All questions of August 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

What is the primary purpose of the Security of Supplies Arrangement (SOSA) between India and the US in the field of defense cooperation?
  • a)
    To establish a legally binding framework for defense orders
  • b)
    To prioritize each other's goods and services crucial for national defense
  • c)
    To facilitate secure military communications
  • d)
    To enhance information-sharing between the two countries
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Chavan answered
Overview of the Security of Supplies Arrangement (SOSA)
The Security of Supplies Arrangement (SOSA) between India and the US is a pivotal agreement aimed at enhancing defense cooperation and ensuring a robust supply chain for defense-related goods and services.
Primary Purpose: Prioritizing National Defense Needs
The primary purpose of SOSA is:
- To prioritize each other's goods and services crucial for national defense: This arrangement allows both nations to ensure that they have access to essential defense supplies during times of need. By prioritizing these supplies, the US and India can effectively respond to security challenges and enhance their military readiness.
Key Benefits of SOSA
- Strengthened Defense Ties: SOSA exemplifies the growing strategic partnership between India and the US, facilitating deeper military collaboration.
- Enhanced Resilience: By securing supply chains, both countries can mitigate risks associated with global supply disruptions, particularly in times of geopolitical tensions.
- Operational Efficiency: The arrangement allows for smoother logistics and support for defense operations, thereby improving overall operational capabilities.
Conclusion
In summary, the SOSA is a significant step towards ensuring that India and the US can support each other in times of crisis by prioritizing critical defense supplies. This cooperative framework not only strengthens bilateral relationships but also contributes to regional and global security stability.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Dobry Maharaja Memorial - Commemorates the respect and gratitude of the Polish people for the Jamsaheb of Nawanagar.
2. Kolhapur Memorial - Dedicated to the princely state of Kolhapur for sheltering Polish refugees during World War II.
3. Monument to the Battle of Monte Cassino - Recognizes shared sacrifices of soldiers from Poland, India, and other nations during WWII.
4. Tomb of the Unknown Soldier - Honors Indian soldiers who died in service during World War II.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Memorials
To analyze the correctness of the pairs mentioned, we need to consider the historical context and significance of each memorial.
1. Dobry Maharaja Memorial
- This memorial indeed commemorates the gratitude of the Polish people for the Jamsaheb of Nawanagar, who provided refuge to Polish children during World War II.
2. Kolhapur Memorial
- Correctly noted, this memorial is dedicated to the princely state of Kolhapur for offering shelter to Polish refugees fleeing the war.
3. Monument to the Battle of Monte Cassino
- This monument is accurate in recognizing the shared sacrifices of soldiers from Poland, India, and other nations during one of the crucial battles of WWII, highlighting international cooperation and valor.
4. Tomb of the Unknown Soldier
- This memorial indeed honors Indian soldiers who fought and died during World War II, symbolizing the sacrifice of countless unnamed soldiers in various conflicts.
Conclusion
- All four pairs are correctly matched based on their historical significance and the narratives they represent, which is why the correct answer is option 'C'—only three pairs are accurately matched, as the fourth is slightly misrepresented in its specificity regarding the broader context of Indian soldiers beyond World War II.
Thus, while the memorials do honor the themes of sacrifice and refuge, the specific context for one pair is more nuanced than stated.

Who is responsible for filing a First Information Report (FIR) in cases of violence against healthcare workers, according to the new directive? 
  • a)
    The victim healthcare worker 
  • b)
    The police department 
  • c)
    Heads of government hospitals 
  • d)
    The Union Health Ministry
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagar Nair answered
Responsibility for filing FIR in cases of violence against healthcare workers:
Heads of government hospitals:
- According to the new directive, the responsibility for filing a First Information Report (FIR) in cases of violence against healthcare workers lies with the heads of government hospitals.
- This directive aims to ensure prompt legal action against individuals who commit violent acts against healthcare workers.
- The heads of government hospitals are required to take immediate action upon receiving a complaint of violence against healthcare workers and file an FIR with the police.
Police department:
- While the heads of government hospitals are responsible for initiating the process of filing an FIR, the police department plays a crucial role in investigating the case and taking appropriate legal action.
- The police department is tasked with conducting a thorough investigation into the incident of violence, collecting evidence, and apprehending the perpetrators.
- They are also responsible for ensuring the safety and security of healthcare workers during the investigation and legal proceedings.
Union Health Ministry:
- The Union Health Ministry has issued guidelines and directives to protect healthcare workers from acts of violence.
- They play a supervisory role in ensuring that the heads of government hospitals are following the prescribed protocols for filing FIRs in cases of violence against healthcare workers.
- The Ministry also works towards creating awareness and implementing measures to prevent such incidents from occurring in the future.
In conclusion, while the heads of government hospitals are primarily responsible for filing FIRs in cases of violence against healthcare workers, collaboration with the police department and oversight from the Union Health Ministry is essential to ensure timely and effective legal action against perpetrators.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Dey answered
Understanding Statement-I and Statement-II
Both statements relate to the processes of atmospheric heating and the role of greenhouse gases.

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
- The Earth's atmosphere absorbs a significant portion of solar radiation, which primarily comes from the sun.
- The incoming solar radiation heats the surface of the Earth, which in turn emits long-wave (terrestrial) radiation back into the atmosphere.
- However, the direct warming effect of solar radiation on the atmosphere is typically greater than that of terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
- Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapor are indeed effective at absorbing long-wave radiation emitted from the Earth's surface.
- This absorption leads to the greenhouse effect, where these gases trap heat in the atmosphere, contributing to its warming.

Analysis of the Statements
- Both statements are accurate: Statement-I correctly identifies the predominant source of atmospheric heat as solar radiation, while Statement-II correctly describes the role of greenhouse gases in absorbing long-wave radiation.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. The heating of the atmosphere by solar radiation occurs independently of the greenhouse effect, which is a separate process that influences temperature retention in the atmosphere.

Conclusion
- Thus, the correct choice is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The relationship between these phenomena demonstrates the complexity of atmospheric dynamics.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Melting polar ice caps due to climate change are causing the Earth to spin more slowly, leading to minute changes in the duration of a day.
Statement-II: The principle of angular momentum explains the slowdown in Earth's rotation, as polar ice melts and moves towards the equator, increasing the Earth's moment of inertia.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are individually correct. Statement-I highlights the effect of melting polar ice caps on the Earth's rotation, causing a slowdown. Statement-II correctly mentions the principle of angular momentum and the Earth's moment of inertia but does not directly explain the specific relationship between the melting ice caps and the Earth's rotation slowdown. The slowdown in Earth's rotation due to melting ice caps is a result of complex interactions involving changes in mass distribution and conservation of angular momentum, which Statement-II does not explicitly elucidate.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Gender Distribution of Living Donors: 63% women
2. Transplants by Region in Delhi: 78% of foreign national transplants
3. Deceased Donor Milestone: First time more than 1,000 deceased organ donors in a year
4. Organ Donation Rate: 1 per million population
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Gender Distribution of Living Donors: 63% women - Correctly matched- According to the NOTTO report, 63% of living donors were women.
2. Transplants by Region in Delhi: 78% of foreign national transplants - Incorrectly matched- The correct information is that Delhi-NCR region accounted for nearly 78% of foreign national transplants, not just Delhi alone.
3. Deceased Donor Milestone: First time more than 1,000 deceased organ donors in a year - Correctly matched- In 2023, for the first time, India surpassed 1,000 deceased organ donors in a single year, breaking the previous record set in 2022.
4. Organ Donation Rate: 1 per million population - Incorrectly matched- The actual organ donation rate is less than 1 per million population as per the report.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Answer: Option C

Consider the following statements regarding Agriculture Accelerator Fund.
  1. The Fund encourages agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas.
  2. It was setup by the Department of Agricultural Research and Education.
  3. The Fund aims to bring in modern technologies to transform agricultural practices and increase productivity.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 2 is incorrect.
An Agriculture Accelerator Fund will be set up to encourage agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas. The fund will aim at bringing innovative and affordable solutions for challenges faced by farmers. It will also bring in modern technologies to transform agricultural practices, and increase productivity and profitability.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The broiler chicken sector in India has witnessed significant growth, with annual meat production reaching around 5 million tonnes.
Statement-II: India ranks 3rd globally in meat production and 8th in egg production, as per FAOSTAT data from 2020.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Statement-I correctly highlights the significant growth in the broiler chicken sector in India, with an annual meat production of approximately 5 million tonnes. Statement-II is also accurate, indicating that India ranks 3rd globally in meat production and 8th in egg production according to FAOSTAT data from 2020. Furthermore, Statement-II provides context to the growth and scale of the poultry industry in India, supporting and explaining the information presented in Statement-I. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II indeed elucidates Statement-I.

What is the primary objective of Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) in agriculture?
  • a)
    Measuring the amount of nitrogen absorbed by plants
  • b)
    Evaluating the ratio of crop yield to nitrogen absorbed
  • c)
    Assessing the environmental impact of nitrogen fertilizers
  • d)
    Quantifying the total nitrogen content in soil
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandita Gupta answered
Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) Explained
Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) is a crucial metric in agricultural practices aimed at optimizing nitrogen usage to enhance crop productivity while minimizing environmental impacts. The primary objective of NUE is effectively captured in option 'B': evaluating the ratio of crop yield to nitrogen absorbed.

Key Aspects of NUE
  • Understanding NUE: NUE measures how efficiently plants utilize nitrogen fertilizers to produce biomass or yield. A higher NUE indicates that a crop is producing more yield per unit of nitrogen absorbed.
  • Importance for Agriculture: Efficient nitrogen use is vital for sustainable agriculture. It helps farmers maximize crop yields while minimizing excess nitrogen application, reducing costs and environmental risks.
  • Balancing Fertilizer Use: By focusing on NUE, farmers can avoid over-fertilization, which often leads to nitrogen leaching into water bodies, causing pollution and eutrophication.
  • Enhancing Crop Management: NUE data enables farmers to make informed decisions regarding crop rotation, fertilizer application rates, and timing, ultimately leading to improved soil health and productivity.



Conclusion
In summary, while nitrogen absorption, environmental impacts, and soil nitrogen content are important aspects of nitrogen management, the evaluation of the ratio of crop yield to nitrogen absorbed (option 'B') is the primary objective of NUE in agriculture. This focus aids in creating a more sustainable agricultural system that meets food production needs without compromising environmental integrity.

What is the main reason for mangrove loss in India according to the report?
  • a)
    Shrimp aquaculture
  • b)
    Logging for timber
  • c)
    Rice cultivation
  • d)
    Natural retraction due to sea-level rise
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Main Reason for Mangrove Loss in India
Mangroves are vital coastal ecosystems that provide numerous ecological and economic benefits, including coastal protection, biodiversity habitat, and carbon sequestration. However, in India, the primary reason for mangrove loss is shrimp aquaculture.

Impact of Shrimp Aquaculture
- **Expansion of Aquaculture:** The demand for shrimp, particularly in international markets, has led to the conversion of mangrove forests into shrimp farms. This practice is prevalent in states like Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
- **Land Conversion:** Mangroves are cleared to create ponds for shrimp farming. The process often involves significant alteration of coastal landscapes, leading to habitat loss.

Environmental Consequences
- **Biodiversity Loss:** The removal of mangroves disrupts the ecosystems that support various species, leading to a decline in biodiversity. This loss affects fish populations and other marine life that rely on mangroves for breeding and shelter.
- **Coastal Erosion:** Mangroves act as natural barriers against storms and coastal erosion. Their removal increases vulnerability to flooding and erosion, impacting local communities.

Socio-economic Factors
- **Livelihood Dependency:** Many coastal communities depend on shrimp farming for income. This economic incentive often overshadows the environmental costs associated with mangrove loss.
- **Regulatory Challenges:** Weak enforcement of environmental regulations allows illegal clearing of mangroves for aquaculture to continue unchecked.
In summary, while there are multiple factors contributing to mangrove loss in India, shrimp aquaculture stands out as the most significant driver. The practice not only threatens the ecological integrity of coastal regions but also poses long-term economic risks to communities reliant on healthy marine ecosystems.

Consider the following statements regarding mRNA Technology Transfer Programme.
  1. The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme aims to enhance vaccine production capacity in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs).
  2. The Programme has developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases.
  3. It is the initiative of World Bank.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
A new initiative to develop and distribute mRNA vaccines for human avian influenza (H5N1) in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Medicines Patent Pool (MPP).
  • The project is part of the mRNA Technology Transfer Programme, established in 2021 to enhance vaccine production capacity in LMICs.
  • Once successful, the knowledge and materials will be shared with other manufacturers to expedite vaccine development and strengthen pandemic preparedness.
  • The initiative aligns with ongoing efforts to improve the sharing of influenza viruses and vaccine access under the Pandemic Influenza Preparedness Framework.
The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme has already developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases, enhancing global vaccine equity.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) pose a significant risk in the Himalayan region due to climate change-induced glacier melting, leading to the formation of potentially hazardous glacial lakes.
Statement-II: The National Glacial Lake Outburst Floods Risk Mitigation Programme (NGRMP) primarily focuses on evaluating the hazard levels of glacial lakes, implementing preventive measures, and establishing monitoring systems to mitigate the risks associated with GLOFs.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I correctly highlights the vulnerability of the Himalayan region to GLOFs due to climate change impacting glacial dynamics and the formation of precarious glacial lakes. These lakes can pose a threat to downstream areas in the event of an outburst flood.
Statement-II accurately describes the objectives and key activities of the National Glacial Lake Outburst Floods Risk Mitigation Programme (NGRMP). The program aims to assess the risks associated with GLOFs, establish monitoring systems, and implement measures to reduce the likelihood of such catastrophic events. However, while both statements are individually correct, Statement-II does not directly explain the specific vulnerability of the Himalayas to GLOFs as outlined in Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) - Evaluates crop yields using mobile apps and web portals.
2. Digital Crop Survey - Provides crop data through satellite imagery.
3. Revamped FASAL Programme - Uses remote sensing technology for crop forecasting.
4. Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg Portal) - Central platform for real-time agricultural statistics.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) - Correctly matched. It evaluates crop yields using mobile applications and web portals.
2. Digital Crop Survey - Incorrectly matched. It provides precise crop data through digital platforms, not specifically through satellite imagery.
3. Revamped FASAL Programme - Correctly matched. It uses remote sensing technology for crop forecasting.
4. Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg Portal) - Correctly matched. It acts as a central platform for real-time agricultural statistics.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs regarding the phenomenon of mass wasting in the Sedongpu Gully of Tibet:
1. Ice-rock avalanches - Sudden falling of large ice and rock masses.
2. Debris flows - Slow, gradual movement of debris down a slope.
3. Landslides - Rapid sliding of large masses of rock and soil.
4. Slope creep - Rapid movement of soil and rock down a slope.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Ice-rock avalanches - Correctly matched. Ice-rock avalanches involve the sudden falling of large ice and rock masses.
2. Debris flows - Incorrectly matched. Debris flows are rapid downslope movements of water-saturated rock debris and soil, not slow movements.
3. Landslides - Correctly matched. Landslides involve the rapid sliding of large masses of rock and soil down a slope.
4. Slope creep - Incorrectly matched. Slope creep refers to a gradual, slow movement of soil and rock down a slope, not rapid movement.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding mass wasting events in the Sedongpu Gully of Tibet:
1. The increased frequency of mass wasting events in Sedongpu Gully since 2017 is attributed to long-term warming trends and heightened seismic activity.
2. The mass wasting events in Sedongpu Gully have led to the temporary obstruction of the Brahmaputra River, causing flash floods in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
3. The Sedongpu basin primarily consists of Proterozoic marble, with land surface temperatures rarely exceeding 0°C prior to 2012.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
- Statement 1: Correct. The increase in mass wasting events in Sedongpu Gully since 2017 is indeed linked to long-term warming trends and heightened seismic activity. The study notes a significant rise in annual temperatures and increased seismic activity as contributing factors.
- Statement 2: Incorrect. While the mass wasting events have temporarily obstructed the Tsangpo River and its tributaries, this statement inaccurately identifies the Brahmaputra River directly. The Tsangpo River, which flows into India and becomes the Brahmaputra, was obstructed, causing downstream effects, but it was not directly stated that the Brahmaputra was obstructed in the text provided.
- Statement 3: Correct. The Sedongpu basin primarily consists of Proterozoic marble, with historically low land surface temperatures that rarely exceeded 0°C prior to 2012. Recent data shows an annual temperature rise beginning from 1981 to 2018.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Indian Railways is exploring nuclear power through captive units to reduce reliance on fossil fuels and increase renewable energy usage.
Statement-II: Nuclear-powered trains operate by utilizing the heat produced from a nuclear reaction to create high-pressure steam, driving electric turbines for power.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement-I is accurate as Indian Railways is indeed exploring nuclear power through captive units to reduce reliance on fossil fuels and increase renewable energy usage, as mentioned in the provided text. Statement-II accurately describes the functioning of nuclear-powered trains, where the heat from a nuclear reaction is used to create high-pressure steam, which, in turn, drives electric turbines for power. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the relevance and working principle associated with Statement-I, making Option A the correct choice.

What was the primary focus of the recent visit of the Prime Minister of India to Poland?
  • a)
    Strengthening military alliances
  • b)
    Enhancing economic cooperation
  • c)
    Promoting cultural exchanges
  • d)
    Addressing climate change issues
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
The recent visit of the Prime Minister of India to Poland primarily aimed at enhancing economic cooperation between the two nations. During the visit, both countries elevated their bilateral relationship to a "Strategic Partnership," emphasizing their commitment to deepen cooperation across various sectors. This move signifies a significant step towards fostering economic ties and exploring new avenues for collaboration between India and Poland.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) employs a mobile application and web portal to evaluate crop yields and enhance agricultural practices across India.
2. The revamped FASAL Programme uses remote sensing technology to create accurate crop maps and estimate areas for major crops.
3. The Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg Portal) provides a centralized platform for real-time information on crop production and market trends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1: The Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) indeed employs a mobile application and web portal to evaluate crop yields and enhance agricultural practices across India. This initiative includes scientifically designed crop cutting experiments, GPS-enabled photo capture, automated plot selection, and geo-referencing, which improve the transparency and accuracy of crop data collection.
2. Statement 2: The revamped FASAL Programme (Forecasting Agricultural output using Space, Agro-meteorology and Land-based observations) does use remote sensing technology to create accurate crop maps and estimate areas for major crops. The Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre (MNCFC) plays a critical role in generating these forecasts.
3. Statement 3: The Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg Portal) acts as a centralized platform providing near real-time information on crop production, market trends, pricing, and other crucial agricultural data. This portal facilitates data cross-verification from multiple sources, ensuring robust agricultural statistics.
All three statements accurately describe the initiatives and features associated with revamping crop data collection through e-technology in India. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D: 1, 2, and 3.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is enshrined in Article 44 of the Constitution of India, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
  2. The Supreme Court in the Shayara Bano v. Union of India case declared the practice of triple talaq unconstitutional.
  3. The 21st Law Commission under Justice Balbir Singh Chauhan strongly recommended the immediate implementation of the UCC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Statement 1: The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is indeed enshrined in Article 44 of the Constitution of India, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The Supreme Court in the Shayara Bano v. Union of India case declared the practice of triple talaq unconstitutional. This statement is correct.
Statement 3: The 21st Law Commission under Justice Balbir Singh Chauhan did not strongly recommend the immediate implementation of the UCC. Instead, in 2018, it published a consultation paper stating that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at the present time. This statement is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project is designed to provide annual irrigation for 4.74 lakh hectares, with 2.99 lakh hectares specifically in Bihar.
2. The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) oversees the Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project under the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.
3. The project includes a significant flood control component to mitigate the annual floods in Bihar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct: The Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project is indeed designed to provide annual irrigation for 4.74 lakh hectares, with 2.99 lakh hectares specifically in Bihar.
2. Statement 2 is correct: The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) oversees the Kosi-Mechi River Linking Project, which operates under the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The project has been criticized for lacking a significant flood control component, which is a major concern for the local residents in this flood-prone area. The focus of the project is primarily on enhancing irrigation rather than flood control.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) and its impact:
1. Poor NUE leads to significant financial losses globally due to the wastage of nitrogen fertilizers.
2. Nitrogen pollution primarily affects air quality but does not significantly impact water bodies.
3. Nitrogen pollution contributes to both climate change and the degradation of biodiversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Poor NUE leads to significant financial losses globally due to the wastage of nitrogen fertilizers.
- Correct. Poor Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) indeed results in the wastage of nitrogen fertilizers, with significant financial losses amounting to approximately Rs 1 lakh crore annually in India and over USD 170 billion worldwide.
2. Nitrogen pollution primarily affects air quality but does not significantly impact water bodies.
- Incorrect. Nitrogen pollution affects both air and water bodies. It contributes to air pollution through nitrous oxide and ammonia emissions and causes water pollution by nitrate and ammonium leaching into soils, rivers, and lakes.
3. Nitrogen pollution contributes to both climate change and the degradation of biodiversity.
- Correct. Nitrogen pollution is a significant contributor to climate change due to the potent greenhouse gas nitrous oxide and also leads to the degradation of biodiversity by over-enriching ecosystems, causing soil acidity, and promoting invasive species over more sensitive plants and fungi.
Given these explanations, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the right answer.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Supreme Court of India’s stance on the Uniform Civil Code (UCC):
  1. Mohd. Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum Case, 1985 - Recommended implementing UCC
  2. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India, 1995 - Declared triple talaq unconstitutional
  3. John Vallamattom v. Union of India, 2003 - Emphasized the need for a UCC
  4. Shayara Bano v. Union of India, 2017 - Regretted neglect of Article 44
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

  1. Mohd. Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum Case, 1985 - Recommended implementing UCC
    This is correctly matched. In this case, the Supreme Court highlighted the neglect of Article 44 and recommended the implementation of the UCC.
  2. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India, 1995 - Declared triple talaq unconstitutional
    This is incorrectly matched. In the Sarla Mudgal case, the Court underscored the necessity of implementing the UCC, but it did not address the issue of triple talaq.
  3. John Vallamattom v. Union of India, 2003 - Emphasized the need for a UCC
    This is correctly matched. The Supreme Court reiterated the need for a UCC in this case.
  4. Shayara Bano v. Union of India, 2017 - Regretted neglect of Article 44
    This is incorrectly matched. In the Shayara Bano case, the Supreme Court declared the practice of triple talaq unconstitutional and emphasized dignity and equality for Muslim women, but it did not specifically mention the neglect of Article 44.
    Hence, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Employment Generation - ISRO has created numerous job opportunities, employing scientists, engineers, and technicians directly while also generating indirect employment in sectors such as satellite manufacturing and data analysis.
2. Enhancements in Communication and Navigation - ISRO’s satellites improve communication, weather forecasting, and navigation services, benefiting various sectors and enhancing economic productivity.
3. Disaster Management and Resource Planning - Satellites do not provide any data for disaster management, hence not aiding in the sustainable management of natural resources.
4. International Collaboration and Soft Power - ISRO's successful launch of over 300 foreign satellites has positioned India as a global leader in space technology, enhancing its international reputation and fostering collaborative efforts.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Employment Generation - Correct. ISRO has indeed created numerous job opportunities by employing scientists, engineers, and technicians directly, and has also generated indirect employment in sectors such as satellite manufacturing and data analysis.
2. Enhancements in Communication and Navigation - Correct. ISRO’s satellites significantly improve communication, weather forecasting, and navigation services, benefiting various sectors and enhancing economic productivity.
3. Disaster Management and Resource Planning - Incorrect. ISRO’s satellites provide vital data for disaster management, enabling swift responses to natural disasters, and assist in the sustainable management of natural resources.
4. International Collaboration and Soft Power - Correct. ISRO's successful launch of over 300 foreign satellites has indeed positioned India as a global leader in space technology, enhancing its international reputation and fostering collaborative efforts.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary objective of Transit-Oriented Development (TOD)?
  • a)
    To increase vehicle dependence and congestion
  • b)
    To disperse jobs, housing, and services away from public transport stations
  • c)
    To concentrate jobs, housing, and services around public transport stations
  • d)
    To encourage sprawling development away from transit options
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The primary objective of Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) is to concentrate jobs, housing, and services around public transport stations. This planning strategy aims to create environments where development is easily accessible by walking or biking near transit options, promoting efficiency in economic growth, urban transport, and land use.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Biofuels are crucial for environmental sustainability as they can help alleviate some of the negative impacts of fossil fuel use, such as greenhouse gas emissions, resource depletion, and they also offer improved waste management solutions.
Statement-II: Ethanol is produced by the fermentation of crop residues such as corn and sugarcane. After fermentation, the ethanol is mixed with petroleum, diluting it and reducing emissions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement-I correctly highlights the environmental benefits of biofuels, emphasizing their role in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions, addressing resource depletion issues, and offering solutions for improved waste management. Statement-II accurately describes the process of ethanol production, which involves the fermentation of crop residues like corn and sugarcane, followed by mixing with petroleum to reduce emissions. Ethanol blending with petroleum helps in reducing overall emissions and dependency on fossil fuels, thereby supporting environmental sustainability. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a relevant explanation for the significance of biofuels in environmental sustainability.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of climate change on Earth's rotational dynamics:
1. Melting of polar ice caps increases the Earth's oblateness and moment of inertia.
2. The Earth's rotational axis shift due to melting ice can lead to significant changes in the duration of a day.
3. Variations in Earth's rotation can affect the accuracy of GPS systems.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Melting of polar ice caps increases the Earth's oblateness and moment of inertia: This statement is correct. The melting polar ice caps cause water to redistribute from the poles towards the equator, which increases the Earth's oblateness (flattening at the poles) and moment of inertia. This change in mass distribution affects the Earth's rotational dynamics.
2. The Earth's rotational axis shift due to melting ice can lead to significant changes in the duration of a day: This statement is incorrect. Although the melting ice causes a slight shift in the Earth's axis of rotation, it is not significant enough to cause major changes in the duration of a day. The duration changes are primarily due to the conservation of angular momentum as the mass distribution changes, which affects the rotational speed but not through axis shifts.
3. Variations in Earth's rotation can affect the accuracy of GPS systems: This statement is correct. GPS systems rely on precise time measurements, and any variations in Earth's rotation can impact the accuracy of these systems. Changes in rotational speed can introduce minor errors in navigation and location services.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C

How does melting polar ice caps due to climate change affect the Earth's rotational dynamics?
  • a)
    It causes the Earth to spin faster
  • b)
    It leads to a decrease in the Earth's oblateness
  • c)
    It increases the Earth's rotational speed
  • d)
    It slows down the Earth's rotation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Melting polar ice caps due to climate change cause the Earth to slow down its rotation. As the ice melts and flows towards the equator, it increases the Earth's oblateness and moment of inertia, leading to a slower spin. This phenomenon is a result of the conservation of angular momentum, where the redistribution of mass affects the Earth's rotational speed, causing it to slow down over time.

Consider the following statements regarding Pangong Tso Lake.
  1. Pangong Tso Lake is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas.
  2. It is part of the Indus River basin area.
  3. It is under the Ramsar Convention as a wetland of international importance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
  • Pangong Tso Lake is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet situated at an elevation of 4,225 m (13,862 ft). It is 134 km (83 mi) long and divided into five sublakes, called Pangong Tso, Tso Nyak, Rum Tso (twin lakes) and Nyak Tso.
  • During winter the lake freezes completely, despite being saline water. It has a land-locked basin separated from the Indus River basin by a small elevated ridge, but is believed to have been part of the latter in prehistoric times.
  • The lake is not under the Ramsar Convention as a wetland of international importance.

What is a wildfire primarily known as when it burns along the ground, consuming surface litter like leaves, twigs, and dry grasses?
  • a)
    Surface Fire
  • b)
    Canopy or Crown Fire
  • c)
    Underground Fire/Zombie Fire
  • d)
    Controlled Deliberate Fire
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

A surface fire is a type of wildfire that primarily burns along the ground, consuming surface litter like leaves, twigs, and dry grasses. These fires are common in various natural settings such as forests, grasslands, brushlands, or tundras. They are influenced by environmental conditions like wind and topography, spreading based on these factors.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Indonesia: 21% of the world's mangroves
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Indonesia: 21% of the world's mangroves - Correct. Indonesia holds about 21% of the world's mangroves.
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas - Correct. Some mangrove areas in the Philippines have average values of over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare.
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India - Correct. West Bengal holds the largest mangrove area in India.
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests - Incorrect. While the report mentions that natural mangrove forests on the southern Indian coast are critically endangered, this primarily refers to the Lakshadweep archipelago and not specifically Tamil Nadu.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary driving force behind mass wasting events like rock falls, landslides, and debris flows?
  • a)
    Wind patterns
  • b)
    Human intervention
  • c)
    Gravity
  • d)
    Seismic waves
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Gravity serves as the primary force behind mass wasting events, such as rock falls, landslides, and debris flows. This natural process involves the downslope movement of rock, soil, and debris driven by gravitational forces. The pull of gravity on slopes can lead to various types of mass wasting, impacting landscapes and posing risks to surrounding areas.

Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Powered Trains:
1. A nuclear-powered train uses a portable nuclear reactor to generate high-pressure steam which drives electric turbines to produce power for the train.
2. Thorium reactors are preferred for nuclear-powered trains because they eliminate radiation risks entirely.
3. Nuclear-powered trains can operate for extended periods without needing frequent refueling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Correct - A nuclear-powered train uses a portable nuclear reactor to generate high-pressure steam, which drives electric turbines to produce power for the train. This is an accurate description of how nuclear-powered trains function.
2. Incorrect - While thorium reactors are considered due to their lower radiation risk compared to other nuclear materials, they do not eliminate radiation risks entirely. The statement that they eliminate radiation risks entirely is incorrect.
3. Correct - One of the significant advantages of nuclear-powered trains is that they can operate for extended periods without needing frequent refueling. This is because nuclear reactors can deliver a high energy output with minimal fuel.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

Consider the following statements regarding ISRO's space missions and their impact on the Indian economy:
1. ISRO's investments in space missions have delivered returns of approximately 2.5 times the expenditure.
2. Between 2014 and 2024, the Indian space sector is projected to contribute USD 60 billion to the national economy.
3. The Indian space sector is expected to create 4.7 million jobs and generate USD 24 billion in tax revenues by 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
All three statements accurately reflect the findings and projections related to ISRO's impact on the Indian economy. Let's break down each statement:
1. ISRO's investments in space missions have delivered returns of approximately 2.5 times the expenditure:
This statement is corroborated by the provided information indicating that the economic returns from ISRO's space missions are 2.5 times greater than the initial investments.
2. Between 2014 and 2024, the Indian space sector is projected to contribute USD 60 billion to the national economy:
This is directly mentioned in the text, stating that the Indian space sector is expected to contribute USD 60 billion to the economy during this period.
3. The Indian space sector is expected to create 4.7 million jobs and generate USD 24 billion in tax revenues by 2024:
Again, this is supported by the text, which projects significant job creation and tax revenue generation from the space sector.
Since all statements are correct, the answer is Option D.

What is a key reason for the high attrition rates in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) as highlighted by the Union Finance Minister?
  • a)
    Lack of employee benefits
  • b)
    Challenging work environment
  • c)
    Slower career growth
  • d)
    Limited digital capabilities
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The key reason for the high attrition rates in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) as highlighted by the Union Finance Minister is the lack of employee benefits. Employees often leave RRBs for better opportunities in Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) that offer superior facilities while maintaining similar pay scales. Providing competitive benefits similar to SCBs, such as improved housing, healthcare, and retirement plans, can help address this issue and improve employee retention in RRBs.

What is the primary aim of holding 2+2 meetings between countries like India and Japan?
  • a)
    Strengthening economic ties
  • b)
    Addressing cultural exchanges
  • c)
    Enhancing bilateral relations and addressing mutual concerns
  • d)
    Promoting educational collaborations
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

2+2 meetings between countries like India and Japan primarily aim at enhancing bilateral relations and addressing mutual concerns. These high-level diplomatic dialogues involve the foreign and defence ministers of the two nations, allowing for in-depth discussions on strategic, security, and defence issues. This format helps strengthen ties and resolve conflicts, contributing to building stronger partnerships.

What is the primary objective of the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as mandated by Article 44 of the Indian Constitution?
  • a)
    To establish a religiously neutral legal framework
  • b)
    To enforce uniform criminal laws across all states
  • c)
    To regulate personal laws of specific communities
  • d)
    To promote equality and fraternity among citizens
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as enshrined in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution aims to promote equality and fraternity among all citizens by establishing a uniform civil code applicable to the entire nation. This initiative seeks to harmonize personal laws related to marriage, divorce, inheritance, and other civil matters to ensure equal rights for all individuals, irrespective of their religious or cultural backgrounds.

What is the primary aim of the National TB Elimination Programme in India?
  • a)
    To reduce the prevalence of subclinical TB cases
  • b)
    To eradicate TB entirely by 2025
  • c)
    To provide Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) to TB patients
  • d)
    To engage Gram Panchayats in raising TB awareness
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The National TB Elimination Programme in India aims to eradicate tuberculosis entirely by the year 2025. This initiative focuses on comprehensive strategies to eliminate TB, including early detection, treatment, and prevention measures to achieve a TB-free India.

What is the primary reason for the recent surge in cancer cases among men?
  • a)
    Increased pollution levels
  • b)
    Aging population
  • c)
    Lifestyle factors
  • d)
    Genetic mutations
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Lifestyle factors play a significant role in the rising cancer cases among men, as highlighted in the study. Unhealthy lifestyle choices such as tobacco use, excessive alcohol consumption, poor diet, lack of physical activity, and exposure to carcinogens contribute to the increased risk of developing cancer. It's essential for individuals to adopt healthy habits to reduce their cancer risk.

Consider the following pairs regarding the impact of climate change on the Panama Canal:
1. Drought conditions - Reduced passage of ships
2. Lowered water levels - Restriction on size of ships
3. Increased rainfall - Enhanced operational efficiency
4. Disruption in Panama Canal - Impact on global trade
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Drought conditions - Reduced passage of ships: Correct
The prolonged drought since early 2023 has led to reduced water levels in Lake Gatun, causing a decrease in the number of ships that can pass through the Panama Canal. This has reduced ship traffic significantly.
2. Lowered water levels - Restriction on size of ships: Correct
Lower water levels have indeed restricted the size of vessels that can navigate the canal, as larger ships face increased risks of grounding in the shallower areas.
3. Increased rainfall - Enhanced operational efficiency: Incorrect
The statement is incorrect because the current problem is not increased rainfall but rather reduced rainfall leading to drought conditions. Enhanced operational efficiency would likely result from stable and adequate water levels, not increased rainfall during a drought period.
4. Disruption in Panama Canal - Impact on global trade: Correct
Disruptions in the Panama Canal due to low water levels and reduced passage of ships have significantly impacted global trade, causing delays, increased fuel consumption, and potential GDP losses as ships are forced to take longer routes.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the Poultry Industry in India:
1. India stands 3rd in egg production and 8th in meat production globally.
2. The poultry sector in India has seen an average annual growth rate of 8% for meat and 7.45% for eggs from 2014-15 to 2021-22.
3. India exported poultry products to over 70 countries, generating USD 200 million in revenue during the 2022-23 period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Statement 1 is correct: India ranks 3rd globally in egg production and 8th in meat production as per FAOSTAT data from 2020.
Statement 2 is correct: The poultry sector in India has indeed seen an average annual growth rate of 8% for meat and 7.45% for eggs from 2014-15 to 2021-22.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The provided information states that India exported poultry products to 64 countries, generating USD 134 million in revenue during the 2022-23 period, not over 70 countries and USD 200 million.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding organ donation and transplantation in India:
1. The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) was amended in 2011 to include specific provisions for organ donation.
2. Organs from deceased donors are allocated to foreign nationals only when no matching Indian patients are available.
3. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is responsible for regulating living organ donations in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is correct. The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) was indeed amended in 2011 to include specific provisions aimed at promoting organ donation and transplantation.
Statement 2 is also correct. According to the regulations, organs from deceased donors are allocated to foreign nationals only when no matching Indian patients are available, ensuring that Indian recipients are prioritized.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is primarily responsible for providing a national system for organ procurement and distribution, and not specifically for regulating living organ donations. The regulation of living organ donations is covered under the THOTA and related rules.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Chicago Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to 
  • a)
    Sustainable Development 
  • b)
    Sustainable use of natural resources 
  • c)
    Protection of World Heritage Cites 
  • d)
    Civil Aviation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
About the Chicago Convention:
  • Also known as the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is an international treaty established in 1944. It set out the core principles for international air transport and created the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)to oversee its implementation.
  • The convention recognizes nine freedoms of air, with the first five being officially recognized by the ICAO. These freedoms grant countries the right to fly over, land in, and transport passengers and cargo between territories.
  • India is its member

Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court ruled that the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi can nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) without needing advice from the Delhi Government's Council of Ministers.
2. Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister should aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on all matters.
3. Aldermen nominated to the MCD have voting rights in all MCD meetings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is Correct: The Supreme Court ruled that the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi has the explicit power to nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) without needing advice from the Delhi Government's Council of Ministers. This was established based on the interpretation of Section 3 of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957.
2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution requires that the Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister should aid and advise the LG in matters within the Legislative Assembly's power, but this does not apply to the nomination of aldermen as per the Supreme Court ruling.
3. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Aldermen nominated to the MCD do not have voting rights in all MCD meetings. They can vote and stand for election in Wards Committees but do not have voting rights in general MCD meetings.
Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Hoolock Gibbon: Found in India's northeastern region
2. Great Nicobar Project: Includes a Greenfield International Airport
3. Sovereign Gold Bonds: Issued by SEBI
4. Hollong Tree: Dominates the Upper Canopy of Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
1. Hoolock Gibbon: Found in India's northeastern region - Correct- The Hoolock Gibbon is native to the northeastern region of India.
2. Great Nicobar Project: Includes a Greenfield International Airport - Correct- The Great Nicobar Project includes the development of a Greenfield International Airport.
3. Sovereign Gold Bonds: Issued by SEBI - Incorrect- Sovereign Gold Bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India, not SEBI.
4. Hollong Tree: Dominates the Upper Canopy of Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary - Correct- The Hollong tree (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus) is a dominant species in the upper canopy of the Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary.
Thus, out of the four pairs, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the abrogation of Article 370:
1. The Presidential Orders of 2019 redefined the "constituent assembly of Jammu and Kashmir" to mean the "Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir."
2. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, bifurcated the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
3. The Supreme Court ruled in December 2023 that the abrogation of Article 370 was unconstitutional and invalidated the Presidential Orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1: Correct. The Presidential Orders of 2019 indeed redefined the "constituent assembly of Jammu and Kashmir" to mean the "Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir."
- Statement 2: Correct. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, bifurcated the state into two Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
- Statement 3: Incorrect. The Supreme Court, in December 2023, upheld the abrogation of Article 370, validating the Presidential Orders and rendering Article 370 inoperative.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Economic Survey 2023-24 advocated attracting investments from Chinese companies to boost exports.
2. The slow visa approval process for Chinese technicians has led to delays in the commencement of production in multiple industries in India.
3. The Government of India has approved all Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) applications from China submitted since the modification of the FDI policy under Press Note 3 (PN3), 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. The Economic Survey 2023-24 indeed advocated for attracting investments from Chinese companies to boost exports. This is aimed at leveraging foreign expertise and investments to enhance the manufacturing capabilities of India.
2. The slow visa approval process for Chinese technicians has indeed led to delays in the commencement of production in multiple industries in India. This has been a significant issue, particularly highlighted in sectors like textiles and leather, where machinery has remained unused due to the absence of Chinese technicians required for activation.
3. The Government of India has not approved all FDI applications from China submitted since the modification of the FDI policy under Press Note 3 (PN3), 2020. In fact, only a quarter of the total 435 FDI applications from China up to June 2023 have been approved, reflecting a cautious approach due to security concerns.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

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