All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Blue baby syndrome, also known as cyanosis, causes a bluish or purple tint to a baby's skin due to poorly oxygenated blood, often resulting from exposure to water contaminated with nitrates.
Statement-II:
Project VISTAAR, a digital platform launched by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras in partnership with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, aims to enhance the efficiency and accessibility of the agricultural extension system through the integration of agricultural start-ups and innovative resources.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly describes blue baby syndrome, also known as cyanosis, which results in a bluish or purple tint to a baby's skin due to poorly oxygenated blood, often caused by exposure to water contaminated with nitrates. This statement is accurate in its explanation of the condition.
Statement-II accurately highlights Project VISTAAR, a digital platform launched by IIT Madras in collaboration with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, aiming to modernize the agricultural sector by integrating agricultural start-ups and providing innovative resources to farmers. This statement provides a clear overview of the project's objectives.
Both statements are correct in their respective contexts, with Statement-II explaining the purpose and goals of Project VISTAAR, which align with the initiative's aim to enhance agricultural resources access through digitalization.

Consider the following statements:
1. The imposition of tariffs can lead to an increase in government revenue by taxing popular imports.
2. Countries often engage in a trade war by imposing tariffs on US exports as a strategy to counter imposed tariffs.
3. Trump's tariff policies are primarily directed at India due to significant trade deficits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Let's evaluate each statement:
Statement 1 is correct. The imposition of tariffs indeed leads to an increase in government revenue as it involves taxing imported goods, which can be a significant source of income for the government.
Statement 2 is correct. One of the strategies countries use to counter tariffs imposed on them is to engage in a trade war by imposing tariffs on the exports of the imposing country, such as the US. This is a common retaliatory measure.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Trump's tariff policies are not primarily directed at India. The focus of these policies is more on countries with significant trade deficits with the US, such as China and Canada. India's trade relationship with the US does not make it a primary target for these tariffs.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Dhanauri Wetland:
1. The Dhanauri Wetland is located near the Okhla Bird Sanctuary and is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.
2. The Sarus Crane, which inhabits the Dhanauri Wetland, is the world's tallest flying bird and is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
3. The designation of the Dhanauri Wetland as a protected site is crucial for the conservation of its biodiversity, including various species of storks and geese.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. The Dhanauri Wetland is located near the Okhla Bird Sanctuary and is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International. This highlights its significance for avian biodiversity and conservation.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Although the Sarus Crane is indeed the world's tallest flying bird, it is classified as Vulnerable, not Endangered, on the IUCN Red List. This classification underscores the need for its conservation but does not match the statement's categorization.
- Statement 3 is correct. The designation of the Dhanauri Wetland as a protected site is crucial for the conservation of its biodiversity, including various species of storks and geese, and particularly the Sarus Crane, which plays a significant ecological role.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only, as these statements accurately reflect the details about the Dhanauri Wetland.

Consider the following pairs related to Indian sports awards:
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna - India's highest sporting honour
2. Arjuna Award - Recognizes sportspersons' achievements during retirement
3. Dronacharya Award - Awarded to outstanding athletes
4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy - Awarded to the best performing university in Khelo India University Games
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only two pairs
  • b)
    Only one pair
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Bajaj answered
Understanding Indian Sports Awards
In the context of Indian sports awards, let's analyze each pair to determine the correctness of their matching.
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna - India's highest sporting honour
- This pair is correctly matched. The Khel Ratna award is indeed the highest sporting honour in India, named after the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
2. Arjuna Award - Recognizes sportspersons' achievements during retirement
- This pair is incorrectly matched. The Arjuna Award recognizes outstanding performance by athletes during their active sporting careers, not specifically during retirement.
3. Dronacharya Award - Awarded to outstanding athletes
- This pair is incorrectly matched. The Dronacharya Award is given to coaches who have produced outstanding sports persons, not directly to athletes themselves.
4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy - Awarded to the best performing university in Khelo India University Games
- This pair is correctly matched. The MAKA Trophy is awarded to the university that performs the best in the Khelo India University Games.
Final Assessment
To summarize the correctness:
- Pair 1: Correct
- Pair 2: Incorrect
- Pair 3: Incorrect
- Pair 4: Correct
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.

Consider the following pairs regarding recent topics in science and geography:
1. Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) - Measures the ratio of crop yield to the total nitrogen applied in fertilizers
2. Panch Pran - Five pillars focusing on economic reforms and industrial growth
3. Kalpeni Island - Known for its historical shipwrecks from the 17th or 18th century
4. National Cadet Corps (NCC) - Established in 1917 under the Indian Defence Act
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) - Measures the ratio of crop yield to the total nitrogen applied in fertilizers: Incorrect. NUE measures a plant’s capability to utilize nitrogen for biomass production, specifically the ratio of crop yield to the quantity of nitrogen absorbed from the soil or atmosphere, not just the total nitrogen applied.
2. Panch Pran - Five pillars focusing on economic reforms and industrial growth: Incorrect. Panch Pran is a framework that emphasizes personal responsibility, traditional values, environmental sustainability, cultural pride, unity, and self-reliance, rather than focusing solely on economic reforms and industrial growth.
3. Kalpeni Island - Known for its historical shipwrecks from the 17th or 18th century: Correct. A recent discovery highlighted the presence of what appears to be the wreckage of a European warship from the 17th or 18th century near Kalpeni Island.
4. National Cadet Corps (NCC) - Established in 1917 under the Indian Defence Act: Incorrect. The NCC was established in 1948, although its roots can be traced back to the "University Corps," formed under the Indian Defence Act of 1917.
Only the third pair is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Export Inspection Council (EIC) was established under the Export (Quality Control and Inspection) Act, 1963, to ensure the quality and safety of exported products.
Statement-II:
The DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) recently deregistered a patent agent for alleged professional misconduct, emphasizing the need for accountability among patent agents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjana Basak answered
Understanding the Statements
The two statements provided relate to different aspects of regulatory bodies in India.
Statement-I: Export Inspection Council (EIC)
- The EIC was indeed established under the Export (Quality Control and Inspection) Act, 1963.
- Its primary role is to ensure the quality and safety of products that are exported from India.
- This statement is correct.
Statement-II: DPIIT and Patent Agent Deregistration
- The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has been involved in regulating patent agents.
- The statement about the DPIIT recently deregistering a patent agent for professional misconduct is also correct.
- This emphasizes the accountability required from patent agents, ensuring ethical practices within the profession.
Correct Answer Explanation
- Both statements are indeed correct in their respective contexts.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. They address different regulatory concerns: one focusing on export quality and the other on patent agent conduct.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option D, which states that Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is also correct, making option C incorrect.
Conclusion
- The distinction between the two statements is crucial for understanding their independent significance within the regulatory framework of India.
- Thus, the answer reflects the correctness of both statements without them being directly related.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Jus soli: Citizenship based on ancestry.
2. Jus sanguinis: Citizenship based on birthplace.
3. Fourteenth Amendment: Guarantees birthright citizenship in the US.
4. Neutral Expert under IWT: Final decision-making authority in disputes.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Jus soli: Incorrectly matched. Jus soli refers to citizenship based on birthplace, not ancestry. It grants citizenship to individuals born in the territory of the state, irrespective of their parents' nationality.
2. Jus sanguinis: Incorrectly matched. Jus sanguinis refers to citizenship based on ancestry, where a child inherits the nationality of their parents, regardless of the place of birth.
3. Fourteenth Amendment: Correctly matched. The Fourteenth Amendment of the United States Constitution guarantees birthright citizenship, stating that all persons born or naturalized in the United States are citizens of the United States.
4. Neutral Expert under IWT: Incorrectly matched. The Neutral Expert is not the final decision-making authority. Under the Indus Waters Treaty, the Neutral Expert is a stage in the dispute resolution process, but unresolved issues can be escalated to the Court of Arbitration, which makes the final binding decision.
Only the third pair is correctly matched.

What is the primary objective of Mission SCOT launched by the Indian space startup Digantara?
  • a)
    Enhancing weather forecasting capabilities
  • b)
    Tracking Resident Space Objects (RSOs) for safer space operations
  • c)
    Conducting manned missions to Mars
  • d)
    Deploying communication satellites for remote areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jatin Nair answered
Overview of Mission SCOT
Mission SCOT, launched by the Indian space startup Digantara, is primarily focused on tracking Resident Space Objects (RSOs). This mission addresses the growing concern of space debris and the need for safer space operations.
Key Objectives of Mission SCOT:
- Tracking RSOs:
The mission aims to monitor and catalog various objects in Earth's orbit, including active satellites, defunct satellites, and space debris. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of current and future space missions.
- Enhancing Space Traffic Management:
By providing real-time data on the positions and trajectories of RSOs, Mission SCOT contributes to better space traffic management, helping to avoid potential collisions in space.
- Supporting Space Operations:
The information gathered from tracking RSOs can assist space agencies and private companies in planning and executing their missions more safely and efficiently.
- Mitigating Space Debris Risks:
With an increasing number of satellites being launched, the risk of collisions and resultant debris is escalating. Mission SCOT plays a vital role in mitigating these risks by offering critical insights into the orbital environment.
Importance of Tracking RSOs:
- Safety of Space Assets:
The tracking of RSOs ensures the safety of valuable space assets, reducing the likelihood of damaging collisions.
- Future of Space Exploration:
As more nations and companies enter the space sector, effective tracking systems become essential for sustainable space exploration and utilization.
In summary, the primary objective of Mission SCOT is to track Resident Space Objects, thereby enhancing the safety and efficiency of space operations in an increasingly crowded orbital environment.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Pavana River originates from the Western Ghats and flows through various suburbs before merging with the Mula River near Pune.
Statement-II:
The Pavana Nagar Dam on the Pavana River has a gross storage capacity of 30,500.00 km3, providing essential water supply to Pune and Pimpri-Chinchwad.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statement-I
The first statement about the Pavana River is accurate:
- The Pavana River indeed originates from the Western Ghats.
- It flows through various suburbs and merges with the Mula River near Pune.
This establishes that Statement-I is correct.
Analysis of Statement-II
The second statement regarding the Pavana Nagar Dam has some inaccuracies:
- The gross storage capacity stated as 30,500.00 km3 is incorrect. This figure is likely exaggerated, as such a volume would be implausible for any dam.
- However, the Pavana Nagar Dam does play a crucial role in supplying water to Pune and Pimpri-Chinchwad, which validates a part of Statement-II.
Thus, while Statement-II contains misleading information, its core message about water supply remains relevant.
Conclusion
Considering both statements:
- Statement-I is correct.
- Statement-II, despite its incorrect storage capacity, correctly highlights the importance of the dam in supplying water.
Therefore, the answer is option 'A':
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
This conclusion reflects the overall understanding of the river's significance and the dam's role in the region's water supply.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Midges - Culicoides genus
2. Bluetongue disease - Fatal to livestock
3. India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) - Announced during G20 meeting in New Delhi
4. IMEC - Connects India to the Arabian Peninsula and Europe via Eastern and Northern Corridors
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Midges - Culicoides genus: Correctly matched. The midges identified in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands belong to the Culicoides genus. These tiny insects are known for their blood-sucking behaviour and vector capacity.
2. Bluetongue disease - Fatal to livestock: Correctly matched. The bluetongue disease is indeed a viral disease that can be fatal to livestock such as sheep and cattle, causing symptoms like fever and a blue discoloration of the tongue.
3. India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) - Announced during G20 meeting in New Delhi: Correctly matched. The IMEC was officially announced in 2023 during the G20 meeting held in New Delhi.
4. IMEC - Connects India to the Arabian Peninsula and Europe via Eastern and Northern Corridors: Correctly matched. The IMEC consists of an Eastern Corridor connecting India to the Arabian Gulf and a Northern Corridor linking the Gulf with Europe, highlighting its strategic connectivity aim.
All four pairs are correctly matched, as they accurately reflect the information provided in the source material related to midges and the IMEC project.

Consider the following statements regarding front-running in the securities market:
1. Front-running involves executing trades based on public information about large orders to take advantage of expected price changes.
2. SEBI's Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations explicitly ban front-running activities to ensure ethical trading.
3. The primary goal of front-running is to protect investors from market volatility by executing trades ahead of large orders.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is incorrect. Front-running involves executing trades based on non-public information about large orders, not public information. This unethical or illegal practice allows brokers or traders to profit by anticipating market price changes before the large orders are executed, thus affecting market prices.
- Statement 2 is correct. SEBI's Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations (PFUTP) explicitly prohibit front-running activities. The regulations are designed to ensure ethical trading practices and protect the integrity of the securities market by preventing unfair advantages from non-public information.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary goal of front-running is not to protect investors from market volatility, but rather for the broker or trader to profit at the expense of clients or other market participants by executing trades ahead of large orders.
Thus, only statement 2 is correct, making Option C the right answer.

Consider the following pairs related to the Z-Morh Tunnel and State Public Service Commissions (SPSCs):
1. Z-Morh Tunnel - Connects Gagangir and Sonamarg
2. Zojila Tunnel - Scheduled for completion in December 2026
3. SPSCs Established - Under the Government of India Act, 1919
4. SPSC Members - Appointed by the President of India
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered

1. Z-Morh Tunnel - Connects Gagangir and Sonamarg: This pair is correctly matched. The Z-Morh Tunnel indeed connects Gagangir and Sonamarg, providing seamless connectivity on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway.
2. Zojila Tunnel - Scheduled for completion in December 2026: This pair is correctly matched. The Zojila Tunnel is indeed scheduled to be completed by December 2026, as part of the broader infrastructure development plan in the region.
3. SPSCs Established - Under the Government of India Act, 1919: This pair is incorrectly matched. While the Government of India Act, 1919, laid the groundwork for public service commissions, the formal establishment of State Public Service Commissions (SPSCs) was made through the Government of India Act, 1935.
4. SPSC Members - Appointed by the President of India: This pair is incorrectly matched. Members of State Public Service Commissions are appointed by the Governor of the respective state, not by the President of India.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding Rat-hole Mining:
1. Rat-hole mining involves the extraction of coal from narrow, horizontal seams and is predominantly practiced in Assam.
2. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) imposed a ban on rat-hole mining due to its environmental and safety hazards.
3. The process of rat-hole mining often lacks adequate ventilation and structural support, making it highly dangerous for miners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirudh Joshi answered
Overview of Rat-hole Mining
Rat-hole mining is a primitive method of coal extraction predominantly practiced in certain regions of India, notably in Meghalaya, but also observed in Assam. It involves digging narrow horizontal tunnels to access coal seams.
Analysis of Statements
- Statement 1: "Rat-hole mining involves the extraction of coal from narrow, horizontal seams and is predominantly practiced in Assam."
- This statement is partially correct. While rat-hole mining does involve narrow, horizontal seams, it is more commonly associated with Meghalaya rather than Assam. Therefore, this statement is not entirely accurate.
- Statement 2: "The National Green Tribunal (NGT) imposed a ban on rat-hole mining due to its environmental and safety hazards."
- This statement is correct. The NGT has indeed imposed a ban on rat-hole mining, citing significant environmental degradation and severe risks to miners' safety associated with this method.
- Statement 3: "The process of rat-hole mining often lacks adequate ventilation and structural support, making it highly dangerous for miners."
- This statement is also correct. The lack of proper ventilation and structural support in rat-hole mines increases the risk of accidents, including collapses and the accumulation of harmful gases.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect due to its regional inaccuracy.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': "2 and 3 Only."

What is the primary purpose of the Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE)?
  • a)
    To manage enrollment in schools nationwide
  • b)
    To collect comprehensive data from schools
  • c)
    To provide online education resources
  • d)
    To conduct national academic assessments
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Yadav answered
Overview of UDISE
The Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE) is a significant initiative aimed at enhancing the educational landscape in India. Its primary focus is to gather and compile data from various educational institutions across the country.
Purpose of UDISE
The main objective of UDISE is:
  • Comprehensive Data Collection: UDISE is designed to collect extensive and detailed data from schools, covering various aspects of education. This includes information on student enrollment, infrastructure, teacher availability, and learning outcomes.
  • Policy Formulation: The data collected through UDISE aids policymakers and educational authorities in understanding the current state of education, identifying gaps, and formulating effective policies to enhance educational quality and accessibility.
  • Monitoring and Evaluation: By providing a robust data framework, UDISE enables the monitoring and evaluation of educational programs and initiatives, ensuring that they align with national educational goals.
  • Facilitating Research: The comprehensive database serves as a valuable resource for researchers and academic institutions, contributing to studies and analyses aimed at improving educational outcomes.

Conclusion
In summary, UDISE plays a crucial role in collecting and compiling comprehensive data from schools, which is essential for informed decision-making in the education sector. It supports the government's efforts to enhance educational standards and ensure that every child has access to quality education.

What is the primary purpose of executing a belly landing in aviation emergencies?
  • a)
    To enhance the speed of the landing process
  • b)
    To prevent injuries to passengers and crew
  • c)
    To minimize damage to the aircraft
  • d)
    To avoid using the landing gear
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Mehta answered
Understanding Belly Landing in Aviation Emergencies
Belly landing is a crucial emergency procedure employed when an aircraft cannot deploy its landing gear due to mechanical failure or other critical issues. The primary purpose of executing a belly landing is to safeguard the well-being of passengers and crew members.
Key Reasons for Belly Landing
- Prevention of Injuries
- The foremost goal of a belly landing is to minimize the risk of injuries to all individuals on board. By landing without the landing gear, pilots can manage the aircraft's descent and landing approach, allowing for a more controlled environment.
- Controlled Landing Approach
- Pilots are trained to handle such situations and aim to maintain control over the aircraft's speed and angle of descent. This expertise can significantly reduce the impact during landing, decreasing the chances of serious injuries.
- Passenger Safety Measures
- Prior to landing, flight crews typically prepare passengers for the impact of a belly landing by providing safety instructions and ensuring that they are in a secure position. These measures are vital for enhancing passenger safety.
Conclusion
While a belly landing may cause damage to the aircraft, the survival and safety of passengers and crew take precedence. By focusing on minimizing injuries, pilots can execute a belly landing with the best possible outcome under challenging circumstances.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Blue Baby Syndrome - Caused by exposure to nitrates in water
2. Project VISTAAR - A digital platform for agricultural start-up financing
3. Baanknet Portal - An e-auction platform for PSB-held properties
4. India's Remittances 2024 - 14.3% of global remittances
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Blue Baby Syndrome - Caused by exposure to nitrates in water: Correctly matched. Blue baby syndrome is indeed caused by exposure to water contaminated with nitrates, leading to a condition known as methemoglobinemia, where the blood is unable to carry sufficient oxygen.
2. Project VISTAAR - A digital platform for agricultural start-up financing: Incorrectly matched. Project VISTAAR is a digital platform aimed at enhancing access to agricultural resources by integrating information about agricultural start-ups, improving the agricultural extension system's efficiency and accessibility, not specifically for financing.
3. Baanknet Portal - An e-auction platform for PSB-held properties: Correctly matched. The Baanknet Portal is designed to streamline the auction process for properties held by public sector banks, offering an integrated platform for buyers and investors.
4. India's Remittances 2024 - 14.3% of global remittances: Correctly matched. In 2024, India accounted for 14.3% of global remittances, marking a significant milestone as reported by the World Bank.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: the first, third, and fourth pairs.

Consider the following pairs related to Kokborok language and its historical context:
1. Kokborok Language - Official language of Tripura since 1979
2. Roman Script - Traditional script used for Kokborok
3. Borok People - Indigenous people primarily in Tripura
4. Daulat Ahmed - Introduced the term 'Kokborok' in 1900
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Kokborok Language and Historical Context
The question revolves around four pairs associated with the Kokborok language. Let's analyze each pair for accuracy.
1. Kokborok Language - Official language of Tripura since 1979
- This pair is correct. Kokborok was declared the official language of Tripura in 1979, recognizing its significance among the indigenous communities.
2. Roman Script - Traditional script used for Kokborok
- This pair is incorrect. While Roman script is widely used for writing Kokborok, the traditional script is actually the Brahmi script. The use of Roman script became prevalent due to accessibility and ease of use.
3. Borok People - Indigenous people primarily in Tripura
- This pair is correct. The Borok people, also known as Tripuri, are indeed the indigenous ethnic group residing predominantly in Tripura, highlighting their cultural connection to the Kokborok language.
4. Daulat Ahmed - Introduced the term 'Kokborok' in 1900
- This pair is incorrect. The term 'Kokborok' was popularized by Daulat Ahmed, but it was not specifically introduced in 1900. The exact timeline of this introduction can be somewhat ambiguous.
Conclusion
Based on this analysis, the correct pairs are:
- Pair 1: Correct
- Pair 2: Incorrect
- Pair 3: Correct
- Pair 4: Incorrect
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched, confirming that the correct answer is option 'B'.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The National Health Mission (NHM) in India aims to provide quality healthcare services to all citizens.
Statement-II:
The NHM was established in 2012, incorporating both the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Menon answered
Understanding the National Health Mission (NHM)
The National Health Mission (NHM) is a significant initiative by the Government of India aimed at enhancing healthcare services across the nation.
Statement-I Analysis
- Objective: The NHM's primary goal is to provide quality healthcare services to all citizens, ensuring accessibility and affordability.
- Inclusivity: It focuses on vulnerable populations, aiming to bridge health disparities.
Statement-II Analysis
- Establishment: The NHM was indeed established in 2012, amalgamating two crucial programs: the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).
- Purpose of Integration: This integration was aimed at creating a more cohesive and comprehensive health service framework that addresses both rural and urban health challenges effectively.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both Statements Are Correct:
- Statement-I accurately describes the NHM's mission to provide quality healthcare.
- Statement-II correctly outlines the establishment and purpose of the NHM.
- Explanation Relationship: Statement-II explains the foundation and structure of NHM, linking back to the overarching goal mentioned in Statement-I.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct interpretation is that both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a rationale for Statement-I. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.

Consider the following pairs related to India's manufacturing sector and Vembanad Lake:
1. Toy Exports: Increased by 239% this year in India.
2. Mobile Phone Production: Surge of 600% in India this year.
3. Vembanad Lake: Largest wetland ecosystem on the southwest coast of India, designated as a Ramsar site in 2002.
4. SAMARTH Udyog Bharat 4.0: Initiative focused on promoting community tourism around Vembanad Lake.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Toy Exports: Increased by 239% this year in India - This pair is correctly matched. The source mentions that toy exports in India have indeed increased by 239%.
2. Mobile Phone Production: Surge of 600% in India this year - This pair is correctly matched. The source confirms that mobile phone production has surged by 600% in India.
3. Vembanad Lake: Largest wetland ecosystem on the southwest coast of India, designated as a Ramsar site in 2002 - This pair is correctly matched. Vembanad is the largest wetland ecosystem on the southwest coast of India and was designated a Ramsar site in 2002.
4. SAMARTH Udyog Bharat 4.0: Initiative focused on promoting community tourism around Vembanad Lake - This pair is incorrectly matched. SAMARTH Udyog Bharat 4.0 is an initiative aimed at enhancing the competitiveness of the manufacturing sector in India's capital goods market, not related to tourism around Vembanad Lake.
The correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 3. Therefore, the answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The use of loudspeakers for prayers or religious discourses is not an essential part of any religion, as clarified by the Bombay High Court.
Statement-II:
Fentanyl is approximately 100 times more potent than morphine and 50 times more potent than heroin, making it a highly potent synthetic opioid.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jatin Nair answered
Analysis of Statement-I
Statement-I asserts that the use of loudspeakers for prayers or religious discourses is not an essential part of any religion, as clarified by the Bombay High Court.
- This indicates a legal perspective where the court has recognized that religious practices do not inherently require the use of loudspeakers.
- The ruling emphasizes the distinction between cultural practices and the core tenets of faith.
Analysis of Statement-II
Statement-II discusses the potency of fentanyl, stating that it is approximately 100 times more potent than morphine and 50 times more potent than heroin.
- This is scientifically accurate; fentanyl is indeed a synthetic opioid with a significantly high potency.
- Its usage and effects have raised substantial public health concerns due to the risk of overdose.
Conclusion
Considering both statements:
- Correctness: Both statements are correct based on legal and scientific contexts.
- Explanation: However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, as they pertain to entirely different subjects—religion and pharmacology.
Thus, the correct option is (B): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs regarding recent developments in India-China relations:
1. Kailash Mansarovar Yatra - Resumption in Winter 2025
2. Hydrological Data Sharing - Resumption of dialogues
3. Direct Flights - Restoration for tourists
4. Cultural Exchanges - Events planned for the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
1. Kailash Mansarovar Yatra - Resumption in Winter 2025:
This pair is incorrectly matched. The agreement is for the resumption of the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra in summer 2025, not winter.
2. Hydrological Data Sharing - Resumption of dialogues:
This pair is correctly matched. India and China have agreed to resume dialogues regarding hydrological data sharing on trans-border rivers.
3. Direct Flights - Restoration for tourists:
This pair is incorrectly matched. The restoration of direct flights is primarily for media and business representatives, not specifically for tourists.
4. Cultural Exchanges - Events planned for the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations:
This pair is correctly matched. India and China plan to conduct cultural events as part of the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations in 2025.
Thus, two pairs (pairs 2 and 4) are correctly matched.

What is the significance of the Central Groundwater Board (CGWB) in India?
  • a)
    Monitoring and regulating surface water resources
  • b)
    Conducting research on marine biodiversity
  • c)
    Managing and regulating groundwater resources
  • d)
    Enforcing air pollution control measures
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Joshi answered
Significance of the Central Groundwater Board (CGWB) in India
The Central Groundwater Board (CGWB) plays a crucial role in managing and regulating groundwater resources in India. Here’s a detailed look at its significance:
1. Groundwater Management
- CGWB is responsible for the assessment, management, and regulation of groundwater resources across the country.
- It conducts surveys and studies to evaluate groundwater levels, quality, and availability, ensuring sustainable management.
2. Policy Formulation
- The board provides recommendations to the government for formulating policies related to groundwater management.
- It assists in creating guidelines for the sustainable extraction and use of groundwater.
3. Data Collection and Research
- CGWB is involved in collecting and analyzing data on groundwater resources.
- It undertakes research and development projects to improve groundwater management techniques and technologies.
4. Awareness and Capacity Building
- The board conducts awareness programs to educate stakeholders about the importance of groundwater conservation.
- It collaborates with various state governments and organizations to build capacity in groundwater management.
5. Monitoring and Regulation
- CGWB monitors groundwater extraction and usage to prevent overexploitation and degradation of water quality.
- It regulates drilling activities and issues licenses for borewell drilling to control groundwater depletion.
6. Addressing Water Scarcity
- With India facing significant water scarcity issues, CGWB's efforts in managing groundwater are vital for ensuring adequate water supply for agricultural, industrial, and domestic use.
In summary, the CGWB’s primary role in managing and regulating groundwater resources is essential for promoting sustainable water use and addressing the challenges of water scarcity in India. Its comprehensive approach impacts various sectors, ensuring the long-term availability of this critical resource.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India has recently become a member of the UN Committee of Experts on Big Data and Data Science for Official Statistics (UN-CEBD), demonstrating its commitment to utilizing big data for enhancing official statistical practices.
Statement-II:
The UN-CEBD focuses on understanding the benefits and challenges associated with Big Data, particularly in the context of monitoring sustainable development goals.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Menon answered
Explanation of the Correct Answer
The correct answer is option 'A', which states that both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Here's a detailed breakdown:
Statement-I Analysis
- India has indeed become a member of the UN Committee of Experts on Big Data and Data Science for Official Statistics (UN-CEBD).
- This membership highlights India's commitment to improving its statistical practices by leveraging big data technologies.
Statement-II Analysis
- The UN-CEBD is focused on exploring the advantages and challenges posed by big data, particularly in relation to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
- The committee aims to enhance the use of data science in official statistics, which is essential for effective monitoring and reporting of SDGs.
Relationship Between Statements
- Statement-II provides context for Statement-I by elaborating on the objectives of the UN-CEBD.
- By becoming a member of this committee, India aims to address the benefits and challenges of big data as outlined in Statement-II, thereby enhancing its own statistical framework.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct, and Statement-II directly explains the implications of India's membership in the UN-CEBD, making option 'A' the right choice.
- This alignment reflects a concerted effort towards modernizing statistical practices in India, ensuring better data-driven decision-making for sustainable development.

What is the primary purpose of the Silver Notice issued by INTERPOL as part of its recent initiative?
  • a)
    To target criminal assets linked to various crimes
  • b)
    To issue alerts about missing persons globally
  • c)
    To focus on cybercrime investigations
  • d)
    To address counterfeit currency circulation
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding INTERPOL's Silver Notice
The Silver Notice issued by INTERPOL serves a specific and strategic purpose within its broader mission of international policing.
Primary Purpose: Targeting Criminal Assets
- The Silver Notice is designed to enhance the identification and targeting of criminal assets linked to various forms of crime, including organized crime, drug trafficking, and human trafficking.
- By focusing on criminal assets, INTERPOL aims to disrupt the financial networks that support these illicit activities, ultimately weakening the operational capabilities of criminal organizations.
Significance of Criminal Asset Targeting
- Targeting criminal assets is crucial for law enforcement agencies around the world. It not only aids in the recovery of stolen property but also serves as a deterrent against future criminal activities.
- The initiative is a proactive approach, enabling authorities to act swiftly against financial operations that underpin criminal enterprises.
Broader Implications
- This initiative reflects a growing recognition that financial crime is often at the heart of various criminal activities, and addressing it can lead to significant breakthroughs in tackling other forms of crime.
- The Silver Notice complements other INTERPOL notices, such as Red Notices for fugitives and Yellow Notices for missing persons, by focusing specifically on financial aspects.
In summary, the Silver Notice is a strategic tool employed by INTERPOL to target and disrupt the flow of criminal assets, thereby enhancing global efforts to combat crime effectively.

Consider the following pairs related to recent environmental and political events:
1. Yala Glacier - Located in Bhutan
2. Pico Humboldt Glacier - Disappeared in 2025
3. Electoral Trust - Provides tax incentives under the Income Tax Act, 1961
4. Southern Birdwing - Largest butterfly in India
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's analyze each pair individually.
1. Yala Glacier - Located in Bhutan
- This pair is incorrect. Yala Glacier is actually located in Nepal, not Bhutan.
2. Pico Humboldt Glacier - Disappeared in 2025
- This pair is incorrect. The Pico Humboldt Glacier, located in Venezuela, has been reported to be rapidly melting but did not disappear in 2025.
3. Electoral Trust - Provides tax incentives under the Income Tax Act, 1961
- This pair is correct. Electoral Trusts were established to allow companies and individuals to donate to political parties while receiving tax benefits under the Income Tax Act of 1961.
4. Southern Birdwing - Largest butterfly in India
- This pair is correct. The Southern Birdwing (Troides minos) is indeed recognized as the largest butterfly in India, making this pair accurate.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct pairs: 2 (Electoral Trust and Southern Birdwing)
- Incorrect pairs: 2 (Yala Glacier and Pico Humboldt Glacier)
Hence, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that only two pairs are correctly matched.

What concept does Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) measure in plants?
  • a)
    Capability to utilize phosphorus for biomass production
  • b)
    Capability to utilize nitrogen for biomass production
  • c)
    Capability to utilize carbon dioxide for biomass production
  • d)
    Capability to utilize water for biomass production
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) is a crucial metric that measures a plant's capability to utilize nitrogen for biomass production. It is defined as the ratio of crop yield to the quantity of nitrogen absorbed from the soil or atmosphere. Enhancing NUE is essential for optimizing fertilizer usage and improving crop yields sustainably.

What led to the significant increase in India's coffee exports, reaching a historic high in the 2024 calendar year?
  • a)
    Enhanced production techniques
  • b)
    Adverse weather conditions in key producing countries
  • c)
    Introduction of new coffee varieties
  • d)
    Implementation of government subsidies
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirudh Joshi answered
Significant Increase in India's Coffee Exports
The substantial rise in India's coffee exports reaching historic highs in the 2024 calendar year can primarily be attributed to adverse weather conditions in key producing countries. This situation created a unique opportunity for Indian coffee to fill the supply gap in the global market.
Key Factors Behind the Increase:
- Adverse Weather Conditions: Major coffee-producing nations like Brazil and Colombia faced severe weather challenges, including droughts and frosts. This led to a reduced yield and supply of coffee beans from these regions.
- Global Supply Shortage: With the leading producers struggling, the demand for coffee remained high, resulting in an increased dependency on alternative sources like India.
- Quality of Indian Coffee: Indian coffee has gained recognition for its quality and unique flavor profiles, making it an attractive option for international buyers looking to source coffee from reliable suppliers.
- Increased Demand: The global coffee market's demand has been on the rise, driven by a growing coffee culture and consumption trends, particularly in emerging markets.
- Improved Logistics: Indian exporters have enhanced their logistics and supply chain capabilities, ensuring timely delivery of high-quality coffee to international markets.
In conclusion, the combination of adverse weather conditions in other coffee-producing countries and the rising global demand for quality coffee has significantly boosted India's coffee exports, allowing it to achieve a historic high in 2024.

Consider the following statements regarding Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP):
1. DAP is a major source of nitrogen and potassium used in agriculture.
2. DAP serves as a fire retardant and is used in some industrial applications.
3. DAP is the most commonly used fertilizer in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Yadav answered
Understanding Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP)
Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) is a widely used fertilizer, especially in agriculture. However, there are some misconceptions regarding its composition and applications. Let’s analyze the statements given.
Statement Analysis
  • Statement 1: DAP is a major source of nitrogen and potassium used in agriculture.

  • This statement is incorrect. DAP primarily provides nitrogen and phosphorus. It contains about 18% nitrogen and 46% phosphorus (P2O5), but it does not contain potassium.
  • Statement 2: DAP serves as a fire retardant and is used in some industrial applications.

  • This statement is correct. DAP does have fire retardant properties and is utilized in some industrial applications, such as in firefighting and as a component in certain types of fertilizers.
  • Statement 3: DAP is the most commonly used fertilizer in India.

  • This statement is correct. DAP is one of the most popular fertilizers in India, especially for crops that require high phosphorus levels.


Conclusion
Based on the analysis above:
- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: "2 Only."

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian diaspora and Pravasi Bharatiya Divas:
1. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas commemorates Mahatma Gandhi's return to India and celebrates the contributions of the Indian diaspora to India's growth and global standing.
2. The Indian diaspora contributes significantly to India's economy through remittances, which primarily aid in infrastructure development.
3. The Indian government's revocation of OCI cards from critics of India has raised concerns over freedom of expression among the diaspora.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Chawla answered
Overview of the Statements
The question evaluates three statements regarding the Indian diaspora and the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD). Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Commemorates Mahatma Gandhi's Return
- This statement is correct.
- PBD is celebrated on January 9 to honor the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa in 1915, marking a significant moment in India's struggle for independence.
- The event also focuses on recognizing the contributions of the Indian diaspora to India's development and its global standing.
Statement 2: Economic Contributions of the Indian Diaspora
- This statement is partially correct but needs clarification.
- The Indian diaspora does contribute significantly to India’s economy through remittances, which are essential for the livelihood of many families.
- However, while remittances do support various sectors, including health and education, the statement's mention of "primarily aid in infrastructure development" may be misleading as it implies a direct link that isn't the primary focus of remittances.
Statement 3: Revocation of OCI Cards and Freedom of Expression
- This statement is correct.
- The revocation of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cards from critics of the Indian government has raised significant concerns about freedom of expression and the treatment of dissent within the diaspora community. This action is viewed as an attempt to control narratives and silence opposition.
Conclusion
Considering the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is partially correct but lacks clarity.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option C: 1 and 3 only.

Consider the following pairs related to the H-1B Visa Program:
1. Visa Duration - Maximum of six years with options to apply for permanent residency after this period.
2. Annual Cap - Regular annual cap of 65,000 new H-1B visas plus an additional 20,000 for those with a master’s degree or higher from a US university.
3. Non-immigrant Visa - Allows permanent entry into the US for work purposes.
4. Dominance of Indian Applicants - Over 70% of approved petitions annually are for individuals born in India.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Isha Pillai answered
Understanding the H-1B Visa Program
The H-1B Visa Program has specific rules and structures that govern its application and usage. Let's analyze the pairs provided to determine how many are correctly matched.
1. Visa Duration
- Correct: The H-1B visa is indeed valid for a maximum of six years, with options to apply for permanent residency afterward.
2. Annual Cap
- Correct: There is a regular annual cap of 65,000 new H-1B visas, plus an additional 20,000 for applicants who hold a master’s degree or higher from a U.S. institution.
3. Non-immigrant Visa
- Incorrect: The H-1B is classified as a non-immigrant visa, but it does not allow for permanent entry into the U.S. Instead, it allows for temporary work; permanent residency must be pursued separately.
4. Dominance of Indian Applicants
- Correct: It is accurate that over 70% of approved H-1B petitions are for individuals from India.
Conclusion
- Out of the four pairs, three are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Only three pairs are correctly matched.
This analysis highlights the importance of understanding the nuances of immigration programs like the H-1B, especially for prospective applicants and stakeholders in the workforce.

Consider the following statements about the Kampala Declaration:
1. The Kampala Declaration succeeded the Malabo Declaration and focuses on transforming agriculture into a climate-smart sector.
2. It includes a Ten-Year Post-Malabo Agenda (2026–2035) for implementation and monitoring of strategies.
3. The declaration emphasizes solely on agricultural policies without linking them to broader development goals like nutrition and environmental sustainability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Statement 1 is correct. The Kampala Declaration indeed serves as a successor to the Malabo Declaration and focuses on transforming agriculture into a climate-smart sector, aligning with the Comprehensive Africa Agriculture Development Program (CAADP) and the African Union’s Agenda 2063.
Statement 2 is correct. The declaration includes a Ten-Year Post-Malabo Agenda (2026–2035) that outlines strategies for the implementation and monitoring of various agricultural innovations and initiatives.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The declaration does not solely focus on agricultural policies; it emphasizes the integration of agricultural objectives with broader development goals like nutrition and environmental sustainability, addressing challenges across the entire food value chain.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

What was the major focus of Meta's new strategy, involving the implementation of the Community Notes system?
  • a)
    Enhancing user engagement and participation in content moderation
  • b)
    Fact-checking content through certified fact-checkers
  • c)
    Implementing warning labels for false information
  • d)
    Introducing a system similar to Twitter's Birdwatch
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meta's shift to the Community Notes system aimed at improving user engagement and participation in the content moderation process. This approach allows users to provide context to flagged posts, fostering a community-driven effort to combat misinformation. By enabling users to rate and provide context for potentially misleading content, Meta seeks to involve its user base in a collaborative effort to enhance the platform's content quality and integrity.

Consider the following statements regarding Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) and recent scientific findings:
1. Lowering nitric oxide (NO) levels in plants can enhance the activity of high-affinity nitrate transporters (HATs), which improves nitrogen uptake.
2. Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) is the ratio of nitrogen absorbed by the plant to the crop yield.
3. Traditional nitrogen management practices can lead to increased emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx), contributing to global warming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirudh Joshi answered
Understanding Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE)
Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) is a crucial concept in agriculture, particularly in optimizing nitrogen management for sustainable crop production. Let's break down the statements regarding NUE and recent findings:
1. Lowering NO Levels Enhances Nitrate Uptake
- Recent studies indicate that lowering nitric oxide (NO) levels in plants can enhance the activity of high-affinity nitrate transporters (HATs).
- HATs are essential for efficient nitrogen uptake, particularly in nitrogen-deficient conditions.
- This suggests that managing NO levels could be a strategy to improve nitrogen uptake in crops.
2. Definition of Nitrogen Use Efficiency
- NUE is defined as the ratio of nitrogen absorbed by the plant to the crop yield.
- This means a higher NUE indicates better utilization of nitrogen for growth, leading to higher yields with lower nitrogen inputs.
- Thus, this statement accurately describes NUE.
3. Traditional Nitrogen Management and NOx Emissions
- Traditional nitrogen management practices, such as excessive fertilizer application, can lead to increased emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx).
- NOx emissions contribute to global warming and can have detrimental effects on air quality.
- Therefore, this statement is also correct.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', which indicates that all provided statements about NUE and its implications are valid.
Understanding these aspects is vital for developing better agricultural practices that enhance efficiency while minimizing environmental impact.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Kokborok is a language spoken by the Borok people, recognized as one of the official languages of Tripura since January 19, 1979.
Statement-II:
The legal guarantee for Minimum Support Price (MSP) aims to protect farmers from market fluctuations and ensure livelihood security.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statement-I
- Kokborok is indeed a language spoken by the Borok people in Tripura.
- It was recognized as one of the official languages of Tripura on January 19, 1979.
- This statement is accurate and reflects the cultural significance of the language in the region.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a government-initiated price at which certain crops are purchased from farmers.
- The legal guarantee for MSP serves to protect farmers from adverse market fluctuations.
- It aims to ensure livelihood security for farmers, making this statement correct as well.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct:
- Statement-I accurately describes the status of Kokborok in Tripura.
- Statement-II correctly explains the purpose of MSP in supporting farmers.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, as they discuss different subjects—one about a language and the other about agricultural policy.
Correct Option
- The correct option is (b): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
This conclusion highlights the importance of understanding the context of each statement independently while recognizing their correctness.

Consider the following statements regarding the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
1. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is the highest sporting honour in India, established in 1991-1992.
2. It includes a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of ₹25 lakh.
3. The award is exclusively given to athletes who have won medals at the Olympic Games.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is indeed the highest sporting honor in India, established in the year 1991-1992. Initially known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, it was renamed to honor the legendary Indian hockey player, Major Dhyan Chand.
2. Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The award comprises a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of ₹25 lakh, as part of recognizing exceptional performance in the field of sports over the previous four years.
3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The award is not exclusively given to athletes who have won medals at the Olympic Games. It is awarded for exceptional performance in sports over four years, which may include performance in various national and international competitions, not limited to the Olympics.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only. Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe the features of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, while Statement 3 incorrectly restricts the eligibility criteria.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The no-detention policy in India has been completely abolished, allowing schools to detain students in Classes 5 and 8 who do not pass year-end exams.
Statement-II:
The rollback of the no-detention policy is primarily due to the significant learning gaps revealed by surveys like the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) and the declining academic performance highlighted by National Achievement Surveys.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Debanshi Menon answered
Analysis of Statements
The two statements present a scenario regarding the no-detention policy in India. Here’s a breakdown of the statements:
Statement-I: Assessment of No-Detention Policy
- The no-detention policy, initially implemented to promote continuous learning, has been under scrutiny.
- Recent developments indicate that the policy has indeed been abolished, permitting schools to detain students in Classes 5 and 8 who do not pass year-end exams.
Statement-II: Reasons for Rollback
- The rollback of the no-detention policy is attributed to significant learning gaps evidenced by various educational surveys.
- Reports such as the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) and National Achievement Surveys have highlighted declining academic performance, prompting the reconsideration of the policy.
Correctness of Statements
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-I accurately reflects the current status of the no-detention policy, while Statement-II provides a valid explanation for the policy's rollback.
Conclusion
- Since both statements are accurate and Statement-II explains the rationale behind the changes presented in Statement-I, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
This conclusion aligns with the understanding of educational reforms in India, reflecting the need for policy adjustments in response to educational assessments.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Monsoon:
1. The Indian monsoon is primarily influenced by the differential heating and cooling of land and water.
2. The presence of the Himalayas is essential for the occurrence of the Indian monsoon.
3. The El Niño phenomenon has no impact on the Indian monsoon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Mehta answered
Understanding the Indian Monsoon
The Indian monsoon is a complex weather phenomenon that plays a crucial role in the country's agriculture and economy. Let’s analyze the statements provided.
Statement 1: Differential Heating and Cooling
- The Indian monsoon is significantly influenced by the differential heating and cooling of land and water.
- During summer, the land heats up more quickly than the ocean, creating low pressure over the Indian subcontinent.
- This low pressure attracts moisture-laden winds from the surrounding oceans, resulting in the monsoon rains.
Statement 2: Role of the Himalayas
- The presence of the Himalayas is indeed essential for the occurrence of the Indian monsoon.
- These mountains act as a barrier to the cold winds from Central Asia, preventing them from interfering with the monsoon winds.
- They also help to stabilize the monsoon system by influencing the wind patterns and rainfall distribution across the region.
Statement 3: Impact of El Niño
- The statement that the El Niño phenomenon has no impact on the Indian monsoon is incorrect.
- El Niño, a climate pattern in the Pacific Ocean, can significantly affect monsoon patterns, often leading to weaker monsoons and reduced rainfall in India.
- This demonstrates the interconnectedness of global weather systems and their influence on local climates.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis of the statements:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B', which includes statements 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Miyawaki Technique:
1. Dense Planting: Trees and shrubs are planted closely together, promoting rapid growth.
2. Native Species: Emphasizes the use of non-native, exotic plant varieties to enhance biodiversity.
3. Carbon Absorption: The technique is more effective at absorbing carbon than traditional methods.
4. Urban Afforestation: Supports the creation of large forest reserves in rural areas.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Dense Planting: Correctly matched. The Miyawaki Technique involves planting trees and shrubs closely together, which accelerates growth and leads to a denser forest development.
2. Native Species: Incorrectly matched. The Miyawaki Technique emphasizes the use of local, native plant varieties, not non-native or exotic plants. Using native species helps replicate the natural ecosystem and supports local biodiversity.
3. Carbon Absorption: Correctly matched. Due to the dense planting, the Miyawaki forests are highly effective at absorbing carbon, which contributes to reducing urban pollution.
4. Urban Afforestation: Incorrectly matched. The Miyawaki Technique is specifically known for creating mini forests in urban areas, not large forest reserves in rural regions. It is designed to maximize green space in urban settings.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, which corresponds to Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Navy's INS Sarvekshak conducted a hydrographic survey covering an area of over 25,000 square nautical miles around Mauritius.
2. This survey primarily aimed to enhance Mauritius's tourism potential by mapping its coastal ecosystems.
3. The hydrographic survey reflects India's commitment to regional security and strengthens ties with Mauritius.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mainak Mehra answered
Overview of the Statements
The question presents three statements regarding the Indian Navy's INS Sarvekshak and its hydrographic survey around Mauritius. Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Correct
- The Indian Navy's INS Sarvekshak indeed conducted a hydrographic survey covering an extensive area of over 25,000 square nautical miles around Mauritius.
- This operation is part of India's efforts to enhance maritime capabilities and collaboration with friendly nations.
Statement 2: Incorrect
- While the hydrographic survey may indirectly benefit tourism by providing valuable data about coastal ecosystems, its primary aim is not focused on enhancing Mauritius's tourism potential.
- The main objective is to improve navigational safety and maritime security in the region.
Statement 3: Correct
- The hydrographic survey does reflect India's commitment to regional security, showcasing its intentions to assist Mauritius in enhancing its maritime infrastructure.
- It also strengthens diplomatic and defense ties between India and Mauritius, fostering greater cooperation in maritime affairs.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only). This highlights India's strategic interests and cooperative engagement with Mauritius in the maritime domain.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) was established under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008, following recommendations from the Naresh Chandra Committee.
2. AERA regulates tariffs for both major and non-major airports in India.
3. The 2019 amendment to the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act redefined a major airport as one with over 35 lakh annual passengers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Hiral Singh answered
The Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA)
The statements provided pertain to the establishment and functions of the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) in India. Here's a detailed breakdown of the correctness of each statement.
Statement 1: Establishment of AERA
- AERA was indeed established under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008.
- This initiative followed recommendations from the Naresh Chandra Committee, which evaluated the need for regulation in the airport sector.
Statement 2: Regulation of Tariffs
- AERA regulates the tariff for major airports, but it does not have regulatory authority over non-major airports.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect as AERA's primary focus is on major airports.
Statement 3: Definition of Major Airport
- In 2019, the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act was amended to redefine a major airport.
- The new definition specifies that a major airport is one with more than 35 lakh (3.5 million) annual passengers, making this statement correct.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS):
1. The RB-IOS was launched to integrate the previous three Ombudsman schemes related to banking, non-banking financial companies, and digital transactions.
2. Under the RB-IOS, regulated entities have the right to appeal against an award issued by the Ombudsman.
3. A Centralised Receipt and Processing Centre has been established in Mumbai for handling complaints under the RB-IOS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS) was indeed launched to integrate the previous three Ombudsman schemes: the Banking Ombudsman Scheme of 2006, the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies of 2018, and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions of 2019. This integration was part of a 'One Nation - One Ombudsman' approach to ensure jurisdiction neutrality.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the RB-IOS, regulated entities do not have the right to appeal if an award is issued against them by the Ombudsman for failing to provide satisfactory and timely information. This is a significant feature of the scheme, emphasizing accountability and consumer protection.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Centralised Receipt and Processing Centre for handling complaints under the RB-IOS is established in Chandigarh, not Mumbai. This center handles both physical and email complaints in various languages, aimed at streamlining the processing of grievances.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Tea Board of India - Established in 1954 under the Tea Act, 1953
2. First Commercial Tea Garden in India - Established in Darjeeling in 1835
3. GPAP's Newest Member Countries - Include Senegal and Tanzania
4. India's Share in Global Tea Consumption - 30%
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Tea Board of India - Established in 1954 under the Tea Act, 1953
This pair is correctly matched. The Tea Board of India was indeed established in 1954 under the Tea Act, 1953, succeeding the Central Tea Board.
2. First Commercial Tea Garden in India - Established in Darjeeling in 1835
This pair is incorrectly matched. The first commercial tea garden in India was established in Chabua, Assam in 1837, not in Darjeeling in 1835.
3. GPAP's Newest Member Countries - Include Senegal and Tanzania
This pair is correctly matched. The Global Plastic Action Partnership (GPAP) has expanded to include Senegal and Tanzania among its newest member countries.
4. India's Share in Global Tea Consumption - 30%
This pair is correctly matched. India is the largest consumer of tea in the world, accounting for 30% of global tea consumption.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is incorrect. Thus, there are three correctly matched pairs.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India's federal structure is unique, blending unitary and federal characteristics.
Statement-II:
The role of State Governors has often been contentious, leading to strained relations between the Union and States.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered

Statement-I correctly highlights the unique blend of unitary and federal characteristics in India's federal structure. Statement-II appropriately elaborates on the contentious nature of the role of State Governors, showcasing how it leads to strained relations between the Union and States. The State Governors' roles have indeed sparked debates and legal disputes, contributing to complex dynamics within the Indian federal system. Hence, in this scenario, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II logically explains Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas - Celebrates the achievements of Indians living abroad
2. Amrit Bharat Trains 2.0 - Introduces fully automated train systems
3. Mission Mausam - Enhances India's weather forecasting capabilities
4. Pravasi Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PKVY) - Provides scholarships for NRI students
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas: Correctly matched. This event indeed celebrates the achievements of Indians living abroad, acknowledging their contributions and strengthening their connections with India.
2. Amrit Bharat Trains 2.0: Incorrectly matched. The initiative does not introduce fully automated train systems. Instead, it focuses on enhancing passenger experiences with improved amenities in trains, such as modular toilets and ergonomic seats, but not full automation.
3. Mission Mausam: Correctly matched. This initiative is aimed at enhancing India's weather forecasting capabilities, focusing on improving accuracy and providing real-time weather data.
4. Pravasi Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PKVY): Incorrectly matched. This program is designed to enhance the skills of Indian workers abroad, not to provide scholarships for NRI students. Scholarships for diaspora children are covered under the Scholarship Programme for Diaspora Children (SPDC).
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, making Option B the correct choice.

What is the primary focus of the Combat Air Teaming System (CATS) programme recently highlighted in the news?
  • a)
    Enhancing agricultural productivity in rural areas
  • b)
    Integrating unmanned and manned combat aircraft systems
  • c)
    Developing advanced medical technologies for hospitals
  • d)
    Promoting renewable energy sources
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of Combat Air Teaming System (CATS)
The Combat Air Teaming System (CATS) programme represents an innovative approach to modern warfare, focusing primarily on the integration of unmanned and manned combat aircraft systems.
Key Objectives of CATS
- Enhanced Operational Efficiency: CATS aims to optimize the capabilities of air combat units by allowing unmanned systems to support manned aircraft, thereby increasing overall mission effectiveness.
- Risk Reduction for Pilots: By deploying unmanned combat vehicles (UCVs) alongside piloted jets, the programme seeks to minimize risk to human lives during high-stakes missions.
- Real-time Data Sharing: The integration facilitates seamless communication between manned and unmanned platforms, enabling real-time data sharing and improved situational awareness.
Technological Integration
- Advanced Autonomy: CATS utilizes cutting-edge autonomous technologies to allow UCVs to perform complex tasks, such as surveillance, reconnaissance, and even combat roles, without direct human control.
- Swarm Technology: The programme leverages swarm technologies where multiple UCVs can operate in coordination, overwhelming adversaries and executing strategic objectives.
Strategic Implications
- Modern Warfare Adaptation: CATS is aligned with contemporary military strategies that emphasize agility, speed, and the ability to adapt to rapidly changing battlefield conditions.
- International Collaboration: The programme encourages partnerships between nations to share technologies and strategies, thereby enhancing global defense capabilities.
In summary, the Combat Air Teaming System (CATS) focuses on integrating unmanned and manned combat aircraft systems, revolutionizing how air combat operations are conducted in the modern era.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Methylcobalamin - A synthetic form of Vitamin B12.
2. Article 300-A - Provides that no person shall be deprived of property except by law.
3. Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 - Elevated the Right to Property to a Fundamental Right.
4. Eminent Domain - Principle allowing the state to acquire land with fair compensation.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let’s evaluate each one.
1. Methylcobalamin - A synthetic form of Vitamin B12
- Correctness: This statement is incorrect. Methylcobalamin is not a synthetic form; it is a natural, bioactive form of Vitamin B12 found in food sources. The synthetic form is typically cyanocobalamin.
2. Article 300-A - No person shall be deprived of property except by law
- Correctness: This statement is correct. Article 300-A of the Indian Constitution states that no person shall be deprived of their property save by authority of law, which is a safeguard against arbitrary deprivation of property.
3. Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 - Elevated the Right to Property to a Fundamental Right
- Correctness: This statement is incorrect. The Forty-Fourth Amendment Act actually downgraded the Right to Property from a Fundamental Right to a legal right under Article 300-A.
4. Eminent Domain - Principle allowing the state to acquire land with fair compensation
- Correctness: This statement is correct. Eminent domain is indeed the legal principle that allows the government to take private property for public use, provided that fair compensation is given.
Conclusion of Correctly Matched Pairs
- Correct Pairs:
- Article 300-A (Correct)
- Eminent Domain (Correct)
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched: Article 300-A and Eminent Domain.
Final Answer
- Only two pairs are correctly matched, making the correct answer option 'B'.

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