to achieving the SDGs.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) provides long-lasting immunity and does not require multiple doses to maintain protection.
Statement-II:
The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) is more cost-effective to produce and administer compared to IPV.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Joshi answered
Explanation of Statements
The two statements about the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) and the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) need careful consideration.
Statement-I: IPV and Immunity
- The Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) offers strong immunity against poliovirus.
- However, it does not provide long-lasting immunity as effectively as OPV.
- IPV typically requires multiple doses to establish and maintain adequate immunity.
Statement-II: Cost-Effectiveness of OPV
- The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) is indeed more cost-effective than IPV.
- OPV is easier to administer, can be given orally, and is less expensive to produce.
- This economic advantage has made OPV the preferred choice in mass immunization campaigns.
Conclusion
Given the analysis:
- Statement-I is incorrect: IPV does not provide long-lasting immunity without multiple doses.
- Statement-II is correct: OPV is more cost-effective than IPV.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
This highlights the importance of understanding vaccine characteristics and their implications for public health strategies.

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of religion but does not explicitly sanction conversions.
2. Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act, 2021, requires district magistrate approval for all religious conversions.
3. The Supreme Court in the Hadiya Judgement 2017 highlighted that the right to choose a partner is central to an individual's identity and cannot be dictated by the state or law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Gupta answered
Explanation:
1. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution:
- Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion to all citizens in India.
- However, it does not explicitly sanction conversions, leaving it open to interpretation.
2. Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act, 2021:
- The Act requires district magistrate approval for all religious conversions.
- This has been criticized for potentially infringing on the right to freedom of religion and choice.
3. Supreme Court in the Hadiya Judgement 2017:
- The Supreme Court highlighted that the right to choose a partner is central to an individual's identity.
- It emphasized that this right cannot be dictated by the state or law, reaffirming individual autonomy.
Therefore, statement 1 is correct in stating that Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion without explicitly sanctioning conversions. Statement 3 is also correct as it reflects the Supreme Court's stance on the right to choose a partner. Statement 2 is incorrect in its portrayal of the Uttar Pradesh law, as it imposes restrictions on religious conversions rather than upholding individual freedoms.

What is the primary focus of the Kerala Migration Survey 2023 report?
  • a)
    Studying internal migration patterns within Kerala
  • b)
    Analyzing the impact of climate change on migration trends
  • c)
    Highlighting changes and patterns in emigration and return migration from Kerala
  • d)
    Examining the economic growth of Kerala
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
The Kerala Migration Survey 2023 report primarily emphasizes highlighting significant changes and emerging patterns in emigration and return migration from Kerala. This survey provides valuable insights into the shifting trends of migration, focusing on various aspects such as total emigrants, returnees, destinations, reasons for migration, and the impact on the state's economy.

Consider the following statements:
1. The number of emigrants from Kerala was estimated at 2.2 million in 2023.
2. The proportion of women emigrants from Kerala increased from 15.8% in 2018 to 19.1% in 2023.
3. Emigration to Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries accounted for 93.8% of Kerala's emigrants in 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • Statement 1: Correct. The Kerala Migration Survey 2023 reported that the number of emigrants from Kerala was estimated at 2.2 million.
  • Statement 2: Correct. The proportion of women emigrants increased from 15.8% in 2018 to 19.1% in 2023.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect. The emigration to Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries accounted for 93.8% of Kerala's emigrants in 1998, not in 2023. In 2023, this proportion decreased significantly to 19.5%.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Ratna Bhandar of the Jagannath Temple in Puri contains a total of 128.38 kg of gold and 221.53 kg of silver, as per the inventory last made in 1978.
Statement-II:
The Ratna Bhandar of the Jagannath Temple has remained closed for the past 46 years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I mentions the quantities of gold and silver in the Ratna Bhandar as per the 1978 inventory, but this information is outdated. The statement does not reflect the current status or accuracy of the contents of the Ratna Bhandar. Statement-II accurately states that the Ratna Bhandar has remained closed for the past 46 years, as mentioned in the provided information. The temple authorities recently unlocked the Ratna Bhandar after 46 years, indicating that it was indeed closed for a significant period. Thus, Statement-II is correct in reflecting this fact, while Statement-I is based on outdated information and is therefore incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Women's Representation in Indian Corporates:
1. The share of women in top management positions in India increased from nearly 14% in FY14 to about 22% in FY23.
2. The share of women on company boards in India is around 20%.
3. Approximately 60% of NSE-listed firms did not have any women in their top management teams as of March 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Correct: The share of women in top management positions in India indeed increased from nearly 14% in FY14 to about 22% in FY23. This statement is accurate as per the key findings of the NCAER report.
2. Incorrect: The share of women on company boards in India is around 16%, not 20%. This specific detail is crucial to the statement's accuracy.
3. Correct: Approximately 60% of NSE-listed firms did not have any women in their top management teams as of March 2023. This statistic is highlighted in the NCAER report's findings.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C, as statements 1 and 3 are accurate, while statement 2 is not.

Consider the following statements:
1. Abhaya Mudra is associated with the fifth Dhyani-Buddha, Amoghasiddhi.
2. The Santhal Hul of 1855 was led by four brothers - Sidho, Kanho, Chand, and Bhairav Murmu.
3. The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was a direct result of the Santhal Hul of 1855.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Abhaya Mudra is associated with the fifth Dhyani-Buddha, Amoghasiddhi.
This statement is correct. The Abhaya Mudra symbolizes peace and friendship and is indeed associated with the fifth Dhyani-Buddha, Amoghasiddhi.
2. The Santhal Hul of 1855 was led by four brothers - Sidho, Kanho, Chand, and Bhairav Murmu.
This statement is correct. The Santhal Hul, or the Santhal rebellion, was led by the four Murmu brothers: Sidho, Kanho, Chand, and Bhairav.
3. The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was a direct result of the Santhal Hul of 1855.
This statement is incorrect. The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was enacted in 1908 as a result of the Birsa Movement, not directly because of the Santhal Hul of 1855. The Santhal Hul led to the Santhal Pargana Tenancy Act of 1876.
Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of cooperatives in India:
1. The first Cooperative Credit Societies Act in India was enacted as a result of the recommendations of the Indian Famine Commission in 1901.
2. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 made cooperation a provincial subject, giving a significant boost to the cooperative movement in India.
3. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. The first Cooperative Credit Societies Act in India was enacted as a result of the recommendations of the Indian Famine Commission in 1901.- This statement is correct. The Indian Famine Commission of 1901 led to the enactment of the first Cooperative Credit Societies Act in 1904. This act laid the foundation for the cooperative movement in India by enabling the formation of cooperative societies to address the credit needs of rural areas.
2. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 made cooperation a provincial subject, giving a significant boost to the cooperative movement in India.- This statement is correct. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, also known as the Government of India Act of 1919, made cooperation a provincial subject. This decentralization allowed provinces to enact their own cooperative laws and policies, which significantly boosted the cooperative movement across India.
3. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.- This statement is incorrect. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 indeed established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right, but it was under Article 19, not Article 21. Article 19(1)(c) now includes the right to form associations or unions, including cooperative societies.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B

Consider the following pairs:
1. Indian Famine Commission (1901) - Led to the enactment of the first Cooperative Credit Societies Act in 1904.
2. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (1919) - Made cooperation a provincial subject.
3. Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002 - Established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right (Article 19).
4. 97 Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 - Introduced the Co-operative Election Authority to oversee board elections in multi-state co-operative societies.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Indian Famine Commission (1901) - Led to the enactment of the first Cooperative Credit Societies Act in 1904. Correctly matched.
2. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (1919) - Made cooperation a provincial subject. Correctly matched.
3. Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002 - Established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right (Article 19). Incorrectly matched. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right (Article 19).
4. 97 Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 - Introduced the Co-operative Election Authority to oversee board elections in multi-state co-operative societies. Incorrectly matched. The Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act, 2022 introduced the Co-operative Election Authority.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

What type of electric vehicle uses both an internal combustion engine and a battery-powered motor powertrain?
  • a)
    Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV)
  • b)
    Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV)
  • c)
    Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV)
  • d)
    Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Hybrid Electric Vehicles (HEVs) utilize both an internal combustion engine and a battery-powered motor powertrain. The internal combustion engine is generally powered by petrol and is used both for driving and charging the battery when it is depleted. HEVs are considered a bridge between traditional vehicles and fully electric ones, offering a combination of efficiency and convenience.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Contamination with toxic chemicals diethylene glycol and ethylene glycol - Marion Biotech
2. Investigation in December 2022 - Maiden Pharmaceuticals
3. Data integrity issues - Central Drug Standards Control Organisation (CDSCO)
4. Deaths of children in Gambia - Maiden Pharmaceuticals
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Contamination with toxic chemicals diethylene glycol and ethylene glycol - Marion Biotech: Incorrect. The contamination with toxic chemicals diethylene glycol and ethylene glycol was linked to Maiden Pharmaceuticals, not Marion Biotech.
2. Investigation in December 2022 - Maiden Pharmaceuticals: Incorrect. The investigation in December 2022 was regarding Marion Biotech, not Maiden Pharmaceuticals.
3. Data integrity issues - Central Drug Standards Control Organisation (CDSCO): Correct. Data integrity issues were highlighted by the Central Drug Standards Control Organisation (CDSCO).
4. Deaths of children in Gambia - Maiden Pharmaceuticals: Correct. The deaths of children in Gambia were linked to products from Maiden Pharmaceuticals.
Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Bengali alphabets and terms started to appear in the literatures of as early as 10 century AD.
Statement-II: Research indicates that Bengali retains its fundamental syntactic structure, as well as its distinct morphological and phonological patterns, throughout its course of evolution at least from 3.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement-I correctly highlights that Bengali alphabets and terms started appearing in literature as early as the 10th century AD, indicating a historical presence. Statement-II complements this by stating that research affirms Bengali's retention of fundamental syntactic structure, morphological, and phonological patterns from at least the 3rd century, thereby explaining the historical continuity and evolution of Bengali language. This option is the most appropriate as both statements are factually accurate, and Statement-II logically extends and elucidates Statement-I, providing a comprehensive view of Bengali's linguistic heritage and development.

What is the significance of India being classified into the 'regular follow-up' category by the FATF based on the Mutual Evaluation Report (MER)?
  • a)
    It indicates that India is currently on the FATF black list.
  • b)
    It signifies that India has achieved a high level of technical compliance according to the FATF standards.
  • c)
    It implies that India is exempt from further evaluation by the FATF.
  • d)
    It suggests that India is at risk of potential economic sanctions by the FATF.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

India being classified into the 'regular follow-up' category by the FATF based on the Mutual Evaluation Report (MER) indicates that India has achieved a high level of technical compliance with the FATF standards. This classification requires India to submit progress reports on recommended actions but reflects positively on India's efforts in combating Money Laundering (ML), Terrorist Financing (TF), and proliferation financing.

Consider the following pairs:
1. India is classified in the 'regular follow-up' category by FATF.
2. The 'regular follow-up' category requires a progress report by October 2027.
3. India’s transition to a digital economy facilitated by JAM Trinity has mitigated ML/TF risks.
4. The Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) is in Bangladesh.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. India is classified in the 'regular follow-up' category by FATF. This is correct. India has indeed been placed in the 'regular follow-up' category by FATF.
2. The 'regular follow-up' category requires a progress report by October 2027. This is correct. Under the 'regular follow-up' category, India is required to submit a progress report on recommended actions by October 2027.
3. India’s transition to a digital economy facilitated by JAM Trinity has mitigated ML/TF risks. This is correct. The JAM Trinity (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile) has indeed helped mitigate risks associated with money laundering and terrorist financing.
4. The Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) is in Bangladesh. This is incorrect. GIFT City is located in Gujarat, India, not in Bangladesh.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Denmark - First country to receive the WHO TFA Validation Certificate
2. India - Achieved the WHO target of eliminating TFA by 2023
3. Saudi Arabia - Received the WHO TFA Validation Certificate
4. China - Included in the eight additional countries to implement best practice policies for TFA elimination
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Denmark - First country to receive the WHO TFA Validation Certificate: This pair is correctly matched. Denmark is indeed one of the first countries to receive the WHO TFA Validation Certificate.
2. India - Achieved the WHO target of eliminating TFA by 2023: This pair is incorrectly matched. India has made significant progress but has not fully achieved the WHO target of eliminating TFA by 2023.
3. Saudi Arabia - Received the WHO TFA Validation Certificate: This pair is correctly matched. Saudi Arabia is among the countries that received the WHO TFA Validation Certificate.
4. China - Included in the eight additional countries to implement best practice policies for TFA elimination: This pair is correctly matched. China is one of the eight additional countries mentioned by WHO for implementing best practice policies to eliminate TFA.
Explanation:
- Denmark and Saudi Arabia are among the first countries to receive the WHO TFA Validation Certificate.
- India has not yet fully met the WHO target of eliminating TFA by 2023.
- China is identified as one of the additional countries for implementing best practice policies to significantly reduce the global TFA burden.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. The process of breaking down minerals into nanoparticles using microdroplets involves applying a high voltage to mineral microparticles suspended in water.
2. The International Space Station (ISS) orbits Earth at a distance of approximately 400 kilometers above its surface.
3. Whole genome sequencing is not suitable for larger genomes due to the presence of repetitive DNA sequences which make the assembling process challenging.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Statement 1 is correct. The study highlighted that microdroplets of water can break down minerals like silica and alumina into nanoparticles by applying a high voltage to mineral microparticles suspended in water, resulting in the formation of nanoparticles within 10 milliseconds.
Statement 2 is correct. The International Space Station (ISS) indeed orbits the Earth at approximately 400 kilometers above its surface, serving as a unique science laboratory for astronauts and cosmonauts.
Statement 3 is correct. Whole genome sequencing is not suitable for larger genomes primarily because they contain numerous repetitive DNA sequences which complicate the assembling process.
Thus, all three statements are accurate, making the correct answer Option D: 1, 2 and 3.

Consider the following pairs regarding the provisions of the recently amended Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules related to surrogacy:
1. Maternity Leave for Surrogate Mother: 180 days
2. Paternity Leave for Commissioning Father: 30 days
3. Child Care Leave for Commissioning Mother: As per existing provisions
4. Surrogacy Criteria: Married for at least 3 years
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. **Maternity Leave for Surrogate Mother: 180 days** - Correct. The amended rules provide 180 days of maternity leave for both surrogate and commissioning mothers.
2. **Paternity Leave for Commissioning Father: 30 days** - Incorrect. The amended rules grant 15 days of paternity leave to the commissioning father.
3. **Child Care Leave for Commissioning Mother: As per existing provisions** - Correct. The commissioning mother is eligible for childcare leave as per the existing provisions.
4. **Surrogacy Criteria: Married for at least 3 years** - Incorrect. The surrogacy criteria require a couple to be married for at least 5 years.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

What is the primary focus of the PraVaHa software developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?
  • a)
    Conducting telecommunication operations
  • b)
    Simulating aerodynamic analysis for aerospace vehicles
  • c)
    Performing genetic sequencing for rare genetic disorders
  • d)
    Analyzing antimicrobial resistance profiles
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The PraVaHa software developed by ISRO primarily focuses on simulating external and internal flows on aerospace vehicles like launch vehicles, winged and non-winged re-entry vehicles. It is designed for aerodynamic analysis, including validating simulations for various conditions encountered during 'earth re-entry' and 'combustion' in vehicles like scramjet vehicles. This software aims to replace many of the current commercial CFD simulations for aerodynamic characterization, offering a secure and flexible tool for collaborative development with academic and government institutions.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Gaganyaan Astronauts - Selected for Axiom-4 Mission
2. IndiGen Programme - Launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
3. Earth BioGenome Project - Aims to sequence genomes of all eukaryotic biodiversity on Earth
4. International Space Station (ISS) - A collaboration between NASA, Roscosmos, ESA, JAXA, and CSA
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Gaganyaan Astronauts - Selected for Axiom-4 Mission: Correct. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has shortlisted two of its trained astronauts for the Axiom-4 mission to the International Space Station.
2. IndiGen Programme - Launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO): Incorrect. The IndiGen Programme is endorsed by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), not ISRO.
3. Earth BioGenome Project - Aims to sequence genomes of all eukaryotic biodiversity on Earth: Correct. The Earth BioGenome Project aims to sequence, catalogue, and characterize the genomes of all eukaryotic biodiversity on Earth.
4. International Space Station (ISS) - A collaboration between NASA, Roscosmos, ESA, JAXA, and CSA: Correct. The ISS is a collaborative project involving NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), ESA (European Space Agency), JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency), and CSA (Canadian Space Agency).
Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Iceland - 93.5% gender parity score
2. India - 127th rank in 2024 Global Gender Gap Index
3. Namibia - Top 10 rank in 2024
4. Finland - Among the top 5 countries in 2024
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Iceland - 93.5% gender parity score: Correct. Iceland has a 93.5% gender parity score and remains the world's most gender-equal society.
2. India - 127th rank in 2024 Global Gender Gap Index: Incorrect. India ranked 129th in the 2024 Global Gender Gap Index.
3. Namibia - Top 10 rank in 2024: Correct. Namibia is ranked 8th in the 2024 Global Gender Gap Index.
4. Finland - Among the top 5 countries in 2024: Correct. Finland is among the top 5 countries in the 2024 Global Gender Gap Index.
Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

Consider the following statements regarding the 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit:
1. Russia's highest civilian honour, the "Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle," was conferred on Prime Minister Narendra Modi for promoting the strategic partnership and friendly relations between Russia and India.
2. The summit set a new bilateral trade target of USD 50 billion by 2030 due to increased imports of Russian crude by India.
3. The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is a proposed sea link between ports on the east coast of India and ports in the far-east region of Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Statement 1: Correct. President Vladimir Putin conferred Russia's highest civilian honour, the "Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle," on Prime Minister Narendra Modi for promoting the strategic partnership and friendly relations between Russia and India.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The new bilateral trade target set at the summit was USD 100 billion by 2030, not USD 50 billion. This target reflects India's increased imports of Russian crude at a discount after the US and Europe imposed oil sanctions on Russia following the invasion of Ukraine.
Statement 3: Correct. The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is indeed a proposed sea link between ports on the east coast of India and ports in the far-east region of Russia, aimed at enhancing connectivity and trade between the two countries.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C

Consider the following pairs regarding international treaties and conventions related to the seas:
1. Convention on Continental Shelf, 1964: Defines and delimits States' rights to explore and exploit natural resources on the continental shelf.
2. Convention on Fishing and Conservation of Living Resources of the High Seas, 1966: Promotes effective control of marine pollution, particularly through regulations on waste dumping.
3. London Convention 1972: Covers various forms of marine pollution caused by ships, including oil spills and waste disposal.
4. MARPOL Convention (1973): Addresses conservation issues related to living resources of the high seas to prevent overexploitation.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Convention on Continental Shelf, 1964: Correctly matched. It defines and delimits States' rights to explore and exploit natural resources on the continental shelf.
2. Convention on Fishing and Conservation of Living Resources of the High Seas, 1966: Incorrectly matched. This convention addresses conservation issues related to living resources of the high seas to prevent overexploitation, not marine pollution control.
3. London Convention 1972: Incorrectly matched. The London Convention promotes effective control of marine pollution, particularly through regulations on waste dumping, not pollution caused by ships.
4. MARPOL Convention (1973): Incorrectly matched. MARPOL covers various forms of marine pollution caused by ships, including oil spills and waste disposal, not conservation issues related to living resources of the high seas.
Thus, only the first pair is correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Delhi: 11.5% of annual deaths linked to air pollution
2. Shimla: 12,000 deaths annually due to air pollution
3. Bengaluru: Lowest mortality burden due to air pollution
4. PM2.5 concentration: Exceeds WHO safe limit on 99.8% of days
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only two pairs
  • b)
    Only one pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Delhi: 11.5% of annual deaths linked to air pollution - Correct. The study revealed that Delhi exhibited the most severe air pollution, with 11.5% of annual deaths linked to air pollution.
2. Shimla: 12,000 deaths annually due to air pollution - Incorrect. Shimla was noted for having the lowest mortality burden attributable to air pollution, with only 59 deaths annually.
3. Bengaluru: Lowest mortality burden due to air pollution - Incorrect. Shimla, not Bengaluru, had the lowest mortality burden due to air pollution.
4. PM2.5 concentration: Exceeds WHO safe limit on 99.8% of days - Correct. The study found that there was a persistent violation of established air quality standards, with concentrations exceeding the WHO's safe limit on 99.8% of the days analyzed.
Thus, two pairs (Pairs 1 and 4) are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The share of Women in Top Management Positions in India increased from nearly 14% in FY14 to about 22% in FY23.
Statement-II:
Nearly 60% of the firms studied, including 5 of the top 10 NSE-listed firms by market capitalization, did not have any women in their top management teams as of March 2023.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly reflects the increase in the share of women in top management positions in India from nearly 14% in FY14 to about 22% in FY23, as per the findings mentioned in the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) report.
However, Statement-II is not accurate. The statement about nearly 60% of the firms not having any women in their top management teams is not explicitly supported by the data provided. The data actually mentions that almost 60% of the firms studied did not have any women in top management teams, including 5 of the top 10 NSE-listed firms by market capitalization, as of March 2023. This information does not directly correlate with the specific timeframe mentioned in Statement-I (FY14 to FY23) or the percentage increase in women in top management positions.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The renaming of Joshimath tehsil to Jyotirmath aims to enhance Uttarakhand's appeal as a religious tourism destination.
Statement-II:
Renaming Kosiyakutoli to Pargana Shri Kainchi Dham tehsil aligns its identity with Neem Karoli Baba's Kainchi Dham Ashram.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly reflects the intention behind the renaming of Joshimath tehsil to Jyotirmath, which is to enhance Uttarakhand's appeal as a religious tourism destination by emphasizing its historical and spiritual significance. On the other hand, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that renaming Kosiyakutoli to Pargana Shri Kainchi Dham tehsil aligns its identity with Neem Karoli Baba's Kainchi Dham Ashram. This is not the primary reason for the renaming; rather, it aims to honor the spiritual figure and enhance recognition and reverence for the region. Thus, while Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding the contributions and significance of Sant Kabir Das:
1. Sant Kabir Das was born into a Hindu family in Varanasi but was raised by a Muslim weaver couple.
2. Kabir Das's literary works, such as Kabir Bijak and Kabir Granthawali, were written in Brajbhasha and Awadhi dialects.
3. The Bhakti movement, which Kabir Das was a part of, originated in North India and later spread to South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is correct. Sant Kabir Das was indeed born into a Hindu family in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, but was raised by a Muslim weaver couple. This reflects the syncretic nature of his upbringing, which influenced his teachings and philosophy.
Statement 2 is correct. Kabir Das's notable literary works, such as Kabir Bijak and Kabir Granthawali, were written in dialects like Brajbhasha and Awadhi, which significantly impacted Indian literature and the development of the Hindi language.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bhakti movement originated in South India and later spread to North India during the 14th and 15th centuries. Therefore, the statement that the Bhakti movement originated in North India is inaccurate.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

What is the significance of the recent discovery of the world's oldest known figurative cave painting, estimated to be around 51,200 years old?
  • a)
    It indicates the existence of early human engagement in elaborate visual arts.
  • b)
    It suggests the influence of Neanderthals on ancient artistic traditions.
  • c)
    It highlights the prevalence of abstract art forms in prehistoric times.
  • d)
    It reveals the preference for landscape paintings in ancient civilizations.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The significance of the recent discovery of the world's oldest known figurative cave painting lies in indicating that early humans engaged in elaborate visual arts to represent relationships between humans and animals. This finding suggests a deeper history of figurative art than previously believed, showcasing a sophisticated narrative tradition among early humans. It sheds light on the cultural practices of ancient societies and hints at the emergence of a rich artistic heritage, emphasizing the importance of visual storytelling and artistic expression in early human civilizations.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Kabir Bijak - Literary work by Sant Kabir Das
2. Hoysala Dynasty - Founder of Nalanda University
3. Keshava Temple - Built by Somanatha during the reign of Narasimha III
4. Bhakti Movement - Originated in North India
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Kabir Bijak - Literary work by Sant Kabir Das: Correct. Kabir Bijak is one of the significant literary works of Sant Kabir Das, who was a notable figure in the Bhakti movement and influenced Indian literature.
2. Hoysala Dynasty - Founder of Nalanda University: Incorrect. The Nalanda University was founded by Kumar Gupta of the Gupta dynasty in the early 5th century, not by the Hoysala dynasty.
3. Keshava Temple - Built by Somanatha during the reign of Narasimha III: Correct. The Keshava Temple at Somanathapura was constructed by Somanatha, a commander of the Hoysala Army, during the reign of Hoysala King Narasimha III.
4. Bhakti Movement - Originated in North India: Incorrect. The Bhakti movement originated in South India and later spread to North India during the 14th and 15th centuries.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

What is the primary reason behind the Uttarakhand government's decision to rename Joshimath tehsil to Jyotirmath and Kosiyakutoli tehsil to Pargana Shri Kainchi Dham tehsil?
  • a)
    To attract more tourists to the region
  • b)
    To preserve the historical and spiritual significance of these areas
  • c)
    To reflect linguistic and cultural changes
  • d)
    To boost economic development in the region
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Uttarakhand government's initiative to rename Joshimath tehsil to Jyotirmath and Kosiyakutoli tehsil to Pargana Shri Kainchi Dham tehsil primarily aims to preserve the historical and spiritual significance of these areas. By renaming these places, the government seeks to enhance their cultural and religious importance, attracting more pilgrims and devotees, thereby boosting the region's appeal as a religious tourism destination. This renaming effort underscores the state's commitment to honoring and safeguarding its rich heritage and traditions.

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