All questions of September 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The net financial savings of Indian households dropped significantly in post-pandemic years due to a shift towards physical assets like housing.
Statement-II: Households in India have been increasing their physical savings to over 12% of GDP in the post-pandemic years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Mishra answered
Analysis of the Statements
Both statements pertain to the financial behavior of Indian households in the post-pandemic context. Let's explore each statement in detail.
Statement-I: Net Financial Savings Drop
- Post-pandemic periods have seen a notable shift in household savings patterns.
- Indian households have increasingly moved away from traditional financial instruments.
- This transition is characterized by a significant investment in physical assets such as housing.
- The emphasis on real estate and tangible assets indicates a change in risk perception and economic stability.
Statement-II: Increase in Physical Savings
- Households in India have indeed shifted their savings focus towards physical assets.
- Reports indicate that physical savings have risen to over 12% of GDP in recent years.
- This trend supports the idea that households are favoring investments in durable goods and real estate.
- The increase in physical savings aligns with the behavior described in Statement-I.
Conclusion: Interrelation of the Statements
- Both statements are correct and reflect the evolving financial habits of Indian households.
- Statement-II provides a quantitative backing for the qualitative observation made in Statement-I.
- The drop in net financial savings is directly linked to the rise in physical asset investments, making Statement-II a valid explanation for Statement-I.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PMJUGA):
1. Objective of PMJUGA - To improve urban infrastructure for tribal communities.
2. Target Coverage - Covers approximately 63,000 tribal-majority villages.
3. Infrastructure Development - Provides pucca housing and tapped water for eligible ST households.
4. Health Initiatives - Establishes mobile medical units only in urban areas.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Objective of PMJUGA
- The stated objective of PMJUGA is not to improve urban infrastructure for tribal communities.
- Instead, it aims to enhance the rural infrastructure in tribal areas, focusing on sustainable development.
Target Coverage
- This pair is correctly matched.
- The program aims to cover approximately 63,000 tribal-majority villages, ensuring that development reaches these communities effectively.
Infrastructure Development
- This pair is also correctly matched.
- PMJUGA provides essential services such as pucca housing and tapped water for eligible Scheduled Tribe (ST) households, enhancing their living conditions.
Health Initiatives
- This pair is incorrectly matched.
- PMJUGA focuses on establishing mobile medical units primarily in rural areas, not limited to urban settings. This is crucial for addressing health needs in remote tribal regions.
Conclusion
- After analyzing the pairs, we find that only two pairs are correctly matched: the target coverage and infrastructure development.
- Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 'B'.

What is the primary purpose of open prisons in the Indian correctional system?
  • a)
    To enhance security measures for high-risk inmates
  • b)
    To facilitate community integration and inmate rehabilitation
  • c)
    To promote isolation and deterrence among convicts
  • d)
    To increase overcrowding in traditional prisons
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Open prisons in India aim to foster community integration and rehabilitate inmates rather than solely focusing on punishment. By providing a setting with fewer security restrictions, inmates are encouraged to practice self-discipline, work, and gradually reintegrate into society, paving the way for their successful reformation and eventual release.

Consider the following statements regarding preventive detention in India:
1. The Supreme Court in the Jaseela Shaji vs the Union of India case, 2024, ruled that not providing all relevant documents to the detainee violates the fundamental right under Article 22(5) of the Constitution.
2. Article 22 of the Indian Constitution allows both punitive and preventive detention, focusing on protecting individual rights under these circumstances.
3. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, implemented the reduction of the detention period without advisory board approval from three to two months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Correct: The Supreme Court in the Jaseela Shaji vs the Union of India case, 2024, did indeed rule that not providing all relevant documents to the detainee violates the fundamental right under Article 22(5) of the Constitution. This ruling emphasized the importance of fair and effective opportunities for detainees to challenge their detention.
2. Correct: Article 22 of the Indian Constitution does address both punitive and preventive detention, laying down protections for individuals detained under these circumstances. It ensures fundamental rights are upheld, including the right to be informed of arrest grounds and the right to legal representation.
3. Incorrect: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, proposed reducing the detention period without advisory board approval from three to two months, but this provision has not yet been implemented. Therefore, the detention period remains three months without advisory board approval.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Potential new RCEP members - Bangladesh and Sri Lanka
2. India's trade deficit with China in 2023-24 - Significant levels
3. World Bank's estimated income gain for India rejoining RCEP - USD 100 billion annually
4. India's existing trade agreements with RCEP members - Excludes New Zealand and China
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Ahuja answered
Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's examine each one:
1. Potential new RCEP members - Bangladesh and Sri Lanka
- Correctness: This pair is correct. Both Bangladesh and Sri Lanka have expressed interest in joining the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).
2. India's trade deficit with China in 2023-24 - Significant levels
- Correctness: This pair is also correct. India's trade deficit with China has remained notably high, indicating significant levels.
3. World Bank's estimated income gain for India rejoining RCEP - USD 100 billion annually
- Correctness: This pair is correct. The World Bank has projected substantial economic benefits for India if it rejoins RCEP, with estimates around USD 100 billion annually.
4. India's existing trade agreements with RCEP members - Excludes New Zealand and China
- Correctness: This pair is incorrect. India has existing trade agreements with several RCEP members, including New Zealand. It does not exclude New Zealand but does exclude China in the context of certain agreements.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, three out of the four pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', as only three pairs are accurate.

Which of the following institutions is responsible for leading the Retired Sportsperson Empowerment Training (RESET) Programme launched on National Sports Day? 
  • a)
    Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE) 
  • b)
    National Institute of Sports (NIS) 
  • c)
    Sports Authority of India (SAI) 
  • d)
    Indian Olympic Association (IOA)
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
  • The RESET Programme, launched on National Sports Day, is spearheaded by the Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE).
  • The initiative focuses on empowering retired athletes by providing them with career development skills to enhance their employability.
  • LNIPE, a premier institution dedicated to physical education and sports, is well-positioned to lead this program, offering courses in hybrid mode, which include internships and placement assistance.
  • The focus on retired sportspersons highlights the government’s commitment to leveraging their experience to bridge generational gaps and nurture future talent.

Which of the following accurately describes the Munich Agreement of 1938? 
  • a)
    It was a peace treaty signed between Germany and the Soviet Union. 
  • b)
    It was a treaty to end World War II. 
  • c)
    It was a non-aggression pact signed between the United States and Germany. 
  • d)
    It allowed Nazi Germany to annex the Sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhiram Rane answered
Overview of the Munich Agreement
The Munich Agreement, signed on September 30, 1938, was a pivotal moment in pre-World War II history that allowed Nazi Germany to annex parts of Czechoslovakia without facing military intervention from major European powers.
Key Points of the Munich Agreement:
- Participants: The agreement was reached between Germany, the United Kingdom, France, and Italy. Czechoslovakia was not included in the negotiations, which significantly undermined its sovereignty.
- Sudetenland Region: The Sudetenland was a border area of Czechoslovakia with a substantial ethnic German population. Adolf Hitler claimed that the rights of Germans in this region were being oppressed, using it as a pretext for aggression.
- Policy of Appeasement: The Munich Agreement is often cited as a classic example of the policy of appeasement, where Britain and France hoped to prevent war by conceding to some of Hitler's demands. This approach, however, ultimately failed, as it emboldened Hitler to pursue further territorial expansion.
- Consequences: The agreement led to the dismemberment of Czechoslovakia and set a dangerous precedent for future aggression by Nazi Germany. Less than a year later, in March 1939, Germany occupied the rest of Czechoslovakia.
Significance:
The Munich Agreement is historically significant as it illustrated the failures of the League of Nations and the international community to confront totalitarian regimes effectively. It also foreshadowed the outbreak of World War II, demonstrating that appeasement could not secure lasting peace.

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the Supreme Court of India:
1. The Maneka Gandhi case expanded the interpretation of the right to life and personal liberty.
2. The Keshavananda Bharati case introduced the 'basic structure' doctrine.
3. The Golak Nath judgment asserted that Parliament could not abridge Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

All three statements accurately describe significant rulings and interpretations by the Supreme Court of India that have shaped its role in upholding democracy and personal liberties:
1. The Maneka Gandhi Case (1978): This landmark judgment expanded the interpretation of Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The court ruled that this right cannot be restricted except according to the procedure established by law, which must be fair, just, and reasonable. This case marked a significant shift towards broader interpretations of fundamental rights.
2. The Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973): This case is renowned for introducing the 'basic structure' doctrine, which holds that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its basic structure. This doctrine acts as a safeguard against any arbitrary amendments that could undermine the core principles of the Constitution.
3. The Golak Nath Judgment (1967): In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could not amend the Constitution in a way that would abridge or take away fundamental rights. This judgment emphasized the inviolability of fundamental rights and asserted the judiciary's role in protecting them.
Thus, all three statements are correct, making Option D the correct answer.

Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: India is the second-largest tea producer globally after China and ranks among the top five exporters, contributing roughly 10% of total global tea exports.
Statement-II: India accounts for 19% of global tea consumption, consuming approximately 81% of its tea production domestically, unlike Kenya and Sri Lanka, which export most of their production.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Roy answered
Analysis of Statements
Both statements regarding India’s tea production and consumption provide insightful details about its position in the global tea market.
Statement-I: Production and Export
- India is indeed the second-largest tea producer in the world, following China.
- The country ranks among the top five exporters, contributing approximately 10% of global tea exports.
- These facts highlight India's significant role in the international tea market.
Statement-II: Consumption Patterns
- India accounts for about 19% of global tea consumption.
- Remarkably, around 81% of India's tea production is consumed domestically, which sets it apart from other major producers like Kenya and Sri Lanka, who export the majority of their tea.
- This indicates a strong domestic market for tea in India.
Conclusion
- Both statements are accurate, showcasing India’s dual role as a leading producer and consumer of tea.
- Furthermore, Statement-II provides context for Statement-I by explaining the domestic consumption pattern that influences India's production and export capabilities.
Thus, the correct option is (a): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. This comprehensive understanding of India’s tea industry underscores its unique position in the global market.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill 2024 proposes the establishment of Urban Disaster Management Authorities (UDMAs) in state capitals and large cities (excluding Delhi and Chandigarh) to focus on urban disaster management strategies.
Statement-II: The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill 2024 grants statutory recognition to the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) and the High-Level Committee (HLC) to oversee major disaster management and financial assistance.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I is correct as the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill 2024 indeed proposes the establishment of Urban Disaster Management Authorities (UDMAs) in state capitals and large cities. Statement-II is also correct as the Bill grants statutory recognition to the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) and the High-Level Committee (HLC) for overseeing major disaster management and financial assistance. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; they are independent provisions within the same legislation.

What major impact does the Pacific Tunnel have on cyclone formation in the Indian Ocean?
  • a)
    Introduces cool waters into the Arabian Sea, stabilizing sea surface temperatures
  • b)
    Increases convection and moisture availability in the Arabian Sea
  • c)
    Leads to rapid warming of the Indian Ocean
  • d)
    Reduces vertical mixing of warmer surface waters in the Arabian Sea
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Pacific Tunnel, also known as the Indonesian Throughflow, introduces warm water into the upper layers of the Indian Ocean, particularly affecting the Arabian Sea. This warm water influx raises sea surface temperatures, enhancing convection and moisture availability, factors that are crucial for cyclone formation. As a result, the Pacific Tunnel plays a significant role in fueling the conditions necessary for cyclones to develop in the Indian Ocean region.

Consider the following statements regarding the Inquiry Wing of Lokpal:
1. The Inquiry Wing of Lokpal is required to complete its preliminary inquiries and submit a report to the Lokpal within 60 days.
2. The Inquiry Wing is headed by the Chairperson of the Lokpal, supported by Superintendents of Police for different types of inquiries.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, mandates the establishment of an independent Prosecution Wing to support the Inquiry Wing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
  • Statement 1 is correct. The Inquiry Wing of Lokpal is indeed required to complete its preliminary inquiries and submit a report to the Lokpal within 60 days. This timeframe ensures timely investigation and reporting.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The Inquiry Wing is headed by a Director of Inquiry, not the Chairperson of the Lokpal. The Director of Inquiry reports to the Chairperson, and is supported by Superintendents of Police for various types of inquiries.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, does mandate the establishment of a Prosecution Wing, which is independent and supports the Inquiry Wing in prosecuting corruption-related offenses.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Under British rule, the Criminal Tribes Act, 1871 categorized several tribes as hereditary criminals, subjecting them to continuous surveillance.
Statement II: The Habitual Offenders Act, 1952 replaced the Criminal Tribes Act, recognizing the labeled tribes as "Denotified Tribes," removing the stigma of inherent criminality.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Statement I is accurate as it reflects the historical context under British rule where certain tribes were labeled as hereditary criminals under the Criminal Tribes Act, 1871. Statement II is also correct as it mentions the replacement of the Criminal Tribes Act by the Habitual Offenders Act, 1952, which recognized the tribes previously stigmatized as criminals under the colonial law as "Denotified Tribes," thereby removing the stigma associated with their heritage. Hence, Statement II explains the progression from the colonial labeling of tribes to their denotification and recognition under the new act, aligning with Statement I.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Valley Civilization:
1. The Harappan Civilization is known for its use of sun-dried bricks in urban construction, unlike the Egyptian civilization which used burnt bricks.
2. The Indus Valley Civilization had a remarkable drainage system, with most houses in Mohenjo-daro featuring courtyards and bathrooms.
3. The Harappan people were pioneers in cotton production, known to the Greeks as "Sindon."
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Incorrect. The Harappan Civilization is actually renowned for its use of burnt bricks in its urban planning, which is a sophisticated technique compared to the sun-dried bricks used in contemporary Egyptian architecture. Therefore, the statement that they used sun-dried bricks is incorrect.
2. Correct. The Indus Valley Civilization, particularly at sites like Mohenjo-daro, had an advanced drainage system. Houses in Mohenjo-daro commonly featured courtyards and bathrooms, showcasing their remarkable urban planning and sanitation practices.
3. Correct. The Harappan people were indeed pioneers in the production of cotton, and this was known to the Greeks as "Sindon." This highlights the advanced agricultural practices of the civilization.
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option D the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PMJUGA):
1. PMJUGA aims to provide pucca housing and tapped water to eligible Scheduled Tribe households through convergence with existing government schemes.
2. The initiative focuses exclusively on health infrastructure development, ignoring other social infrastructure needs like education and livelihoods.
3. Under PMJUGA, 100 Tribal Multipurpose Marketing Centres (TMMCs) will be set up to boost the marketing of tribal products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
To determine which statements are correct, let's analyze each one:
Statement 1: This is correct. PMJUGA aims to improve the socio-economic conditions of tribal communities by providing pucca housing and tapped water to eligible Scheduled Tribe households through the convergence of government schemes like PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana) and the Jal Jeevan Mission.
Statement 2: This is incorrect. While PMJUGA includes health infrastructure development, it is not focused exclusively on health. The program aims to address various critical gaps in social infrastructure, including education and livelihoods, through the convergence of multiple government initiatives.
Statement 3: This is correct. PMJUGA plans to establish 100 Tribal Multipurpose Marketing Centres (TMMCs) to enhance the marketing infrastructure for tribal products, thus promoting economic empowerment and livelihood opportunities for tribal communities.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

What is the primary reason behind the Supreme Court's recommendation to change the term "child pornography" to "child sexual exploitative and abuse material" (CSEAM) under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012?
  • a)
    To align with international standards on child protection
  • b)
    To emphasize the severity of the content and its implications
  • c)
    To address adult consensual activities
  • d)
    To differentiate between commercial and non-commercial storage
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The Supreme Court's recommendation to change the term "child pornography" to "child sexual exploitative and abuse material" (CSEAM) under the POCSO Act, 2012, primarily aims to emphasize the severity of the content and its implications. This change reflects the need to accurately capture the exploitative and abusive nature of such material, moving beyond the mere connotation of consensual adult activities often associated with the term "pornography."

What is the primary aim of World Tourism Day as initiated by the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) in 1980?
  • a)
    To promote tourism as a tool for economic growth
  • b)
    To raise awareness about the social, cultural, and economic significance of tourism
  • c)
    To establish regulations on sustainable tourism practices
  • d)
    To advocate for improved knowledge and policies globally
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

World Tourism Day, initiated by the UNWTO, aims to raise awareness about the social, cultural, and economic significance of tourism. It serves to highlight tourism's role in fostering world peace through cross-cultural interactions and understanding, emphasizing its importance as a catalyst for economic growth, inclusive development, and environmental sustainability.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana - A savings scheme for the girl child.
2. National Pension System (NPS) - A government-backed pension scheme for all Indian citizens.
3. Kisan Vikas Patra - A scheme providing insurance cover to farmers.
4. Post Office Monthly Income Scheme (POMIS) - A scheme offering tax-free monthly income from post office savings.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana - Correctly matched. It is a savings scheme aimed at securing the financial future of the girl child in India.
2. National Pension System (NPS) - Correctly matched. It is a government-backed pension scheme available to all Indian citizens.
3. Kisan Vikas Patra - Incorrectly matched. Kisan Vikas Patra is a savings certificate scheme that doubles the investment amount over a predetermined period, not an insurance scheme for farmers.
4. Post Office Monthly Income Scheme (POMIS) - Incorrectly matched. While POMIS does provide a monthly income, it is not tax-free. The income is subject to tax, although there is no TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) on the interest earned.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. The New India Literacy Programme (NILP) aims to educate 1 crore non-literate individuals aged 15 and above annually through the Online Teaching, Learning and Assessment System (OTLAS).
2. Literacy under NILP includes the ability to read, write, perform arithmetic with comprehension, identify, understand, interpret, and create content, along with digital and financial literacy.
3. A State or Union Territory (UT) is deemed fully literate under NILP when it reaches a literacy rate of 90%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The New India Literacy Programme (NILP) indeed aims to educate 1 crore non-literate individuals aged 15 and above annually through the Online Teaching, Learning and Assessment System (OTLAS).
- Statement 2 is correct. Under NILP, literacy is defined as the ability to read, write, perform arithmetic with comprehension, and includes skills in identifying, understanding, interpreting, and creating content, along with essential life skills such as digital and financial literacy.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. A State or Union Territory (UT) is deemed fully literate under NILP when it reaches a literacy rate of 95%, not 90%.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Deposit Insurance Fund: Provides insurance to bank depositors in the event of a bank failure.
2. Credit Guarantee Fund: Guarantees repayment to creditors if debtors fail to repay their debts.
3. General Fund: Covers the operational expenses of commercial banks.
4. Premium Rate: Uniform rate of 15 paise per Rs 100 insured for all banks.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Deposit Insurance Fund: Correctly matched. This fund provides insurance to bank depositors in the event that a bank fails financially and cannot pay its depositors.
2. Credit Guarantee Fund: Correctly matched. This fund guarantees specific remedies to creditors if their debtors fail to repay their debts.
3. General Fund: Incorrectly matched. The General Fund does not cover the operational expenses of commercial banks; it covers the operational expenses of the DICGC itself.
4. Premium Rate: Incorrectly matched. The uniform premium rate is 12 paise per Rs 100 insured, not 15 paise. The insurance premium rate has been increased to 15 paise, but this is a separate fact from the current uniform rate.
Thus, the correct pairs are 1 and 2. Hence, only two pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)?
  • a)
    To provide free electricity to rural households
  • b)
    To offer social security to small and marginal farmers
  • c)
    To promote digital agriculture in India
  • d)
    To provide health insurance to agricultural workers
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The main aim of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) is to provide social security to small and marginal farmers in India. This scheme offers them financial stability by ensuring a minimum pension upon reaching 60 years of age, along with other benefits like family pension and equal government contributions to the pension fund.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) guarantees a minimum pension of Rs 3,000 per month upon reaching 60 years of age for enrolled farmers.
2. The scheme allows small and marginal farmers to use their Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) benefits for voluntary contributions to the pension fund.
3. In the event of the subscriber's death, the spouse is entitled to a family pension of Rs 2,000 per month.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Correct. The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) indeed guarantees a minimum pension of Rs 3,000 per month for small and marginal farmers upon reaching 60 years of age.
Statement 2: Correct. The scheme allows farmers to use their PM-KISAN benefits for voluntary contributions to the pension fund, with the necessary authorization for auto-debit.
Statement 3: Incorrect. In the event of the subscriber's death, the spouse is entitled to a family pension of Rs 1,500 per month, not Rs 2,000.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the jute industry:
1. Jute requires temperatures ranging from 17°C to 41°C and a relative humidity of 40-90% for optimal growth.
2. The two main species of jute produced commercially are Tossa and White jute.
3. Jute cultivation requires more land and water compared to cotton cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Statement 1: This statement is correct. Jute requires temperatures ranging from 17°C to 41°C and a relative humidity of 40-90% for optimal growth, along with well-distributed rainfall of over 120 cm.
Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The two main species of jute produced commercially are Tossa and White jute.
Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Jute cultivation actually requires only half the land and less than one-fifth the water needed for cotton cultivation, along with significantly fewer chemicals. It is more sustainable and resource-efficient compared to cotton.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's decision to opt out of the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) aligns with the global trend of adopting the "China Plus One" strategy.
Statement-II: India's trade deficit with China has reached significant levels in 2023-24.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Statement-I is correct as India's decision to opt out of the RCEP does indeed align with the global strategy of reducing dependence on China through the "China Plus One" approach. Statement-II is also correct as India's trade deficit with China has indeed grown significantly in the mentioned time frame. However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I but provides additional context regarding India's trade dynamics with China. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).

What strategic partnership agreement was recently elevated between India and Singapore, marking a significant milestone in their bilateral relations?
  • a)
    Digital Cooperation Partnership
  • b)
    Economic Development Agreement
  • c)
    Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
  • d)
    Cultural Exchange Alliance
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The elevation of India-Singapore relations to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership signifies a deepening of ties encompassing various sectors, including defense, economics, and cultural exchanges. This agreement aims to enhance cooperation in areas such as security, trade, and technology, reflecting a broader and more strategic engagement between the two nations.

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Aparajita Women and Child (West Bengal Criminal Laws Amendment) Bill, 2024, includes provisions for time-bound investigations and trials of rape cases.
Statement II: The Aparajita Bill 2024 mandates the establishment of specialized task forces at the district level to investigate rape and other atrocities against women and children.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement I is correct as the Aparajita Bill 2024 does indeed propose time-bound investigations and trials for rape cases, aiming to complete investigations within 21 days of the initial report and trials within 30 days. Statement II is also accurate as the bill establishes specialized task forces at the district level, led by a deputy superintendent of police, to investigate rape and other atrocities against women and children. The task forces are a key feature of the bill to enhance the investigation and prosecution of such crimes, aligning with the goal of combating violence against women and children.

What is the primary objective of the Aparajita Women and Child (West Bengal Criminal Laws Amendment) Bill, 2024 recently enacted by the West Bengal Assembly?
  • a)
    To redefine the legal age of consent for women
  • b)
    To combat violence against women by introducing severe penalties
  • c)
    To regulate marriage laws for women in West Bengal
  • d)
    To establish special courts for economic empowerment of women
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The Aparajita Bill, 2024, aims to combat violence against women by introducing severe penalties, including the death penalty for individuals convicted of rape resulting in the victim's death or vegetative state. It also focuses on time-bound investigations, establishing fast-track courts, creating a specialized task force, and ensuring stricter penalties for repeat offenders, among other provisions. This bill is a significant step towards enhancing safety and justice for women and children in West Bengal.

Consider the following pairs regarding the tea industry in India:
1. Assam: First and second showers of the monsoon are the highest quality teas.
2. West Bengal: Contributes 97% of India's total tea production.
3. India: Consumes approximately 81% of its tea production domestically.
4. Black Tea: Constitutes about 96% of India's tea exports.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Assam: First and second showers of the monsoon are the highest quality teas.
- Correct. The first and second showers of the monsoon in Assam are indeed known for producing the highest quality teas.
2. West Bengal: Contributes 97% of India's total tea production.
- Incorrect. West Bengal, along with Assam, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, contributes to 97% of India's total tea production, not West Bengal alone.
3. India: Consumes approximately 81% of its tea production domestically.
- Correct. India consumes about 81% of its own tea production.
4. Black Tea: Constitutes about 96% of India's tea exports.
- Correct. Black tea does constitute about 96% of India's tea exports.
Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Qasim Razvi: Leader of the Razakars
2. Nizam Osman Ali Khan: Hindu ruler of Hyderabad
3. Ittehad-ul-Muslimeen: Pro-Nizam Muslim party
4. Operation Polo: Military operation for the integration of Hyderabad into India
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Qasim Razvi: Leader of the Razakars - Correct. Qasim Razvi was indeed the leader of the Razakars, a militia group supporting the Nizam of Hyderabad.
2. Nizam Osman Ali Khan: Hindu ruler of Hyderabad - Incorrect. Nizam Osman Ali Khan was a Muslim ruler of Hyderabad, not a Hindu.
3. Ittehad-ul-Muslimeen: Pro-Nizam Muslim party - Correct. The Ittehad-ul-Muslimeen was a pro-Nizam Muslim party advocating for Hyderabad's independence.
4. Operation Polo: Military operation for the integration of Hyderabad into India - Correct. Operation Polo was the name of the military operation conducted by India to integrate Hyderabad into the Indian Union.
Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Sindhudurg Fort Construction Start Date: 25 November 1664
2. Governor Inayat Khan: Fled during the First Raid on Surat
3. Cost of Sindhudurg Fort Construction: One crore rupees
4. Birthplace of Shivaji Maharaj: Raigad Fort
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Sindhudurg Fort Construction Start Date: 25 November 1664
Correct. The construction of the Sindhudurg Fort started on this date.
2. Governor Inayat Khan: Fled during the First Raid on Surat
Correct. During Shivaji's first raid on Surat in January 1664, the Mughal governor Inayat Khan fled.
3. Cost of Sindhudurg Fort Construction: One crore rupees
Incorrect. The estimated cost of construction was one crore hons, which is a form of gold coin used during Shivaji Maharaj's reign, not rupees.
4. Birthplace of Shivaji Maharaj: Raigad Fort
Incorrect. Shivaji Maharaj was born at Shivneri Fort, not Raigad Fort.
Thus, pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, while pairs 3 and 4 are incorrectly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister's visit to Brunei Darussalam and Singapore:
1. During the visit to Brunei Darussalam, the Prime Minister discussed further collaboration under a renewed MoU for the ISRO's Telemetry Tracking and Telecommand (TTC) Station.
2. An MoU focusing on digital technologies, including the establishment of a Cyber Policy Dialogue, was signed during the visit to Singapore.
3. India has granted an exemption for exporting non-Basmati white rice to Brunei Darussalam to help meet its food security needs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct: During the Prime Minister's visit to Brunei Darussalam, discussions were held on further collaboration under a renewed MoU for ISRO's Telemetry Tracking and Telecommand (TTC) Station.
- Statement 2 is correct: An MoU focusing on digital technologies, including the establishment of a Cyber Policy Dialogue, was signed during the visit to Singapore.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The exemption for exporting non-Basmati white rice was granted to Singapore, not Brunei Darussalam, to help meet its food security needs.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Indian Ocean serves as a modulator of global climate variability due to its rapid warming and influence on heat balance during climate change.
Statement-II: The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal experience two distinct cyclone seasons, influenced by unique oceanic conditions and monsoonal circulation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I inaccurately suggests that the Indian Ocean modulates global climate variability primarily due to its rapid warming and impact on climate change. While the Indian Ocean does play a role in modulating climate, the statement oversimplifies the process and does not accurately capture the comprehensive mechanisms involved. On the other hand, Statement-II correctly highlights the unique dual cyclone seasons experienced in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal, influenced by specific oceanic and climatic conditions. This distinction is vital in understanding cyclonic activity in the region, making Statement-II correct.

Consider the following statements about the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline:
Statement I: The TAPI pipeline aims to transport natural gas from the Galkynysh gas field in Turkmenistan to Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India.
Statement II: The TAPI pipeline project is solely funded by the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Statement I: The TAPI pipeline indeed aims to transport natural gas from the Galkynysh gas field in Turkmenistan through Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India. This statement is accurate based on the provided information.
Statement II: The statement that the TAPI pipeline project is solely funded by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) is incorrect. The project involves a mix of funding sources, including contributions from private investors, in addition to support from entities like the ADB. The ADB has played a role in facilitating the project, but it is not the sole funder.

Worksheet:
Consider the following pairs:
1. Civil Nuclear Cooperation - Agreement between NPCIL (India) and ENEC (UAE)
2. LNG Supply - Agreement for the supply of LNG between India and Saudi Arabia
3. Strategic Petroleum Reserve - Agreement between ISPRL (India) and ADNOC (UAE)
4. Food Parks - MoU with the Government of Gujarat for food parks development under I2U2
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Civil Nuclear Cooperation - Agreement between NPCIL (India) and ENEC (UAE) is correctly matched. The MoU involves cooperation for the operation and maintenance of the Barakah Nuclear Power Plant in Abu Dhabi.
2. LNG Supply - Agreement for the supply of LNG between India and Saudi Arabia is incorrectly matched. The correct agreement is between the UAE and India.
3. Strategic Petroleum Reserve - Agreement between ISPRL (India) and ADNOC (UAE) is correctly matched. This MoU ensures a stable supply of crude oil during geopolitical uncertainties.
4. Food Parks - MoU with the Government of Gujarat for food parks development under I2U2 is correctly matched. This agreement is part of the initiative to develop food parks in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. The World Bank estimates that if India rejoins RCEP, its income could increase by USD 60 billion annually.
2. India's trade deficit with China has increased significantly in recent years.
3. India has Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with all RCEP members except New Zealand and China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. The World Bank estimates that if India rejoins RCEP, its income could increase by USD 60 billion annually. This statement is correct as per the World Bank's analysis.
2. India's trade deficit with China has increased significantly in recent years. This is corroborated by the data showing India's trade deficit with China reaching significant levels in 2023-24, indicating an increasing trend.
3. India has Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with all RCEP members except New Zealand and China. This statement is also correct, regarding India's existing trade agreements with 13 of the 15 RCEP members.
Therefore, all three statements are correct, making Option D the correct choice.

Consider the following statements regarding India-UAE relations:
1. The UAE is India's largest trading partner.
2. A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between India and UAE for civil nuclear cooperation involving the operation and maintenance of the Barakah Nuclear Power Plant.
3. The introduction of India's RuPay card and the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in the UAE indicates growing financial collaboration between the two countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The UAE is not India's largest trading partner. It is one of the top trading partners, specifically the third-largest, but not the largest.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. An MoU was indeed signed between India and UAE for civil nuclear cooperation, involving the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) and the Emirates Nuclear Energy Company (ENEC) for the operation and maintenance of the Barakah Nuclear Power Plant.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. The introduction of India's RuPay card and the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in the UAE signifies growing financial collaboration between the two nations.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding Green Hydrogen:
1. Green Hydrogen is produced through electrolysis using renewable energy sources, emitting zero greenhouse gases during production.
2. The cost of producing Green Hydrogen is currently lower than that of grey hydrogen, which is derived from fossil fuels.
3. The European Commission has highlighted that the availability of rare materials like platinum and iridium poses a significant challenge to scaling up Green Hydrogen technologies.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is correct. Green Hydrogen is indeed produced through the process of electrolysis, and when this process uses renewable energy sources such as wind or solar power, it results in zero greenhouse gas emissions, making it a clean energy source.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The cost of producing Green Hydrogen is significantly higher than that of grey hydrogen derived from fossil fuels. The International Energy Agency (IEA) reports that the cost of producing Green Hydrogen can range from USD 3 to USD 8 per kilogram, which is considerably more expensive than grey hydrogen.
Statement 3 is correct. The European Commission has noted that the availability of rare materials such as platinum and iridium, which are essential for the production of electrolyzers and fuel cells, poses a significant challenge. The scarcity and high cost of these materials limit the scalability of Green Hydrogen technologies.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

What is one of the primary reasons cited by the World Bank for India to reconsider joining the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)?
  • a)
    Potential decline in income by USD 6 billion annually if India stays out of RCEP.
  • b)
    Expected increase in India's GDP by 0.2% if it remains outside RCEP.
  • c)
    Anticipated boost in India's exports by 10% in the services sector.
  • d)
    Projection of USD 186 billion increase in global economy without India's participation.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The World Bank suggests that if India chooses not to rejoin the RCEP, there could be a potential decline in income by USD 6 billion annually. This indicates a significant financial impact on India compared to the gains estimated if it were to participate in the partnership. Joining RCEP, as per the World Bank's analysis, could lead to substantial income gains for India, emphasizing the economic benefits that could arise from participation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline:
1. The TAPI pipeline is designed to transport natural gas from Turkmenistan to India through Afghanistan and Pakistan.
2. The pipeline is projected to deliver around 33 billion cubic meters of natural gas annually.
3. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is the sole financier of the TAPI pipeline project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Statement 1: Correct. The TAPI pipeline is indeed designed to transport natural gas from Turkmenistan to India through Afghanistan and Pakistan. This route is intended to enhance regional energy connectivity and foster cooperation among the participating countries.
Statement 2: Correct. The pipeline is projected to deliver approximately 33 billion cubic meters (BCM) of natural gas annually. This quantity is significant for meeting the energy needs of the participating countries, particularly India and Pakistan.
Statement 3: Incorrect. While the Asian Development Bank (ADB) supports the TAPI pipeline project, it is not the sole financier. The financing of the TAPI pipeline involves multiple stakeholders, including private investors and contributions from the participating countries.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Omar Ali Saifuddien Mosque - Located in Brunei Darussalam
2. ASEAN Centre for Climate Change - Headquarters in India
3. Thiruvalluvar Cultural Centre - To be inaugurated in Singapore
4. Stamford Raffles - Established a trading post in Singapore in 1819
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Omar Ali Saifuddien Mosque - Located in Brunei Darussalam: Correct. The Omar Ali Saifuddien Mosque is a famous Islamic mosque in Bandar Seri Begawan, the capital of Brunei Darussalam.
2. ASEAN Centre for Climate Change - Headquarters in India: Incorrect. The ASEAN Centre for Climate Change is not headquartered in India; it is an initiative by Brunei to address climate change within the ASEAN region.
3. Thiruvalluvar Cultural Centre - To be inaugurated in Singapore: Correct. India announced the upcoming inauguration of the Thiruvalluvar Cultural Centre in Singapore to honor the legacy of the Tamil saint Thiruvalluvar.
4. Stamford Raffles - Established a trading post in Singapore in 1819: Correct. Stamford Raffles established a trading post in Singapore in 1819, which marked the beginning of the modern history of Singapore.
Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding household savings in India:
1. The net financial savings of households rose to Rs 17.1 lakh crore in 2022-23 from Rs 14.2 lakh crore in 2021-22.
2. Physical asset savings, including gold and ornaments, reached Rs 34.8 lakh crore in 2022-23.
3. The rise in household savings post-pandemic has led to a significant increase in liquidity within the financial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Statement 1 is incorrect. The net financial savings of households actually fell to Rs 14.2 lakh crore in 2022-23 from Rs 17.1 lakh crore in 2021-22, contrary to the statement.
Statement 2 is correct. Physical asset savings, including gold and ornaments, did reach Rs 34.8 lakh crore in 2022-23.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Although the rise in household savings post-pandemic has implications for the financial system, the text does not indicate that it has led to a significant increase in liquidity within the financial system.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 2 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the "Repairability Index" for mobile phones and electronic products:
1. The repairability index will be a mandatory label attached to electrical and electronic equipment by manufacturers.
2. A score of 1 on the repairability index indicates easy repairability, allowing direct access to critical parts like batteries without unnecessary disassembly.
3. The repairability index aims to assist consumers in making informed purchasing decisions and promotes the production of items that are easier to repair.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
- Statement 1 is correct: The repairability index is indeed a mandatory label that manufacturers will attach to electrical and electronic equipment to indicate the product's repairability. This is part of the initiative to ensure consumers have better information about the ease of repairing products.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: A score of 1 on the repairability index does not indicate easy repairability. Instead, a score of 1 indicates a high risk of damage and the need to disassemble multiple components for access. On the contrary, a score of 5 represents easy repairability, allowing direct access to critical parts like batteries without unnecessary disassembly.
- Statement 3 is correct: The primary objective of the repairability index is to assist consumers in making informed purchasing decisions by providing clear information about the ease of repairing products. Additionally, it promotes the production of items that are easier to repair, thereby addressing the issue of planned obsolescence and reducing e-waste.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C.

Chapter doubts & questions for September 2024 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

Chapter doubts & questions of September 2024 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.

Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!

Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev