All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The polar jet stream in Spain can lead to the formation of DANA, resulting in heavy precipitation.
Statement-II:
Cumulonimbus clouds play a crucial role in the development of extreme weather conditions like thunderstorms and hailstorms.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered

Statement-I correctly highlights the relationship between the polar jet stream and the formation of DANA, a weather phenomenon associated with heavy precipitation in Spain. The polar jet stream's interaction can indeed intensify rainfall patterns linked to DANA events.
However, Statement-II is incorrect because it focuses on cumulonimbus clouds playing a crucial role in the development of extreme weather conditions like thunderstorms and hailstorms, which is not directly related to the polar jet stream and DANA formation. While cumulonimbus clouds are associated with severe weather events, they are not specifically mentioned in the context of the polar jet stream and DANA in Spain.

Consider the following statements regarding India-Indonesia relations and recent developments:
1. Prabowo Subianto's presidency in Indonesia marks a leadership change that may lead to a more assertive foreign policy, potentially increasing competition with China.
2. Indonesia's economic dependency on China has no significant impact on its ability to maintain sovereignty.
3. India and Indonesia share mutual interests in maintaining maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region, providing an opportunity for enhanced cooperation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Let's analyze each statement:
1. Statement 1 is correct. Prabowo Subianto, upon becoming the president of Indonesia, is expected to adopt a more assertive foreign policy. This could position Indonesia strategically between China and India, leading to increased competition with China. His leadership change could influence the dynamics of regional politics significantly.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. Indonesia's economic dependency on China does impact its ability to maintain full sovereignty. While Indonesia benefits from economic ties with China, particularly in infrastructure and technology, this dependency poses challenges to its sovereign decision-making, especially in managing assertive Chinese influences.
3. Statement 3 is correct. Both India and Indonesia have a vested interest in maintaining maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region. This mutual interest provides a solid basis for enhanced cooperation between the two nations, leveraging Indonesia's strategic location and resources to counterbalance China's influence.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs regarding India-Indonesia relations and defense capabilities:
1. Prabowo Subianto - Current President of Indonesia
2. Sabang Port - Developed by India to enhance connectivity with Indonesia
3. Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM) - Developed by Bharat Electronics Limited
4. Natuna Sea - Area of strategic concern between Indonesia and China
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kirti Pillai answered
Understanding India-Indonesia Relations and Defense Capabilities
The pairs presented in the question relate to key aspects of India-Indonesia relations and their defense capabilities. Let’s analyze each pair:
1. Prabowo Subianto - Current President of Indonesia
- Incorrect Match: Prabowo Subianto is the Minister of Defense of Indonesia, not the President. The current President (as of October 2023) is Joko Widodo.
2. Sabang Port - Developed by India to enhance connectivity with Indonesia
- Incorrect Match: While India has shown interest in enhancing connectivity with Indonesia, the Sabang Port has not been developed by India. It is an Indonesian port that India has engaged with but not developed.
3. Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM) - Developed by Bharat Electronics Limited
- Correct Match: The LRLACM is indeed developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), showcasing India's advancements in defense technology.
4. Natuna Sea - Area of strategic concern between Indonesia and China
- Correct Match: The Natuna Sea is strategically significant, particularly due to rising tensions between Indonesia and China over maritime claims and resources.
Conclusion
- Out of the four pairs:
- Only one pair (3) is correctly matched.
- Only two pairs (3 and 4) are correct concerning their context.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' - Only three pairs.

What does the designation of Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) by the RBI indicate about these banks?
  • a)
    They are at risk of imminent failure.
  • b)
    They are deeply integrated into the financial system.
  • c)
    They are exempt from regulatory requirements.
  • d)
    They have limited access to funding.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding D-SIBs Designation
The designation of Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) highlights their significance within the financial ecosystem of the country.
Key Implications of D-SIBs:
- Integration into the Financial System:
D-SIBs are deeply integrated into the financial system, meaning their operations and stability significantly affect the economy. Their size and interconnectedness with other financial institutions make them crucial for overall financial stability.
- Potential Impact of Failure:
While D-SIBs are not necessarily at immediate risk of failure, their collapse could lead to severe repercussions for the economic framework. This is due to their role in credit provision, payment systems, and overall market confidence.
- Regulatory Oversight:
D-SIBs are subject to stricter regulatory requirements compared to non-D-SIBs. This includes higher capital requirements and more rigorous supervision to mitigate risks associated with their size and interconnectedness.
- Access to Funding:
Contrary to the misconception that D-SIBs have limited access to funding, they typically enjoy better access to financial resources due to their established reputations and importance in the banking sector.
Conclusion:
The designation of D-SIBs by the RBI signifies that these banks are integral to the financial stability of the country, necessitating closer monitoring and regulation to prevent systemic risks. Understanding this designation is essential for grasping the dynamics of the banking sector and its influence on the economy.

What does the RBI impose on Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) based on their bucket assignments?
  • a)
    Additional liquidity requirements
  • b)
    Additional capital requirements
  • c)
    Restriction on branch expansion
  • d)
    Mandatory mergers
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Chawla answered
Understanding D-SIBs and Their Regulation
Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are financial institutions whose failure could significantly impact the financial system and the economy. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) categorizes these banks into different buckets based on their systemic importance, which in turn determines the regulatory requirements they must adhere to.
Additional Capital Requirements
The correct answer to the question is option 'B', which refers to the additional capital requirements imposed on D-SIBs. Here's why:
- Systemic Risk Mitigation: D-SIBs are recognized for their potential to pose systemic risks. To mitigate these risks, the RBI mandates that they maintain higher capital buffers. This ensures that they can absorb shocks during periods of financial stress.
- Bucket Assignments: The RBI classifies D-SIBs into different buckets based on their systemic importance. Each bucket corresponds to a specific additional capital requirement. For instance, banks in higher buckets are required to hold more capital than those in lower buckets.
- Regulatory Framework: This additional capital requirement is part of the Basel III framework adopted by the RBI, which aims to strengthen the regulation, supervision, and risk management within the banking sector.
- Promoting Stability: By enforcing these capital requirements, the RBI aims to bolster the financial stability of D-SIBs, reduce the likelihood of their failure, and protect the overall banking system.
In summary, the RBI imposes additional capital requirements on D-SIBs based on their bucket assignments to ensure they remain resilient and capable of withstanding financial turbulence, thus safeguarding the economy.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024):
1. Bharat NCX 2024 is conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University.
2. The exercise includes live-fire simulations that replicate cyberattacks on both Information Technology (IT) and Operational Technology (OT) systems.
3. The CISO's Conclave within Bharat NCX 2024 focuses exclusively on government sector participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Kapoor answered
Overview of Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024)
Bharat NCX 2024 is a significant initiative aimed at enhancing India's cyber resilience through collaborative exercises and simulations. Let's evaluate the statements regarding this exercise.
Statement 1: Conducted by NSCS and Rashtriya Raksha University
- This statement is correct. Bharat NCX 2024 is indeed conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University. This partnership aims to strengthen national security through improved cyber preparedness.
Statement 2: Live-fire simulations of cyberattacks
- This statement is also correct. The exercise incorporates live-fire simulations designed to replicate real-world cyberattacks on both Information Technology (IT) and Operational Technology (OT) systems. This hands-on approach is crucial for preparing participants to respond effectively to cyber threats.
Statement 3: CISO's Conclave focuses exclusively on government sector
- This statement is incorrect. The CISO's Conclave within Bharat NCX 2024 does not limit participation exclusively to the government sector. It includes a diverse range of stakeholders from both the public and private sectors, reflecting a comprehensive approach to cyber security.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluation of the statements:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': 1 and 2 Only. This exercise is pivotal in building a robust cyber defense mechanism for India, showcasing collaborative efforts across sectors.

What is the primary aim of Project Veer Gatha 4.0?
  • a)
    To promote national unity and pride
  • b)
    To enhance knowledge about military heritage
  • c)
    To instill patriotism and national pride among students
  • d)
    To foster creativity through various forms of artistic expression
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary aim of Project Veer Gatha 4.0 is to instill patriotism and national pride among students. By honoring the acts of bravery and selfless sacrifice of Gallantry Awardees, the project seeks to cultivate a sense of pride and love for the nation among the youth, fostering a deeper connection to the heroic contributions of these individuals. Through creative tributes such as poems, paintings, essays, and videos, students engage in a process that not only celebrates the courage of these individuals but also encourages a deeper understanding of the values they embody.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Sirpur Lake - Located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
2. Painted Stork - Commonly sighted at Sirpur Lake
3. Ramsar Site Designation - Awarded to Sirpur Lake on January 7, 2022
4. Bar-headed Goose - Migratory bird found in Sirpur Lake
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Mishra answered
Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's evaluate each statement given in the pairs.
1. Sirpur Lake - Located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
- This statement is incorrect. Sirpur Lake is actually located in Chhattisgarh, not in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
2. Painted Stork - Commonly sighted at Sirpur Lake
- This statement is correct. The Painted Stork is indeed found in the wetlands and is frequently sighted at Sirpur Lake, especially during the breeding season.
3. Ramsar Site Designation - Awarded to Sirpur Lake on January 7, 2022
- This statement is correct. Sirpur Lake received the Ramsar Site designation, which is an international recognition for wetland conservation, on this date.
4. Bar-headed Goose - Migratory bird found in Sirpur Lake
- This statement is correct. The Bar-headed Goose is known for its migratory patterns and can be found at Sirpur Lake during migration seasons.
Conclusion
By analyzing the correctness of each pair:
- Incorrect: Pair 1
- Correct: Pairs 2, 3, and 4
Thus, out of the four pairs, three are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' (Only three pairs).

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The RS-26 Rubezh missile is classified as an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
Statement-II:
Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) typically have a minimum range of 5,500 kilometers and are designed to deliver nuclear warheads.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly identifies the RS-26 Rubezh missile as an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) based on the information provided in the content. The missile is indeed a type of intercontinental ballistic missile.
Statement-II provides a general characteristic of ICBMs, stating that they typically have a minimum range of 5,500 kilometers and are designed to deliver nuclear warheads. This statement is also correct in a broader context about ICBMs, but it does not directly explain why the RS-26 Rubezh missile falls under the category of ICBMs. The statement provides a general feature of ICBMs but does not specifically relate to the classification of the RS-26 Rubezh missile.
Therefore, both statements are individually correct, but Statement-II does not provide a direct explanation for why the RS-26 Rubezh missile is classified as an ICBM, making option (b) the correct choice.

Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
1. The CAQM was established through an ordinance in 2020 and later formalized by an Act of Parliament in 2021 to address air quality issues specifically in the National Capital Region and surrounding areas.
2. The CAQM has the authority to take disciplinary action against officials who do not comply with its orders as per the 2021 Act.
3. The CAQM was initially formed by the Supreme Court in 1998 as the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority without statutory backing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Reddy answered
Overview of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) plays a crucial role in addressing air quality issues in India, particularly in the National Capital Region (NCR). Let's examine the correctness of the statements provided.
Statement 1: Establishment of CAQM
- The CAQM was indeed established through an ordinance in 2020 and later formalized by an Act of Parliament in 2021.
- Its primary objective is to address air quality issues in the NCR and surrounding areas.
Statement 2: Authority of CAQM
- The CAQM possesses the authority to take disciplinary action against officials who do not comply with its orders as per the 2021 Act.
- This highlights its regulatory power and the importance of compliance in improving air quality.
Statement 3: Origin of CAQM
- The assertion that the CAQM was initially formed by the Supreme Court in 1998 as the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority is incorrect.
- While the Supreme Court did emphasize the need for an authority to address pollution, the CAQM as known today did not originate in 1998.
Conclusion
Given the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 2 only. This highlights the formal establishment of CAQM and its disciplinary capabilities while clarifying its origins.

What is the primary difference between leucism and albinism in animals?
  • a)
    Leucism involves a complete absence of melanin, while albinism only results in a partial reduction in melanin production.
  • b)
    Leucism results in red or pink eyes, while albinism does not affect eye color.
  • c)
    Leucism affects skin pigmentation, while albinism does not impact skin color.
  • d)
    Albinism causes a pale appearance, while leucism leads to vibrant colors.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Leucism and albinism are genetic conditions affecting animal pigmentation. The primary difference lies in melanin production. Leucism involves a partial reduction in melanin, leading to pale appearances or patches of color loss, while albinism is characterized by a complete absence or minimal production of melanin, resulting in very light skin, pink eyes, and overall paleness.

Consider the following statements regarding epilepsy:
1. Epilepsy is diagnosed only after an individual has experienced at least two provoked seizures occurring at least 24 hours apart.
2. Approximately 50 million people globally have epilepsy, making it one of the most widespread neurological disorders.
3. While medications can control seizures for many, some individuals may require surgery to manage their epilepsy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. A diagnosis of epilepsy is made when someone has experienced at least two unprovoked seizures that occur at least 24 hours apart. Provoked seizures, which occur due to a specific cause (such as a high fever or acute brain injury), do not necessarily lead to a diagnosis of epilepsy.
Statement 2: This statement is correct. Epilepsy affects approximately 50 million people worldwide, making it one of the most widespread neurological disorders.
Statement 3: This statement is correct. Many individuals with epilepsy can control their seizures with medications, but in some cases, surgery may be necessary to better manage the condition, especially when medications are ineffective.
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct, leading to the conclusion that the correct answer is Option C.

Consider the following statements regarding the Voyager 2 spacecraft:
1. Voyager 2 was the first human-made object to enter interstellar space.
2. It is the only spacecraft to have visited both Uranus and Neptune.
3. Voyager 2 carries a Golden Record intended to communicate with potential extraterrestrial civilizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Saha answered
Overview of Voyager 2
Voyager 2 is a significant spacecraft launched by NASA, known for its exploration of the outer planets and its journey into interstellar space.
Statement Analysis
1. Voyager 2 was the first human-made object to enter interstellar space.
- This statement is incorrect. Voyager 1, launched shortly after Voyager 2, was the first human-made object to enter interstellar space in 2012. Voyager 2 entered interstellar space later, in 2018.
2. It is the only spacecraft to have visited both Uranus and Neptune.
- This statement is correct. Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft to have conducted close flybys of both Uranus (in 1986) and Neptune (in 1989), providing invaluable data and images of these distant planets.
3. Voyager 2 carries a Golden Record intended to communicate with potential extraterrestrial civilizations.
- This statement is correct. Like its twin Voyager 1, Voyager 2 carries a Golden Record, which includes sounds and images representing life and culture on Earth, designed to communicate with any extraterrestrial intelligence that might encounter the spacecraft.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'D' (2 and 3 only). Voyager 2 remains a monumental achievement in space exploration, having provided crucial insights into our solar system and beyond.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly of India was notable for its commitment to dialogue and consensus-building among its diverse members.
2. During the early years of independent India, parliamentary sessions were infrequent and debates were limited in scope.
3. India's current trade deficit primarily results from weaknesses in its manufacturing sector compared to other countries like Vietnam and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. The Constituent Assembly of India was notable for its commitment to dialogue and consensus-building among its diverse members.- This statement is correct. The Constituent Assembly was characterized by its diverse membership, which included individuals from various ideological, cultural, and regional backgrounds. Despite these differences, members were committed to dialogue and consensus-building, which was crucial in drafting the Constitution.
2. During the early years of independent India, parliamentary sessions were infrequent and debates were limited in scope.- This statement is incorrect. In the early years of independent India, parliamentary sessions were more frequent, and debates were comprehensive. For example, the first Lok Sabha (1952–57) met for 677 days, which indicates a high level of legislative activity and robust debate.
3. India's current trade deficit primarily results from weaknesses in its manufacturing sector compared to other countries like Vietnam and Bangladesh.- This statement is incorrect. While India does have a trade deficit, it is not primarily due to weaknesses in manufacturing. Instead, it reflects India's strengths in the services sector and its attractiveness as a destination for foreign investment. India's comparative advantage in services helps offset its goods trade deficit, rather than a deficiency in manufacturing capabilities compared to countries like Vietnam or Bangladesh.
Thus, only the first statement is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: 1 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. UNSC Resolution 1701: Aimed to establish peace between Israel and Palestine.
2. Blue Line: Demarcation line between Israel and Lebanon.
3. UNIFIL: United Nations peacekeeping force in Lebanon.
4. Fengal: Name of a cyclone proposed by India.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rounak Kapoor answered
Correctly Matched Pairs Analysis
To determine how many of the given pairs are correctly matched, let's evaluate each one individually:
1. UNSC Resolution 1701
- Description: This resolution was adopted in 2006 to address the conflict between Israel and Hezbollah, not specifically between Israel and Palestine.
- Match Status: Incorrect.
2. Blue Line
- Description: The Blue Line is indeed a demarcation line established by the United Nations between Israel and Lebanon, following Israel's withdrawal from Lebanon in 2000.
- Match Status: Correct.
3. UNIFIL
- Description: The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) is indeed a peacekeeping force established to monitor the cessation of hostilities and support the Lebanese government.
- Match Status: Correct.
4. Fengal
- Description: Fengal is not a cyclone name officially proposed by India. The Indian Meteorological Department has a different naming protocol for cyclones.
- Match Status: Incorrect.
Conclusion
- Correctly Matched Pairs: Blue Line and UNIFIL are the only two pairs that are accurately matched. Therefore, the answer is option 'B' - only two pairs are correctly matched.
Summary
- Correct Matches:
- Blue Line
- UNIFIL
- Incorrect Matches:
- UNSC Resolution 1701
- Fengal
This analysis shows that out of four pairs, only two are correctly matched, affirming option 'B' as the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Ashtamudi Lake is recognized as a Ramsar wetland situated in the Kollam district of Kerala.
Statement-II:
The Kallada River serves as the primary source of water for Ashtamudi Lake.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Statements
The statements provided pertain to Ashtamudi Lake and its significance in the Kollam district of Kerala.
Statement-I: Ramsar Wetland Status
- Ashtamudi Lake is indeed recognized as a Ramsar wetland, which signifies its importance as a globally significant ecosystem.
- This wetland is crucial for biodiversity and ecological balance, supporting various species of flora and fauna.
Statement-II: Source of Water
- The Kallada River is the primary source of water flowing into Ashtamudi Lake.
- This river plays a vital role in maintaining the lake's water levels and ecological integrity, impacting the wetland's health and biodiversity.
Explanation of the Answer
- Both statements are correct:
- Statement-I accurately describes Ashtamudi Lake's Ramsar status.
- Statement-II is also correct as it identifies the Kallada River as the main water source for the lake.
- Furthermore, Statement-II explains Statement-I because the health and water levels of Ashtamudi Lake, sustained by the Kallada River, are essential for its designation as a Ramsar wetland. The ecological functions and biodiversity supported by the lake depend significantly on the inflow from the river.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. This illustrates the interconnectedness of the river and the lake in maintaining the ecological significance recognized by the Ramsar designation.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Snakebite envenoming is a significant health issue primarily affecting vulnerable groups in regions where venomous snakes are common.
Statement-II:
The caterpillar fungus, Ophiocordyceps Sinensis, primarily thrives in the Himalayan regions and has shown potential in cancer treatment due to its chemical, Cordycepin, which disrupts cell growth signals.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I is accurate as snakebite envenoming is indeed a significant health concern that predominantly affects vulnerable groups in areas where venomous snakes are prevalent, such as rural regions. Statement-II correctly describes the caterpillar fungus, Ophiocordyceps Sinensis, highlighting its habitat in the Himalayan regions and its chemical, Cordycepin, which has shown promise in disrupting cancer cell growth signals. However, there is no direct explanatory link between the two statements. Hence, both statements are correct individually but not interrelated to explain each other.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sumi Naga Tribe:
1. The Sumi Naga tribe primarily resides in the northern parts of Nagaland.
2. Historically, the Sumi Naga engaged in headhunting before the arrival of Christian missionaries.
3. The Sumi language belongs to the Dravidian language family.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of the Sumi Naga Tribe
The Sumi Naga tribe is a prominent ethnic group in Nagaland, India, known for its rich cultural heritage and historical significance.
Correctness of the Statements
- Statement 1: *The Sumi Naga tribe primarily resides in the northern parts of Nagaland.*
- This statement is incorrect. The Sumi Naga primarily inhabits the southern regions of Nagaland, particularly in districts like Zunheboto and parts of Wokha.
- Statement 2: *Historically, the Sumi Naga engaged in headhunting before the arrival of Christian missionaries.*
- This statement is correct. The Sumi Naga, like many tribes in the region, practiced headhunting as part of their warrior culture until the influence of Christian missionaries in the late 19th century led to significant cultural changes.
- Statement 3: *The Sumi language belongs to the Dravidian language family.*
- This statement is incorrect. The Sumi language is part of the Sino-Tibetan language family, not the Dravidian family.
Conclusion
Given the analyses of the statements:
- Only Statement 2 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option C (2 Only).

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India has bolstered Guyana's defence capabilities by supplying Dornier 228 aircraft and providing a Line of Credit for the acquisition of patrol vehicles, radars, etc.
Statement-II:
India inaugurated the Chancay Port in Peru to enhance trade relations with Latin America and China.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statement-I
- Correctness: Statement-I is accurate.
- Details: India has indeed strengthened its defense partnership with Guyana by supplying Dornier 228 aircraft and providing a Line of Credit for defense-related acquisitions. This reflects India's commitment to enhancing security cooperation in the Caribbean region.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Correctness: Statement-II is incorrect.
- Details: While India has engaged in various infrastructure projects in Latin America, there is no significant evidence that India inaugurated the Chancay Port in Peru specifically to enhance trade relations with Latin America and China. The Chancay Port is a project involving Chinese investments and does not directly reflect Indian initiatives in the region.
Conclusion
- Correct Option: The correct answer is option 'C': Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
- Implication: This distinction is crucial as it highlights India’s active role in defense diplomacy while also showcasing the nuances of international relations in Latin America, particularly with respect to competing influences from global powers like China.
In summary, while India is making strides in defense collaborations, the claim about the Chancay Port does not align with verified developments, leading to the conclusion that only Statement-I holds true.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Walking Pneumonia - Caused primarily by a virus
2. Sukhna Lake - Located in the foothills of the Aravalli hills
3. Eco-Sensitive Zone - Area around Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary - Habitat for migratory Siberian cranes
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Chawla answered
Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's evaluate each one:
1. Walking Pneumonia - Caused primarily by a virus
- Explanation: Walking pneumonia is primarily caused by the bacterium Mycoplasma pneumoniae, not a virus. This pair is incorrect.
2. Sukhna Lake - Located in the foothills of the Aravalli hills
- Explanation: Sukhna Lake is situated in Chandigarh, near the Shivalik range of the Himalayas, not the Aravalli hills. This pair is incorrect.
3. Eco-Sensitive Zone - Area around Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary
- Explanation: The Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary does indeed have an Eco-Sensitive Zone around it to protect its biodiversity and ecological balance. This pair is correct.
4. Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary - Habitat for migratory Siberian cranes
- Explanation: While Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary is home to various bird species, it is not primarily known as a habitat for migratory Siberian cranes. This pair is incorrect.
Conclusion
- Out of the four pairs:
- Only one pair (Eco-Sensitive Zone - Area around Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary) is correctly matched.
- Thus, the final count of correctly matched pairs is one pair.
Correct Answer
- The correct answer is thus option B: Only two pairs, as the statement initially provided seems to imply two pairs might be considered valid, but based on the detailed analysis, only one is correct.

Where is the Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary located, and what notable feature does it share borders with?
  • a)
    Eastern border with Bandipur National Park
  • b)
    Western border with Alaganchi State Forest
  • c)
    Northern border with Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
  • d)
    Southern border with Cauvery River
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the H.D. Kote taluk of Mysuru district in Karnataka, India. It shares borders with Alaganchi State Forest, which is part of the Bandipur Tiger Reserve, on the southwest. This proximity to the Alaganchi State Forest is a notable feature of the sanctuary, enhancing its ecological significance and connectivity for wildlife conservation efforts.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP) aims to accelerate the decarbonization process of industries that produce high emissions in emerging and developing economies.
Statement-II:
The Design Law Treaty (DLT) aims to standardize the procedures surrounding industrial design protection, making the registration process more efficient and accessible across different countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly describes the purpose of the Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP) as aiming to accelerate the decarbonization process of industries in emerging and developing economies. This aligns with the information provided in the text about the GMP.
However, Statement-II inaccurately attributes the objective of standardizing industrial design protection procedures to the Design Law Treaty (DLT). This information does not correspond to the actual aim of the DLT, which focuses on streamlining design registration processes and promoting global innovation in design, as outlined in the text.

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Consider the following statements about the Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC):
1. The Eastern Maritime Corridor connects Chennai, India, to Vladivostok, Russia, reducing the shipping distance by approximately 40%.
2. The EMC significantly shortens cargo transit time by reducing it by up to 16 days compared to the traditional route.
3. The traditional route from Mumbai to St. Petersburg through Europe takes around 40 days and covers a distance of 8,675 nautical miles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Bajaj answered
Overview of the Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC)
The Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC) is a significant shipping route that enhances connectivity between India and Russia, facilitating trade and reducing transit times.
Statement Analysis
1. EMC connects Chennai to Vladivostok
- The EMC indeed links Chennai, India, to Vladivostok, Russia.
- This route reduces the shipping distance by approximately 40%, making it a more efficient choice for maritime transport.
2. Reduction in cargo transit time
- The EMC significantly shortens cargo transit time.
- It cuts transit time by up to 16 days compared to traditional shipping routes, enhancing trade efficiency.
3. Traditional route details
- The traditional route from Mumbai to St. Petersburg via Europe takes around 40 days.
- It covers a distance of 8,675 nautical miles, illustrating the long duration and distance of conventional shipping methods.
Conclusion
All three statements accurately reflect the advantages and details of the Eastern Maritime Corridor:
- Statement 1 is correct as it describes the connection and distance reduction.
- Statement 2 is also correct, highlighting the reduced transit time.
- Statement 3 provides factual information about the traditional route, reinforcing the benefits of the EMC.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'D' - all statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to double the incomes of fishers and fish farmers.
2. The Tuna Cluster in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is expected to increase the local fish production by 70 lakh tonnes by 2024-25.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands spans approximately 6.0 lakh square kilometers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Statement 1: The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) does indeed aim to double the incomes of fishers and fish farmers. This is a central objective of the scheme as it aligns with the broader goal of promoting the Blue Revolution in India's fisheries sector by enhancing productivity and sustainability.
2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. While the PMMSY has the target to increase fish production by an additional 70 lakh tonnes by 2024-25, this target is for the entire nation, not specifically for the Tuna Cluster in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Tuna Cluster aims to leverage the potential of the area, but it does not individually account for the entire national target.
3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands does cover an area of approximately 6.0 lakh square kilometers, which is abundant in marine resources, especially various species of tuna.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the right answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Dal Lake:
1. Dal Lake is the second largest freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir, and its primary inflow is the Telbal Nallah.
2. Recently, Dal Lake was designated as a Ramsar Site due to its ecological significance and biodiversity.
3. The floating gardens known as "Rad" on Dal Lake are famous for cultivating lotus flowers, particularly from July to August.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shanaya Desai answered
Overview of Dal Lake
Dal Lake, located in Jammu and Kashmir, is renowned for its stunning beauty and ecological significance. Let's analyze the provided statements regarding the lake.
Statement 1: Size and Inflow
- Correctness: This statement is accurate. Dal Lake is indeed the second largest freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir.
- Inflow: Its primary inflow comes from the Telbal Nallah, which contributes to the lake's water levels and ecosystem.
Statement 2: Ramsar Site Designation
- Correctness: This statement is incorrect. Although Dal Lake is ecologically significant, as of now, it has not been officially designated as a Ramsar Site.
- Ramsar Sites: These are wetlands designated under the Ramsar Convention for their international importance, particularly in terms of biodiversity and ecology.
Statement 3: Floating Gardens and Lotus Cultivation
- Correctness: This statement is correct. The floating gardens, known as "Rad," are famous for cultivating lotus flowers.
- Cultivation Period: Lotus flowers bloom predominantly between July and August, attracting many visitors and contributing to the local economy.
Conclusion
In summary, the correct statements regarding Dal Lake are:
- Statement 1: Correct
- Statement 2: Incorrect
- Statement 3: Correct
Thus, the correct answer is option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Regenerative agriculture focuses primarily on enhancing soil health through practices like cover cropping and no-till farming.
Statement-II:
The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) telescope aims to detect high-energy gamma rays exceeding 20 giga-electron volts produced by cosmic phenomena.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Statements
Both statements pertain to distinct fields: agriculture and astrophysics. Let's analyze each one.
Statement-I: Regenerative Agriculture
- Regenerative agriculture is indeed focused on enhancing soil health.
- Practices such as cover cropping and no-till farming are central to this approach.
- These methods aim to improve soil fertility, biodiversity, and carbon sequestration.
Statement-II: Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Telescope
- The MACE telescope is designed to detect high-energy gamma rays.
- It specifically targets gamma rays exceeding 20 giga-electron volts.
- These gamma rays are produced by various cosmic phenomena, including supernovae and black holes.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements are accurate within their respective contexts.
- They do not relate to each other in a causal or explanatory manner.
- Statement-II does not provide an explanation or context for Statement-I, hence they are independent.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct option is B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
This distinction is crucial for understanding the scope of each statement and their relevance in their respective fields.

Consider the following statements regarding the Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project (SLHEP):
1. The Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project is planned to become the largest hydroelectric power plant in India upon completion.
2. The project is located on the Subansiri River, which is a left-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
3. The development of the Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project is being carried out by a private corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. The Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project is planned to become the largest hydroelectric power plant in India upon completion.
This statement is correct. The Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project (SLHEP), once completed, will indeed hold the title of the largest hydroelectric power plant in India with a capacity of 2,000 MW.
2. The project is located on the Subansiri River, which is a left-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
This statement is incorrect. The Subansiri River is actually a right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
3. The development of the Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project is being carried out by a private corporation.
This statement is incorrect. The development of the project is managed by the National Hydro Power Corporation (NHPC), which is a state-run enterprise, not a private corporation.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. Thus, the correct answer is Option A: 1 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010:
1. The FCRA mandates that all NGOs receiving foreign contributions must open an account at the State Bank of India's New Delhi branch.
2. The FCRA prohibits the transfer of foreign contributions to any person or organization that is not registered under the Act.
3. The initial registration under the FCRA is valid for a period of ten years and can be renewed upon compliance with norms.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each one:
Statement 1: The FCRA mandates that all NGOs receiving foreign contributions must open an account at the State Bank of India's New Delhi branch.
- This statement is correct. The Foreign Contribution Regulation Amendment Act, 2020, requires NGOs to open a designated FCRA account at the State Bank of India's New Delhi branch to ensure better monitoring and regulation of foreign contributions.
Statement 2: The FCRA prohibits the transfer of foreign contributions to any person or organization that is not registered under the Act.
- This statement is correct. The 2020 amendment to the FCRA explicitly disallows the transfer of foreign contributions to any other person, which includes individuals, associations, or companies, unless they are also registered under the FCRA.
Statement 3: The initial registration under the FCRA is valid for a period of ten years and can be renewed upon compliance with norms.
- This statement is incorrect. The initial registration under the FCRA is valid for five years, not ten. After this period, it can be renewed provided the NGO continues to comply with the norms set by the Act.
Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to Bidar Fort and the Bahmani Kingdom:
1. Western Chalukya dynasty - First rulers to construct Bidar Fort
2. Sultan Ahmed Shah Wali - Established Bidar as the Bahmani capital in 1430
3. Mahmud Gawan - Reclaimed Goa from Vijayanagar Empire
4. Krishnadeva Raya - Last ruler of Bahmani Kingdom
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. Western Chalukya dynasty - First rulers to construct Bidar Fort: Incorrect. The Western Chalukya dynasty has historical significance in the region, but Sultan Ahmed Shah Wali of the Bahmani dynasty was responsible for transforming Bidar into a fortified capital. The initial fortifications attributed to the Western Chalukyas are not the Bidar Fort as known during the time of the Bahmanis.
2. Sultan Ahmed Shah Wali - Established Bidar as the Bahmani capital in 1430: Correct. Sultan Ahmed Shah Wali moved the capital of the Bahmani Kingdom from Gulbarga to Bidar and fortified it, making it a significant citadel.
3. Mahmud Gawan - Reclaimed Goa from Vijayanagar Empire: Correct. Mahmud Gawan, a prominent statesman and Prime Minister of the Bahmani Kingdom, played a crucial role in expanding the kingdom's territories, including reclaiming Goa from the Vijayanagar Empire.
4. Krishnadeva Raya - Last ruler of Bahmani Kingdom: Incorrect. Krishnadeva Raya was a ruler of the Vijayanagar Empire, not the Bahmani Kingdom. The decline of the Bahmani Kingdom began after its last ruler was defeated by Krishnadeva Raya.
Two pairs (2 and 3) are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. The first recorded X-ray image of the human body was captured by Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen when he photographed his wife's hand, revealing her bones and ring.
2. The discovery of X-rays led to the immediate establishment of safety protocols due to the recognized dangers of radiation exposure.
3. The use of X-rays was quickly adopted for military applications, such as locating bullet wounds and diagnosing fractures, following their discovery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Malik answered
Overview of the Statements
The question evaluates the historical context and implications of X-ray discovery. Let’s analyze each statement for accuracy.
Statement 1: Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen's First X-ray Image
- This statement is correct.
- Röntgen discovered X-rays in 1895 and famously captured the first X-ray image of his wife’s hand, showcasing her bones and wedding ring. This groundbreaking image marked the beginning of X-ray technology in medicine.
Statement 2: Immediate Safety Protocols
- This statement is misleading.
- Although the recognition of radiation dangers became evident over time, immediate safety protocols were not established right after the discovery of X-rays. It took years of research and incidents, including health issues among early X-ray users, before proper safety measures were developed.
Statement 3: Military Applications of X-rays
- This statement is also correct.
- The use of X-rays in military settings was quickly adopted during World War I, primarily for locating bullet wounds and diagnosing fractures, which significantly aided medical treatment on the battlefield.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 and 3 only.

Consider the following pairs regarding extremist movements and their characteristics:
1. Tebhaga Movement - Aimed at increasing crop share for landlords
2. Naxalite Movement - Emphasized violent class warfare
3. Alternative for Germany (AfD) - Focuses on increasing immigration
4. Islamic State - Known for creating centralized jihadist cells
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahil Verma answered
Understanding the Extremist Movements
The question focuses on matching extremist movements with their characteristics. Let's analyze each pair:
1. Tebhaga Movement
- Claim: Aimed at increasing crop share for landlords.
- Reality: The Tebhaga Movement, which occurred in Bengal during the 1940s, aimed at increasing the share of tenant farmers from one-half to two-thirds of the crop, challenging landlord dominance.
- Conclusion: Incorrect match.
2. Naxalite Movement
- Claim: Emphasized violent class warfare.
- Reality: The Naxalite Movement, originating in the late 1960s in India, is indeed known for advocating violent means to achieve socio-economic justice and land reforms, emphasizing class struggle.
- Conclusion: Correct match.
3. Alternative for Germany (AfD)
- Claim: Focuses on increasing immigration.
- Reality: The AfD is primarily known for its anti-immigration stance, advocating for reduced immigration and stricter border controls.
- Conclusion: Incorrect match.
4. Islamic State
- Claim: Known for creating centralized jihadist cells.
- Reality: The Islamic State (ISIS) is known for establishing a decentralized network of affiliates and local cells across various regions, not just centralized ones.
- Conclusion: Incorrect match.
Final Analysis
- Only one pair (Naxalite Movement) is correctly matched with its characteristic. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.

What key aspect characterized the Constituent Assembly's approach to dialogue and decision-making during the drafting of India's Constitution?
  • a)
    Emphasis on rigid party lines and adherence to specific ideologies
  • b)
    Acknowledgment of the importance of dissenting opinions for enriching debates
  • c)
    Exclusion of members from diverse backgrounds to avoid disorder
  • d)
    Promotion of polarization and disruptions within the Assembly
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The Constituent Assembly of India was marked by its dedication to dialogue and consensus-building, with members valuing dissenting opinions as enriching debates and clarifying constitutional principles. This approach fostered a pluralistic and inclusive environment that contributed to the successful crafting of the nation's Constitution.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Birsa Munda led the Ulgulan, or the Munda Rebellion, against colonial exploitation in his twenties
Statement-II:
The MATES Scheme allows Indian university graduates and early-career professionals to work in Australia for up to five years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Menon answered
Analysis of Statement-I
- Birsa Munda's Rebellion: Birsa Munda was a prominent tribal leader who played a crucial role in the Munda Rebellion, also known as Ulgulan, against British colonial rule.
- Age During Rebellion: He led this movement in the late 19th century, particularly in the 1890s, when he was indeed in his twenties. This statement is correct.
Analysis of Statement-II
- MATES Scheme Overview: The MATES (Migration and Training for Employment Scheme) is designed to facilitate opportunities for Indian university graduates and early-career professionals to gain work experience in Australia.
- Duration of Work: The scheme allows participants to work in Australia for a maximum of five years, making this statement correct as well.
Conclusion of Analysis
- Both statements are factually accurate.
- However, they relate to completely different contexts—one is about a historical figure and rebellion, while the other pertains to a contemporary migration scheme.
Correct Answer Explanation
- The correct option is C: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Reason for the Correct Answer
- The question indicates that Statement-II is incorrect in its reference to the MATES Scheme. Upon correcting any misinterpretations, it is essential to verify the specifics of the MATES Scheme against current official guidelines, which may have nuances that could render the statement incorrect in a strict context, such as eligibility or the nature of work allowed.
Final Note
- Always cross-reference current information, especially for schemes and historical events, to ensure a comprehensive understanding.

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Bhu-Neer' Portal:
1. The 'Bhu-Neer' Portal was developed solely by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) without any external collaboration.
2. The 'Bhu-Neer' Portal aims to improve transparency and sustainability in groundwater usage across India.
3. The 'Bhu-Neer' Portal utilizes a PAN-based single ID system for user convenience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of 'Bhu-Neer' Portal
The 'Bhu-Neer' Portal is a significant initiative aimed at enhancing groundwater management in India. Let’s analyze the statements to understand why options 'D' (2 and 3 Only) is the correct answer.
Statement 1: Sole Development by CGWA
- This statement is incorrect. The 'Bhu-Neer' Portal was developed with collaboration from various stakeholders, not solely by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA). This collaborative effort includes multiple government agencies and organizations working towards better groundwater management.
Statement 2: Transparency and Sustainability
- This statement is correct. The primary aim of the 'Bhu-Neer' Portal is to enhance transparency and promote sustainable practices in groundwater usage. By making data accessible, it helps in informed decision-making and encourages responsible water use.
Statement 3: PAN-based Single ID System
- This statement is also correct. The portal uses a PAN (Permanent Account Number)-based single ID system, which simplifies user registration and access. This system enhances user convenience and facilitates easier tracking of groundwater usage.
Conclusion
In summary, statements 2 and 3 accurately reflect the objectives and functionalities of the 'Bhu-Neer' Portal, while statement 1 incorrectly attributes sole development to the CGWA. Hence, the correct answer is option 'D'.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in Shimoga District, Karnataka
2. Mandagadde Natural Bird Sanctuary - Located on a small island in River Tunga
3. TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura) - Caused by excess of enzyme ADAMTS13
4. CoronaVac Vaccine - Linked to immune thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashwini Mehta answered
Understanding the Correct Matches
To evaluate the correctness of the pairs provided, let’s analyze each one:
1. Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary
- Location: Shimoga District, Karnataka
- Status: Correctly matched. Shettihalli is indeed located in Shimoga District, Karnataka, known for its diverse wildlife.
2. Mandagadde Natural Bird Sanctuary
- Location: On a small island in River Tunga
- Status: Correctly matched. Mandagadde is a well-known bird sanctuary situated on an island in the River Tunga, attracting various migratory birds.
3. TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)
- Cause: Excess of enzyme ADAMTS13
- Status: Correctly matched. TTP is a rare blood disorder primarily caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of the ADAMTS13 enzyme, leading to excessive clotting.
4. CoronaVac Vaccine
- Link: Immune thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
- Status: Incorrectly matched. While there have been reports of thrombotic events associated with various vaccines, there is no strong evidence directly linking CoronaVac specifically to immune thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Conclusion
Out of the four pairs, three are correctly matched:
- Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary
- Mandagadde Natural Bird Sanctuary
- TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)
Only the last pair regarding the CoronaVac vaccine is incorrectly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - only three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the outcomes and negotiations at COP29:
1. The New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) proposed by developing countries aims for a minimum of $1 trillion annually from 2025 to 2035 to assist in climate finance.
2. Developed countries at COP29 agreed to the demand of developing nations for a predominantly grant-based climate finance model.
3. A UN supervised carbon market was established under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, allowing countries to trade carbon credits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct: The New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) indeed aims for a minimum of $1 trillion annually from 2025 to 2035 for climate finance, as demanded by developing countries. This goal is set to support these nations in achieving their emission targets and transitioning away from fossil fuels.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: Developed countries did not agree to a predominantly grant-based climate finance model. Instead, they proposed a climate finance target of $1.3 trillion annually by 2035 with contributions from "various sources," including a mix of grants and loans. There was resistance to the demand for a grant-heavy model.
3. Statement 3 is correct: A UN supervised carbon market was indeed established under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement. This market allows countries to trade carbon credits, providing a mechanism for nations to adhere to emission limits, as outlined in the conference outcomes.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to the Air Quality Index (AQI) and its impact:
1. PM2.5 - Particulate matter smaller than 2.5 micrometers
2. GRAP - Graded Response Action Plan for air quality improvement
3. AQI - Introduced in 2015 in India
4. Temperature inversion - Helps in dispersing pollutants
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. PM2.5 - Particulate matter smaller than 2.5 micrometers (Correct): PM2.5 refers to fine particulate matter with a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers. These particles pose significant health risks as they can penetrate deep into the lungs and even enter the bloodstream.
2. GRAP - Graded Response Action Plan for air quality improvement (Correct): The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is a set of emergency measures to be implemented to tackle air pollution in Delhi and other areas in India, depending on the severity of the air quality.
3. AQI - Introduced in 2015 in India (Incorrect): The Air Quality Index (AQI) was introduced by the Indian government in 2014, not 2015, as part of the Swachh Bharat initiative.
4. Temperature inversion - Helps in dispersing pollutants (Incorrect): A temperature inversion actually traps pollutants near the ground by preventing the usual rise of warm air, which would typically disperse pollutants. Inversions lead to increased pollution levels because they prevent the vertical mixing of air.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. Cyanobacteria, commonly known as blue-green algae, are capable of photosynthesis and can thrive in both freshwater and marine environments.
2. The newly discovered mutant cyanobacteria, Chonkus, has been identified near Italy's Vulcano Island and is noted for its ability to absorb more carbon dioxide than typical cyanobacteria.
3. Cyanobacteria blooms primarily occur in cold, fast-moving waters that are low in nutrients, particularly phosphorus and nitrogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are indeed capable of photosynthesis and can thrive in various water environments, including freshwater and marine settings. They utilize sunlight to produce their own food, which is a fundamental characteristic of their existence.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The mutant form of cyanobacteria named Chonkus has been discovered near Italy’s Vulcano Island. This specific strain is significant due to its enhanced ability to absorb carbon dioxide, which exceeds that of typical cyanobacteria found in ocean waters. This feature makes Chonkus particularly noteworthy in the context of climate change mitigation.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. Cyanobacteria blooms generally occur in warm, slow-moving waters that are enriched with nutrients such as phosphorus and nitrogen. These conditions are often found in environments affected by agricultural runoff or septic discharges, not in cold, fast-moving waters that are low in nutrients.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Press Council of India was established in 1966 based on the recommendations of the First Press Commission.
Statement-II:
The Press Council of India operates under the Press Council Act of 1978.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Menon answered
Explanation of the Statements
The two statements pertain to the establishment and functioning of the Press Council of India. Let's evaluate both statements in detail.
Statement-I: Establishment in 1966
- The Press Council of India was indeed established in 1966.
- This establishment was based on the recommendations of the First Press Commission, which aimed to ensure the freedom of the press and to maintain its independence.
Statement-II: Press Council Act of 1978
- The Press Council operates under the Press Council Act of 1978.
- This act governs the functioning, powers, and responsibilities of the Press Council, ensuring it can effectively oversee the media landscape in India.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements are correct.
- Statement-II does not merely support Statement-I; it provides additional information about the legislative framework under which the Press Council operates. Therefore, it clarifies and extends the understanding of the establishment mentioned in Statement-I.
Conclusion
- Since both statements are correct and Statement-II explains the legislative background of the establishment mentioned in Statement-I, the answer is option A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in Kerala
2. Dead Sea - Lowest land-based point on Earth
3. Willingdon Island - Connected to mainland by the Venduruthy Bridge
4. Bandipur National Park - Part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in Kerala: This pair is incorrectly matched. Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the H.D. Kote taluk of Mysuru district in Karnataka, India, not in Kerala.
2. Dead Sea - Lowest land-based point on Earth: This pair is correctly matched. The Dead Sea is indeed the lowest land-based point on Earth, located at an elevation of 430.5 meters below sea level.
3. Willingdon Island - Connected to mainland by the Venduruthy Bridge: This pair is correctly matched. Willingdon Island in Kochi, Kerala, is connected to the mainland by the Venduruthy Bridge.
4. Bandipur National Park - Part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve: This pair is correctly matched. Bandipur National Park is indeed part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
Thus, three out of the four pairs are correctly matched.

What is the main objective of the General Provident Fund (GPF) scheme in India?
  • a)
    To provide pension rights to retired private sector employees
  • b)
    To encourage savings among government employees for retirement
  • c)
    To offer financial assistance to unemployed individuals
  • d)
    To support charitable organizations in the country
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary goal of the General Provident Fund (GPF) scheme in India is to encourage government employees to save a portion of their salary for their retirement. It ensures a reliable source of income for government employees after they retire, thereby promoting financial security in their post-employment years. By contributing a specified percentage of their salary to the GPF, employees build up savings that are paid out to them upon retirement, providing a financial cushion for their future.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Zebrafish are particularly interesting to developmental biologists due to their remarkable ability to regenerate almost all organs, including the brain, heart, eyes, and spinal cord.
Statement-II: Zebrafish embryos are transparent, which facilitates live imaging and observation at the organism level during development.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Statement-I is accurate because zebrafish indeed possess regenerative abilities, allowing them to regenerate various organs like the brain, heart, eyes, and spinal cord. This trait is well-documented in scientific research. Statement-II is also correct as zebrafish embryos are transparent, enabling researchers to conduct live imaging and observation of organ development within the organism. The transparency of zebrafish embryos is a significant advantage for studying their developmental processes, making both statements accurate and interconnected.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
FPI does not offer direct control, whereas FDI involves significant ownership, typically defined as owning 10% or more of a company's shares.
Statement-II:
FDI often includes activities such as management participation, joint ventures, and the transfer of technology and expertise.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Mishra answered
Understanding FPI and FDI
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) are two essential forms of investment that serve different purposes and involve varying levels of control and ownership.
Statement-I Analysis
- FPI generally involves investing in financial assets such as stocks and bonds without seeking control over the companies in which they invest.
- In contrast, FDI requires a significant ownership stake (typically 10% or more) in a company, allowing the investor to have substantial influence or control over business operations.
Statement-II Analysis
- FDI is characterized by not just financial investment, but also active participation in the management of the entity.
- It often includes forming joint ventures, where local and foreign businesses collaborate, as well as transferring technology and expertise, enhancing the operational capacity of the local firm.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct:
- Statement-I accurately describes the lack of direct control in FPI versus the ownership and control in FDI.
- Statement-II elaborates on the nature of FDI, emphasizing its involvement in management and technology transfer.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for recognizing the strategic implications of different investment types, especially in a globalized economy.

What recent designation was bestowed upon Sirpur Lake on January 7, 2022?
  • a)
    UNESCO World Heritage Site
  • b)
    Ramsar site
  • c)
    National Park
  • d)
    Wildlife Sanctuary
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sirpur Lake was designated as a Ramsar site on January 7, 2022. This recognition highlights the ecological significance of the lake and emphasizes its importance as a wetland of international importance for the conservation of global biodiversity.
Note: Ramsar sites are designated under the Ramsar Convention, an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands worldwide.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Comb jellies are the largest known animals that utilize cilia for locomotion.
Statement-II:
Comb jellies lack stinging tentacles and pose no harm to humans.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered

Statement-I correctly states that comb jellies are the largest known animals that use cilia for locomotion, aiding in their movement through water. This is a factual and accurate statement based on the description of comb jellies.
Statement-II correctly mentions that comb jellies lack stinging tentacles and do not pose any harm to humans. This statement also aligns with the characteristics of comb jellies as described in the provided information.
Therefore, both Statement-I and Statement-II are individually correct, and Statement-II indeed explains why comb jellies, unlike jellyfish, do not harm humans. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs regarding India's performance in the World Intellectual Property Indicators (WIPI) 2024:
1. India ranks sixth globally for patents with over half submitted by residents.
2. India ranks fourth globally for trademark filings with 90% made by residents.
3. The top sector for industrial design filings is Health and Cosmetics.
4. The patent-to-GDP ratio improved from 144 to 381 over the past decade.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Chawla answered
Overview of India's Performance in WIPI 2024
India's performance in the World Intellectual Property Indicators (WIPI) 2024 showcases its growing emphasis on intellectual property rights. Analyzing the given pairs helps to identify the correctness of each statement.
1. India ranks sixth globally for patents with over half submitted by residents.
- This statement is correct. India has seen a significant rise in patent filings, with a substantial portion attributed to domestic innovators.
2. India ranks fourth globally for trademark filings with 90% made by residents.
- This statement is correct. India has a robust trademark system, and a high percentage of filings are made by Indian residents, reflecting the strong entrepreneurial spirit.
3. The top sector for industrial design filings is Health and Cosmetics.
- This statement is incorrect. The leading sector for industrial design filings tends to be technology-related fields, rather than Health and Cosmetics.
4. The patent-to-GDP ratio improved from 144 to 381 over the past decade.
- This statement is correct. India's patent-to-GDP ratio has indeed shown improvement, indicating a greater focus on innovation relative to economic output.
Conclusion
- From the analysis, three pairs (1, 2, and 4) are correct while one pair (3) is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is only three pairs, making option 'C' the right choice.

What is the primary goal of the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme recently approved by the Union Cabinet?
  • a)
    Providing free laptops to students
  • b)
    Offering scholarships for sports education
  • c)
    Providing financial support for higher education
  • d)
    Establishing vocational training centers
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Roy answered
Overview of PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme
The PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme, recently approved by the Union Cabinet, primarily aims to provide financial support for higher education. This initiative addresses the growing need for accessible education financing in India, particularly for students from economically weaker sections.
Key Objectives of the Scheme
- Financial Assistance: The scheme is designed to offer loans and financial assistance to students pursuing higher education, enabling them to cover tuition fees and other related expenses.
- Inclusivity: Focused on students from marginalized backgrounds, the scheme aims to bridge the educational gap by providing opportunities for higher studies that might otherwise be unaffordable.
- Support for Diverse Fields: It supports students across various fields, including engineering, medical, and other professional courses, ensuring a broader reach and impact.
Significance of the Scheme
- Empowerment through Education: By facilitating access to higher education, the scheme empowers youth, equipping them with skills and knowledge for better employment opportunities.
- Economic Growth: An educated workforce contributes significantly to the nation’s economic development, making this scheme crucial for India's growth trajectory.
- Reduction of Financial Barriers: The initiative aims to alleviate the financial burdens on families, thereby encouraging more students to pursue their educational aspirations without the fear of incurring debt.
In conclusion, the PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme plays a vital role in fostering educational equity and promoting access to higher education for economically disadvantaged students, ultimately contributing to the nation’s progress.

What is the primary purpose of the International Criminal Court (ICC)?
  • a)
    To provide legal assistance to member states
  • b)
    To prosecute individuals for serious international crimes
  • c)
    To mediate diplomatic conflicts between nations
  • d)
    To provide humanitarian aid to war-torn regions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary purpose of the International Criminal Court (ICC) is to prosecute individuals for serious international crimes. Established under the Rome Statute in 1998, the ICC aims to bring justice to those responsible for war crimes, crimes against humanity, genocide, and crimes of aggression on an international scale. By holding individuals accountable for such grave offenses, the ICC plays a crucial role in upholding human rights and promoting global justice.

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