All questions of December 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India's maritime activities date back to the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) around 3300-1300 BCE, with Lothal's dry-dock being the world's first known dry-dock, indicating advanced nautical knowledge.
Statement-II:
During the Nandas and Mauryas (500 - 200 BC), the Magadh kingdom recorded the first naval force, and Emperor Ashoka used maritime routes to spread Buddhism.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Charvi Yadav answered
Analysis of Statement-I
- India's maritime activities indeed trace back to the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) around 3300-1300 BCE.
- The discovery of Lothal's dry-dock signifies advanced shipbuilding and nautical skills, making it one of the earliest known dry-docks in the world.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Nanda and Maurya empires (500 - 200 BC) did witness the establishment of the first organized naval forces in India.
- Emperor Ashoka effectively utilized maritime routes to propagate Buddhism, enhancing cultural exchange and spreading religious influence across regions.
Conclusion
- Both statements are factual and supported by historical evidence.
- However, Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for Statement-I; rather, they highlight different aspects of India's maritime history.
Correct Option
- Therefore, the correct answer is: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- This makes option 'B' the right choice.

Consider the following pairs related to issues affecting parliamentary productivity:
1. Frequent Disruptions - Caused by opposition protests and breaches in parliamentary security.
2. Political Polarization - Encourages consensus-building and smooth legislative progress.
3. Low Participation Rates - Generally due to MPs prioritizing constituency work over parliamentary sessions.
4. Poor Quality of Legislation - Results from insufficient debate and stakeholder consultation.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Joshi answered
Analysis of Parliamentary Productivity Issues
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, we need to evaluate each statement regarding its accuracy.
1. Frequent Disruptions
- This pair is correctly matched. Disruptions caused by opposition protests and security breaches indeed hinder parliamentary productivity.
2. Political Polarization
- This pair is incorrectly matched. Political polarization typically leads to gridlock and hinders consensus-building, which disrupts smooth legislative progress, rather than encouraging it.
3. Low Participation Rates
- This pair is correctly matched. Low participation rates among MPs can often stem from prioritizing constituency work over attending parliamentary sessions, indicating a lack of focus on legislative duties.
4. Poor Quality of Legislation
- This pair is also correctly matched. Poor quality arises from insufficient debate and lack of stakeholder consultation, which are crucial for crafting effective legislation.
Summary of Correctly Matched Pairs
- Out of the four pairs:
- Frequent Disruptions: Correct
- Political Polarization: Incorrect
- Low Participation Rates: Correct
- Poor Quality of Legislation: Correct
Thus, three pairs (1, 3, and 4) are correctly matched, but since the provided answer indicates only two pairs are matched correctly, the answer key appears to have an oversight.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct interpretation should reflect three pairs correctly matched, challenging the assertion of option 'B'. It seems the answer key may contain inaccuracies regarding the number of matched pairs. However, based on the analysis above, the logical conclusion is that three pairs are indeed accurate.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Wood Carving: Integrates techniques from Samarkand.
2. Carpet Weaving: Features patterns named after Bukhara.
3. Embroidery: Influenced by Uzbek suzani leading to sozini work.
4. Pashmina Shawls: Promoted by Zain-ul-Abidin.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Wood Carving: Integrates techniques from Samarkand.
This is correctly matched. Kashmiri wood carving incorporates techniques and styles from Central Asia, including areas like Samarkand, introduced during the reign of Zain-ul-Abidin.
2. Carpet Weaving: Features patterns named after Bukhara.
This is incorrectly matched. While Kashmiri carpets are influenced by Persian knotting methods and often feature designs named after Iranian cities, they are not specifically named after Bukhara. The influence is more Persian, particularly from Iranian cities.
3. Embroidery: Influenced by Uzbek suzani leading to sozini work.
This is correctly matched. The Uzbek suzani embroidery influenced Kashmiri embroidery styles, leading to the development of the distinctive sozini work.
4. Pashmina Shawls: Promoted by Zain-ul-Abidin.
This is incorrectly matched. Pashmina shawls were promoted by Mughal Emperor Akbar, not Zain-ul-Abidin. While Zain-ul-Abidin was instrumental in bringing various crafts to Kashmir, the promotion of Pashmina shawls is attributed to the Mughal period.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs related to road safety and economic discussions:
1. Road Accident Fatality Rate - 250 deaths per 10,000 km
2. BRICS Currency Proposal Year - 2020
3. Major Cause of Road Deaths in India - Non-compliance with safety measures
4. US Dollar Dominance in Trade - Over 90%
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Road Accident Fatality Rate - 250 deaths per 10,000 km: This pair is correctly matched. The content specifies that India has one of the highest road accident fatality rates globally, with 250 deaths per 10,000 km.
2. BRICS Currency Proposal Year - 2020: This pair is incorrectly matched. The BRICS discussions on increasing the use of local currencies or creating a new BRICS currency took place at the 16th BRICS summit in October 2024, not in 2020.
3. Major Cause of Road Deaths in India - Non-compliance with safety measures: This pair is correctly matched. The document highlights that major causes of fatalities include non-compliance with safety measures like helmet and seat belt usage.
4. US Dollar Dominance in Trade - Over 90%: This pair is correctly matched. The key takeaways mention that the US dollar currently dominates over 90% of global trade.
Only three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 3, and 4. Option C is the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs related to the three-pronged strategy to eliminate Maoist insurgency:
1. Security Measures - Deployment of Mini UAVs for CAPF battalions
2. Development Initiatives - Creation of Tribal Advisory Councils
3. Empowerment Efforts - Rehabilitation policies for surrendered Maoists
4. Infrastructure Development - Implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Security Measures - Deployment of Mini UAVs for CAPF battalions: This pair is correctly matched. As part of the security measures within the three-pronged strategy, the deployment of Mini UAVs for Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) is intended to enhance surveillance and operational capabilities in Left Wing Extremism (LWE) affected areas.
2. Development Initiatives - Creation of Tribal Advisory Councils: This pair is incorrectly matched. Tribal Advisory Councils are more related to governance reforms and empowerment rather than development initiatives like infrastructure development or welfare schemes.
3. Empowerment Efforts - Rehabilitation policies for surrendered Maoists: This pair is correctly matched. Rehabilitation policies are indeed part of empowerment efforts aimed at incentivizing Maoist cadres to surrender through education and vocational training, which aligns with the "winning hearts and minds" approach.
4. Infrastructure Development - Implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006: This pair is incorrectly matched. The implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, is related to addressing grievances and ensuring fair land acquisition, not specifically infrastructure development.
Correctly matched pairs are 1 and 3. Therefore, the answer is only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the government's strategy to eliminate Maoist insurgency in India:
1. The strategy includes joint operations and capacity building of security forces, with a focus on intelligence gathering through Operation SAMADHAN.
2. Development initiatives involve the construction of infrastructure such as roads and houses, with a focus on achieving 100% saturation of government welfare schemes.
3. Empowerment efforts focus solely on military engagements without addressing community grievances or rehabilitation policies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. The government's strategy indeed includes joint operations and capacity building of security forces. This involves coordinated efforts between state police and central armed forces like the CRPF and COBRA. Operation SAMADHAN is a focused approach for intelligence gathering and operational strategy, highlighting the integration of strategic intelligence in counter-insurgency efforts.
- Statement 2 is correct. Development initiatives are a critical part of the strategy, emphasizing infrastructure projects such as roads and houses. This includes efforts for 100% saturation of government welfare schemes to ensure comprehensive development in affected regions. Programs like the PMGSY and Aspirational Districts Programme are also part of these development initiatives.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The empowerment strategy not only involves military engagements but also focuses on winning hearts and minds by addressing community grievances. This includes public engagement, implementing rehabilitation policies, providing incentives for Maoist cadres to surrender, and ensuring fair land acquisition practices. The government also aims to build trust with tribal communities and address their grievances.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as statement 3 does not accurately describe the comprehensive nature of the empowerment efforts, which are not limited solely to military engagements but include significant community-focused initiatives.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The three-pronged strategy to eliminate Maoist insurgency in India includes security measures, development initiatives, and empowerment efforts.
Statement-II: The POSH Act aims to ensure workplace safety for women, including within political parties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement-I correctly outlines the three-pronged strategy employed by the government of India to eliminate Maoist insurgency, involving security measures, development initiatives, and empowerment efforts. Statement-II correctly highlights the objective of the POSH Act, which aims to ensure a safe working environment for women, including within political parties. The connection between the two statements lies in the fact that both address strategies and initiatives aimed at addressing specific societal challenges, one related to security issues and the other to workplace safety for women.

Consider the following statements:
1. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code is a non-bailable offence that presumes the accused guilty until proven innocent.
2. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, does not provide any legal recourse for men facing domestic abuse.
3. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code creates a presumption of dowry death if a married woman dies an unnatural death within seven years of marriage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code: This section addresses cruelty against women and is a non-bailable offence that often results in the accused being presumed guilty until proven innocent. This is due to the nature of the law, which mandates stringent action to protect women from domestic violence and dowry-related harassment. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
2. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005: This act is primarily designed to protect women from domestic abuse and does not provide equivalent legal recourse for men who might be facing domestic abuse, leading to skepticism and lack of protection when men report such cases. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code: This section specifically addresses dowry deaths and creates a presumption of dowry-related causes if a married woman dies an unnatural death within seven years of her marriage, unless proven otherwise. This is designed to tackle the serious issue of dowry deaths in India. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
All three statements accurately reflect the current legal framework and challenges regarding these laws in India. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D.

Consider the following pairs:
1. PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana: Managed by the Ministry of Finance
2. Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC): Established in 2005
3. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana: Launched in 2019
4. Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC): Operates from Chennai
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana: Managed by the Ministry of Finance - Incorrect. The PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana is actually managed by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Finance. This scheme is aimed at providing a pension for unorganised workers and is managed by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
2. Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC): Established in 2005 - Incorrect. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre was established in 2007, following the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami as part of efforts to improve tsunami preparedness and response in India.
3. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana: Launched in 2019 - Correct. The PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana was launched in 2019 to provide pension benefits to unorganised workers aged 18 to 40.
4. Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC): Operates from Chennai - Incorrect. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre operates from Hyderabad. It uses a network of seismological stations and tidal gauges to issue early warnings for tsunamis.
Thus, only Pair 3 is correctly matched. Therefore, the answer is Option A: Only one pair.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) - 13-year low of 2.7% in March 2024
2. Return on Equity (RoE) - 14.6% in FY24
3. Unsecured Loans Share - 30% of SCBs' total credit in March 2023
4. Tariff-free imports for India from Australia - 100% by 2026
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) - 13-year low of 2.7% in March 2024: This pair is correctly matched. The GNPA indeed reached a 13-year low of 2.7% in March 2024, as mentioned in the RBI's report.
2. Return on Equity (RoE) - 14.6% in FY24: This pair is correctly matched. The Return on Equity for banks was reported as 14.6% in FY24.
3. Unsecured Loans Share - 30% of SCBs' total credit in March 2023: This pair is incorrectly matched. The share of unsecured loans in SCBs' total credit was actually 25.5% in March 2023, not 30%.
4. Tariff-free imports for India from Australia - 100% by 2026: This pair is correctly matched. According to the India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement, India's tariff-free imports from Australia are projected to reach 100% by 2026.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the significance of the Return on Assets (RoA) metric in the context of banking performance assessment?
  • a)
    Measures a bank's annual return relative to its total assets
  • b)
    Indicates a bank's ability to absorb losses and ensure stability
  • c)
    Measures a business's profitability relative to its total assets
  • d)
    Determines the efficiency of a bank's operations in generating profits
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
The Return on Assets (RoA) metric is crucial in evaluating a business's profitability concerning its total assets. It indicates how effectively a bank is utilizing its assets to generate profits. A higher RoA typically suggests that a bank is more efficient in converting its assets into earnings. In the banking sector, RoA is a key indicator used by investors, regulators, and analysts to assess a bank's operational efficiency and financial performance.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 primarily focuses on promoting mining activities while conserving resources and regulating concessions effectively.
Statement-II:
The recent policy change allowing the inclusion of non-mineralised areas within existing mining leases aims to streamline operations and facilitate safe waste management without the need for separate auctions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered

Statement-I correctly highlights the primary objectives of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, which governs India's mining sector focusing on development, conservation, and transparency.
Statement-II accurately reflects the recent policy change allowing the incorporation of non-mineralised areas within mining leases to enhance operational efficiency and facilitate safe waste management without the need for separate auctions. This change aligns with the Supreme Court's directive on waste disposal within valid lease areas, demonstrating how the recent inclusion of non-mineralised areas aims to streamline operations and address challenges in the mining industry. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of the policy change described in Statement-I.

Consider the following statements regarding the management of space debris in Low Earth Orbit (LEO):
1. The Kessler Syndrome describes a scenario where the density of objects in LEO is high enough to cause collisions that generate more debris, leading to a cascading effect.
2. The Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC) is responsible for implementing active debris removal technologies like harpoons and directed lasers.
3. Global cooperation is essential for managing space debris and ensuring safe satellite operations in LEO due to the international nature of space activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


- Statement 1 is correct. The Kessler Syndrome is a well-known theoretical scenario in which the density of objects in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) becomes so high that collisions between objects cause a cascade of further collisions, creating more debris and increasing the likelihood of additional collisions. This scenario highlights the potential for an exponential increase in space debris, making some parts of LEO unusable.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC) is an international forum of governmental bodies for the coordination of activities related to space debris. While it provides guidelines and promotes international cooperation, it is not directly responsible for implementing active debris removal technologies. The development and implementation of such technologies involve multiple stakeholders, including national space agencies and private sector participants.
- Statement 3 is correct. Given the global nature of space activities and the shared environment of Low Earth Orbit, international cooperation is crucial for effective space debris management. This cooperation ensures the safety and sustainability of satellite operations, as debris from one nation's satellite can affect satellites from any other country. Global efforts include setting guidelines, sharing data, and developing joint strategies to mitigate debris risks.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to international debt and economic initiatives:
1. Debt Management and Financial Analysis System (DMFAS) - Provides technical assistance for debt management to developing countries.
2. Heavily Indebted Poor Countries (HIPC) Initiative - Aims to provide debt relief to the world's poorest countries.
3. International Development Association (IDA) - Offers concessional loans and grants to high-income countries.
4. UNCTAD's "A World of Debt 2024" - Highlights the debt crisis affecting developing nations.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


1. Pair 1: Debt Management and Financial Analysis System (DMFAS) - Provides technical assistance for debt management to developing countries. This is correctly matched. DMFAS is a program by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) that offers technical assistance to improve the capacity of countries to manage their debt.
2. Pair 2: Heavily Indebted Poor Countries (HIPC) Initiative - Aims to provide debt relief to the world's poorest countries. This is correctly matched. The HIPC Initiative is a joint effort by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank to ensure that no poor country faces a debt burden it cannot manage.
3. Pair 3: International Development Association (IDA) - Offers concessional loans and grants to high-income countries. This is incorrectly matched. The IDA provides concessional loans and grants to the world's poorest countries, not high-income countries.
4. Pair 4: UNCTAD's "A World of Debt 2024" - Highlights the debt crisis affecting developing nations. This is correctly matched. The UNCTAD report focuses on the global debt crisis and its impact on developing nations.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The visit of the new President of Sri Lanka to India primarily focused on enhancing trade, energy, and maritime cooperation.
Statement-II:
During the visit, Sri Lanka proposed the Economic and Technology Cooperation Agreements (ETCAs) to integrate services and technology into trade relations with India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered

Statement-I correctly summarizes the primary focus areas of the visit of the new President of Sri Lanka to India, which indeed included enhancing trade, energy, and maritime cooperation. Statement-II accurately reflects one of the outcomes of the visit, where Sri Lanka proposed the Economic and Technology Cooperation Agreements (ETCAs) to integrate services and technology into trade relations with India. Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II provides additional context that aligns with and explains Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Blocking the synthesis of toxic lipids may prevent tau buildup and offer a potential reversal of symptoms in Alzheimer's disease.
Statement-II:
Trust in institutions globally increased during the COVID-19 pandemic.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered

Statement-I correctly reflects the information provided in the text regarding Alzheimer's disease, where blocking the synthesis of toxic lipids is highlighted as a potential strategy to prevent tau buildup and potentially reverse symptoms of the disease. On the other hand, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that trust in institutions globally increased during the COVID-19 pandemic. This is contrary to the information provided in the text, where it is mentioned that trust in institutions declined globally due to the pandemic's impact on political dynamics and governance.

Consider the following pairs regarding the impact of the Covid-19 pandemic:
1. India's GDP Growth Rate (2020-21): Contracted to -5.8%
2. Global GDP Contraction (2020): 4.7%
3. Decline in Public Trust: Edelman Trust Barometer reported a decline
4. Hybrid Work Preference (Indian Job Seekers 2024): 42% prioritized flexible hours
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. India's GDP Growth Rate (2020-21): Correctly matched. India's GDP did contract to -5.8% during the 2020-21 fiscal year, reflecting the severe economic impact of the pandemic.
2. Global GDP Contraction (2020): Incorrectly matched. The global GDP contraction for 2020 was 3.1%, not 4.7%. The figure of USD 4.7 trillion refers to the projected shortfall in global GDP for 2023.
3. Decline in Public Trust: Correctly matched. The Edelman Trust Barometer did show a significant decline in public trust in institutions worldwide, especially in the wake of the pandemic.
4. Hybrid Work Preference (Indian Job Seekers 2024): Correctly matched. By 2024, 42% of Indian job seekers prioritized flexible work hours, highlighting a shift towards hybrid work models post-pandemic.
Thus, three of the pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1, 3, and 4.

Consider the following statements regarding the Trends and Progress of Banking in India 2023-24:
1. The gross non-performing assets (GNPA) in the banking sector reached a 13-year low of 2.7% in March 2024.
2. The return on equity (RoE) for banks was recorded at 14.6% in the fiscal year 2023-24.
3. The share of unsecured loans in scheduled commercial banks' (SCBs) total credit declined to 15% in March 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
To determine the correctness of the statements, let's analyze each one based on the provided information:
1. Statement 1: The gross non-performing assets (GNPA) in the banking sector reached a 13-year low of 2.7% in March 2024.
- This statement is correct as the data provided indicates that the GNPA indeed reached a 13-year low of 2.7% in March 2024.
2. Statement 2: The return on equity (RoE) for banks was recorded at 14.6% in the fiscal year 2023-24.
- This statement is also correct. The return on equity (RoE) was mentioned as 14.6% in FY24, which aligns with the statement.
3. Statement 3: The share of unsecured loans in scheduled commercial banks' (SCBs) total credit declined to 15% in March 2023.
- This statement is incorrect. The original data indicates that the share of unsecured loans rose to 25.5% in March 2023, not declining to 15%.
Therefore, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B: 1 and 2 Only the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Kankesanthurai Port - Maritime Security Cooperation
2. LNG Supply - Renewable Energy Initiative
3. Viksit Panchayat Initiative - Good Governance Day 2024
4. BRICS Membership Support - Bilateral Cooperation in Global Forums
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. Kankesanthurai Port - Maritime Security Cooperation: Incorrect. The development of Kankesanthurai port is related to infrastructure and connectivity, not specifically maritime security cooperation.
2. LNG Supply - Renewable Energy Initiative: Incorrect. LNG (Liquefied Natural Gas) supply is part of the energy partnership but does not fall under renewable energy initiatives. Renewable energy initiatives would include projects like offshore wind power.
3. Viksit Panchayat Initiative - Good Governance Day 2024: Correct. The Viksit Panchayat Initiative is indeed one of the initiatives launched on Good Governance Day 2024, aimed at strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions.
4. BRICS Membership Support - Bilateral Cooperation in Global Forums: Correct. Sri Lanka sought India's support for its bid to join BRICS as part of bilateral cooperation in global forums.
Thus, only pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.

How do tau proteins contribute to Alzheimer's disease progression?
  • a)
    By stabilizing neurons effectively
  • b)
    By causing the formation of neurofibrillary tangles
  • c)
    By enhancing memory and cognitive functions
  • d)
    By promoting the growth of healthy neurons
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tau proteins, which are essential for maintaining neuron structure, contribute to Alzheimer's disease progression by misfolding and accumulating, leading to the formation of neurofibrillary tangles. These tangles disrupt neuron communication and are detrimental to overall brain function, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in Alzheimer's patients.

Consider the following pairs regarding domestic migration trends and river interlinking in India:
1. West Bengal - Decline in attracting migrants
2. Maharashtra - Increase in share of total migrants
3. Uttar Pradesh to Delhi - Key migration corridor
4. Ken-Betwa Link Project - Located in Gujarat
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. West Bengal - Decline in attracting migrants: Incorrect. West Bengal is actually one of the states that have seen the highest growth in attracting migrants, not a decline.
2. Maharashtra - Increase in share of total migrants: Incorrect. Maharashtra has experienced a reduction in its share of total migrants, not an increase.
3. Uttar Pradesh to Delhi - Key migration corridor: Correct. Uttar Pradesh to Delhi is one of the key migration corridors mentioned in the report.
4. Ken-Betwa Link Project - Located in Gujarat: Incorrect. The Ken-Betwa Link Project is located in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, not in Gujarat.
Only pair 3 is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. The World Drought Atlas was launched by the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the European Commission's Joint Research Centre at the UNCCD COP16 in Riyadh.
2. India, having around 60% of its agricultural land rain-fed, is particularly vulnerable to changes in precipitation patterns.
3. By 2050, it is projected that 85% of the global population could be affected by drought if current trends continue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The World Drought Atlas was indeed launched by the UNCCD and the European Commission's Joint Research Centre at the UNCCD COP16 in Riyadh. This initiative aims to address the global challenges posed by drought.
- Statement 2 is also correct. India is particularly vulnerable to drought due to its reliance on monsoon rains, with approximately 60% of its agricultural land being rain-fed. This makes it susceptible to variations in precipitation patterns, which can significantly impact agricultural productivity and water availability.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The projection mentioned in the provided text is that by 2050, 75% (not 85%) of the global population could be affected by drought if current trends continue. This highlights the widespread and increasing risk of drought worldwide, but the percentage specified in the statement is inaccurate.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as only statements 1 and 2 are correct based on the information provided.

What event sparked protests against Bashar al-Assad's rule in Syria in 2011?
  • a)
    The assassination of Hafez al-Assad
  • b)
    The rise of rebel factions
  • c)
    The Arab Spring
  • d)
    The Syrian Civil War
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Arab Spring uprising in 2011 triggered protests against Bashar al-Assad's rule in Syria. It was a series of pro-democracy demonstrations that spread across various countries in the Middle East and North Africa, advocating for political reforms, social justice, and democracy. The unrest in Syria was fueled by discontent over issues like unemployment, economic inequality, and corruption, eventually leading to violent repression and the onset of the Syrian Civil War.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Special Leave Petition (SLP) - Appeals against Armed Forces Tribunals
2. India-Australia CECA - Negotiations re-launched in September 2021
3. Laxmi & Co. v. Anand R. Deshpande (1972) - SC may consider subsequent developments
4. Kerala State v. Kunhayammed (2000) - Declining SLP grants appellate jurisdiction
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Special Leave Petition (SLP) - Appeals against Armed Forces Tribunals: Incorrect. SLPs do not extend to Armed Forces Tribunals. They are a discretionary appeal mechanism under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, applicable to civil and criminal matters but not to Armed Forces Tribunals.
2. India-Australia CECA - Negotiations re-launched in September 2021: Correct. The India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) negotiations were indeed re-launched in September 2021 after being suspended in 2016.
3. Laxmi & Co. v. Anand R. Deshpande (1972) - SC may consider subsequent developments: Correct. In this case, the Supreme Court determined that during Article 136 appeals, the Court may consider subsequent developments to expedite proceedings and uphold justice.
4. Kerala State v. Kunhayammed (2000) - Declining SLP grants appellate jurisdiction: Incorrect. The ruling in Kerala State v. Kunhayammed clarified that declining to grant an SLP does not engage the Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction. SLPs are granted at the SC's discretion and may be denied without engaging further jurisdiction unless granted.
Thus, two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) - Increased sales by 25.4% from April to October FY25
2. NPKS Fertilizers - Surge in sales by 23.5% from April to October FY25
3. Potash Market - Affected by the Russia–Ukraine war
4. India's Fertilizer Consumption - 50-60% dependency on domestic production for DAP
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) - Increased sales by 25.4% from April to October FY25: Incorrectly matched. The sales of DAP actually fell by 25.4% during this period due to rising costs and supply chain disruptions.
2. NPKS Fertilizers - Surge in sales by 23.5% from April to October FY25: Correctly matched. The sales of NPKS fertilizers surged by 23.5% as farmers looked for balanced nutrient alternatives to DAP.
3. Potash Market - Affected by the Russia–Ukraine war: Correctly matched. The global potash market and fertilizer prices have been impacted by the Russia–Ukraine war.
4. India's Fertilizer Consumption - 50-60% dependency on domestic production for DAP: Incorrectly matched. India relies heavily on imports for DAP, sourcing about 50-60% from abroad, not domestic production.
Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 1 and 4 are not. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

What is the primary objective of the National Perspective Plan (NPP) for Interlinking Rivers in India?
  • a)
    Addressing water scarcity in urban areas
  • b)
    Enhancing coastal security
  • c)
    Developing water resources through inter-basin water transfer
  • d)
    Promoting international river treaties
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The main aim of the National Perspective Plan (NPP) for Interlinking Rivers in India is to develop water resources through the inter-basin transfer of water. This initiative, formulated in 1980, seeks to enhance water availability by linking rivers across different regions, thereby improving irrigation, agricultural productivity, and food security within the country.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Agricultural expansion, particularly the growth of paddy fields and orchards, is a significant factor contributing to the decline in frog diversity.
Statement-II:
Habitat alterations caused by agricultural activities, such as the conversion of natural habitats into farmland, have led to a decrease in the population of various frog species.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

Statement-I correctly highlights the impact of agricultural expansion, especially the growth of paddy fields and orchards, on diminishing frog diversity. This aligns with the key takeaway from the provided information, emphasizing the link between agricultural activities and the decline in frog populations.

Statement-II complements Statement-I by explaining how habitat alterations resulting from agricultural activities play a crucial role in reducing the population of various frog species. The conversion of natural habitats into farmland disrupts frog habitats, leading to a decrease in their numbers.

Therefore, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of Statement-I, making option (a) the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Section 304B - Presumption of Dowry Death
2. Section 498A - Maintenance Responsibilities
3. Section 375 - Assault to Outrage Modesty
4. Section 125 of CrPC Act, 1973 - Cruelty Against Women
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Section 304B - Presumption of Dowry Death: Correctly matched. Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code deals with dowry deaths, creating a presumption that certain types of deaths of married women are related to dowry demands.
2. Section 498A - Maintenance Responsibilities: Incorrectly matched. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code relates to cruelty against women by a husband or his relatives. It criminalizes acts of cruelty, including harassment for dowry. Maintenance responsibilities are covered under Section 125 of the CrPC.
3. Section 375 - Assault to Outrage Modesty: Incorrectly matched. Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code defines the offense of rape. Assault to outrage modesty is covered under Section 354.
4. Section 125 of CrPC Act, 1973 - Cruelty Against Women: Incorrectly matched. Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code pertains to maintenance for wives, children, and parents. It is intended to provide financial support and prevent destitution, not to address cruelty.
Only the first pair is correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Legal Guarantee of MSP - Ensures financial stability and reduces farmer suicides.
2. Paddy Waste Management - Involves providing compensation to prevent air pollution from stubble burning.
3. Debt Relief - Proposes a budget increase for agricultural support.
4. National Commission for Farm Labourers - Aims to establish minimum living wages for farm laborers.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Legal Guarantee of MSP - Correctly matched. The legal guarantee of MSP is intended to provide financial stability to farmers, which can help reduce distress and suicides among them.
2. Paddy Waste Management - Correctly matched. This involves providing compensation to farmers to manage and dispose of crop residue, specifically to prevent stubble burning, which contributes significantly to air pollution.
3. Debt Relief - Incorrectly matched. The recommendation is for a debt waiver scheme, not a budget increase for agricultural support. The scheme aims to alleviate financial distress among farmers and farm laborers by addressing loan dependence and rising debts.
4. National Commission for Farm Labourers - Correctly matched. The establishment of this commission is indeed aimed at addressing the rights and welfare of farm laborers, including working towards establishing minimum living wages.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is not.

What is one of the key components of the three-pronged strategy adopted by the Indian government to eliminate Maoist insurgency?
  • a)
    Deployment of security forces
  • b)
    Implementation of flagship programs
  • c)
    Public engagement and rehabilitation policies
  • d)
    Promotion of economic development
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
One of the crucial elements of the three-pronged strategy to eliminate Maoist insurgency is the deployment of security forces. Strengthening the presence of Central and State police forces in Left Wing Extremism (LWE)-affected areas, conducting joint operations, and capacity building are vital aspects of the security measures implemented to combat the insurgency effectively. This approach aims to enhance security, intelligence gathering, and operational strategies to address the Maoist threat in affected regions.

Consider the following statements:
1. In 2023, reckless driving and over-speeding were responsible for 68.1% of road accident deaths in India.
2. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest number of road deaths in 2023, with 44,000 accidents resulting in 23,650 fatalities.
3. The Indian government aims to reduce road accident deaths by 50% by the year 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
To determine the correctness of the statements, let's examine each one based on the provided information:
1. Statement 1 is correct. The data indicates that reckless driving and over-speeding were indeed responsible for 68.1% of the road accident deaths in India in 2023.
2. Statement 2 is also correct. Uttar Pradesh did report the highest number of road deaths in 2023, with statistics showing 44,000 accidents leading to 23,650 fatalities.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The Indian government has set a goal to reduce road accident deaths by 50% by the year 2030.
Since all three statements accurately reflect the information provided, the correct answer is Option D: 1, 2 and 3. Each statement is supported by specific data points, highlighting the focus areas for improving road safety in India and the ongoing challenges in specific regions such as Uttar Pradesh.

What is the primary reason for the proposal to conduct two parliamentary sessions annually in South India?
  • a)
    To reduce the workload on Members of Parliament
  • b)
    To enhance regional representation
  • c)
    To save costs on parliamentary sessions
  • d)
    To increase the efficiency of parliamentary proceedings
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The proposal to hold parliamentary sessions in South India aims to enhance regional representation in national policymaking. By decentralizing sessions, it seeks to address the challenges posed by Delhi's climate and geographical distance, thereby promoting inclusivity and acknowledging the diverse needs of different regions within the country.

What was a significant finding in the "International Debt Report 2024" regarding the total external debt of Low- and Middle-Income countries (LMICs) by the end of 2023?
  • a)
    It decreased by 8% since 2020.
  • b)
    It reached a record USD 8.8 trillion, showing an increase of 8% since 2020.
  • c)
    It remained stable compared to 2020 levels.
  • d)
    It doubled since 2020.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
The "International Debt Report 2024" highlighted that the total external debt of Low- and Middle-Income countries (LMICs) soared to a record USD 8.8 trillion by the end of 2023, representing an increase of 8% since 2020. This finding underscores the growing debt burden faced by developing nations, impacting their financial stability and economic development.

Consider the following statements regarding the "International Debt Report 2024" and global debt issues:
1. The total external debt of Low- and Middle-Income countries (LMICs) reached USD 8.8 trillion by the end of 2023, marking an 8% increase since 2020.
2. Interest rates on loans from private creditors have doubled to over 4%, marking the highest levels in 15 years.
3. The global public debt is projected to reach USD 315 trillion in 2024, influenced by factors such as the Covid-19 pandemic and rising commodity prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
- Statement 1 is correct. The "International Debt Report 2024" indicates that the total external debt of Low- and Middle-Income countries (LMICs) indeed soared to USD 8.8 trillion by the end of 2023, an increase of 8% since 2020. This reflects the growing financial challenges faced by these countries.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The interest rates on loans from private creditors did not double to over 4%; rather, they reached 6%, marking the highest levels in 15 years. The statement confuses the rates, as it is the loans from official creditors that doubled to over 4%.
- Statement 3 is correct. The global public debt is projected to reach USD 315 trillion in 2024, driven by several factors including the Covid-19 pandemic and rising commodity prices. This projection highlights the extensive scale of global debt challenges.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3. Therefore, the answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. 80-Pillar Assembly Hall - Third Buddhist Council
2. Sanchi Stupa - Mauryan Empire
3. Yaksha Figures - Mauryan Popular Art
4. Northern Black Polished Ware - Mauryan Court Art
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. 80-Pillar Assembly Hall - Third Buddhist Council: This pair is correctly matched. The 80-Pillar Assembly Hall at Kumhrar is associated with the Mauryan Empire and is believed to be the site where Emperor Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council. This council was significant for the unification of the Buddhist community and the propagation of Dhamma.
2. Sanchi Stupa - Mauryan Empire: This pair is correctly matched. The Sanchi Stupa is one of the most famous stupas from the Mauryan period, initially commissioned by Emperor Ashoka. It is an important example of Mauryan architecture and symbolizes the spread of Buddhism.
3. Yaksha Figures - Mauryan Popular Art: This pair is correctly matched. Yaksha and Yakshi figures are indeed part of Mauryan Popular Art. These figures were significant in the religious context and were common in Jain, Hindu, and Buddhist art during the Mauryan period.
4. Northern Black Polished Ware - Mauryan Court Art: This pair is incorrectly matched. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) is a type of pottery that is associated with the Mauryan period but is part of everyday use and thus aligns more with popular art rather than court art. Mauryan Court Art primarily includes palatial architecture, pillars, and stupas.
The correct number of correctly matched pairs is three.

#
Consider the following statements regarding the inclusion of non-mineralised areas in mining leases:
1. The inclusion of non-mineralised areas in mining leases is intended to streamline operations and address challenges in the mining industry.
2. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, allows the inclusion of non-mineralised areas within mining leases exclusively for the extraction of additional minerals.
3. State governments are required to consult the Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM) to ensure proper verification and prevent illegal activities when non-mineralised areas are included in mining leases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. The incorporation of non-mineralised areas into mining leases is indeed intended to streamline mining operations and address operational challenges, as it allows for the efficient dumping of mine waste and overburden, which are ancillary activities to the primary mining operations.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, permits the inclusion of non-mineralised areas within mining leases for ancillary activities such as waste disposal, not for the extraction of additional minerals. The law allows these areas to be used for activities that support the primary mineral extraction process, preventing illegal extraction of minerals from these designated zones.
- Statement 3 is correct. State governments must consult the Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM) to ensure proper verification and prevent illegal activities when including non-mineralised areas in mining leases. This step is crucial for maintaining regulatory oversight and ensuring that the inclusion of such areas does not lead to unauthorized mineral extraction.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B.

What legislation governs India's mining sector with a focus on development, conservation, and transparency?
  • a)
    The Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act, 1967
  • b)
    The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
  • c)
    The Mining Rights and Concessions Act, 1975
  • d)
    The Mineral Extraction and Regulation Act, 1980
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 is a pivotal legislation in India that regulates the mining sector, emphasizing development, conservation, and transparency. This act has undergone several amendments over the years to address evolving industry needs and promote sustainable mining practices.

Consider the following statements:
1. The title of "World Craft City" by the World Crafts Council was given to Srinagar to recognize its contribution to the global craft industry.
2. Zain-ul-Abidin, the 9th Sultan of Kashmir, played a significant role in introducing Central Asian craft techniques to Kashmir.
3. The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 allows for the conversion of religious sites to their original status as of August 15, 1947.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Statement 1 is correct. The designation of "World Craft City" by the World Crafts Council is indeed an acknowledgment of Srinagar's significant contribution to the global craft industry. This recognition highlights Srinagar's rich cultural heritage and its artisans' exceptional craftsmanship.
2. Statement 2 is correct. Zain-ul-Abidin, also known as Budshah, was the 9th Sultan of Kashmir in the 15th century. He is well-documented for having introduced various Central Asian craft techniques to Kashmir, significantly influencing the development of local crafts such as wood carving, carpet weaving, and embroidery.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991, aims to preserve the religious character of places of worship as they existed on August 15, 1947, and prohibits conversion of any place of worship from one religious denomination to another. It does not allow for conversion to their original status prior to that date; rather, it seeks to maintain the status quo as of 1947.
Given the analysis above, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Neoliberal Policies - Concentration of wealth among a small elite
2. Luck Egalitarianism - Belief that all inequalities are justified
3. Cess - Tax imposed for a specific purpose
4. Surcharge - Additional tax targeting lower income groups
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Neoliberal Policies - Concentration of wealth among a small elite: Correctly matched. Neoliberal policies, especially those promoting deregulation and privatization, have often led to a concentration of wealth among a small elite, which is a key point discussed in the context of economic factors contributing to inequality.
2. Luck Egalitarianism - Belief that all inequalities are justified: Incorrectly matched. Luck egalitarianism posits that inequalities arising from unchosen circumstances, such as socio-economic status or birth location, are unjust and should be addressed, not justified.
3. Cess - Tax imposed for a specific purpose: Correctly matched. A cess is indeed a tax levied for a specific purpose, such as the Education Cess for financing primary education.
4. Surcharge - Additional tax targeting lower income groups: Incorrectly matched. Surcharges are typically imposed on higher income groups to promote social equity, not on lower income groups.
Thus, two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Ninetyeast Ridge, a 5,000 km-long underwater mountain chain, was formed by a moving hotspot.
Statement-II:
Hotspots are areas where hot plumes of molten rock rise from deep within the Earth's mantle, creating volcanic islands as tectonic plates move over them.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered

Statement-I correctly states that the Ninetyeast Ridge was formed by a moving hotspot in the Earth's mantle, which is supported by recent research findings as outlined in the provided information.
Statement-II accurately describes hotspots as areas where molten rock rises from the mantle, forming volcanic islands as tectonic plates move over them. However, it does not directly explain the specific formation of the Ninetyeast Ridge by a moving hotspot, making it a correct statement but not directly explaining Statement-I.

What percentage of the global population is projected to be affected by drought by the year 2050 if current trends persist?
  • a)
    50%
  • b)
    65%
  • c)
    75%
  • d)
    90%
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
By 2050, it is projected that 75% of the global population could be affected by drought if current trends continue. This projection highlights the alarming scale of impact that droughts could have on a significant portion of the world's population.

Consider the following pairs:
1. SAARC Founding Members - Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
2. SAARC Economic Initiatives - SAFTA, SATIS
3. Ninetyeast Ridge Location - Pacific Ocean
4. Hotspot Formation Example - Hawaiian Islands
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. SAARC Founding Members - Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka: Correct. These are indeed the seven founding members of SAARC, established in 1985. Afghanistan joined later in 2007 as the eighth member.
2. SAARC Economic Initiatives - SAFTA, SATIS: Correct. The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) and the SAARC Agreement on Trade in Services (SATIS) are key economic initiatives aimed at enhancing intra-regional trade and economic interaction among SAARC countries.
3. Ninetyeast Ridge Location - Pacific Ocean: Incorrect. The Ninetyeast Ridge is located in the Indian Ocean, not the Pacific Ocean. It is a significant underwater mountain range aligned along the 90th meridian east.
4. Hotspot Formation Example - Hawaiian Islands: Correct. The Hawaiian Islands are a classic example of volcanic islands formed by a stationary hotspot in the middle of the Pacific Plate.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the changing trends in fertilizer use in India:
1. The sales of Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) have decreased significantly due to increased costs and supply chain disruptions.
2. NPKS fertilizers have seen a rise in sales due to their balanced nutrient composition and cost-effectiveness compared to DAP.
3. The imbalance in fertilizer usage in India is improving, with the actual NPK ratio aligning closely with the recommended ratio.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. The sales of Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) have indeed decreased significantly due to rising costs and supply chain disruptions. The text mentions that DAP sales fell by 25.4% from April to October FY25, with factors like crises in the Persian Gulf contributing to shipping delays and price increases.
- Statement 2 is correct. NPKS fertilizers have gained popularity due to their balanced nutrient profile, which includes nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and sulfur. This balanced composition makes them an attractive alternative to DAP, especially in light of the increasing costs associated with DAP.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The text highlights that there is still a significant imbalance in fertilizer usage in India, with the actual NPK ratio (9.8:3.7:1) deviating considerably from the recommended ratio of 4:2:1. This indicates that the imbalance is not improving but remains a challenge.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as both statements 1 and 2 are supported by the information, while statement 3 is not.

What is the primary purpose of the impeachment process for judges in India?
  • a)
    To punish judges for any wrongdoing
  • b)
    To ensure judicial accountability and integrity
  • c)
    To grant judges absolute immunity from removal
  • d)
    To give the President the power to remove judges at will
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary purpose of the impeachment process for judges in India is to ensure judicial accountability and integrity. This process serves as a mechanism to maintain the independence and integrity of the judiciary by allowing for the removal of judges in cases of "proved misbehavior" or "incapacity." It acts as a safeguard against misuse of power while upholding the principles of accountability and transparency within the judicial system.

What philosophy posits that inequalities stemming from factors such as birthplace or socio-economic status are inherently unjust?
  • a)
    Utilitarianism
  • b)
    Libertarianism
  • c)
    Egalitarianism
  • d)
    Luck egalitarianism
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Luck egalitarianism is the philosophy that posits inequalities arising from unchosen circumstances, like birthplace or socio-economic status, are inherently unjust. This philosophy suggests that individuals should not be held responsible for factors beyond their control and that society should work to address these inequalities to promote fairness and equal opportunities.

What are the primary drivers of globalisation as mentioned in the text?
  • a)
    Technological advancements and trade liberalisation
  • b)
    Political conflicts and territorial expansion
  • c)
    Cultural isolation and migration patterns
  • d)
    Economic sanctions and protectionist policies
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The key drivers of globalisation, as highlighted in the text, include advancements in technology and the liberalisation of trade. These factors have played a crucial role in fostering interconnectedness among countries and facilitating the exchange of goods, services, and ideas on a global scale.

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