All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following pairs:
1. Aksai Chin - Central Sector
2. McMahon Line - Eastern Sector
3. Shinku La Tunnel - Western Sector
4. Daulat Beg Oldi - Eastern Sector
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nidhi Shah answered
Understanding the Pairs
To analyze the correctness of the pairs regarding the India-China border, let's break down each pair:
1. **Aksai Chin - Central Sector**
- **Explanation**: Aksai Chin is actually in the Western Sector of the India-China border, not the Central Sector. This pair is **incorrect**.
2. **McMahon Line - Eastern Sector**
- **Explanation**: The McMahon Line marks the boundary between India and Tibet in the Eastern Sector. This pair is **correct**.
3. **Shinku La Tunnel - Western Sector**
- **Explanation**: The Shinku La Tunnel, which connects the Indian state of Ladakh to the Shyok region, is indeed located in the Western Sector. This pair is **correct**.
4. **Daulat Beg Oldi - Eastern Sector**
- **Explanation**: Daulat Beg Oldi is situated in the Northern region of Ladakh and is part of the Western Sector, not the Eastern Sector. This pair is **incorrect**.

Summary of Correct Matches
- Correctly matched pairs:
- McMahon Line - Eastern Sector
- Shinku La Tunnel - Western Sector
- Incorrectly matched pairs:
- Aksai Chin - Central Sector
- Daulat Beg Oldi - Eastern Sector

Conclusion
In total, there is **only one pair** correctly matched (McMahon Line - Eastern Sector), making the correct answer option 'A'.

Consider the following statements:
1. The credit growth of Indian banks is projected to decline to 14% in the current financial year from 16% in the previous year.
2. India's credit-to-GDP ratio is higher than that of other Asian nations with similar income levels.
3. The decrease in the share of Current and Savings Accounts (CASA) within total deposits has worsened the liquidity crisis in Indian banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Let's analyze each statement:
1. The credit growth of Indian banks is projected to decline to 14% in the current financial year from 16% in the previous year.
  • This statement is correct. Reports indicate that the credit growth is indeed projected to decline to 14% this financial year, compared to 16% last year.
2. India's credit-to-GDP ratio is higher than that of other Asian nations with similar income levels.
  • This statement is incorrect. India's credit-to-GDP ratio is actually lower than that of other Asian nations with similar income levels, such as Thailand, Malaysia, and China.
3. The decrease in the share of Current and Savings Accounts (CASA) within total deposits has worsened the liquidity crisis in Indian banks.
  • This statement is correct. The growing disparity between credit and deposit growth, exacerbated by a decrease in CASA share, has led to a liquidity crisis.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Harappan Civilization is also known as the Mesopotamian Civilization.
Statement-II:
The Harappan Civilization extended across more than 1.5 million square kilometers and included parts of present-day India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kirti Banerjee answered
Understanding the Statements
The question presents two statements regarding the Harappan Civilization and asks to evaluate their correctness.
Statement-I Analysis
- Incorrectness: The Harappan Civilization is not known as the Mesopotamian Civilization.
- Distinct Civilizations: These are two separate ancient civilizations that developed independently. Mesopotamia is located in the region of modern-day Iraq, while the Harappan Civilization was in the Indus Valley (present-day India and Pakistan).
Statement-II Analysis
- Correctness: This statement is accurate.
- Geographical Extent: The Harappan Civilization indeed extended across more than 1.5 million square kilometers, covering parts of present-day India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.
- Cultural Significance: It was one of the world's earliest urban cultures, known for its advanced urban planning, architecture, and social organization.
Conclusion
- Final Verdict: Since Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct, the answer is option 'D': "Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct."
Understanding the distinction between different ancient civilizations is crucial for grasping the complexities of historical development in the Indian subcontinent and surrounding regions.

What is a key factor contributing to the rise in undocumented Indian immigrants entering the U.S. according to recent statistics?
  • a)
    Decrease in global migration post-pandemic
  • b)
    Decrease in travel agencies facilitating illegal migration
  • c)
    Growth in global migration post-pandemic
  • d)
    Decrease in visa backlogs for Indians
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Keerthana Sen answered
Key Factor: Growth in Global Migration Post-Pandemic
The rise in undocumented Indian immigrants entering the U.S. can be largely attributed to the growth in global migration post-pandemic. Here's a detailed breakdown of this phenomenon:

Changing Migration Patterns
- **Increased Mobility**: The COVID-19 pandemic restricted global travel, but as restrictions eased, many individuals sought new opportunities abroad, notably in the U.S.
- **Economic Factors**: Economic instability in India, coupled with the promise of better job prospects in the U.S., has motivated many to pursue undocumented migration.

Social Dynamics
- **Family Reunification**: Many individuals are motivated to join family members already residing in the U.S., often leading them to take risks to enter the country illegally.
- **Community Support**: Established Indian communities in the U.S. provide support networks that encourage further migration, making the prospect of undocumented entry more appealing.

Policy Environment
- **Visa Limitations**: Despite the demand for skilled labor in the U.S., visa backlogs and restrictive immigration policies have made legal migration pathways challenging.
- **Increased Smuggling Networks**: The growth of smuggling networks post-pandemic has made it easier for individuals to attempt entry into the U.S. illegally.

Conclusion
The combination of economic factors, social dynamics, and a challenging policy environment has contributed significantly to the rise in undocumented Indian immigrants. The post-pandemic recovery has not only revitalized migration aspirations but also intensified the quest for better living conditions, thus driving many to take the risk of entering the U.S. without documentation.

Consider the following pairs:
1. India recognized the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) as the legitimate representative of the Palestinian people - 1988
2. India established its Representative Office in Gaza - 1996
3. India supported Palestine's bid to become a full member of UNESCO - 2011
4. India offered a Line of Credit of USD 50 million to Palestine for development and sustainable projects - 2021
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Datta answered
Overview of India's Relations with Palestine
India has a long-standing relationship with Palestine, marked by several key milestones. Each of the pairs mentioned reflects significant developments in India's diplomatic engagement with the Palestinian cause.
Analysis of the Pairs
- Pair 1: India recognized the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) as the legitimate representative of the Palestinian people - 1988
- This pair is correct. India formally recognized the PLO in 1988, marking a significant step in its support for Palestinian self-determination.
- Pair 2: India established its Representative Office in Gaza - 1996
- This pair is incorrect. India established its Representative Office in Palestine but not specifically in Gaza. The office was set up in 1996 in the West Bank.
- Pair 3: India supported Palestine's bid to become a full member of UNESCO - 2011
- This pair is correct. India voted in favor of Palestine’s admission to UNESCO in 2011, aligning with its support for Palestinian statehood.
- Pair 4: India offered a Line of Credit of USD 50 million to Palestine for development and sustainable projects - 2021
- This pair is correct. In 2021, India announced a Line of Credit aimed at promoting development in Palestine, further solidifying its support.
Conclusion
In summary, out of the four pairs:
- Correct Matches: 1, 3, and 4
- Incorrect Match: 2
Therefore, the answer is only three pairs are correctly matched, indicating that the correct answer is option 'B'. This reflects India's evolving diplomatic stance while maintaining its support for Palestinian rights and development.

Consider the following statements regarding the World Gold Council (WGC):
1. The World Gold Council is a nonprofit organization established in 1987, comprising the leading gold mining companies globally.
2. The WGC's operations cover markets accounting for about 50% of global gold consumption each year.
3. One of the initiatives by the WGC includes the creation of the first gold exchange-traded fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
1. Statement 1 is Correct: The World Gold Council (WGC) is indeed a nonprofit organization established in 1987, and it consists of the leading gold mining companies globally. The Council aims to develop the gold market and increase the demand for gold through various initiatives.
2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The WGC's operations cover markets that account for about 75% of global gold consumption each year, not 50%. This significant coverage underscores the Council’s influence in the global gold industry.
3. Statement 3 is Correct: The WGC played a pivotal role in creating the first gold exchange-traded fund (ETF). This initiative has been crucial in making gold investment more accessible to a broader range of investors.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

What is the primary purpose of filing a Zero FIR?
  • a)
    To ensure immediate arrest of the accused
  • b)
    To simplify the process of filing a police complaint
  • c)
    To allow victims to file complaints at any police station
  • d)
    To initiate investigations without delay
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prerna Ahuja answered
Understanding Zero FIR
Zero FIR is a provision in Indian law that allows victims to file a First Information Report (FIR) at any police station, regardless of the jurisdiction. This innovative measure is designed to streamline the process for victims, ensuring that they can seek help without unnecessary delays.

Primary Purpose of Zero FIR
The primary purpose of filing a Zero FIR is:
  • Victim Empowerment: It enables victims to lodge complaints immediately, without being restricted to the jurisdiction of the incident. This is crucial in cases where the victim may be far from their home police station or the crime occurs in a different area.
  • Immediate Action: By allowing the filing of complaints at any police station, Zero FIR facilitates faster police response and action, which is vital in urgent situations.
  • Investigation Initiation: The Zero FIR allows the police to start an investigation right away, ensuring that evidence is collected promptly and the case is not hindered by bureaucratic delays.



Importance of Zero FIR in Legal Context
Zero FIR plays a significant role in the legal framework by:
  • Reducing Delays: Victims often face delays due to jurisdictional issues; Zero FIR eliminates this barrier.
  • Ensuring Accountability: Police are obligated to register a Zero FIR, which enhances accountability and encourages them to take victims seriously.


In summary, Zero FIR is a vital tool that empowers victims and ensures that the legal process is swift and efficient, ultimately supporting the fight against crime.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB) is focused on advanced research in animal biotechnology to enhance animal health, productivity, and welfare.
Statement-II:
The BioE3 Policy introduced by the Government of India promotes sustainable development by boosting bioenergy production, expanding the bioeconomy, and supporting environmental sustainability and employment generation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation of Statements
Both statements provided are accurate and reflect significant initiatives in India related to biotechnology and sustainable development.

Statement-I: National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB)
- The NIAB is a premier research institution in India dedicated to advancing animal biotechnology.
- Its focus includes enhancing:
- Animal health
- Productivity
- Welfare
- The institute conducts research that aims to develop innovative biotechnological applications to address challenges in livestock management.

Statement-II: BioE3 Policy
- The BioE3 Policy stands for Bioenergy, Bioeconomy, and Environmental Sustainability.
- This policy promotes sustainable development through:
- Boosting bioenergy production
- Expanding the bioeconomy
- Supporting environmental sustainability
- Generating employment
- By addressing these areas, the BioE3 Policy aims to create a holistic framework for sustainable growth.

Relationship Between the Statements
- While both statements are correct, Statement-II does not specifically explain Statement-I.
- They both operate in the broader context of biotechnology and sustainability but focus on different aspects.
- NIAB emphasizes animal biotechnology, whereas the BioE3 Policy targets bioenergy and environmental initiatives.

Conclusion
- Thus, the correct answer is option 'A': Both statements are correct, and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- This reflects the interconnected yet distinct roles both entities play in promoting biotechnology and sustainability in India.

Consider the following statements about the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT):
1. Under the IWT, India is allocated the rivers Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas, while Pakistan receives the rivers Sindh, Jhelum, and Chenab.
2. The treaty allows India to construct storage facilities on the western rivers up to a capacity of 3.6 million acre-feet.
3. Disputes under the IWT are resolved through a three-level mechanism, with the final level being the involvement of the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct: The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) allocates the rivers Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas to India, while Pakistan is allocated the rivers Sindh, Jhelum, and Chenab. This allocation is a fundamental aspect of the treaty, which was facilitated by the World Bank to manage water distribution between the two countries.
- Statement 2 is correct: The treaty allows India to construct storage facilities on the western rivers (Sindh, Jhelum, and Chenab) up to a capacity of 3.6 million acre-feet. This provision is intended for India to utilize the water for consumptive uses, although the full potential of this allowance has not been realized.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The dispute resolution mechanism under the IWT does not involve the International Court of Justice (ICJ). Instead, it includes three levels: the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) for initial discussions, the appointment of a neutral expert by the World Bank if the PIC cannot resolve the issue, and finally, if necessary, the matter is referred to a Court of Arbitration (CoA) with its chair appointed by the World Bank. The ICJ is not mentioned as a part of this mechanism.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands - Japan and China
2. Second Thomas Shoal - Philippines and China
3. Taiwan Strait - South Korea and Japan
4. Scarborough Shoal - Philippines and China
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands - Japan and China: Correct. These islands are controlled by Japan but claimed by China, leading to significant tensions between the two countries.
2. Second Thomas Shoal - Philippines and China: Correct. This shoal is a point of contention between the Philippines and China, with frequent incidents reported around it.
3. Taiwan Strait - South Korea and Japan: Incorrect. The Taiwan Strait is actually between Taiwan and mainland China, not involving South Korea or Japan.
4. Scarborough Shoal - Philippines and China: Correct. This shoal is disputed between the Philippines and China, with both nations asserting territorial claims over it.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary goal of the PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-Drive) Scheme recently sanctioned by the Union Cabinet?
  • a)
    To promote traditional fuel-based vehicles
  • b)
    To enhance the efficiency of diesel-powered vehicles
  • c)
    To foster electric mobility and mitigate pollution
  • d)
    To subsidize the import of petrol vehicles
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary objective of the PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-Drive) Scheme is to foster electric mobility, mitigate pollution, and bolster fuel security. By allocating a substantial budget over two years, the scheme aims to incentivize the adoption of electric vehicles such as e-2Ws, e-3Ws, e-buses, e-ambulances, and e-trucks. This initiative also focuses on establishing charging infrastructure in urban areas and along highways to alleviate range anxiety, contributing to a cleaner and more sustainable transportation ecosystem.

Who was the first woman to join a legislative council in an Indian princely state, specifically the Travancore Legislative Council?
  • a)
    Mary Poonen Lukose
  • b)
    Indira Gandhi
  • c)
    Sarojini Naidu
  • d)
    Kalpana Chawla
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Patel answered
Introduction
The history of women's participation in politics in India has seen several milestones. One significant event occurred in the princely state of Travancore, where Mary Poonen Lukose made her mark.
Mary Poonen Lukose: A Pioneer
- First Female Member: Mary Poonen Lukose was the first woman to join a legislative council in an Indian princely state, specifically the Travancore Legislative Council.
- Historical Context: This event took place in a time when women's roles were primarily limited to the domestic sphere. Her appointment symbolized a breakthrough in gender representation in governance.
Contributions and Legacy
- Advocacy for Women's Rights: Beyond her political role, Lukose was a strong advocate for women's rights and education. She worked tirelessly to improve the status of women in society.
- Inspiration for Future Generations: Her pioneering efforts inspired many women to engage in public life and politics, paving the way for future female leaders in India.
Conclusion
Mary Poonen Lukose's entry into the Travancore Legislative Council marked a significant step towards gender equality in Indian politics. Her contributions not only altered the political landscape of her time but also left a lasting impact on women's empowerment in India.

What does Vertical Fiscal Imbalance (VFI) in the Indian financial system primarily signify?
  • a)
    A surplus of revenue receipts over revenue expenditure for the States
  • b)
    The disproportionate reliance of States on transfers from the Union government
  • c)
    States' ability to generate revenue exceeding their expenditure responsibilities
  • d)
    Equal distribution of revenue and expenditure responsibilities between the Union and States
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Vertical Fiscal Imbalance (VFI) in India highlights the significant dependence of States on transfers from the Union government to fulfill their financial obligations, as revenue receipts collected by States are considerably less than their expenditure responsibilities. This imbalance underscores the asymmetrical financial relationship between the Union and the States, where States manage a significant portion of expenditure but collect a smaller share of revenue, leading to reliance on transfers from the Union government for financial stability.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Starlink Satellites - Provide high-speed internet to remote regions
2. Radio Astronomy - Studies celestial objects through visible light
3. Greenland Landslide - Triggered a mega-tsunami with waves up to 200 meters high
4. PM Modi's Speech at UNGA - Advocated for a conflict-centric approach to global challenges
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. Starlink Satellites - Provide high-speed internet to remote regions
This is correctly matched. Starlink satellites, operated by SpaceX, are designed to provide high-speed internet access to remote and underserved areas globally.
2. Radio Astronomy - Studies celestial objects through visible light
This is incorrectly matched. Radio astronomy studies celestial objects through their radio frequencies, not visible light.
3. Greenland Landslide - Triggered a mega-tsunami with waves up to 200 meters high
This is correctly matched. The massive landslide in Greenland's Dickson Fjord did trigger a mega-tsunami with waves reaching heights of up to 200 meters.
4. PM Modi's Speech at UNGA - Advocated for a conflict-centric approach to global challenges
This is incorrectly matched. PM Modi emphasized a human-centric approach and collective strength for addressing global challenges, not a conflict-centric approach.
Hence, only two pairs (1 and 3) are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India could generate up to 9.2 lakh TWH from its Blue Renewable Energy Sources.
Statement-II:
The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) in Hyderabad operates as a part of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I is correct based on the information provided in the text. The passage clearly states that India could generate up to 9.2 lakh TWH from its Blue Renewable Energy Sources.
However, Statement-II is incorrect. While the information about the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) is provided in the text, it mentions that INCOIS is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Earth Sciences and not directly affiliated with the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO). This makes Statement-II inaccurate and hence the correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The agreement on fisheries subsidies, adopted at the WTO’s 12th Ministerial Conference, aims to eliminate subsidies that contribute to illegal, unreported, and unregulated fishing.
  2. This agreement is recognized as the first WTO agreement that focuses exclusively on environmental sustainability.
  3. Under the terms of the agreement, developed countries are required to eliminate all subsidies that contribute to overfishing within five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2, and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajat Gupta answered
Analysis of the Statements
The question involves evaluating three statements regarding the WTO's agreement on fisheries subsidies. Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Elimination of Subsidies
- This statement is correct. The agreement aims to eliminate subsidies that contribute to illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing, which is a significant concern for global fisheries management.
Statement 2: Exclusivity on Environmental Sustainability
- This statement is also correct. The fisheries subsidies agreement is indeed recognized as the first WTO agreement that focuses explicitly on environmental sustainability. This marks a significant shift in WTO's approach to trade agreements by integrating environmental concerns.
Statement 3: Requirements for Developed Countries
- This statement is incorrect. The agreement does not mandate that developed countries eliminate all subsidies contributing to overfishing within five years. Instead, it sets different timelines and obligations for developed and developing countries, with developed countries having a more immediate commitment while developing countries may have longer timelines.
Conclusion
- Given the analysis, the correct statements are 1 and 2. Therefore, the answer is option 'B' (1 and 2 Only).
In summary, the first two statements accurately reflect the objectives and significance of the agreement, while the third statement misrepresents the specific obligations imposed on developed countries.

Consider the following statements:
1. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was launched in 2021 with a financial outlay of ₹76,000 crore.
2. The Digital Agriculture Mission aims to establish Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) in the agricultural sector with a total budget of ₹2,817 crore.
3. The Bundestag in Germany is downsized to 630 members, eliminating overhang and balance seats to maintain proportionality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding India's initiatives and Germany's parliamentary structure, let's analyze each statement carefully.

Statement 1: India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)
- Launched in **2021**, the ISM aims to position India as a global hub for semiconductor manufacturing.
- The financial outlay for this mission is indeed **₹76,000 crore**.
- This statement is **correct**.

Statement 2: Digital Agriculture Mission
- The Digital Agriculture Mission focuses on creating **Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)** to enhance the agricultural sector's efficiency and productivity.
- The total budget allocated for this initiative is **₹2,817 crore**.
- This statement is also **correct**.

Statement 3: Bundestag in Germany
- The Bundestag, Germany's federal parliament, was indeed downsized to **630 members**.
- However, this change eliminated **overhang and balance seats** to maintain proportionality in representation.
- This statement is **correct** as it reflects the recent electoral reforms.

Conclusion
Since all statements have been confirmed as correct, the answer to the question about which of the statements is/are correct is **d) 1, 2 and 3**.
However, if the answer provided is option 'B' (1 and 2 Only), it seems there might be a misunderstanding or misinterpretation regarding the status of the Bundestag. Therefore, it is essential to verify the context in which the question was posed to ensure clarity.

What is the primary objective of a Review Petition in the context of the Supreme Court's jurisdiction?
  • a)
    To serve as an appeal process for correcting trivial mistakes.
  • b)
    To rectify significant errors that could lead to a miscarriage of justice.
  • c)
    To challenge the original judgment with new evidence.
  • d)
    To request a reevaluation of any judicial decision.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
A Review Petition in the Supreme Court is intended to rectify significant errors that could potentially lead to a miscarriage of justice rather than focusing on trivial mistakes. It provides a mechanism for individuals adversely affected by a ruling to request a review based on identifiable mistakes or new and substantial evidence that was not available earlier. This process is distinct from an appeal and is crucial in upholding the principles of justice and fairness in the legal system.

What is the primary objective of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 in India?
  • a)
    Ensuring affordable housing for all citizens
  • b)
    Guaranteeing food and nutritional security for the population
  • c)
    Promoting industrial growth and exports
  • d)
    Enhancing educational opportunities for rural communities
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 aims to guarantee food and nutritional security for the citizens of India. It ensures access to an adequate supply of quality food at affordable prices, particularly focusing on vulnerable groups like children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. This act plays a crucial role in promoting food security across the country and addresses various stages of life to ensure nutritional well-being.

What economic strategy is China aiming to achieve with its "Made in China 2025" initiative?
  • a)
    Attaining 50% self-sufficiency in high-tech industries by 2035
  • b)
    Competing with other manufacturing rivals by 2025
  • c)
    Transforming into a global manufacturing powerhouse by 2049
  • d)
    Focusing solely on traditional manufacturing sectors
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Sarkar answered
Overview of "Made in China 2025"
The "Made in China 2025" initiative is a strategic plan launched by the Chinese government to transform the country into a global manufacturing leader. The primary aim is to elevate China's manufacturing capabilities, focusing on high-tech and advanced industries.
Key Objectives of the Initiative
- Global Manufacturing Powerhouse
- The initiative targets making China a dominant player in the global manufacturing landscape by 2049, coinciding with the centenary of the People's Republic of China.
- High-Tech Focus
- Emphasizes innovation and self-sufficiency in key sectors such as robotics, aerospace, and biotechnology.
- Reducing Dependence on Imports
- Aims to decrease reliance on foreign technology and components, fostering domestic production capabilities.
Strategic Importance
- Economic Transition
- Shifts from traditional manufacturing to advanced technology-driven industries, enhancing overall productivity and competitiveness.
- Investment in R&D
- Encourages significant investments in research and development to spur innovation and create cutting-edge products.
Challenges and Global Context
- International Competition
- As other nations also pursue similar goals, China faces competition from countries like the U.S., Japan, and Germany, which could impact its ambitions.
- Trade Policies
- Ongoing trade tensions may affect the initiative's execution, as global partnerships are crucial for technology transfer and collaboration.
In summary, "Made in China 2025" is fundamentally about positioning China as a global manufacturing powerhouse by 2049, with a strong emphasis on high-tech industries and self-sufficiency.

Consider the following statements about Mary Poonen Lukose:
1. Mary Poonen Lukose was the first woman to join the Travancore Legislative Council in 1924.
2. She was the first woman to graduate from Madras University.
3. She was appointed the first woman Surgeon General of Travancore in 1924.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. Mary Poonen Lukose was the first woman to join the Travancore Legislative Council in 1924.- Correct. On September 23, 1924, Mary Poonen Lukose became the first woman to join a legislative council in an Indian princely state, specifically the Travancore Legislative Council.
2. She was the first woman to graduate from Madras University.- Correct. Mary Poonen Lukose was the first woman to graduate from Madras University in 1909.
3. She was appointed the first woman Surgeon General of Travancore in 1924.- Incorrect. Mary Poonen Lukose was appointed the first woman Surgeon General of Travancore in 1938, not in 1924.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only. Hence, the correct answer is Option B

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India is the largest global producer of cotton, contributing over 30% of worldwide production.
Statement-II:
The textile sector in India accounts for approximately 5% of the country's GDP.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Roy answered
Analysis of Statement-I
- Statement-I claims that India is the largest global producer of cotton, contributing over 30% of worldwide production.
- This statement is incorrect. While India is one of the top cotton producers, it does not contribute over 30% to the global production. The actual contribution is around 25% in recent years, making it one of the leading producers but not the largest.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Statement-II asserts that the textile sector in India accounts for approximately 5% of the country's GDP.
- This statement is correct. The textile industry plays a significant role in India's economy, contributing around 5% to the GDP and employing millions of people.
Conclusion
- Since Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct, the correct answer is option 'C': "Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect."
Key Takeaways
- Understanding the correct facts about India's cotton production is crucial.
- The textile sector's contribution to GDP is a vital aspect of India's economic landscape.
- Accurate data is important for informed discussions and analyses related to agriculture and industry in India.
This analysis highlights the importance of verifying claims and understanding the context of economic contributions.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Mahatma Gandhi began a fast unto death in Yerawada Jail, Pune, to protest against the provision of separate electorates for Scheduled Castes.
Statement-II:
Ambedkar believed that the reforms that did not reject the religious basis of caste were inadequate.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered

Statement-I is accurate as Mahatma Gandhi indeed initiated a fast unto death in Yerawada Jail, Pune, to oppose the provision of separate electorates for Scheduled Castes as mentioned in the news. This is historically documented and aligns with the provided information.
However, Statement-II is incorrect. Ambedkar's stance was not solely about rejecting the religious basis of the caste system. Instead, he focused on empowering the lower castes politically to combat oppression within the Hindu social hierarchy. The statement misinterprets Ambedkar's core argument, making it incorrect in the context of the discussion provided in the source material.

What is the primary purpose of Starlink satellites as mentioned in the provided content?
  • a)
    To facilitate global weather forecasting systems
  • b)
    To provide high-speed internet access to remote areas
  • c)
    To enhance satellite-based television broadcasting
  • d)
    To monitor space debris for satellite safety
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Datta answered
Primary Purpose of Starlink Satellites
Starlink satellites are designed primarily to provide high-speed internet access, particularly to underserved and remote areas. This initiative is spearheaded by SpaceX, aiming to bridge the digital divide and enhance connectivity across the globe.
Key Features of Starlink's Internet Service
- Global Coverage: Starlink's satellite constellation orbits the Earth, offering coverage to regions that traditional internet service providers often overlook.
- High-Speed Connectivity: Users can experience broadband-level speeds, which are crucial for various online activities such as streaming, gaming, and remote work.
- Low Latency: The satellites operate in low Earth orbit (LEO), reducing latency and providing a more responsive internet experience compared to traditional satellite internet services.
Impact on Remote Areas
- Accessibility: Many rural and remote communities lack reliable internet options. Starlink aims to deliver connectivity, allowing residents to engage in educational, professional, and commercial activities online.
- Economic Opportunities: Enhanced internet access can stimulate local economies by enabling businesses to operate online and providing access to digital resources.
Conclusion
In summary, the primary purpose of Starlink satellites is to provide high-speed internet access to remote areas. By leveraging a network of satellites, SpaceX seeks to transform global connectivity, making the internet accessible to everyone, regardless of their geographical location.

Consider the following statements
Statement-I: World Heritage Sites are designated based on their outstanding universal value.
Statement-II: The World Heritage Committee, part of UNESCO, is responsible for the designation of these sites.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajat Gupta answered
Understanding the Statements
The two statements regarding World Heritage Sites and the World Heritage Committee can be analyzed as follows:
Statement-I: World Heritage Sites are designated based on their outstanding universal value.
- This statement is correct.
- World Heritage Sites are recognized for their cultural, historical, scientific, or other forms of significance that are deemed to be of outstanding universal value.
- The designation aims to protect and preserve these sites for future generations.
Statement-II: The World Heritage Committee, part of UNESCO, is responsible for the designation of these sites.
- This statement is also correct.
- The World Heritage Committee, which operates under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), evaluates and decides which sites are to be inscribed on the World Heritage List.
- The committee reviews nominations submitted by countries and assesses their eligibility based on established criteria.
Correctness of the Relationship
- Both statements are accurate; however, Statement-II is not a direct explanation for Statement-I.
- While Statement-II describes the process through which sites are designated, it does not explain why they are designated based on outstanding universal value.

Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Emergency provisions detailed in Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution primarily focus on safeguarding states from external threats and internal unrest.
Statement-II:
Article 355 mandates that the Centre must ensure state governments adhere to constitutional mandates, while Article 356 allows for the imposition of President's Rule in non-compliant states.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly highlights the essence of emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution, focusing on protecting states from internal and external threats through constitutional mechanisms.
Statement-II accurately outlines the roles of Article 355 and Article 356, where Article 355 mandates the Centre to protect states from internal disturbance and Article 356 allows for the imposition of President's Rule in states failing to adhere to constitutional norms.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II logically explains the importance and application of emergency provisions as discussed in Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Bio-RIDE Scheme aims to promote bio-entrepreneurship and bio-manufacturing in India.
Statement-II:
The White Revolution 2.0 initiative aims to increase milk procurement capacity of dairy cooperatives and expand their network to new regions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered

- Statement-I is correct as the Bio-RIDE Scheme indeed aims to promote bio-entrepreneurship and bio-manufacturing as per the provided details.
- Statement-II is also correct as the White Revolution 2.0 initiative seeks to enhance milk procurement capacity of dairy cooperatives and expand their network to new regions, aligning with the information given.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I directly. These are two separate initiatives in different sectors with distinct objectives, so they are correct independently but are not interconnected in a way that Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
1. The World Bank has revised its projection for India's GDP growth to 7% for FY25 due to increased household investments in real estate and infrastructure development.
2. India’s industrial growth is forecasted to slow down to 7.3% in FY26 from 7.6% in FY25.
3. The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) is anticipated to increase to 9.0% in FY25 compared to an estimated 7.8% in FY24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
Analysis of the Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding India's economic projections, we need to analyze each one carefully.
Statement 1: World Bank’s Projection for India's GDP Growth
- The World Bank has indeed revised its GDP growth forecast for India to 7% for FY25.
- This revision is primarily attributed to increased household investments in real estate and infrastructure development.
- Conclusion: This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Industrial Growth Forecast
- The forecast indicates that India’s industrial growth is expected to slow down to 7.3% in FY26 from 7.6% in FY25.
- This reflects a downward trend in industrial performance, which is a common occurrence in economic cycles.
- Conclusion: This statement is also correct.
Statement 3: Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)
- The projection states that GFCF is anticipated to increase to 9.0% in FY25, compared to an estimated 7.8% in FY24.
- This suggests a significant growth in investments in fixed assets, which is vital for economic expansion.
- Conclusion: This statement is incorrect as it contradicts the trend indicated by the other statements.
Final Conclusion
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct option is (b) 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. NCLAT Headquarters - Mumbai
2. BPaLM Regimen - Includes Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, and Rifampicin
3. NCLAT Appeals - Against orders from National Financial Reporting Authority
4. NTEP Goal - Eliminate TB by 2025
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. NCLAT Headquarters - Mumbai: Incorrect. The headquarters of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is located in New Delhi, not Mumbai.
2. BPaLM Regimen - Includes Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, and Rifampicin: Incorrect. The BPaLM regimen includes Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, and optionally, Moxifloxacin, not Rifampicin.
3. NCLAT Appeals - Against orders from National Financial Reporting Authority: Correct. NCLAT does consider appeals against orders from the National Financial Reporting Authority.
4. NTEP Goal - Eliminate TB by 2025: Correct. The National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP) aims to eliminate TB in India by 2025.
Thus, the correctly matched pairs are pairs 3 and 4.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
District Agro-Meteorology Units (DAMUs) play a crucial role in providing localized advisories to farmers based on weather data.
Statement-II:
NITI Aayog advocated for the privatization of DAMUs, claiming that agro-meteorological data was automated, thus undermining the essential role of DAMU staff in preparing agricultural advisories.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered

Statement-I is correct as it highlights the primary function of DAMUs, which is to provide farm planners and farmers with advance weather information through localized advisories. Statement-II is also correct as it explains why DAMUs were shut down, attributing it to NITI Aayog's push for privatization based on a misunderstanding that agro-meteorological data was automated, disregarding the crucial role of DAMU staff in creating advisories. Thus, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II provides a context that supports Statement-I.

What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM-SHRI) scheme?
  • a)
    To promote vocational education in rural areas
  • b)
    To establish schools managed by local authorities only
  • c)
    To foster an inclusive and supportive environment for all students
  • d)
    To focus solely on rote memorization in teaching methods
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Rane answered
Objective of the PM-SHRI Scheme
The Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM-SHRI) scheme is an initiative aimed at enhancing the quality of education in schools across India. Its primary objective is to foster an inclusive and supportive environment for all students.
Key Features of the PM-SHRI Scheme:
- Inclusive Education: The scheme emphasizes the inclusion of marginalized and disadvantaged groups, ensuring that every child has access to quality education.
- Holistic Development: It focuses on the overall development of students, encouraging not just academic excellence but also social, emotional, and physical growth.
- Innovative Teaching Methods: The initiative promotes modern pedagogical practices over rote memorization, fostering critical thinking, creativity, and problem-solving skills among students.
- Community Engagement: The scheme encourages local communities to participate in the educational process, thereby creating a supportive environment for students.
- Infrastructure and Resources: Schools under this scheme are expected to have better infrastructure and learning resources, which are essential for a conducive learning atmosphere.
Conclusion
In summary, the PM-SHRI scheme aims to create an educational ecosystem that is inclusive, supportive, and focused on the holistic development of students. By prioritizing these elements, the initiative seeks to prepare students not just academically but also as responsible citizens of the future.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution:
1. Fundamental Duties were included in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
2. The 86th Amendment in 2002 added the duty of parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities for their children.
3. Fundamental Duties are legally enforceable through the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The Fundamental Duties were indeed included in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. This amendment added Part IV-A and Article 51A to the Constitution, specifying the duties of citizens.
- Statement 2 is correct. The 86th Amendment in 2002 added the 11th Fundamental Duty, which mandates that parents or guardians provide educational opportunities for their children.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Fundamental Duties, as outlined in Article 51A, are not legally enforceable through the judiciary. They are moral obligations meant to guide citizens and are non-justiciable, which means they cannot be enforced by the courts.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

What significant development marked Singapore as the first country to implement the UPI-Paynow Linkage, enhancing cross-border Fintech collaboration?
  • a)
    Acceptance of the RuPay card
  • b)
    Implementation of a Person-to-Person (P2P) payment system
  • c)
    Launching of ASEAN-India Women Scientists Conclave
  • d)
    Hosting of an e-workshop on digital health
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Chavan answered
Significant Development in Fintech Collaboration
The UPI-PayNow Linkage represents a groundbreaking advancement in the financial technology (Fintech) sector, particularly in enhancing cross-border payment systems between India and Singapore. This linkage allows users from both countries to transact seamlessly, marking a significant step in financial integration.
Understanding UPI-PayNow Linkage
- UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is a real-time payment system developed in India, facilitating instant money transfers through mobile applications.
- PayNow is Singapore's peer-to-peer (P2P) payment service, enabling users to transfer funds using mobile numbers or unique identifiers.
Importance of P2P Payment System
- The implementation of a P2P payment system through the UPI-PayNow Linkage allows users in India and Singapore to send and receive money directly, eliminating the need for intermediary banks.
- This system enhances user convenience, speed, and efficiency in cross-border transactions, catering to the growing demand for digital payment solutions.
Broader Implications for Fintech Collaboration
- By pioneering this linkage, Singapore sets a precedent for other countries in the ASEAN region and beyond, promoting further collaboration in Fintech.
- The initiative not only simplifies transactions for individuals but also facilitates trade and investment flows between India and Singapore, bolstering economic ties.
In summary, the UPI-PayNow Linkage's implementation as a P2P payment system marks a significant milestone in cross-border Fintech collaboration, showcasing the potential for enhanced economic connectivity between nations.

Consider the following statements:
1. The 2024-25 Union Budget projected a reduction of fiscal deficit to 4.5% of GDP by 2025-26.
2. The government aims to ensure a declining path for central government debt as a percentage of GDP starting from 2026-27.
3. The combined fiscal deficit of central and state governments is expected to reach 10% of GDP for several years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
- Statement 1: Correct. The 2024-25 Union Budget indeed projected a reduction of fiscal deficit to 4.5% of GDP by 2025-26.
- Statement 2: Correct. The budget also set a goal to ensure a declining path for central government debt as a percentage of GDP starting from 2026-27.
- Statement 3: Incorrect. The combined fiscal deficit of central and state governments is expected to reach 7.5% of GDP, not 10%.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Location of World Gold Council's main office - New York
2. Establishment year of World Gold Council - 1987
3. First gold exchange-traded fund - Created by World Gold Council
4. Countries where World Gold Council operates - India, China, Singapore, and the USA
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Athul Khanna answered
Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's analyze each statement about the World Gold Council (WGC):
1. Location of World Gold Council's Main Office
- Claim: New York
- Truth: The WGC's main office is actually located in London, not New York.
- Status: Incorrect
2. Establishment Year of World Gold Council
- Claim: 1987
- Truth: The World Gold Council was indeed established in 1987.
- Status: Correct
3. First Gold Exchange-Traded Fund
- Claim: Created by World Gold Council
- Truth: The first gold ETF, known as the Gold Bullion Securities, was indeed created with the involvement of the WGC, although it was launched by a different entity.
- Status: Correct (though the phrasing is a bit misleading, it is broadly accepted that WGC played a significant role)
4. Countries Where World Gold Council Operates
- Claim: India, China, Singapore, and the USA
- Truth: The WGC operates in many countries, including India and China, but it does not specifically list Singapore or the USA as its main operational countries.
- Status: Incorrect
Conclusion
Considering the analysis:
- Only the second and third pairs can be considered correct.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Only three pairs are correct.
This result emphasizes the importance of accurate information regarding global organizations and their contributions to financial markets, particularly in commodities like gold.

What is the primary goal of the World Gold Council (WGC)?
  • a)
    To maximize profits for gold mining companies
  • b)
    To establish global gold standards
  • c)
    To increase the use and demand for gold
  • d)
    To regulate the gold industry
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pooja Yadav answered
The Primary Goal of the World Gold Council
The World Gold Council (WGC) serves a pivotal role in the global gold market, with its primary objective being to enhance the demand for gold. This goal is underpinned by several strategic initiatives aimed at promoting the metal's value and applications across various sectors.
Increasing Demand for Gold
The WGC aims to:
- Promote Gold as an Investment: The council educates investors about the benefits of gold, such as its ability to act as a hedge against inflation and currency fluctuations.
- Encourage Gold Jewelry Consumption: By collaborating with jewelers and designers, the WGC seeks to innovate and create demand for gold jewelry, particularly in emerging markets.
- Support Industrial Applications: The council advocates for the use of gold in technology and medical applications, highlighting its unique properties.
Global Representation
- Advocacy and Research: The WGC conducts extensive research and provides insights into market trends, helping to position gold as a relevant asset class.
- Partnerships and Collaborations: By partnering with governments, financial institutions, and industries, the WGC works to create a favorable environment for gold investments.
Conclusion
While the WGC recognizes the importance of gold mining companies and the regulatory aspects of the industry, its core mission focuses on increasing the overall use and demand for gold. This approach not only benefits the gold market but also supports sustainable practices within the industry.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Sardar Sarovar Dam is the tallest dam in India.
  2. The Narmada Main Canal is the longest irrigation-lined canal in the world.
  3. Trilobites were the first animals to develop complex eyes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mehul Malik answered
Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding the Sardar Sarovar Dam, the Narmada Main Canal, and trilobites, let’s evaluate each one in detail.
1. Sardar Sarovar Dam
- The Sardar Sarovar Dam is located on the Narmada River in Gujarat.
- It is one of the largest dams in India but is not the tallest.
- The tallest dam in India is the Bhakra Dam.
- Conclusion: This statement is incorrect.
2. Narmada Main Canal
- The Narmada Main Canal is indeed one of the longest irrigation canals in the world.
- It stretches approximately 458 km from the Sardar Sarovar Dam and plays a crucial role in irrigation.
- Conclusion: This statement is correct.
3. Trilobites and Complex Eyes
- Trilobites are among the earliest known arthropods and did develop complex eyes, known as compound eyes.
- These eyes provided a significant evolutionary advantage, allowing better vision in their environments.
- Conclusion: This statement is correct.
Final Assessment
- Out of the three statements, only the second and third statements are correct. Thus, the correct answer to the question is option 'B' (Only two statements are correct).
In summary, the Sardar Sarovar Dam is not the tallest dam in India, but both the Narmada Main Canal is recognized as one of the longest canals, and trilobites were indeed among the first animals to develop complex eyes.

Consider the following statements:
1. The new RT-PCR kits developed in India for detecting Mpox provide results in 40 minutes.
2. The RT-PCR kits can only detect clade I variants of the Mpox virus.
3. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared Mpox a public health emergency of international concern twice, once in May 2022 and again in August 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arpita Khanna answered
Analysis of Statements on Mpox Detection
To assess the correctness of the given statements regarding the RT-PCR kits for Mpox detection, let’s analyze each statement individually.
Statement 1: The new RT-PCR kits developed in India for detecting Mpox provide results in 40 minutes.
- This statement is correct. The new RT-PCR kits developed in India are designed for rapid detection of Mpox, providing results in approximately 40 minutes, which enhances the efficiency of diagnosis and response.
Statement 2: The RT-PCR kits can only detect clade I variants of the Mpox virus.
- This statement is incorrect. The RT-PCR kits developed for Mpox detection are designed to recognize multiple clades of the virus, not just clade I. Therefore, it is misleading to state that they are limited to only one variant.
Statement 3: The World Health Organization (WHO) declared Mpox a public health emergency of international concern twice, once in May 2022 and again in August 2024.
- This statement is partially correct. The WHO declared Mpox a public health emergency of international concern for the first time in July 2022. There is no record of a second declaration in August 2024, making this statement incorrect.
Conclusion
- The correct answer is option 'C', as only statement 1 is accurate, while statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. The WHO's declaration timeline is not correctly represented.
Correct Statements Summary
- Statement 1: Correct
- Statement 2: Incorrect
- Statement 3: Incorrect
Thus, the final determination supports option 'C'.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Starlink satellites aim to enhance global internet coverage by transmitting signals from space.
Statement-II:
Starlink satellites are causing significant interference in astronomical observations due to unintended electromagnetic radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered

Statement-I is correct as it accurately describes the primary goal of Starlink satellites, which is to provide enhanced global internet coverage by transmitting signals from space. Statement-II is also correct as it highlights the adverse impact of Starlink satellites on astronomical observations, specifically mentioning the interference caused by unintended electromagnetic radiation. Furthermore, Statement-II logically explains Statement-I by illustrating a consequence of the satellite system's operation, which is the interference with astronomical activities due to the emission of electromagnetic radiation. Thus, both statements are factually accurate, and Statement-II indeed provides an explanation that aligns with Statement-I's context.

Consider the following statements regarding the challenges in managing cross-border insolvency cases:
1. Jurisdictional conflicts arise because it is difficult to determine which nation's courts have jurisdiction over insolvency proceedings.
2. Coordination issues occur due to a lack of collaboration between courts and administrators across borders.
3. The enforcement of insolvency-related judgments is straightforward and rarely presents challenges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagnik Shah answered
Understanding Cross-Border Insolvency Challenges
Cross-border insolvency cases present unique challenges that complicate the resolution of financial distress involving debtors operating in multiple jurisdictions. Let’s analyze the statements provided:
Statement 1: Jurisdictional Conflicts
- This statement is accurate.
- Determining which country's courts have jurisdiction over insolvency proceedings can be complex due to differing laws and regulations across nations.
- Jurisdictional conflicts can lead to delays and complications in the insolvency process.
Statement 2: Coordination Issues
- This statement is also correct.
- Lack of collaboration between courts and administrators in different jurisdictions can hinder effective management of cross-border insolvency cases.
- Coordination is essential for sharing information and aligning strategies, which is often lacking.
Statement 3: Enforcement of Judgments
- This statement is incorrect.
- The enforcement of insolvency-related judgments is often fraught with challenges.
- Different legal systems may not recognize or enforce judgments made in another jurisdiction, creating barriers to effective resolution.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option 'B' (1 and 2 Only) the right choice. Understanding these challenges is crucial for legal practitioners and policymakers to improve the efficiency of cross-border insolvency proceedings.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India has adopted the UNCITRAL Model Law on Cross-Border Insolvency to streamline international insolvency cases.
Statement-II:
The UNCITRAL Model Law on Cross-Border Insolvency emphasizes cooperation among courts and administrators across different countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered

Statement-I correctly states that India has not adopted the UNCITRAL Model Law on Cross-Border Insolvency. The statement accurately reflects the limited provisions and reliance on bilateral agreements for managing cross-border insolvency cases.
Statement-II incorrectly suggests that the UNCITRAL Model Law emphasizes cooperation among courts and administrators across different countries. While the model law does promote cooperation, it is not the primary emphasis but rather one of the key aspects of the framework.

What is the purpose of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958, in areas designated as "disturbed" by the Indian government?
  • a)
    To regulate the military's authority in troubled regions
  • b)
    To grant armed forces the power to open fire at will
  • c)
    To require prior permission for prosecuting armed forces personnel
  • d)
    To allow armed forces to conduct searches and arrests without warrants
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958, in areas identified as "disturbed" by the Indian government, necessitates prior authorization for prosecuting armed forces personnel. This measure is a crucial component of the Act, ensuring that military personnel are held accountable under specific guidelines and oversight.

What is the main reason behind the controversy surrounding the Tirupati Laddu recently mentioned in the news?
  • a)
    Quality concerns raised by a temple supplier
  • b)
    Allegations of mismanagement by temple authorities
  • c)
    Dispute over the temple's ownership
  • d)
    Environmental impact of temple rituals
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanchita Gupta answered
Overview of the Tirupati Laddu Controversy
The recent controversy surrounding the Tirupati Laddu has primarily stemmed from quality concerns raised by a temple supplier. The Tirupati Laddu, offered as prasadam at the famous Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams (TTD) temple in Andhra Pradesh, is renowned for its significance and unique taste.
Key Points of the Controversy
- Quality Concerns: A supplier associated with the temple raised alarms regarding the quality of the laddus being produced. These concerns are crucial as they pertain to the spiritual and cultural significance of the prasadam, which devotees believe carries divine blessings.
- Impact on Devotees: The laddus are not only a popular offering but also a major source of revenue for the temple. Any compromise in quality could lead to a decline in trust among devotees, affecting their willingness to partake and contribute.
- Response from Temple Authorities: In light of these allegations, the TTD officials have had to address the situation. Ensuring the highest quality of prasadam is vital to maintaining the temple's reputation and the faith of millions of devotees.
- Broader Implications: The situation highlights the importance of transparency and quality control in religious institutions. It raises questions about how traditional practices can adapt to modern standards of accountability.
Conclusion
In summary, the Tirupati Laddu controversy underscores the critical role of quality assurance in religious offerings. The concerns raised by the temple supplier have prompted discussions on the need for stringent quality checks to uphold the sanctity of this cherished prasadam.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India has the highest leased data centre capacity among emerging markets like Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Thailand, and Vietnam.
Statement-II:
India may face challenges from emerging markets and developed countries in attracting more data centres due to lower costs and incentives they offer.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statement-I
- Statement-I claims that India has the highest leased data centre capacity among emerging markets such as Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Thailand, and Vietnam.
- This statement is generally considered accurate, as India has been a leader in data centre capacity within the region due to its growing digital economy, investments in infrastructure, and rapid adoption of cloud services.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Statement-II suggests that India may face challenges from both emerging markets and developed countries in attracting more data centres, primarily because these other countries offer lower costs and various incentives.
- This statement is also correct. Countries like Vietnam and Indonesia are becoming attractive options for data centre investments due to competitive pricing and government incentives aimed at boosting their digital infrastructure.
Relationship Between the Statements
- While both statements are correct, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- Statement-I highlights India's current leadership in data centre capacity, while Statement-II focuses on the potential future challenges it may face in maintaining that leadership.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct interpretation is that both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain the reasons behind Statement-I. This leads us to conclude that the answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements : 
1. The McMahon Line is indeed the disputed boundary in the Eastern Sector of the India-China border.
2. The Aksai Chin region, part of the Western Sector, is currently administered by India.
3. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is indeed completing the Shinku La tunnel, which will be the highest tunnel globally at 15,800 feet, enhancing connectivity to Leh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Megha Sharma answered
Understanding the Statements
Let's analyze each statement to determine their accuracy.
Statement 1: The McMahon Line is indeed the disputed boundary in the Eastern Sector of the India-China border.
- This statement is correct. The McMahon Line, drawn in 1914 during the Shimla Conference, is a significant point of contention between India and China, particularly in Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 2: The Aksai Chin region, part of the Western Sector, is currently administered by India.
- This statement is incorrect. Aksai Chin is a region administered by China but claimed by India. It is part of the broader border dispute between the two nations.
Statement 3: The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is indeed completing the Shinku La tunnel, which will be the highest tunnel globally at 15,800 feet, enhancing connectivity to Leh.
- This statement is correct. The Shinku La tunnel, once completed by the BRO, will facilitate better access and connectivity to Leh, reinforcing India's strategic infrastructure in the region.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluations:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 and 3 Only.

What is the main goal of the 'Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari' initiative recently launched by the Prime Minister?
  • a)
    To promote sustainable agriculture practices
  • b)
    To enhance groundwater contamination
  • c)
    To improve rainwater harvesting and ensure water sustainability
  • d)
    To focus on marine conservation efforts
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The 'Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari' initiative, recently launched by the Prime Minister, aims to improve rainwater harvesting and ensure long-term water sustainability. This program focuses on community involvement and shared responsibility to save water, utilizing a whole-of-society and whole-of-government strategy.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Supreme Court's decision to grant bail to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal was contingent upon conditions including a prohibition from visiting the Chief Minister’s Office or the Delhi Secretariat.
  2. The criticism of the CBI during the bail hearing highlighted concerns about perceived biases in its investigative procedures and its role as a "caged parrot."
  3. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Law and Justice, managed directly by the Cabinet Minister of Law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2, and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

B: 1 and 2 Only
Explanation:
  • Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court imposed specific conditions on the bail granted to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal, including not visiting the Chief Minister’s Office or the Delhi Secretariat.
  • Statement 2 is correct. During the bail hearing, criticism was leveled at the CBI for its perceived biases and past descriptions of it as a "caged parrot."
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The CBI operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions, which is managed by the Prime Minister's Office (PMO), not the Ministry of Law and Justice.

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