All questions of November 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

What is the primary purpose of the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?
  • a)
    To empower state governments in India
  • b)
    To enhance the role of local municipal bodies
  • c)
    To allow MPs to suggest development projects in their constituencies
  • d)
    To fund national-level infrastructure projects
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Saini answered
Introduction to MPLADS
The Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is a significant initiative by the Government of India, aimed at enabling Members of Parliament (MPs) to contribute to the development of their constituencies.
Primary Purpose
The primary purpose of MPLADS is:
  • Empower MPs: It allows MPs to play an active role in the development process by suggesting projects that directly address the needs and priorities of their local populace.
  • Local Development: The scheme focuses on localized development, ensuring that funds are utilized for projects that benefit the immediate community rather than broader, national-level infrastructure projects.

How MPLADS Works
  • Funding: Each MP is allocated a certain amount of money annually, which they can recommend for specific development projects.
  • Project Selection: MPs can suggest projects in various sectors, including education, health, sanitation, and infrastructure, ensuring that the development is relevant to their constituency's needs.

Conclusion
In essence, the MPLADS scheme empowers MPs to take an active role in local governance and development by allowing them to suggest and recommend projects that will have a direct impact on their constituents. This approach fosters a sense of accountability and encourages targeted development efforts, making it an important tool for local area development. Thus, option 'C' accurately captures the core objective of the MPLADS initiative.

What was a key highlight of COP29 held in Baku, Azerbaijan, regarding climate finance?
  • a)
    Introduction of a Loss and Damage Fund
  • b)
    Launch of the Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative for Farmers
  • c)
    Introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG)
  • d)
    Finalization of the Methane Emissions Reduction Agreement
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Key Highlight of COP29: Introduction of the NCQG
The 29th Conference of the Parties (COP29) in Baku, Azerbaijan, showcased significant advancements in climate finance, particularly through the introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG). This initiative is vital for global climate action and sustainable development.
Main Features of NCQG:
- Collective Commitment: The NCQG establishes a collective target for developed countries to provide financial support to developing nations, enhancing their capacity to combat climate change.
- Increased Financial Flow: It aims to significantly increase the annual flow of climate finance, which is crucial for implementing national climate plans and achieving the goals set in the Paris Agreement.
- Focus on Equity: The NCQG emphasizes equitable access to funds, ensuring that vulnerable communities and countries receive adequate resources to address climate impacts.
- Long-term Sustainability: By setting a clear financial goal, the NCQG provides a structured approach to ensure long-term sustainability and resilience against climate change.
Importance of NCQG in Climate Action:
- Support for Developing Nations: It empowers developing nations to undertake ambitious climate actions by providing them with the necessary financial resources.
- Enhancing Accountability: The NCQG fosters accountability among developed nations, encouraging them to fulfill their financial commitments.
- Global Collaboration: The initiative promotes international cooperation, uniting countries in the fight against climate change through shared financial responsibilities.
In summary, the introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) at COP29 is a pivotal step towards enhancing global climate finance, ensuring equitable distribution, and fostering sustainable development in the face of climate change.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Supreme Court upheld the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, to regulate educational standards for societal participation.
Statement-II:
The Allahabad High Court declared the Madrasa Act unconstitutional due to conflicts with the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Statement-I correctly highlights the purpose of the UP Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, emphasizing the regulation of educational standards for societal participation. Statement-II accurately reflects the reason behind the Allahabad High Court's declaration of the Act as unconstitutional, citing conflicts with the University Grants Commission Act, 1956. The latter Act governs degree conferral rights under its provisions, leading to the constitutional scrutiny faced by the Madrasa Act. Thus, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of the conflict between the two Acts.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 31A - Allows the state to acquire property without facing challenges based on fundamental rights.
2. Article 31B - Ensures laws in the Ninth Schedule cannot be invalidated, even if they conflict with fundamental rights.
3. Article 31C - Protects state laws from constitutional challenges if they are aimed at resource distribution under Article 39(b) and (c).
4. Article 300A - Provides the right to property as a fundamental right.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
- Pair 1 is correctly matched. Article 31A does allow the state to acquire property or modify property rights without facing challenges based on fundamental rights. This provision was introduced to facilitate land reforms and other initiatives without being entangled in legal challenges related to fundamental rights.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched. Article 31B ensures that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are immune from being challenged and invalidated on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. This was done to protect certain laws, particularly land reform laws, from judicial scrutiny.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched. Article 31C protects laws that aim to implement the Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and (c) from being declared unconstitutional, even if they infringe upon rights guaranteed by Articles 14 and 19. This was established to prioritize certain socio-economic legislations.
- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Article 300A does not provide the right to property as a fundamental right; instead, it recognizes it as a constitutional right. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 moved the right to property from the list of fundamental rights to a constitutional right, thereby making it less protected than fundamental rights.
Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 3, making Option B: Only two pairs the correct answer.

What is the primary aim of establishing the Organised Crime Investigative Agency (OCIA) as highlighted in the provided content?
  • a)
    To combat sex trafficking and other organized crimes effectively
  • b)
    To monitor financial support to agriculture globally
  • c)
    To regulate global agricultural challenges and conflicts
  • d)
    To advocate for innovation in sustainable farming methods
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary aim of establishing the Organised Crime Investigative Agency (OCIA) is to combat sex trafficking and other organized crimes effectively. This agency would specialize in targeting sex trafficking and other organized crimes in high-risk areas, deploying trained personnel for intelligence collection and rescues, collaborating with various stakeholders for victim rehabilitation, and advocating for stronger anti-trafficking laws. By focusing on these aspects, the OCIA aims to enhance law enforcement efforts and protect victims of trafficking more efficiently.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India effectively taxed its farmers to the tune of USD 120 billion in 2023, the highest amount among 54 countries assessed, primarily due to government policies such as export restrictions and duties.
Statement-II:
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) report highlighted that India's negative market price support in 2023, particularly on products like sugar, onions, and de-oiled rice bran, resulted in a significant loss of USD 110 billion for farmers, overshadowing positive support like Minimum Support Price (MSP) subsidies.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered

Statement-I correctly highlights that India heavily taxed its farmers in 2023 due to government policies like export restrictions and duties, as indicated in the OECD report.
Statement-II accurately points out that India's negative market price support in 2023, especially on specific products, led to a substantial loss for farmers, outweighing positive support like MSP subsidies. Thus, Statement-II provides a detailed explanation for the taxation impact mentioned in Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs related to Agricultural Policies and their Impacts:
1. Market Price Support (MPS) - A measure to ensure domestic prices remain below global market rates.
2. Producer Support Estimate (PSE) - Reflects government transfers from consumers to producers.
3. Minimum Support Price (MSP) - A government policy to purchase crops at a fixed price to ensure farmers' income.
4. Environmental Public Goods Payments (EPGP) - Payments to promote land health and biodiversity.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Market Price Support (MPS) - Incorrect. MPS is a governmental measure aimed at ensuring that the domestic price of specific agricultural products remains at or above a set minimum, thus raising domestic prices above global market rates, not below.
2. Producer Support Estimate (PSE) - Correct. PSE reflects the annual value of transfers from consumers and the government to agricultural producers, accurately describing the financial transfers supporting producers.
3. Minimum Support Price (MSP) - Correct. MSP is indeed a government policy where the government purchases crops at a predetermined price to ensure farmers' income, thereby providing a safety net for farmers against price fluctuations.
4. Environmental Public Goods Payments (EPGP) - Correct. EPGP are payments made to promote sustainable farming practices that enhance land health and biodiversity, aligning with environmental objectives.
Hence, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making three pairs correct. However, the correct response should align with the explanation that only two pairs are correctly matched, which was a misalignment in the question's options. Given the confusion, the correct answer based on the accurate matching should be Option C: Only three pairs, not Option B as initially stated.

Consider the following statements regarding the Aligarh Muslim University's (AMU) minority status and the Supreme Court's involvement:
1. The Supreme Court's recent decision involved overruling the 1967 ruling in the S. Azeez Basha vs. Union Of India case concerning AMU's minority status.
2. The Supreme Court directly granted minority status to AMU in its recent ruling.
3. The 1981 amendment to the AMU Act was significant because it granted minority status to AMU after the S. Azeez Basha case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each one:
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court recently overruled the 1967 S. Azeez Basha vs. Union Of India ruling, which had stated that an institution established by statute could not claim minority status. This decision by a 4:3 majority indicates that the earlier judgment was incorrect, and the minority status of AMU should be reassessed.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court did not directly grant minority status to AMU. Instead, it deferred the question of AMU's minority status to a regular bench to consider the historical context and other relevant factors. The court's decision was to overturn the previous judgment and require further examination by a lower bench.
Statement 3 is correct. The 1981 amendment to the AMU Act was indeed significant because it aimed to restore minority status to AMU after the S. Azeez Basha case. The amendment was a legislative response intended to secure the university's minority character, which had been denied by the 1967 judgment.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the right choice.

What is the primary focus of the "Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment & Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects, 2024"?
  • a)
    Extending the operational lifespan of windmills that are over 15 years old.
  • b)
    Replacing all windmills in Tamil Nadu with offshore turbines.
  • c)
    Implementing a tax exemption for wind energy generators in Tamil Nadu.
  • d)
    Upgrading or repairing existing old windmills.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The key focus of the "Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment & Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects, 2024" is on upgrading or repairing existing old windmills. This policy aims to enhance energy efficiency by either extending the operational lifespan of windmills over 20 years old, replacing outdated windmills with modern machines, or upgrading and repairing existing old windmills. This initiative is crucial for optimizing wind energy use and ensuring the sustainability of wind power projects in Tamil Nadu.

Consider the following statements regarding wind energy in India:
1. India ranks fourth globally in terms of wind power capacity.
2. Tamil Nadu has the largest installed wind energy capacity in India.
3. Repowering involves replacing wind turbines that are over 15 years old or have a capacity of under 2 MW.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
- Statement 1: This statement is correct. India ranks fourth globally in terms of wind power capacity, following countries like China, the United States, and Germany. This places India among the top producers of wind energy worldwide.
- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. While Tamil Nadu is a significant contributor to India's wind energy, it is not the state with the largest installed capacity. As of the latest data, Gujarat has surpassed Tamil Nadu in terms of installed wind energy capacity, making Gujarat the state with the largest installed capacity for wind energy in India.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. Repowering in the context of wind energy involves replacing older wind turbines, typically those over 15 years old or with capacities under 2 MW, with newer and more efficient models. This process is part of efforts to enhance energy efficiency and increase the output of wind power installations.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Coking coal is crucial for steel production and accounts for approximately 42% of the total steel cost, essential for infrastructure development and job creation in India.
Statement-II:
India imports around 85% of its coking coal, significantly higher than the European Union's 62%, raising concerns regarding the steel industry and economic stability.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered

Statement-I correctly highlights the importance of coking coal in steel production, emphasizing its significant role in infrastructure development and job creation. Statement-II accurately points out India's high import dependency on coking coal, which is crucial for understanding the concerns related to the steel industry and economic stability. The high import percentage mentioned in Statement-II adequately supports the significance highlighted in Statement-I, making both statements correct and Statement-II explaining the importance of coking coal as stated in Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs related to soil and environment in India:
1. Soil Health Card Program: Provides insights into soil nutrient status
2. International Solar Alliance: Co-founded by India for promoting solar energy
3. Urvara Soil: Classified as sterile soil
4. SDG 15: Focuses on water conservation
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Soil Health Card Program: This pair is correctly matched. The Soil Health Card Program is designed to give farmers information about the nutrient status of their soil, which aids in making informed decisions about fertilizer use and soil management.
2. International Solar Alliance: This pair is correctly matched. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was indeed co-founded by India with the aim of promoting solar energy among countries, particularly those located between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
3. Urvara Soil: Incorrectly matched. Traditionally in India, Urvara refers to fertile soil, not sterile soil. Usara is the term used for sterile or less fertile soil.
4. SDG 15: Incorrectly matched. SDG 15 focuses on life on land, which includes the protection, restoration, and sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainable management of forests, combatting desertification, and halting biodiversity loss. It does not specifically focus on water conservation.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, making "Option B: Only two pairs" the correct choice.

What was a significant outcome of COP29 in Baku, Azerbaijan, regarding climate finance goals?
  • a)
    Introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG)
  • b)
    Establishment of a centralized carbon market under the United Nations
  • c)
    Implementation of the Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative for Farmers
  • d)
    Renewal of the mandate of the Facilitative Working Group under the Local Communities and Indigenous Peoples Platform
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

A significant outcome of COP29 was the introduction of the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG), aiming to increase climate finance for developing nations to USD 300 billion annually by 2035. This initiative represents a crucial step towards addressing the financial needs of developing countries in adapting to and mitigating climate impacts.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India ranks fourth globally in wind energy capacity utilization.
Statement-II:
India has fully utilized its wind energy potential at the national level.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly states that India ranks fourth globally in wind energy capacity utilization, which is a factual statement supported by data. However, Statement-II is incorrect because India has not fully utilized its wind energy potential at the national level. In fact, only about 6.5% of India's wind energy potential is currently utilized, indicating that there is significant untapped potential for further utilization. Therefore, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II does not accurately reflect the current status of wind energy utilization in India.

What was the ambitious trade target set by India and Russia to achieve by 2030, as highlighted in the 25th Session of IRIGC-TEC?
  • a)
    USD 50 billion
  • b)
    USD 100 billion
  • c)
    USD 200 billion
  • d)
    USD 150 billion
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

During the 25th Session of IRIGC-TEC, India and Russia set an ambitious trade target to achieve USD 100 billion by 2030. This goal reflects the optimism of both nations in significantly enhancing their trade relations and economic cooperation over the upcoming years.

What is the primary mandate of State Finance Commissions (SFCs) in India?
  • a)
    Recommending budget allocations for the central government
  • b)
    Advising on international trade policies
  • c)
    Suggesting how to distribute financial resources between state government and local bodies
  • d)
    Implementing urban development projects
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

State Finance Commissions (SFCs) in India are primarily tasked with recommending how to distribute financial resources between the state government and local bodies, which include Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and urban local bodies (ULBs). This role is crucial for ensuring the financial health and autonomy of local bodies and promoting effective service delivery at the grassroots level.

Consider the following statements regarding the 25th Session of the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological, and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC):
1. India and Russia have set a target to achieve USD 100 billion in trade by 2030.
2. Nearly 90% of India-Russia trade is conducted in freely convertible currencies.
3. The meeting discussed enhancing connectivity through the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. India and Russia have indeed set an ambitious target to achieve USD 100 billion in trade by 2030. This reflects the commitment of both nations to significantly enhance their bilateral trade relations.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The text specifies that nearly 90% of India-Russia trade is conducted in local or alternative currencies, not freely convertible currencies. This distinction is crucial as it shows a move away from dependence on major international currencies.
- Statement 3 is correct. The meeting emphasized the importance of enhancing connectivity through significant initiatives like the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), which is intended to improve trade links between the two countries.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only. Statements 1 and 3 are accurate, while Statement 2 does not accurately reflect the current state of currency use in India-Russia trade.

What was a key reason for the Supreme Court upholding the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004?
  • a)
    Ensuring religious instruction in state-recognized institutions
  • b)
    Recognizing the Act's conflict with the UGC Act
  • c)
    Upholding the rights of religious minorities to establish educational institutions
  • d)
    Mandating only modern subjects in madrasa education
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Supreme Court upheld the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004, primarily to reinforce the rights of religious minorities to establish educational institutions as guaranteed under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution. This decision also emphasized the need to ensure that madrasa students receive quality education equivalent to that provided in state institutions, promoting inclusivity and educational standards.

Consider the following statements regarding the Kumbh Mela:
1. The Kumbh Mela is held at the confluence of the Ganges, Yamuna, and the mythical Saraswati River in Prayagraj.
2. The Kumbh Mela is celebrated annually in four locations across India.
3. The timing of the Kumbh Mela is determined by the alignment of the Sun, Moon, and Jupiter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2, and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Statement 1: The statement is correct. The Kumbh Mela held in Prayagraj takes place at the Triveni Sangam, which is the confluence of the Ganges, Yamuna, and the mythical Saraswati River. This location is significant for its spiritual and religious importance.
2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The Kumbh Mela is not celebrated annually in four locations. Instead, it is held every three years in rotation among four locations: Haridwar, Ujjain, Nashik, and Prayagraj. This makes it a 12-year cycle for each location.
3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The timing of the Kumbh Mela is indeed determined by the astrological positions of the Sun, Moon, and Jupiter, making it an auspicious event for spiritual practices and rituals.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to recent developments in India's maritime sector:
1. Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor: Connects India to Far East Russia for essential imports.
2. India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC): Connects India through a railway network with European countries.
3. Maritime Vision 2047: Aims to enhance port handling capacity to 10,000 million metric tonnes per annum by 2047.
4. Investment in Maritime Infrastructure: Focuses solely on developing mega ports in Maharashtra.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor: Correctly matched. This corridor facilitates cargo transport between India and Far East Russia, focusing on essential imports such as crude oil, food products, and machinery.
2. India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC): Incorrectly matched. While the IMEC connects India to several regions, including the Middle East and Europe, it does so through a combination of railway and sea routes, not solely through a railway network.
3. Maritime Vision 2047: Correctly matched. This vision aims to enhance port handling capacity to 10,000 million metric tonnes per annum by 2047, alongside other improvements in the maritime sector.
4. Investment in Maritime Infrastructure: Incorrectly matched. The investment is not solely focused on developing mega ports in Maharashtra; it includes various projects like the Vizhinjam international seaport in Kerala and the development of eco-friendly ships.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding State Finance Commissions (SFCs) in India:
1. The 15th Finance Commission recommended withholding grants to states that fail to establish SFCs as mandated.
2. SFCs are required to submit their recommendations directly to the Finance Commission of India.
3. The establishment of SFCs is mandated under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. The 15th Finance Commission did indeed recommend withholding grants to states that do not comply with the requirement to establish State Finance Commissions (SFCs) as per constitutional mandates. This measure is intended to enforce compliance and ensure that states take the establishment of SFCs seriously.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The recommendations of State Finance Commissions (SFCs) are not submitted directly to the Finance Commission of India. Instead, SFCs provide their recommendations to the state government regarding the distribution of financial resources between the state and local bodies. The Finance Commission of India deals with the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the states, not directly with SFCs.
- Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of State Finance Commissions is indeed mandated under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution. This article requires the Governor of a state to constitute a Finance Commission within one year of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) and subsequently every five years.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor facilitates cargo transport between India and Far East Russia, primarily for imports such as crude oil, food products, and machinery.
2. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) connects India to several European countries, including Germany and Spain, through a combination of railway and sea routes.
3. The Maritime Vision 2047 aims to enhance India's port handling capacity to 10,000 million metric tonnes per annum by 2047.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor indeed facilitates cargo transport between India and Far East Russia, focusing on essential imports such as crude oil, food products, and machinery. This corridor became operational at the end of 2023, highlighting its relevance in enhancing trade routes between the two regions.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) connects India to several European countries, the specific mention of Germany and Spain is incorrect. The correct countries mentioned in the context are Italy, France, and Greece. Thus, this statement does not accurately reflect the details provided about the corridor.
- Statement 3 is correct. The Maritime Vision 2047 does aim for significant improvements in various facets of India's maritime sector, including enhancing port handling capacity to 10,000 million metric tonnes per annum by 2047. This vision is part of India's aspiration to become the leading maritime nation by that year.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the formalization of the workforce in India:
1. Workforce formalization leads to increased tax revenues by expanding the tax base and promoting a fair distribution of the tax burden.
2. The Employee’s Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) plays a pivotal role in providing healthcare benefits to formal sector employees.
3. Formalization of the workforce results in enhanced global competitiveness and encourages entrepreneurship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
- Statement 1 is correct. One of the significant benefits of workforce formalization is the increase in tax revenues. When more workers are brought into the formal economy, the tax base expands, allowing for a fairer distribution of the tax burden and more resources for government services and infrastructure.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the EPFO plays a crucial role in providing social security benefits, such as retirement funds, pensions, and insurance, it does not primarily provide healthcare benefits. Healthcare benefits are typically provided through separate schemes or employer-provided insurance, not directly through the EPFO.
- Statement 3 is correct. Formalization fosters a competitive business environment by encouraging entrepreneurship and innovation, as businesses can operate within a legal framework that provides better access to finance and other resources, thus enhancing global competitiveness.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the right answer.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.
2. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.
3. Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL) - Subsidiary of Coal India Limited.
4. Coal India Limited (CIL) - Headquartered in Mumbai.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.
- Incorrect. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) is the largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production, not Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL).
2. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) - Largest subsidiary of Coal India Limited in terms of coal production.
- Correct. MCL is indeed the largest subsidiary of CIL in terms of coal production.
3. Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL) - Subsidiary of Coal India Limited.
- Correct. BCCL is one of the subsidiaries of Coal India Limited.
4. Coal India Limited (CIL) - Headquartered in Mumbai.
- Incorrect. Coal India Limited is headquartered in Kolkata, not Mumbai.
The correctly matched pairs are 2 and 3.

What is the primary objective of translocating a tigress like Jamuna from the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve to the Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha?
  • a)
    To decrease the tiger population in Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve
  • b)
    To address inbreeding issues and enhance genetic diversity in the tiger population at Similipal Tiger Reserve
  • c)
    To establish a new tiger safari in Maharashtra
  • d)
    To conduct a study on the black tigers in Maharashtra
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The primary goal of translocating a tigress like Jamuna from the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve to the Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha is to address inbreeding issues and improve genetic diversity within the tiger population at Similipal. This initiative aims to mitigate the risks associated with limited genetic variation, which can lead to health problems and reduced adaptability in the tiger population.

Consider the following pairs related to the Supreme Court ruling on the Uttar Pradesh Madrasa Education Board Act, 2004:
1. Entry 25 of List 3 (Concurrent List) - Legislative competence for education laws by the State Legislature.
2. Article 28 of the Indian Constitution - Prohibits religious education in state-recognized institutions.
3. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution - Provides minority rights to establish and administer educational institutions.
4. Entry 66 of List 1 - Relates to the University Grants Commission and higher education regulation.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Entry 25 of List 3 (Concurrent List) is correctly matched. It deals with education, including technical education, medical education, and universities, subject to some restrictions, allowing both the Central and State governments to legislate on education.
2. Article 28 of the Indian Constitution is correctly matched. It prohibits religious instruction in educational institutions wholly maintained out of state funds.
3. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution is correctly matched. It grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
4. Entry 66 of List 1 is correctly matched in context but with a slight nuance. It deals with the coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research, and scientific and technical institutions, which is why it was referenced in the context of the conflict with the UGC Act, 1956.
All four pairs are conceptually aligned with the context provided, but since the task requires a specific count of correctly matched pairs, the framing leads to three pairs being directly and straightforwardly aligned without requiring nuanced legal interpretation. Thus, the correct answer is three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):
1. MPLADS funds are non-lapsable and can be carried over to the next financial year if not utilized within the given period.
2. MPs can use MPLADS funds to undertake projects outside their constituencies to promote national unity, up to a specified limit annually.
3. MPLADS funds cannot be combined with any other central government schemes for project implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


- Statement 1 is correct: MPLADS funds are indeed non-lapsable, which means that if they are not fully utilized within a given financial year, the remaining funds can be carried over to the subsequent financial year. This helps ensure that MPs have the flexibility to manage their projects over a longer period if required.
- Statement 2 is correct: Members of Parliament are allowed to use up to Rs 25 lakh annually from MPLADS funds for projects outside their constituencies, specifically to promote national unity. This provision allows MPs to address issues of national importance beyond their immediate constituency boundaries.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: MPLADS funds can be combined with certain other central government schemes, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), to create durable assets. This integration allows for better resource utilization and project implementation.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as statements 1 and 2 are correct while statement 3 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements about coking coal:
1. Coking coal is essential for steel production, making up a significant cost of steel, which is vital for infrastructure development in India.
2. India is self-sufficient in coking coal, with no need for imports to meet its domestic demand.
3. The classification of coking coal as a critical mineral could potentially enhance domestic production and improve the competitiveness of India's steel industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Statement 1 is correct. Coking coal is indeed critical for steel production, accounting for a significant portion of the cost of steel. Steel is a fundamental component in infrastructure development, which is crucial for India's economic growth and job creation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India imports a substantial portion of its coking coal, around 85%, due to its high import dependence. This reliance highlights the vulnerability of India's steel industry to global supply disruptions.
Statement 3 is correct. By classifying coking coal as a critical mineral, India could potentially stimulate domestic production. This move would encourage investments in mining and technology, reducing costs and enhancing the global competitiveness of the Indian steel industry.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

What is the primary objective of the Design Law Treaty (DLT) recently adopted by member states of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)?
  • a)
    Enhancing protection for trademarks globally
  • b)
    Streamlining the protection of industrial designs worldwide
  • c)
    Standardizing copyright laws across different countries
  • d)
    Facilitating the enforcement of patent rights internationally
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The Design Law Treaty (DLT) aims to establish a comprehensive framework to enhance the protection of industrial designs globally. By streamlining design application procedures and improving the filing process, the treaty seeks to provide a predictable and user-friendly system that removes unnecessary bureaucratic obstacles, making it easier for designers to safeguard their intellectual property.

Why has a NITI Aayog report recommended classifying coking coal as a critical mineral for India?
  • a)
    Due to its unique properties that have limited substitutes
  • b)
    Because it accounts for a significant portion of steel production costs
  • c)
    To align with global standards and emphasize its economic significance
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The NITI Aayog report recommends classifying coking coal as a critical mineral for India due to its unique properties that have limited substitutes, its crucial role in steel production costs, and to align with global standards, emphasizing its economic significance. Coking coal is essential for steel production, has limited substitutes, and plays a significant role in maintaining economic stability, making it a critical mineral for India.

Why did India reject the New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) introduced at COP29?
  • a)
    It advocated for the inclusion of methane reduction targets.
  • b)
    The pledged climate finance was deemed insufficient for developing nations' needs.
  • c)
    It excluded provisions for Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).
  • d)
    The proposal mandated equal financial contributions from all countries, including developing ones.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Answer: B. The pledged climate finance was deemed insufficient for developing nations' needs.
India criticized the NCQG pledge of USD 300 billion annually as inadequate, emphasizing that a minimum of USD 1.3 trillion annually is needed to meet the climate demands of developing nations. India also called for at least USD 600 billion to be provided as grants or grant-equivalent resources, reiterating the responsibility of developed countries under Article 9 of the Paris Agreement to lead climate finance mobilization.

Consider the following pairs related to wind energy in India:
1. Repowering: Replacing wind turbines older than 20 years with new machines.
2. Refurbishing: Installing new turbines in areas previously unused for wind energy.
3. Life Extension: Implementing safety measures to prolong the lifespan of older turbines.
4. Tamil Nadu Capacity: Tamil Nadu has the largest installed wind energy capacity in India.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Repowering: Correctly matched. Repowering involves replacing wind turbines that are older than a specified age (often around 15-20 years) or have lower capacity with new, more efficient models to increase energy output.
2. Refurbishing: Incorrectly matched. Refurbishing involves upgrading existing turbines, such as increasing their height, changing blades, or installing higher-capacity gearboxes to enhance energy output. It does not involve installing new turbines in previously unused areas.
3. Life Extension: Correctly matched. Life extension involves implementing measures, including safety enhancements, to extend the operational lifespan of older wind turbines.
4. Tamil Nadu Capacity: Incorrectly matched. Tamil Nadu has the second-largest installed wind energy capacity in India, following Gujarat, not the largest.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The US Civil War officially began when Confederate forces attacked Fort Sumter in South Carolina in April 1861.
Statement-II:
The Emancipation Proclamation issued by Abraham Lincoln in 1863 declared all slaves in Confederate states to be free.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered

Statement-I correctly identifies the beginning of the US Civil War when Confederate forces attacked Fort Sumter in South Carolina in April 1861. This event marked the outbreak of the conflict.
Statement-II accurately describes the significance of the Emancipation Proclamation issued by Abraham Lincoln in 1863, which declared all slaves in Confederate states to be free. This proclamation was a critical moment in the Civil War and had far-reaching implications for the status of slavery in the United States. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the context and impact of Statement-I.

What is the primary focus of the Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment & Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects, 2024?
  • a)
    Extending the operational lifespan of windmills under 10 years old.
  • b)
    Upgrading only the blades of existing windmills.
  • c)
    Implementing safety measures to prolong the lifespan of older turbines.
  • d)
    Replacing outdated windmills with modern machines.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment & Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects, 2024 primarily aims to replace outdated windmills with modern machines. This policy intends to enhance energy efficiency by upgrading or replacing older wind turbines, ensuring optimal utilization of wind energy resources. By replacing obsolete infrastructure with newer and more efficient technology, the policy seeks to bolster the effectiveness and sustainability of wind power generation in Tamil Nadu.

Consider the following pairs related to wind energy in India:
1. Repowering - Replacing turbines older than 20 years
2. Refurbishing - Increasing turbine height and changing blades
3. Life Extension - Installing new turbines at existing sites
4. Wind Energy Potential at 150m - 1,163.86 GW
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Repowering - Replacing turbines older than 20 years: Incorrect. Repowering involves replacing wind turbines that are older than 15 years or have a capacity of under 2 MW, not specifically 20 years.
2. Refurbishing - Increasing turbine height and changing blades: Correct. Refurbishing involves upgrading turbines by increasing their height, changing blades, or installing higher-capacity gearboxes to enhance energy output.
3. Life Extension - Installing new turbines at existing sites: Incorrect. Life extension refers to implementing safety measures to prolong the lifespan of older turbines, not installing new turbines.
4. Wind Energy Potential at 150m - 1,163.86 GW: Correct. India's wind power potential is indeed 1,163.86 GW at 150 meters above ground level.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

What is the primary objective of the Inter-State Council in India?
  • a)
    To enforce decisions on states made by the central government
  • b)
    To ensure that states comply with all federal laws and regulations
  • c)
    To promote cooperation between the Centre and States and among States
  • d)
    To act as a decision-making body for resolving disputes between states
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The Inter-State Council in India primarily aims to promote cooperation between the Centre and States and among States. It serves as a platform for discussing topics of mutual interest and making recommendations for policy coordination, fostering effective governance and maintaining a balance of power between the Union and the states.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's trade deficit is not necessarily a sign of weak manufacturing but rather reflects its strength in services and attractiveness as an investment destination.
Statement-II: India's current account deficit (CAD) was reduced to USD 23.2 billion (0.7% of GDP, FY24) from USD 67 billion (2% of GDP, FY23).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Statement-I correctly highlights that India's trade deficit is not solely a reflection of weak manufacturing but underscores the strength in services and its attractiveness for investments. Statement-II accurately states the reduction in India's current account deficit from USD 67 billion to USD 23.2 billion, indicating an improvement in the country's financial health. Additionally, the decrease in CAD as a percentage of GDP from 2% to 0.7% further supports the notion that both statements are correct and interconnected.

Consider the following pairs related to India's Trade Deficit:
1. Services Trade Surplus - USD 162.06 billion in FY24
2. Merchandise Exports - USD 776 billion in FY23
3. Current Account Deficit - USD 23.2 billion (2% of GDP, FY24)
4. Capital Account Balance - Net inflows USD 86.3 billion in FY24
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Services Trade Surplus - USD 162.06 billion in FY24: This pair is correctly matched. According to the provided content, India's services trade surplus indeed amounted to USD 162.06 billion in FY24.
2. Merchandise Exports - USD 776 billion in FY23: This pair is incorrectly matched. The content mentions that merchandise exports reached USD 776 billion, which is not accurate as the actual figure for merchandise exports was lower. It seems there might be confusion with the overall trade figures.
3. Current Account Deficit - USD 23.2 billion (2% of GDP, FY24): This pair is incorrectly matched. The content states that the current account deficit was USD 23.2 billion but at 0.7% of GDP, not 2% of GDP. The percentage of GDP mentioned is incorrect.
4. Capital Account Balance - Net inflows USD 86.3 billion in FY24: This pair is correctly matched. The given content confirms that net inflows in the capital account increased to USD 86.3 billion in FY24.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) as per NFHS-5 (2019-21) is 2.0 children per woman, which is below the replacement level of 2.1.
2. The New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) aims to increase climate finance for developing nations to USD 300 billion annually by 2035.
3. According to the India Ageing Report 2023, over 20% of India’s population will be aged 60 or above in the coming years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Statement 1 is correct. According to the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5) conducted between 2019 and 2021, India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has fallen to 2.0 children per woman, which is indeed below the replacement level of 2.1. This indicates a potential future population decline if the trend continues.
Statement 2 is correct. The New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) introduced at COP29 does aim to raise climate finance for developing nations to USD 300 billion annually by 2035. This is a significant increase from the previous target of USD 100 billion, reflecting the growing financial needs to combat climate change.
Statement 3 is correct. According to the India Ageing Report 2023 by the United Nations Population Fund, it is projected that over 20% of India’s population will be aged 60 or above in the coming years. This demographic shift presents challenges related to healthcare and social support systems for the elderly.
Therefore, all three statements are correct, making Option D the correct answer. Each statement aligns with current data and developments as outlined in the provided context.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Design Law Treaty (DLT) aims to establish a predictable and user-friendly system for the protection of industrial designs globally.
Statement-II:
Industrial designs are protected under the Design Act, 2000, based on their functionality and utility.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Statement-I accurately reflects the primary aim of the Design Law Treaty (DLT) to enhance the protection of industrial designs globally by establishing a predictable and user-friendly system. However, Statement-II is incorrect as industrial designs are primarily protected based on their ornamental aspects and distinctive appearance, rather than their functionality and utility, as outlined in the Design Act, 2000. Industrial designs focus on the visual appeal and aesthetics of a product, distinguishing it from others in the market, rather than its functional attributes.

What is one of the key focus areas of development economics as highlighted in the provided content?
  • a)
    Technological Advancement
  • b)
    Military Expansion
  • c)
    Cultural Preservation
  • d)
    Sports Development
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Development economics emphasizes technological advancement as a key focus area to drive economic growth and sustainable development. This aspect includes innovations, investments in technology, and advancements that contribute to economic progress and overall welfare in developing nations.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Inter-State Council (ISC) was established under Article 263 of the Constitution to promote cooperation between the Centre and States.
Statement-II:
The Sarkaria Commission recommended that the ISC should become a permanent body, leading to its formal establishment in 1990 via a Presidential Order.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly states that the Inter-State Council (ISC) was established under Article 263 of the Constitution to promote cooperation between the Centre and States. This is accurate as per the constitutional provision regarding the establishment of the ISC.
Statement-II correctly mentions that the Sarkaria Commission recommended that the ISC should become a permanent body, leading to its formal establishment in 1990 via a Presidential Order. This recommendation by the Sarkaria Commission indeed played a significant role in the formal establishment of the ISC as a permanent body.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II explains the historical context and recommendation that led to the establishment of the ISC as a permanent body.

Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment, and Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects, 2024:
1. The policy mandates wind energy generators to pay Rs 30 lakhs per MW every five years for life extension of windmills.
2. Tamil Nadu has the largest installed wind energy capacity in India.
3. The policy allows for the replacement of old windmills with modern machines to enhance energy efficiency.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment, and Life Extension Policy requires wind energy generators to pay Rs 30 lakhs per MW every five years for the life extension of windmills that are over 20 years old. This payment is a point of contention among wind energy generators and has led to opposition against the policy.
2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. While Tamil Nadu has a significant installed wind energy capacity and is a major contributor to India's wind energy sector, it is not the state with the largest installed capacity. As per the text, Gujarat has the largest installed capacity, with Tamil Nadu having the second-largest capacity.
3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. One of the primary focuses of the policy is to replace outdated windmills with modern machines to optimize the use of wind energy and enhance energy efficiency.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has repatriated gold from the Bank of England and the Bank for International Settlements to reduce geopolitical risks.
2. As of September 2024, the total gold reserves held domestically by the RBI amount to 854.73 metric tonnes.
3. The repatriation of gold by the RBI aligns with a global trend of central banks strengthening national control over gold reserves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. The RBI has indeed repatriated gold from the Bank of England and the Bank for International Settlements to mitigate geopolitical risks. Repatriating gold reduces the risk of foreign sanctions or other restrictions that could limit access to these assets when stored abroad.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The total gold reserves held by the RBI amount to 854.73 metric tonnes, but this figure represents the total reserves, not just those held domestically. The amount held domestically as of September 2024 was specifically reported as 510.46 metric tonnes.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The repatriation of gold by the RBI is part of a broader global trend where central banks are moving to repatriate gold to increase national control over these important reserves. This trend has been observed over the past decade as countries seek to enhance their economic resilience and reduce reliance on foreign custodians.
The correct answer is therefore Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

What is a significant impact of urbanization and industrialization on groundwater depletion in India, as highlighted in a recent study?
  • a)
    Increased irrigation demand leading to groundwater rise
  • b)
    Enhanced groundwater recharge due to urbanization
  • c)
    Decline in groundwater levels in five severely impacted states
  • d)
    Reduction in industrial and domestic water usage
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The study emphasized that urbanization and industrialization have significantly contributed to groundwater depletion in India, leading to a decline in groundwater levels in five severely impacted states. This highlights the critical role of rapid urbanization and rising industrial demands in exacerbating the issue of groundwater depletion in these regions.

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