All questions of August 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
1. DNA profiling targets specific regions known as genetic markers, particularly Short Tandem Repeats (STRs), which vary among individuals, except in the case of monozygotic (identical) twins.
2. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, specifically prohibits the use of DNA evidence in court due to concerns about its reliability.
3. The random occurrence ratio provided by experts indicates the exact probability of a match between DNA profiles and is sufficient to determine guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anu Choudhary answered
Analysis of the Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements given, let's break them down:
Statement 1: DNA Profiling and Genetic Markers
- DNA profiling indeed targets specific regions called genetic markers, primarily Short Tandem Repeats (STRs).
- STRs are variations in the DNA sequence that are unique to individuals, making them useful for identification, except in the case of monozygotic (identical) twins who share the same genetic profile.
- Conclusion: This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Indian Evidence Act and DNA Evidence
- Contrary to the statement, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not prohibit DNA evidence.
- In fact, DNA profiling is accepted as valid evidence in Indian courts, provided it is relevant and reliable.
- Conclusion: This statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: Random Occurrence Ratio and Guilt Determination
- While experts provide a random occurrence ratio to indicate the probability of a DNA match, this ratio alone does not determine guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.
- Courts consider multiple factors, including the context and corroborative evidence, before reaching a verdict.
- Conclusion: This statement is incorrect.
Correct Answer Summary
- The only correct statement is Statement 1. Therefore, the answer is option A: 1 Only.
In summary, the evaluation shows that only the first statement accurately reflects the principles of DNA profiling, while the other two statements are misleading regarding the legal standing of DNA evidence in India and its role in determining guilt.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Failure of the Cripps Mission - 1942
2. Formation of Parallel Governments - Ballia and Tamluk
3. Adoption of Quit India Resolution by Congress Working Committee - Wardha
4. Gandhiji's "Do or Die" Speech - Simla Conference
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Pairs
To evaluate the correctness of the pairs mentioned, let's break down each one:
1. Failure of the Cripps Mission - 1942
- The Cripps Mission, sent in March 1942, aimed to secure Indian cooperation during World War II.
- It failed due to the Indian leaders' refusal to accept the proposal, which did not meet their demands for full self-governance.
- Correct Match: Yes
2. Formation of Parallel Governments - Ballia and Tamluk
- During the Quit India Movement in 1942, several regions declared their independence and established parallel governments.
- Ballia in Uttar Pradesh and Tamluk in West Bengal were notable examples.
- Correct Match: Yes
3. Adoption of Quit India Resolution by Congress Working Committee - Wardha
- The Quit India Resolution was adopted on August 8, 1942, at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee.
- Wardha did not host this significant event; it was Bombay.
- Correct Match: No
4. Gandhiji's "Do or Die" Speech - Simla Conference
- Gandhiji delivered the famous "Do or Die" speech during the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942, not at the Simla Conference.
- The Simla Conference took place in 1945, which was unrelated to this speech.
- Correct Match: No
Conclusion
- Correct Matches: 1 and 2
- Incorrect Matches: 3 and 4
Thus, the total number of correctly matched pairs is two. Therefore, the answer to the question is Option B: Only two pairs.
This analysis reveals that only pairs 1 and 2 are accurately matched, while pairs 3 and 4 contain errors regarding their historical context.

Consider the following statements regarding the Axiom-4 Mission:
1. The Axiom-4 mission aims to establish a sustainable human presence in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
2. The mission will be operated using a Blue Origin New Shepard spacecraft.
3. The mission will feature astronauts from various countries to promote international collaboration in space exploration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Correct: The Axiom-4 mission is indeed aimed at establishing a sustainable human presence in Low Earth Orbit (LEO). This aligns with Axiom Space's ongoing efforts to promote commercial space activities and long-term human habitation in space.
2. Incorrect: The mission will be operated by Axiom Space using a SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft, not a Blue Origin New Shepard spacecraft. This is a key detail distinguishing the operational aspects of the mission.
3. Correct: The mission will feature a diverse crew of astronauts from various countries. This highlights the international interest in space exploration and fosters global partnerships and collaborative space initiatives.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

Consider the following statements regarding Jhumur Dance:
1. Jhumur is a dance traditionally performed by the tea tribe communities of Assam during the spring season.
2. The dance features the rhythmic beats of the Madal, a two-headed hand drum, along with flutes and pairs of Taals.
3. Male participants in the Jhumur dance join in to provide rhythm and vocal support, enhancing the performance with musical instruments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. Jhumur is traditionally performed during the autumn season, not the spring season, by the tea tribe communities of Assam.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Jhumur dance features the rhythmic beats of the Madal, a well-known two-headed hand drum. Other musical accompaniments include flutes and pairs of Taals, which enrich the overall sound.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. Male participants join in the Jhumur dance to provide rhythm and vocal support, enhancing the performance with musical instruments.
Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3. Therefore, the answer is Option D.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of climate change on the Panama Canal:
1. The Panama Canal has experienced a prolonged drought since early 2023, significantly reducing ship traffic through the canal.
2. Lowered water levels in Lake Gatun have led to restrictions on the size of vessels that can transit the canal.
3. The Panama Canal handles approximately 15% of global shipping, highlighting its vital role in international trade.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Sharma answered
Impact of Climate Change on the Panama Canal
The Panama Canal is crucial for global shipping, but climate change has significantly impacted its operations. Let's analyze the provided statements:
1. Prolonged Drought and Ship Traffic
- Since early 2023, the Panama Canal has indeed experienced prolonged drought conditions.
- This has led to a notable reduction in ship traffic, as low water levels affect the canal's operational capacity.
- This statement is true.
2. Lowered Water Levels and Vessel Restrictions
- The drought has resulted in lowered water levels in Lake Gatun, which is essential for the canal's operations.
- Consequently, the Panama Canal Authority has implemented restrictions on the size of vessels that can transit.
- This statement is also true.
3. Global Shipping Role of the Panama Canal
- While it is a significant transit route, the Panama Canal handles approximately 6% to 7% of global shipping, not 15%.
- Therefore, this statement is false.
Conclusion
- Given that statements 1 and 2 are true while statement 3 is false, the correct answer is option b) 1 and 2 Only.
- This highlights the impact of climate change on essential infrastructure and its implications for global trade.

Consider the following statements regarding the "Right to be Forgotten":
1. The right to be forgotten allows individuals to request the removal of their personal information from the internet, databases, and search engines when it is no longer necessary or relevant.
2. In India, the right to be forgotten is formally recognized through the Personal Data Protection Bill of 2019.
3. The Supreme Court of India has not yet acknowledged the right to be forgotten as part of the broader right to privacy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jyoti Sen answered
Understanding the Right to be Forgotten
The "Right to be Forgotten" is a concept that allows individuals to request the removal of their personal information from the internet and other public domains under specific circumstances. Let’s analyze the statements:
Statement 1: Correct
- The right to be forgotten enables individuals to ask for their personal data to be deleted when it is no longer necessary or relevant.
- This principle is well-established in various jurisdictions, particularly in the European Union, where individuals can request search engines to remove links to inadequate or irrelevant information.
Statement 2: Incorrect
- In India, the Right to be Forgotten is not yet formally recognized in the Personal Data Protection Bill of 2019.
- While the bill discusses personal data protection, it does not provide explicit provisions for the right to be forgotten as seen in other jurisdictions.
Statement 3: Correct
- The Supreme Court of India has discussed privacy rights extensively but has not explicitly acknowledged the right to be forgotten as part of the broader right to privacy.
- The court recognizes the importance of privacy, yet the right to be forgotten remains an evolving legal concept in India.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct option is A) 1 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Srinagar - Creative city for crafts and folk arts by UNESCO
2. Jaipur - World Crafts City by World Craft Council
3. Malappuram - World Crafts City by World Craft Council
4. Mysore - World Crafts City by World Craft Council
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saanvi Reddy answered
Overview of the Pairs
In this question, we need to evaluate the correctness of the city and designation pairs based on their recognition in the realms of crafts and folk arts.
1. Srinagar - Creative city for crafts and folk arts by UNESCO
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched.
- Details: Srinagar is recognized by UNESCO as a Creative City for its rich tradition in crafts and folk arts, particularly in the area of handloom and handicrafts.
2. Jaipur - World Crafts City by World Craft Council
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched.
- Details: Jaipur is designated as a World Crafts City by the World Crafts Council, known for its vibrant crafts such as block printing and jewelry making.
3. Malappuram - World Crafts City by World Craft Council
- Correctness: This pair is incorrectly matched.
- Details: Malappuram is not recognized as a World Crafts City by the World Crafts Council.
4. Mysore - World Crafts City by World Craft Council
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched.
- Details: Mysore is recognized as a World Crafts City, noted for its unique silk sarees and traditional crafts.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluations:
- Correctly Matched Pairs: Srinagar, Jaipur, and Mysore (3 pairs).
- Incorrectly Matched Pair: Malappuram.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C', as three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding Lyme disease:
1. Lyme disease is caused by a virus transmitted by the black-legged tick.
2. Not every black-legged tick is a carrier of the Lyme bacteria.
3. There is currently no vaccine available for humans to prevent Lyme disease.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Incorrect: Lyme disease is not caused by a virus but by a bacterial infection, specifically by the Borrelia species of bacteria. This statement is therefore incorrect.
2. Correct: It is true that not every black-legged tick is a carrier of the Lyme bacteria. Only those ticks that are infected with the bacteria can transmit Lyme disease to humans.
3. Correct: Currently, there is no vaccine available for humans to prevent Lyme disease, although there are vaccinations available for dogs.
Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the underwater structures named by India in the Indian Ocean:
1. The Ashoka Seamount was discovered in 2012 by the Indian research vessel MGS Sagar.
2. The Kalpataru Ridge covers an area of approximately 430 sq km and was discovered using the Russian vessel Akademik Nikolay Strakhov.
3. The Chandragupt Ridge extends over 675 sq km and was identified in 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ashoka Seamount was discovered in 2012, but it was identified using the Russian vessel Akademik Nikolay Strakhov, not the Indian research vessel MGS Sagar.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalpataru Ridge covers an area of approximately 430 sq km, but it was discovered using the Russian vessel Akademik Nikolay Strakhov, not MGS Sagar.
- Statement 3 is correct. The Chandragupt Ridge extends over 675 sq km and was identified in 2020 by the Indian research vessel MGS Sagar.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Sunita Williams and Barry "Butch" Wilmore are remaining aboard the International Space Station (ISS) until February 2025 due to technical difficulties with the Boeing Starliner spacecraft.
Statement-II:
Extended exposure to microgravity can result in bone density loss and muscle atrophy among astronauts.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation of Statement-I
Statement-I pertains to Sunita Williams and Barry "Butch" Wilmore remaining aboard the ISS until February 2025 due to technical difficulties with the Boeing Starliner spacecraft.
- The Boeing Starliner has faced several delays in its development and testing phases.
- These delays can necessitate the extended stay of astronauts aboard the ISS to ensure continuous human presence and operation.
Explanation of Statement-II
Statement-II addresses the health impacts of extended exposure to microgravity on astronauts.
- Prolonged microgravity can lead to significant physiological changes, including:
- Bone Density Loss: Astronauts can lose up to 1% of their bone mass per month due to the lack of gravitational force.
- Muscle Atrophy: Muscles weaken and shrink as they are not used as much in a microgravity environment.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct, but they address different aspects of life aboard the ISS.
- Statement-II does not provide an explanation for Statement-I; rather, it highlights a general concern for astronauts in microgravity.
- Therefore, the best answer is option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
1. Srinagar was the first city in India to be recognized as a World Crafts City by the World Craft Council (WCC).
2. The WCC-International was established in 1964 with Smt Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay as one of its founding members.
3. The Craft Council of India was founded in 1964 to safeguard and promote India’s rich craft heritage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Bajaj answered
Understanding the Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements, let’s analyze each one:
Statement 1: Srinagar as a World Crafts City
- Srinagar was indeed recognized as the first city in India to be designated as a World Crafts City by the World Crafts Council (WCC). This recognition highlights the city's rich heritage in crafts, especially in textiles and woodwork.
Statement 2: Establishment of WCC-International
- The WCC-International was established in 1964, and Smt. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, a prominent figure in Indian crafts and a social reformer, was one of the founding members. This statement is correct as it reflects the historical initiatives taken to promote crafts globally.
Statement 3: Craft Council of India
- The Craft Council of India was founded in 1964 with the intent to safeguard and promote India’s rich craft heritage. This statement is also accurate, as the council plays a crucial role in the preservation and promotion of traditional crafts across the country.
Conclusion
Given the accuracy of Statements 2 and 3, the correct answer is:
c) 2 and 3 Only
This indicates that while Statement 1 is true, it does not align with the answer choice, as option 'C' only includes Statements 2 and 3 as correct. Therefore, the correct response to the question is indeed 'C'.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are formed due to the heat generated from large wildfires or volcanic eruptions.
Statement-II:
Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are similar to cumulonimbus clouds but are solely driven by the heat generated from large wildfires or volcanic eruptions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shilpa Chavan answered
Explanation of Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds
Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are a fascinating meteorological phenomenon that occurs under specific conditions. Let's break down the statements.
Statement-I: Formation of Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds
- Correctness: This statement is accurate. Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are indeed formed due to intense heat generated by large wildfires or volcanic eruptions.
- Mechanism: The heat from these events causes rapid upward air movement, which leads to the formation of these towering clouds.
Statement-II: Similarity to Cumulonimbus Clouds
- Correctness: This statement is also accurate. Pyrocumulonimbus clouds share similarities with cumulonimbus clouds, which are known for their vertical development and association with thunderstorms.
- Distinct Feature: The key difference lies in the driving force; while cumulonimbus clouds can form from various atmospheric conditions, pyrocumulonimbus clouds are specifically driven by the heat from wildfires or volcanic activity.
Relationship Between the Statements
- Explanation Link: Statement-II provides a detailed explanation of Statement-I by clarifying that the formation mechanism (heat from wildfires or volcanic eruptions) is what differentiates pyrocumulonimbus clouds from regular cumulonimbus clouds.
- Conclusion: Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II effectively explains why Statement-I is true.
Final Answer
- Thus, the correct option is (a): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The MPC (Monetary Policy Committee) of the Reserve Bank of India decided to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 6.50% in its 50th meeting.
Statement-II:
The MPC consists of six members, including the RBI Governor, a Deputy Governor, an officer from the Bank nominated by the Central Board, and three individuals appointed by the central government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement-I accurately reflects the decision of the MPC to maintain the policy repo rate at 6.50% in the 50th meeting. However, Statement-II provides an incomplete and inaccurate description of the composition of the MPC. While it correctly mentions the presence of the RBI Governor and a Deputy Governor, it fails to mention the specific roles of an officer from the Bank nominated by the Central Board and three individuals appointed by the central government, which are key components of the MPC. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect in its representation of the MPC's membership.

How do high temperatures affect aircraft operations, according to the provided information?
  • a)
    Increase lift and drag, improving aircraft efficiency
  • b)
    Enhance engine performance and reduce landing distances
  • c)
    Decrease lift and engine performance, requiring longer runways
  • d)
    Have no significant impact on aircraft operations
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
High temperatures negatively impact aircraft operations by decreasing lift due to less dense air, requiring planes to achieve higher speeds and utilize longer runways for takeoff. Additionally, engine performance deteriorates as a result of lower oxygen availability in thinner air, making takeoff more challenging. These effects can lead to extended landing distances and operational constraints, especially in high-altitude areas during extreme heat.

Consider the following statements regarding the Polaris Dawn mission:
1. The Polaris Dawn mission will attempt to reach an altitude that surpasses the record set by NASA's Gemini 11 mission in 1966.
2. The mission will involve the first-ever private spacewalk conducted by non-professional astronauts.
3. The mission's altitude will be lower than that of the International Space Station (ISS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of the Polaris Dawn Mission
The Polaris Dawn mission is a significant venture in the realm of private space exploration. Let's analyze each statement to determine their accuracy.
1. Altitude Achievement
- The Polaris Dawn mission aims to reach an altitude of approximately 1,200 kilometers (about 746 miles), which surpasses the record set by NASA's Gemini 11 mission in 1966.
- Gemini 11 reached an altitude of 1,370 kilometers (about 853 miles), making this statement inaccurate as the Polaris Dawn will not surpass the Gemini 11 record.
2. Private Spacewalk
- This mission will indeed involve the first-ever private spacewalk conducted by non-professional astronauts.
- This is a groundbreaking achievement, marking a significant milestone in private space exploration. Thus, this statement is correct.
3. Altitude Compared to ISS
- The Polaris Dawn mission will reach an altitude that is higher than the International Space Station (ISS), which orbits at about 400 kilometers (approximately 248 miles).
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Conclusion
- Only statement 2 is correct.
- Hence, the correct answer is option 'B' (1 and 2 only).

Consider the following pairs:
1. Glyptobasis dentifera - Rediscovered in Kerala after 75 years
2. Owlflies - Belong to the order Odonata
3. Clean Plant Programme - Focuses on horticultural crops
4. Great Barrier Reef - Located off the northeastern coast of Australia
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Glyptobasis dentifera - Rediscovered in Kerala after 75 years- Correct. Glyptobasis dentifera, a rare species of owlfly, was rediscovered in Kerala after 75 years.
2. Owlflies - Belong to the order Odonata- Incorrect. Owlflies belong to the order Neuroptera, not Odonata. Dragonflies belong to the order Odonata.
3. Clean Plant Programme - Focuses on horticultural crops- Correct. The Clean Plant Programme aims to enhance the yield and productivity of horticultural crops by providing disease-free and high-quality planting materials.
4. Great Barrier Reef - Located off the northeastern coast of Australia- Correct. The Great Barrier Reef is located off the northeastern coast of Australia in the Coral Sea.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

How does the melting of polar ice caps contribute to the Earth's rotational dynamics?
  • a)
    It increases the Earth's oblateness and moment of inertia.
  • b)
    It accelerates the Earth's rotational speed.
  • c)
    It causes the Earth to spin faster on its axis.
  • d)
    It has no impact on the Earth's rotation.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The melting of polar ice caps leads to water flowing towards the equator, which increases the Earth's oblateness and moment of inertia. This phenomenon results in a slowing down of the Earth's rotation, as mass distribution near the equator rises, in accordance with the conservation of angular momentum principle. The change in rotational dynamics due to melting ice caps showcases the significant impact of climate change on Earth's fundamental processes.

What potential health issue can astronauts face due to extended exposure to microgravity in space?
  • a)
    Muscle Gain
  • b)
    Vision Improvement
  • c)
    Bone Density Loss
  • d)
    Increased Cardiovascular Fitness
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Extended exposure to microgravity in space can lead to bone density loss among astronauts. The absence of gravitational force can cause astronauts to lose up to 1% of bone mass monthly, increasing the risk of conditions like osteoporosis and fractures. This highlights the importance of counteracting these effects through rigorous exercise programs during space missions.

What is the primary objective of the Great Nicobar 'Holistic Development' Project?
  • a)
    Enhancing regional and global maritime economy.
  • b)
    Facilitating deployment of additional military assets.
  • c)
    Overhauling urban growth and development.
  • d)
    Protecting endangered wildlife habitats.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
The primary objective of the Great Nicobar 'Holistic Development' Project is to enhance the regional and global maritime economy through initiatives like the International Container Trans-shipment Terminal (ICTT) and Greenfield International Airport, among others. These developments are aimed at boosting connectivity and economic activities in the region.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Qasai Wala Gumbad - Tughlaq Era
2. Shahi Masjid - Lodhi Era
3. Tomb of Sikander Lodi - Tughlaq Era
4. Kushk-i-Firuz Palace - Lodi Era
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Qasai Wala Gumbad - Tughlaq Era: Correct. The Qasai Wala Gumbad is indeed a mosque from the Tughlaq era.
2. Shahi Masjid - Lodhi Era: Correct. The Shahi Masjid is a mosque from the Lodhi era.
3. Tomb of Sikander Lodi - Tughlaq Era: Incorrect. The Tomb of Sikander Lodi belongs to the Lodi era, not the Tughlaq era.
4. Kushk-i-Firuz Palace - Lodi Era: Incorrect. The Kushk-i-Firuz Palace was established during the Tughlaq era by Firuz Shah Tughlaq, not during the Lodi era.
Correct pairs: 1 and 2.
Incorrect pairs: 3 and 4.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam is primarily known for its diverse flora and fauna, including the endangered hoolock gibbons.
Statement-II:
The Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary serves as the exclusive habitat for gibbons in India due to its unique biodiversity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I is accurate as the Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary is indeed known for its diverse flora and fauna, notably the endangered hoolock gibbons. Statement-II is also correct because the sanctuary is recognized as the exclusive habitat for gibbons in India owing to its rich biodiversity, particularly emphasizing the significance of the area for the survival of this endangered primate species. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II aptly elaborates on Statement-I, making option (a) the correct choice.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of climate change on Earth's rotational dynamics:
1. The melting of polar ice sheets leads to water flowing towards the equator, which increases the Earth's oblateness and moment of inertia.
2. A slowdown in Earth's rotation may require additional leap seconds, affecting systems that depend on precise timekeeping.
3. Melting polar ice does not affect the Earth's axis of rotation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement 1: The melting of polar ice sheets indeed leads to water flowing towards the equator. This redistribution of mass increases the Earth's oblateness (flattening at the poles) and moment of inertia (resistance to rotational change). This change in mass distribution causes the Earth's rotational speed to decrease to conserve angular momentum. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: As Earth's rotation slows down, the discrepancy between atomic time (measured by highly precise atomic clocks) and solar time (based on the Earth's rotation) increases. To maintain synchronization, additional leap seconds may be required. Systems relying on precise timekeeping, such as GPS and network timestamps, could be affected by these adjustments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: Melting polar ice affects the Earth's axis of rotation, leading to slight but measurable shifts. This phenomenon, known as the Chandler wobble, can influence rotational timing and stability. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2.
Answer: Option B: 1 and 2 Only

Consider the following pairs:
1. Polaris Dawn Mission - First private spacewalk by professional astronauts
2. Jared Isaacman - Leader of Polaris Dawn Mission
3. Van Allen Belts - Discovered in 1968
4. Astra Missile - Developed by Bharat Dynamics Limited
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Polaris Dawn Mission - First private spacewalk by professional astronauts: Incorrect. The Polaris Dawn Mission aims to conduct the first-ever private spacewalk involving non-professional astronauts.
2. Jared Isaacman - Leader of Polaris Dawn Mission: Correct. Jared Isaacman is indeed the leader of the Polaris Dawn Mission.
3. Van Allen Belts - Discovered in 1968: Incorrect. The Van Allen Belts were discovered in 1958 by American physicist James Van Allen.
4. Astra Missile - Developed by Bharat Dynamics Limited: Correct. The Astra missile has been indigenously developed and is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL).
Thus, two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Weakening of the Polar Vortex: Disruption of atmospheric waves allowing warm air entry
2. Reduced Antarctic Sea Ice: Increased sunlight reflection leading to cooler temperatures
3. Accelerated Warming in Antarctica: Warming rate nearly double the global average
4. Albedo Effect: Reduced ice cover leading to increased sunlight absorption
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Weakening of the Polar Vortex: Disruption of atmospheric waves allowing warm air entry - Correctly matched. The weakening of the polar vortex allows warm air to infiltrate the Antarctic region, contributing to the heatwave.
2. Reduced Antarctic Sea Ice: Increased sunlight reflection leading to cooler temperatures - Incorrectly matched. Reduced sea ice actually decreases sunlight reflection (albedo effect), causing more sunlight to be absorbed by the ocean, leading to higher temperatures.
3. Accelerated Warming in Antarctica: Warming rate nearly double the global average - Correctly matched. Antarctica is warming at a rate of 0.22°C to 0.32°C per decade, which is nearly double the global average.
4. Albedo Effect: Reduced ice cover leading to increased sunlight absorption - Correctly matched. The reduction of ice decreases the Earth's albedo, leading to more sunlight absorption by the ocean, resulting in additional warming.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary goal of Project Tiger initiated by the Indian government in 1973?
  • a)
    To promote wildlife tourism in tiger reserves
  • b)
    To enhance tiger conservation efforts and protect tigers from extinction
  • c)
    To establish tiger-themed educational programs in schools
  • d)
    To encourage commercial activities within tiger habitats
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The main objective of Project Tiger, launched in 1973 by the Indian government, is to enhance tiger conservation efforts and protect tigers from the threat of extinction. This initiative aims to safeguard the habitats of tigers and curb issues like poaching to ensure the sustainability of the tiger population in India.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
High temperatures lead to reduced lift in aircraft due to less dense air.
Statement-II:
Aircraft take flight when the lift generated by the wings exceeds its weight.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly explains that high temperatures lead to reduced lift in aircraft due to less dense air. As temperatures rise, the air becomes less dense, affecting the lift generated by the aircraft wings.
Statement-II provides a fundamental principle of aircraft flight, stating that an aircraft takes flight when the lift generated by its wings exceeds its weight. This principle underscores the relationship between lift and weight in aircraft operations, explaining the key concept behind aircraft flight.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Lyme disease - Bacterial infection caused by Borrelia species
2. Unified Pension Scheme - Guarantees government employees a pension post-retirement
3. Lyme disease - Transmitted by the common housefly
4. Unified Pension Scheme - Provides a minimum pension of Rs 5,000 per month after 10 years of service
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Lyme disease - Bacterial infection caused by Borrelia species: Correct. Lyme disease is indeed a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia species.
2. Unified Pension Scheme - Guarantees government employees a pension post-retirement: Correct. The Unified Pension Scheme guarantees government employees a pension post-retirement.
3. Lyme disease - Transmitted by the common housefly: Incorrect. Lyme disease is transmitted by infected black-legged ticks, not by houseflies.
4. Unified Pension Scheme - Provides a minimum pension of Rs 5,000 per month after 10 years of service: Incorrect. The Unified Pension Scheme guarantees a minimum pension of Rs 10,000 per month after 10 years of service.
Thus, only the first and second pairs are correctly matched. So, the correct answer is "Option A: Only one pair."

What is a key focus of the government's roadmap for infrastructure development in India?
  • a)
    Enhancing digital infrastructure in rural areas
  • b)
    Prioritizing government-funded projects over Public-Private Partnerships
  • c)
    Implementing innovative financing solutions for infrastructure projects
  • d)
    Promoting individual investment in high-speed corridor projects
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The government's roadmap for infrastructure development in India emphasizes implementing innovative financing solutions to secure additional funding for development. This approach involves exploring infrastructure bonds and other creative financing options to support the growth of infrastructure projects. By encouraging innovative financing, the government aims to address funding challenges and facilitate the timely completion of critical infrastructure initiatives.

Consider the following pairs related to the "Right to be Forgotten" in India:
1. KS Puttaswamy case - Recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right
2. Delhi High Court, 2019 - Recognized 'right to be forgotten' as a part of the right to privacy
3. Orissa High Court, 2020 - Required mandatory deletion of all online data after a court acquittal
4. Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 - Grants individuals the right to restrict dissemination of their personal data
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
1. KS Puttaswamy case - Correctly matched. The Supreme Court of India in the KS Puttaswamy case recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
2. Delhi High Court, 2019 - Correctly matched. The Delhi High Court in 2019 recognized the 'right to be forgotten' as a part of the right to privacy.
3. Orissa High Court, 2020 - Incorrectly matched. The Orissa High Court noted the complexities and technological challenges surrounding the 'right to be forgotten' but did not mandate the deletion of all online data after a court acquittal.
4. Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 - Correctly matched. The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 grants individuals the right to restrict dissemination of their personal data under certain circumstances.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS) - A genetic condition where an individual with XY chromosomes is resistant to male hormones, leading to the development of female physical traits despite possessing male genetic makeup.
2. Klinefelter Syndrome - A chromosomal condition in males characterized by an extra X chromosome (XXY), resulting in symptoms such as reduced testosterone levels, infertility, and various developmental differences.
3. Turner Syndrome - A genetic condition affecting females caused by an extra X chromosome (XXX), leading to short stature, infertility, and various physical and developmental abnormalities.
4. Swyer Syndrome - A condition where individuals have XY chromosomes but develop female reproductive structures due to non-functional gonads.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
1. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS): Correctly matched. AIS is indeed a genetic condition in which an individual with XY chromosomes is resistant to male hormones (androgens), leading to the development of female physical traits despite having male genetic makeup.
2. Klinefelter Syndrome: Correctly matched. Klinefelter Syndrome is a chromosomal condition in males characterized by an extra X chromosome (XXY). It results in symptoms such as reduced testosterone levels, infertility, and various developmental differences.
3. Turner Syndrome: Incorrectly matched. Turner Syndrome is not caused by an extra X chromosome (XXX). It is actually caused by the complete or partial absence of one X chromosome (45,X or 45,X0), leading to short stature, infertility, and various physical and developmental abnormalities.
4. Swyer Syndrome: Correctly matched. Swyer Syndrome is a condition where individuals have XY chromosomes but develop female reproductive structures because their gonads (ovaries or testes) are non-functional and do not produce sex hormones.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Porja, Bagata, and Konda Dora tribes:
1. Porja Tribe - Known for traditional tattooing practices.
2. Bagata Tribe - Practices shifting cultivation or Podu.
3. Konda Dora Tribe - Maintains a village council known as Kulam Panchayat.
4. Porja Tribe - Believes in supernatural elements including magic and witchcraft.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

1. Porja Tribe - Known for traditional tattooing practices: Correct. The Porja tribe places significant importance on tattooing as part of their socio-religious identity.
2. Bagata Tribe - Practices shifting cultivation or Podu: Incorrect. It is the Porja tribe that practices shifting cultivation or Podu, not the Bagata tribe.
3. Konda Dora Tribe - Maintains a village council known as Kulam Panchayat: Correct. The Konda Dora tribe maintains a traditional governance system through a village council known as Kulam Panchayat.
4. Porja Tribe - Believes in supernatural elements including magic and witchcraft: Incorrect. It is the Bagata tribe that has beliefs in supernatural elements, including magic, witchcraft, and spirits.
Thus, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Establishment of Vijayanagar Empire: 1346
2. Renowned Ruler Krishnadevaraya: Tuluva Dynasty
3. Battle of Talikota: 1565
4. UNESCO World Heritage Site Designation for Hampi: 1986
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Establishment of Vijayanagar Empire: Incorrect. The Vijayanagar Empire was established in 1336, not 1346.
2. Renowned Ruler Krishnadevaraya: Correct. Krishnadevaraya was indeed a ruler from the Tuluva Dynasty.
3. Battle of Talikota: Correct. The Battle of Talikota occurred in 1565, leading to the downfall of Vijayanagar.
4. UNESCO World Heritage Site Designation for Hampi: Correct. Hampi was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1986.
Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) form a socially uniform group.
2. Article 341 of the Constitution allows the President to designate certain castes, races, or tribes as SCs through public notification.
3. The concept of the "Creamy Layer" applies to wealthier individuals within the reserved categories to ensure benefits reach those in greater need.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court of India, in its recent ruling, stated that SCs and STs do not constitute a socially uniform group. The court affirmed that states have the right to sub-classify SCs and STs to extend reservations to the more disadvantaged segments within these groups.
2. Statement 2 is correct. Article 341 of the Constitution indeed allows the President to designate certain castes, races, or tribes as SCs through public notification. This designation process is a constitutional mechanism to identify and list SCs.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The "Creamy Layer" concept is applied within reserved categories to exclude wealthier individuals from certain affirmative action benefits, ensuring that support reaches those in greater need. This principle aims to provide equitable opportunities by focusing on the more disadvantaged individuals within these categories.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B.

What is the primary reason for the recent focus on the challenges faced by the Porja, Bagata, and Konda Dora tribes in Andhra Pradesh?
  • a)
    Lack of educational facilities
  • b)
    Shortages of electricity and clean water
  • c)
    Land disputes and resource conflicts
  • d)
    Cultural assimilation and loss of identity
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The recent focus on the challenges faced by the Porja, Bagata, and Konda Dora tribes in Andhra Pradesh primarily revolves around critical shortages of electricity and clean water, particularly in areas near Visakhapatnam. These tribal communities, despite their historical contributions, are struggling with basic necessities like access to electricity and clean water, which highlights the pressing issues they are currently facing.

What is the primary purpose of DNA profiling, also known as DNA fingerprinting?
  • a)
    Identifying individuals by examining their hair color
  • b)
    Determining the age of an individual based on their DNA
  • c)
    Establishing a person's complete medical history
  • d)
    Identifying individuals by examining unique regions of their DNA
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

DNA profiling, also referred to as DNA fingerprinting, primarily aims to identify individuals by examining unique regions of their DNA. This technique is based on the fact that although human DNA is highly similar across individuals, there are specific sequences known as Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) that vary between people, making them crucial for forensic analysis.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The International Day of Indigenous Peoples was recognized by the UN General Assembly in December 1994.
Statement-II:
The theme for the 2024 International Day of Indigenous Peoples is "Protecting the Rights of Indigenous Peoples in Voluntary Isolation and Initial Contact."
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered

Statement-I correctly indicates that the International Day of Indigenous Peoples was recognized by the UN General Assembly in December 1994. Statement-II accurately states the theme for the 2024 International Day of Indigenous Peoples as "Protecting the Rights of Indigenous Peoples in Voluntary Isolation and Initial Contact." The theme aligns with the purpose of advocating for the rights of Indigenous communities globally, especially those in voluntary isolation. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides additional context that explains the significance of the theme in relation to the observance of the day.

Consider the following statements regarding the implications of political instability in Bangladesh on its trade relations and relations with India:
1. The resignation of Sheikh Hasina as Prime Minister of Bangladesh has led to significant disruptions in the country's textile industry, affecting its export revenue.
2. India could potentially increase its monthly business by USD 300-400 million by capturing a portion of the displaced orders from Bangladesh's textile exports.
3. The political upheaval in Bangladesh has no impact on the bilateral trade agreements under the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement between India and Bangladesh.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct: The resignation of Sheikh Hasina has indeed led to significant disruptions in Bangladesh's textile industry. This industry is crucial for the country's export revenue, contributing to 7.9% of the global clothing trade and employing over four million workers. The ongoing protests and unrest have caused supply chain breakdowns, affecting production schedules and the movement of consignments.
2. Statement 2 is correct: Due to the disruptions in Bangladesh's textile industry, international buyers are reconsidering their supply sources. If India captures a portion of the displaced orders, it could see an increase of USD 300-400 million in monthly business by redirecting 10-11% of Bangladesh's textile exports to Indian hubs like Tiruppur.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The political upheaval in Bangladesh could potentially impact the bilateral trade agreements under the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement. Sheikh Hasina's administration had provided duty-free access on most tariff lines under SAFTA, and her departure could jeopardize these trade benefits and affect the overall trade dynamics between the two countries.
Thus, the correct option is Option B.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Nano-MIND technology enables wireless and precise modulation of specific deep brain neural circuits through the use of magnetism.
Statement-II:
The ISS is a modular space station launched in 1998, allowing for the addition or removal of modules for flexibility.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered

Statement-I is accurate in describing Nano-MIND technology, which indeed enables wireless and precise modulation of specific deep brain neural circuits using magnetism. Conversely, Statement-II inaccurately describes the International Space Station (ISS). The ISS, while indeed a modular space station launched in 1998, is designed primarily for research and serves as a microgravity laboratory in space. It is not specifically designed for the purpose of altering or modulating brain neural circuits through magnetism. Hence, Statement-I is correct concerning Nano-MIND technology, while Statement-II is incorrect regarding the ISS.

What is the primary objective of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) awards introduced in 2024?
  • a)
    Recognizing contributions in various fields of art and literature
  • b)
    Acknowledging achievements in the field of sports and athletics
  • c)
    Celebrating advancements made by scientists, technologists, and innovators
  • d)
    Honoring excellence in the field of social activism
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) awards introduced in 2024 primarily aim at recognizing and promoting significant contributions made by scientists, technologists, and innovators of Indian origin, whether based in India or abroad. These awards are designed to celebrate individuals who have made impactful advancements through research, innovation, or discoveries that positively influence Indian communities and society.

What is a key advantage of bad banks in managing non-performing assets (NPAs) within the banking sector?
  • a)
    Facilitating the accumulation of non-performing loans
  • b)
    Encouraging banks to focus on riskier lending practices
  • c)
    Enhancing efficiency in asset resolution
  • d)
    Increasing government liabilities for bad loans
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Bad banks play a crucial role in managing non-performing assets (NPAs) within the banking sector by enhancing efficiency in asset resolution. By centralizing the management of NPAs, bad banks help in streamlining the process of recovering bad loans, thus enabling banks to focus on healthier lending practices and improving overall financial stability.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Boeing Starliner spacecraft encountered a helium leak before launch and additional leaks during transit to the International Space Station (ISS).
2. Russian cosmonaut Valeri Polyakov holds the record for the longest continuous stay in space with 438 days aboard the ISS.
3. Microgravity can lead to Spaceflight Associated Neuro-ocular Syndrome (SANS) due to changes in body fluid distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Correct: The Boeing Starliner did encounter a helium leak before launch and additional leaks during transit to the ISS. These issues have been significant enough to raise concerns about astronaut safety and the operational capacity of the ISS.
2. Incorrect: While Russian cosmonaut Valeri Polyakov does hold the record for the longest continuous stay in space at 438 days, it was aboard the Mir Space Station, not the ISS. This distinction is crucial as the ISS and Mir are different space stations.
3. Correct: Microgravity can indeed lead to Spaceflight Associated Neuro-ocular Syndrome (SANS) due to changes in body fluid distribution, which increases intracranial pressure and affects vision.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Vijayanagar Empire was founded by two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, who had previously served in the army of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
2. Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, is located on the banks of the Krishna River.
3. The Battle of Talikota in 1565 led to the downfall of the Vijayanagara Empire and the destruction of Hampi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Correct: The Vijayanagar Empire was indeed founded by two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, who had previously served in the army of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. They established the empire in 1336, breaking away from the Delhi Sultanate to form an independent state in Karnataka.
2. Incorrect: Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River, not the Krishna River. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
3. Correct: The Battle of Talikota in 1565 was a significant event that led to the downfall of the Vijayanagara Empire. A coalition of Deccan sultanates defeated the empire, leading to the destruction and abandonment of Hampi.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is Option C.

Which city recently joined the prestigious World Crafts Cities list, according to the provided information?
  • a)
    Jaipur
  • b)
    Malappuram
  • c)
    Mysore
  • d)
    Srinagar
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Srinagar recently achieved the distinction of being recognized as a 'World Crafts City' by the World Craft Council (WCC), making it the fourth city in India to earn this title. This acknowledgment highlights Srinagar's rich tradition of craftsmanship and its commitment to preserving and promoting cultural practices related to crafts and folk arts.

What was the significance of the location of the capital city of the Vijayanagar Empire?
  • a)
    It facilitated easy access to trade routes
  • b)
    It was strategically situated on a major river
  • c)
    It was surrounded by natural defenses
  • d)
    It provided abundant mineral resources
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The capital city of the Vijayanagar Empire was strategically located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River. This positioning not only provided a vital water source but also offered strategic advantages for trade, defense, and communication. Rivers were important transportation routes during this time, facilitating trade and connecting the city to other regions, making it a crucial element in the empire's success.

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