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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
MITRA stands for Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant.
Statement-II:
The Nordic-Baltic Eight (NB-8) framework includes countries like Denmark, Finland, and Estonia.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
MITRA stands for Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant.
Statement-II:
The Nordic-Baltic Eight (NB-8) framework includes countries like Denmark, Finland, and Estonia.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
MITRA stands for Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant.
Statement-II:
The Nordic-Baltic Eight (NB-8) framework includes countries like Denmark, Finland, and Estonia.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
K.L Institute answered |
Statement-I is correct as MITRA indeed stands for Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant, as mentioned in the provided content. Statement-II is also correct; however, it states information about the Nordic-Baltic Eight (NB-8) framework, which includes countries like Denmark, Finland, and Estonia. While both statements are individually correct, they do not have a direct explanatory relationship, making option (b) the accurate choice.
Consider the following pairs regarding Parkinson's Disease and Advocate-on-Record (AoR):1. 24-OHC: Cholesterol metabolite involved in Parkinson's Disease progression.2. Substantia Nigra: Brain region affected in Parkinson's Disease leading to dopamine loss.3. Vakalatnama: Document filed only by Advocates-on-Record in the Supreme Court.4. Article 145(1): Relates to the qualifications and responsibilities of Advocates-on-Record.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding Parkinson's Disease and Advocate-on-Record (AoR):
1. 24-OHC: Cholesterol metabolite involved in Parkinson's Disease progression.
2. Substantia Nigra: Brain region affected in Parkinson's Disease leading to dopamine loss.
3. Vakalatnama: Document filed only by Advocates-on-Record in the Supreme Court.
4. Article 145(1): Relates to the qualifications and responsibilities of Advocates-on-Record.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Neha Khanna answered |
Understanding the Pairs
To determine how many pairs regarding Parkinson's Disease and Advocates-on-Record (AoR) are correctly matched, let's analyze each statement:
1. 24-OHC: Cholesterol metabolite involved in Parkinson's Disease progression
- Evaluation: 24-OHC (24-hydroxycholesterol) is indeed implicated in neurodegenerative diseases, including Parkinson's Disease. Its role in the progression of this condition is supported by research indicating its influence on brain cholesterol metabolism.
- Result: Correct match.
2. Substantia Nigra: Brain region affected in Parkinson's Disease leading to dopamine loss
- Evaluation: The Substantia Nigra is a crucial part of the brain that is significantly affected in Parkinson's Disease. The loss of dopamine-producing neurons in this region is a hallmark of the disease.
- Result: Correct match.
3. Vakalatnama: Document filed only by Advocates-on-Record in the Supreme Court
- Evaluation: A Vakalatnama is a legal document that allows an advocate to represent a client in court. While Advocates-on-Record do file Vakalatnamas, they are not exclusive to them; other advocates can also file this document.
- Result: Incorrect match.
4. Article 145(1): Relates to the qualifications and responsibilities of Advocates-on-Record
- Evaluation: Article 145 of the Constitution pertains to the rules of the Supreme Court, including the qualifications and responsibilities of Advocates-on-Record.
- Result: Correct match.
Final Evaluation
- Correct Matches: 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
- Incorrect Match: 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the number of correctly matched pairs is three, making the correct answer option 'C'.
To determine how many pairs regarding Parkinson's Disease and Advocates-on-Record (AoR) are correctly matched, let's analyze each statement:
1. 24-OHC: Cholesterol metabolite involved in Parkinson's Disease progression
- Evaluation: 24-OHC (24-hydroxycholesterol) is indeed implicated in neurodegenerative diseases, including Parkinson's Disease. Its role in the progression of this condition is supported by research indicating its influence on brain cholesterol metabolism.
- Result: Correct match.
2. Substantia Nigra: Brain region affected in Parkinson's Disease leading to dopamine loss
- Evaluation: The Substantia Nigra is a crucial part of the brain that is significantly affected in Parkinson's Disease. The loss of dopamine-producing neurons in this region is a hallmark of the disease.
- Result: Correct match.
3. Vakalatnama: Document filed only by Advocates-on-Record in the Supreme Court
- Evaluation: A Vakalatnama is a legal document that allows an advocate to represent a client in court. While Advocates-on-Record do file Vakalatnamas, they are not exclusive to them; other advocates can also file this document.
- Result: Incorrect match.
4. Article 145(1): Relates to the qualifications and responsibilities of Advocates-on-Record
- Evaluation: Article 145 of the Constitution pertains to the rules of the Supreme Court, including the qualifications and responsibilities of Advocates-on-Record.
- Result: Correct match.
Final Evaluation
- Correct Matches: 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
- Incorrect Match: 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the number of correctly matched pairs is three, making the correct answer option 'C'.
Consider the following pairs:1. Immigration Crackdown - Affects approximately 725,000 undocumented Indians in the U.S.2. Economic Consequences - Increases remittances to India due to deportations.3. Trade Policies - Tariffs used to enforce compliance with U.S. immigration measures.4. AI Disruption - Threatens job security for Indian IT professionals in the U.S.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Immigration Crackdown - Affects approximately 725,000 undocumented Indians in the U.S.
2. Economic Consequences - Increases remittances to India due to deportations.
3. Trade Policies - Tariffs used to enforce compliance with U.S. immigration measures.
4. AI Disruption - Threatens job security for Indian IT professionals in the U.S.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Lohit Matani answered |
1. Immigration Crackdown - Affects approximately 725,000 undocumented Indians in the U.S.
This is correctly matched. Trump's immigration policies could indeed affect this number of undocumented Indians, leading to potential deportations and significant economic repercussions for India.
This is correctly matched. Trump's immigration policies could indeed affect this number of undocumented Indians, leading to potential deportations and significant economic repercussions for India.
2. Economic Consequences - Increases remittances to India due to deportations.
This is incorrectly matched. Deportations would likely decrease remittances, as undocumented workers return to India and are no longer able to send money back home.
This is incorrectly matched. Deportations would likely decrease remittances, as undocumented workers return to India and are no longer able to send money back home.
3. Trade Policies - Tariffs used to enforce compliance with U.S. immigration measures.
This is correctly matched. Trump's administration is known for using tariffs as a tool for economic coercion, which could impact trade relations with countries like India if there is resistance to U.S. immigration measures.
This is correctly matched. Trump's administration is known for using tariffs as a tool for economic coercion, which could impact trade relations with countries like India if there is resistance to U.S. immigration measures.
4. AI Disruption - Threatens job security for Indian IT professionals in the U.S.
This is correctly matched. The focus on AI development in the U.S. could limit job opportunities for Indian software engineers, posing challenges to India's IT sector.
This is correctly matched. The focus on AI development in the U.S. could limit job opportunities for Indian software engineers, posing challenges to India's IT sector.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 3, and 4.
Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. sanctions on the International Criminal Court (ICC):
1. The U.S. imposed sanctions on the ICC due to its investigations into alleged war crimes by Israeli leaders.
2. Both the U.S. and Israel are member states of the ICC, which is why they oppose its jurisdiction.
3. The U.S. sanctions include travel bans for ICC officials and legal repercussions for those assisting the ICC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. sanctions on the International Criminal Court (ICC):
1. The U.S. imposed sanctions on the ICC due to its investigations into alleged war crimes by Israeli leaders.
2. Both the U.S. and Israel are member states of the ICC, which is why they oppose its jurisdiction.
3. The U.S. sanctions include travel bans for ICC officials and legal repercussions for those assisting the ICC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The U.S. imposed sanctions on the ICC due to its investigations into alleged war crimes by Israeli leaders.
2. Both the U.S. and Israel are member states of the ICC, which is why they oppose its jurisdiction.
3. The U.S. sanctions include travel bans for ICC officials and legal repercussions for those assisting the ICC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Dhruba Ghoshal answered |
Understanding U.S. Sanctions on the ICC
The U.S. sanctions on the International Criminal Court (ICC) stem from multiple factors, primarily linked to its investigations into alleged war crimes. Let's analyze the statements for their correctness.
Statement 1: U.S. sanctions due to ICC investigations
- This statement is correct.
- The U.S. imposed sanctions on the ICC in March 2020, specifically in response to its investigations into alleged war crimes by U.S. personnel in Afghanistan and those involving Israeli leaders concerning Palestinian territories.
Statement 2: Membership of U.S. and Israel in the ICC
- This statement is incorrect.
- Neither the U.S. nor Israel are member states of the ICC. The U.S. has consistently opposed the court's jurisdiction, claiming it undermines national sovereignty. Israel has also refrained from joining, primarily due to concerns about potential investigations into its military actions.
Statement 3: Nature of U.S. sanctions
- This statement is correct.
- The sanctions imposed by the U.S. include travel bans on ICC officials and potential legal repercussions for individuals or entities that assist the ICC in its investigations.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 and 3 only.
This highlights the complexities surrounding international law, the role of the ICC, and the geopolitical interests at play.
The U.S. sanctions on the International Criminal Court (ICC) stem from multiple factors, primarily linked to its investigations into alleged war crimes. Let's analyze the statements for their correctness.
Statement 1: U.S. sanctions due to ICC investigations
- This statement is correct.
- The U.S. imposed sanctions on the ICC in March 2020, specifically in response to its investigations into alleged war crimes by U.S. personnel in Afghanistan and those involving Israeli leaders concerning Palestinian territories.
Statement 2: Membership of U.S. and Israel in the ICC
- This statement is incorrect.
- Neither the U.S. nor Israel are member states of the ICC. The U.S. has consistently opposed the court's jurisdiction, claiming it undermines national sovereignty. Israel has also refrained from joining, primarily due to concerns about potential investigations into its military actions.
Statement 3: Nature of U.S. sanctions
- This statement is correct.
- The sanctions imposed by the U.S. include travel bans on ICC officials and potential legal repercussions for individuals or entities that assist the ICC in its investigations.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 and 3 only.
This highlights the complexities surrounding international law, the role of the ICC, and the geopolitical interests at play.
Consider the following pairs:1. Gossypium barbadense : Extra-long staple cotton2. Maize : Primary source of ethanol production in India3. North Sea : Connects to the Baltic Sea via the Strait of Gibraltar4. Rotterdam : Largest port in the North SeaHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Gossypium barbadense : Extra-long staple cotton
2. Maize : Primary source of ethanol production in India
3. North Sea : Connects to the Baltic Sea via the Strait of Gibraltar
4. Rotterdam : Largest port in the North Sea
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Sakshi Joshi answered |
Analysis of the Pairs
Let's analyze each pair to determine their correctness:
1. Gossypium barbadense : Extra-long staple cotton
- This pair is correct. Gossypium barbadense is indeed known for producing extra-long staple cotton, prized for its quality and strength.
2. Maize : Primary source of ethanol production in India
- This pair is partially correct but misleading. While maize is used for ethanol production, the primary source in India is sugarcane, making this pair inaccurate.
3. North Sea : Connects to the Baltic Sea via the Strait of Gibraltar
- This pair is incorrect. The North Sea connects to the Baltic Sea through the Kattegat and the Øresund Strait, not the Strait of Gibraltar, which connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
4. Rotterdam : Largest port in the North Sea
- This pair is correct. The Port of Rotterdam is indeed the largest port in the North Sea and one of the busiest in the world.
Conclusion
- Correct Matches:
- Pair 1: Correct
- Pair 2: Incorrect
- Pair 3: Incorrect
- Pair 4: Correct
Thus, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, resulting in a total of two correct pairs.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Only two pairs.
Let's analyze each pair to determine their correctness:
1. Gossypium barbadense : Extra-long staple cotton
- This pair is correct. Gossypium barbadense is indeed known for producing extra-long staple cotton, prized for its quality and strength.
2. Maize : Primary source of ethanol production in India
- This pair is partially correct but misleading. While maize is used for ethanol production, the primary source in India is sugarcane, making this pair inaccurate.
3. North Sea : Connects to the Baltic Sea via the Strait of Gibraltar
- This pair is incorrect. The North Sea connects to the Baltic Sea through the Kattegat and the Øresund Strait, not the Strait of Gibraltar, which connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
4. Rotterdam : Largest port in the North Sea
- This pair is correct. The Port of Rotterdam is indeed the largest port in the North Sea and one of the busiest in the world.
Conclusion
- Correct Matches:
- Pair 1: Correct
- Pair 2: Incorrect
- Pair 3: Incorrect
- Pair 4: Correct
Thus, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, resulting in a total of two correct pairs.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Only two pairs.
Consider the following pairs:1. Public Accounts Committee (PAC) - Examines audit reports prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General.2. Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act - Provides for indemnifying nuclear manufacturers from liability.3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance - Relates to the empowerment of state legislatures to tax lotteries.4. Arab League - An organization of Arabic-speaking countries formed in 1945.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Public Accounts Committee (PAC) - Examines audit reports prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
2. Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act - Provides for indemnifying nuclear manufacturers from liability.
3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance - Relates to the empowerment of state legislatures to tax lotteries.
4. Arab League - An organization of Arabic-speaking countries formed in 1945.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
1. Public Accounts Committee (PAC) - Examines audit reports prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
This is correct. The PAC is responsible for examining the audit reports prepared by the C&AG and ensuring the judicious use of funds by the government.
2. Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act - Provides for indemnifying nuclear manufacturers from liability.
This is incorrect. The Act actually allows for supplier liability and the right of recourse, although recent proposals have suggested amendments to reduce or remove supplier liability.
3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance - Relates to the empowerment of state legislatures to tax lotteries.
This is incorrect. The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is a legal doctrine used to determine the true nature of legislation to resolve conflicts of legislative competence, not specifically related to taxing lotteries.
4. Arab League - An organization of Arabic-speaking countries formed in 1945.
This is correct. The Arab League was indeed formed in 1945 in Cairo and originally consisted of Arabic-speaking countries.
Pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.
Consider the following statements regarding green cardamom:1. Green cardamom belongs to the Zingiberaceae family and is native to the evergreen rain forests of the Western Ghats.2. The ideal soil for cultivating green cardamom is alkaline, with a pH range from 7.0 to 8.5.3. Green cardamom thrives at elevations between 600 to 1500 meters and requires a temperature range of 10 to 35 degrees Celsius for optimal growth.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding green cardamom:
1. Green cardamom belongs to the Zingiberaceae family and is native to the evergreen rain forests of the Western Ghats.
2. The ideal soil for cultivating green cardamom is alkaline, with a pH range from 7.0 to 8.5.
3. Green cardamom thrives at elevations between 600 to 1500 meters and requires a temperature range of 10 to 35 degrees Celsius for optimal growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Rahul Pillai answered |
Overview of Green Cardamom
Green cardamom, also known as Elettaria cardamomum, is a popular spice widely used in culinary applications and traditional medicine. It has specific cultivation requirements that are crucial for its growth.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: *Green cardamom belongs to the Zingiberaceae family and is native to the evergreen rain forests of the Western Ghats.*
- This statement is correct. Green cardamom is indeed part of the Zingiberaceae family, which also includes ginger and turmeric. It thrives in the humid, tropical conditions of the Western Ghats in India.
- Statement 2: *The ideal soil for cultivating green cardamom is alkaline, with a pH range from 7.0 to 8.5.*
- This statement is incorrect. Green cardamom prefers slightly acidic to neutral soil, with a pH range typically between 4.5 to 7.0. Alkaline soils are not suitable for its cultivation.
- Statement 3: *Green cardamom thrives at elevations between 600 to 1500 meters and requires a temperature range of 10 to 35 degrees Celsius for optimal growth.*
- This statement is correct. The crop is well-suited to these elevations and temperature ranges, making it essential for its development.
Conclusion
Given the analysis of the statements:
- Correct Statements: 1 and 3
- Incorrect Statement: 2
Thus, the correct option is C (1 and 3 only).
Green cardamom, also known as Elettaria cardamomum, is a popular spice widely used in culinary applications and traditional medicine. It has specific cultivation requirements that are crucial for its growth.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: *Green cardamom belongs to the Zingiberaceae family and is native to the evergreen rain forests of the Western Ghats.*
- This statement is correct. Green cardamom is indeed part of the Zingiberaceae family, which also includes ginger and turmeric. It thrives in the humid, tropical conditions of the Western Ghats in India.
- Statement 2: *The ideal soil for cultivating green cardamom is alkaline, with a pH range from 7.0 to 8.5.*
- This statement is incorrect. Green cardamom prefers slightly acidic to neutral soil, with a pH range typically between 4.5 to 7.0. Alkaline soils are not suitable for its cultivation.
- Statement 3: *Green cardamom thrives at elevations between 600 to 1500 meters and requires a temperature range of 10 to 35 degrees Celsius for optimal growth.*
- This statement is correct. The crop is well-suited to these elevations and temperature ranges, making it essential for its development.
Conclusion
Given the analysis of the statements:
- Correct Statements: 1 and 3
- Incorrect Statement: 2
Thus, the correct option is C (1 and 3 only).
What is the primary goal of the 'Nuclear Energy Mission' recently announced by the Finance Minister?- a)Development of large-scale nuclear power plants
- b)Promotion of renewable energy sources
- c)Advancement of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)
- d)Implementation of energy conservation measures
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the 'Nuclear Energy Mission' recently announced by the Finance Minister?
a)
Development of large-scale nuclear power plants
b)
Promotion of renewable energy sources
c)
Advancement of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)
d)
Implementation of energy conservation measures
|
|
Prerna Rane answered |
Overview of the Nuclear Energy Mission
The 'Nuclear Energy Mission' recently announced by the Finance Minister focuses primarily on the advancement of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs). This initiative aims to enhance India’s nuclear energy capabilities while ensuring safety and sustainability.
What are Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)?
- SMRs are compact, factory-fabricated nuclear reactors.
- They are designed to be installed in a modular fashion, allowing for scalable energy production.
- SMRs offer enhanced safety features compared to traditional large-scale reactors.
Significance of Advancing SMRs
- Safety: SMRs have inherent safety mechanisms, reducing the risk of accidents.
- Flexibility: They can be deployed in various locations, including remote areas where energy demand is increasing.
- Cost-Effectiveness: Their smaller size and modular design can lead to lower capital costs and shorter construction times.
Supporting India’s Energy Goals
- The focus on SMRs aligns with India’s commitment to expanding its clean energy portfolio.
- It supports the transition towards low-carbon energy sources, crucial for meeting climate goals.
- Enhancing nuclear capacity through SMRs can help reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
Conclusion
The Nuclear Energy Mission's emphasis on advancing Small Modular Reactors represents a strategic move towards modernizing India’s nuclear energy landscape. This initiative not only aims to boost energy security but also to position India as a leader in innovative nuclear technology while addressing environmental concerns.
The 'Nuclear Energy Mission' recently announced by the Finance Minister focuses primarily on the advancement of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs). This initiative aims to enhance India’s nuclear energy capabilities while ensuring safety and sustainability.
What are Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)?
- SMRs are compact, factory-fabricated nuclear reactors.
- They are designed to be installed in a modular fashion, allowing for scalable energy production.
- SMRs offer enhanced safety features compared to traditional large-scale reactors.
Significance of Advancing SMRs
- Safety: SMRs have inherent safety mechanisms, reducing the risk of accidents.
- Flexibility: They can be deployed in various locations, including remote areas where energy demand is increasing.
- Cost-Effectiveness: Their smaller size and modular design can lead to lower capital costs and shorter construction times.
Supporting India’s Energy Goals
- The focus on SMRs aligns with India’s commitment to expanding its clean energy portfolio.
- It supports the transition towards low-carbon energy sources, crucial for meeting climate goals.
- Enhancing nuclear capacity through SMRs can help reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
Conclusion
The Nuclear Energy Mission's emphasis on advancing Small Modular Reactors represents a strategic move towards modernizing India’s nuclear energy landscape. This initiative not only aims to boost energy security but also to position India as a leader in innovative nuclear technology while addressing environmental concerns.
What is the primary purpose of the Munich Security Conference (MSC)?- a)To discuss military issues during the Cold War
- b)To address climate change and migration challenges
- c)To facilitate discussions on international security issues
- d)To promote economic cooperation among global leaders
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Munich Security Conference (MSC)?
a)
To discuss military issues during the Cold War
b)
To address climate change and migration challenges
c)
To facilitate discussions on international security issues
d)
To promote economic cooperation among global leaders
|
|
Saptarshi Chakraborty answered |
Overview of the Munich Security Conference (MSC)
The Munich Security Conference (MSC) is an annual event that serves as a key platform for dialogue on pressing international security issues. Established in 1963, it has evolved into a prominent forum for leaders, policymakers, and experts from around the world.
Primary Purpose: Facilitating Discussions on International Security Issues
- The MSC primarily aims to foster discussions related to global security challenges, including but not limited to:
- Military conflicts
- Terrorism
- Cybersecurity
- Nuclear proliferation
- Human rights concerns
- It provides a unique opportunity for stakeholders to engage in candid conversations, share perspectives, and propose collaborative solutions.
Global Participation
- Each year, the MSC draws a diverse group of participants, including:
- Heads of state
- Defense ministers
- Diplomats
- Security experts
- This gathering encourages multi-lateral dialogue, enhancing diplomatic relationships and fostering international cooperation.
Relevance in Contemporary Issues
- While the MSC has its roots in Cold War discussions, its focus has broadened significantly over the years.
- Current themes often include:
- Geopolitical tensions
- Climate change as a security threat
- Migration and refugee crises
Conclusion
In summary, the Munich Security Conference’s primary purpose is to facilitate discussions on international security issues, making it a crucial venue for addressing the complex and evolving challenges facing the global community today.
The Munich Security Conference (MSC) is an annual event that serves as a key platform for dialogue on pressing international security issues. Established in 1963, it has evolved into a prominent forum for leaders, policymakers, and experts from around the world.
Primary Purpose: Facilitating Discussions on International Security Issues
- The MSC primarily aims to foster discussions related to global security challenges, including but not limited to:
- Military conflicts
- Terrorism
- Cybersecurity
- Nuclear proliferation
- Human rights concerns
- It provides a unique opportunity for stakeholders to engage in candid conversations, share perspectives, and propose collaborative solutions.
Global Participation
- Each year, the MSC draws a diverse group of participants, including:
- Heads of state
- Defense ministers
- Diplomats
- Security experts
- This gathering encourages multi-lateral dialogue, enhancing diplomatic relationships and fostering international cooperation.
Relevance in Contemporary Issues
- While the MSC has its roots in Cold War discussions, its focus has broadened significantly over the years.
- Current themes often include:
- Geopolitical tensions
- Climate change as a security threat
- Migration and refugee crises
Conclusion
In summary, the Munich Security Conference’s primary purpose is to facilitate discussions on international security issues, making it a crucial venue for addressing the complex and evolving challenges facing the global community today.
Consider the following statements regarding the partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat:1. UN-Habitat operates under a three-tier governance framework, which includes the UN-Habitat Assembly, the Executive Board, and the Committee of Permanent Representatives.2. The headquarters of UN-Habitat is located in Geneva, Switzerland.3. The partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat aims to promote urbanization as a transformative force, reducing inequality, discrimination, and poverty within urban settings.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 3 Only
- c)1 and 2 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat:
1. UN-Habitat operates under a three-tier governance framework, which includes the UN-Habitat Assembly, the Executive Board, and the Committee of Permanent Representatives.
2. The headquarters of UN-Habitat is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
3. The partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat aims to promote urbanization as a transformative force, reducing inequality, discrimination, and poverty within urban settings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 3 Only
c)
1 and 2 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Rahul Pillai answered |
Overview of the Partnership
The partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat focuses on enhancing urban sustainability and addressing the challenges faced by cities, particularly in relation to inequality and poverty.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: Governance Framework of UN-Habitat
- This statement is correct. UN-Habitat indeed operates under a three-tier governance framework which includes:
- The UN-Habitat Assembly
- The Executive Board
- The Committee of Permanent Representatives
- Statement 2: Headquarters Location
- This statement is incorrect. The headquarters of UN-Habitat is located in Nairobi, Kenya, not Geneva, Switzerland. Geneva is home to other UN agencies but not UN-Habitat.
- Statement 3: Aim of the Partnership
- This statement is correct. The partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat indeed aims to promote urbanization as a transformative force, with specific goals to reduce inequality, discrimination, and poverty within urban settings.
Conclusion
Given the analysis:
- Statements 1 and 3 are correct,
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is b) 1 and 3 Only. This highlights the importance of understanding the governance structure of international organizations and the specific goals of partnerships aimed at sustainable urban development.
The partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat focuses on enhancing urban sustainability and addressing the challenges faced by cities, particularly in relation to inequality and poverty.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: Governance Framework of UN-Habitat
- This statement is correct. UN-Habitat indeed operates under a three-tier governance framework which includes:
- The UN-Habitat Assembly
- The Executive Board
- The Committee of Permanent Representatives
- Statement 2: Headquarters Location
- This statement is incorrect. The headquarters of UN-Habitat is located in Nairobi, Kenya, not Geneva, Switzerland. Geneva is home to other UN agencies but not UN-Habitat.
- Statement 3: Aim of the Partnership
- This statement is correct. The partnership between C40 Cities and UN-Habitat indeed aims to promote urbanization as a transformative force, with specific goals to reduce inequality, discrimination, and poverty within urban settings.
Conclusion
Given the analysis:
- Statements 1 and 3 are correct,
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is b) 1 and 3 Only. This highlights the importance of understanding the governance structure of international organizations and the specific goals of partnerships aimed at sustainable urban development.
Consider the following pairs regarding the seismic risks and geological features related to Delhi:1. Delhi-Hardwar Ridge: Continuous tectonic activity due to collision of Indian and Eurasian plates.2. Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt: Primarily caused by direct tectonic subduction.3. Groundwater Extraction: Known to potentially induce fault movements.4. Himalayan Earthquakes: Caused by subduction of the Indian plate beneath the Eurasian plate.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the seismic risks and geological features related to Delhi:
1. Delhi-Hardwar Ridge: Continuous tectonic activity due to collision of Indian and Eurasian plates.
2. Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt: Primarily caused by direct tectonic subduction.
3. Groundwater Extraction: Known to potentially induce fault movements.
4. Himalayan Earthquakes: Caused by subduction of the Indian plate beneath the Eurasian plate.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
1. Delhi-Hardwar Ridge: Continuous tectonic activity due to collision of Indian and Eurasian plates. - Correct. The Delhi-Hardwar Ridge is an area of continuous tectonic activity due to the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates, which causes the build-up of tectonic stress.
2. Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt: Primarily caused by direct tectonic subduction. - Incorrect. The Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt is not caused by direct tectonic subduction. It consists of ancient folded rock formations and seismic activity here is due to fault reactivation and local stress accumulation rather than large-scale tectonic shifts.
3. Groundwater Extraction: Known to potentially induce fault movements. - Correct. Excessive groundwater extraction can alter rock pressure and potentially induce fault movements, acting as a seismic trigger.
4. Himalayan Earthquakes: Caused by subduction of the Indian plate beneath the Eurasian plate. - Correct. Himalayan earthquakes are indeed caused by the subduction of the Indian plate beneath the Eurasian plate, which is a significant tectonic process in the region.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because the seismic activity in the Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt is not primarily caused by direct tectonic subduction. Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Aravalli Range and related facts:1. Guru Shikhar - Highest peak in the Aravalli Range located in Gujarat2. Banas River - A tributary of the Yamuna3. Aravalli Range - Acts as a natural barrier preventing the Thar Desert from expanding eastward4. Forest Conservation Act, 1980 - Governs forest protection in the Aravalli regionHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the Aravalli Range and related facts:
1. Guru Shikhar - Highest peak in the Aravalli Range located in Gujarat
2. Banas River - A tributary of the Yamuna
3. Aravalli Range - Acts as a natural barrier preventing the Thar Desert from expanding eastward
4. Forest Conservation Act, 1980 - Governs forest protection in the Aravalli region
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
1. Guru Shikhar - Highest peak in the Aravalli Range located in Gujarat: Incorrect. Guru Shikhar is the highest peak in the Aravalli Range, but it is located in Mount Abu, Rajasthan, not Gujarat.
2. Banas River - A tributary of the Yamuna: Incorrect. The Banas River is not a tributary of the Yamuna. It is an inland river in Rajasthan that drains into the Chambal River, which is a tributary of the Yamuna.
3. Aravalli Range - Acts as a natural barrier preventing the Thar Desert from expanding eastward: Correct. The Aravalli Range serves as a natural barrier, preventing the expansion of the Thar Desert into eastern Rajasthan and the Gangetic plains.
4. Forest Conservation Act, 1980 - Governs forest protection in the Aravalli region: Correct. The Forest Conservation Act, 1980, is indeed a legislative framework that governs the protection and conservation of forests in India, including the Aravalli region.
Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.
What does the recent visit of India's Foreign Secretary to China indicate regarding the state of India-China relations?- a) A complete breakdown of negotiations
- b) An escalation of military tensions
- c) An increase in trade tariffs between the two countries
- d) A potential easing of diplomatic tensions
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What does the recent visit of India's Foreign Secretary to China indicate regarding the state of India-China relations?
a)
A complete breakdown of negotiations
b)
An escalation of military tensions
c)
An increase in trade tariffs between the two countries
d)
A potential easing of diplomatic tensions
|
Innovative Classes answered |
The visit of India's Foreign Secretary to China suggests a potential easing of diplomatic tensions between the two nations. This type of engagement often signifies a willingness to restore dialogue and address unresolved issues. The restoration of key exchanges indicates a strategic effort to rebuild relations, which may lead to more stable interactions in the future. Interestingly, diplomatic visits like this one can play a crucial role in conflict resolution by fostering communication and understanding between countries.
Consider the following pairs related to Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA):
1. Type 0 SMA: Most severe form, onset before birth.
2. SMN1 Gene: Responsible for producing a protein crucial for motor neuron survival.
3. Type 4 SMA: Adult onset with milder symptoms.
4. Type 2 SMA: Onset after 18 months and causes severe muscle weakness.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA):
1. Type 0 SMA: Most severe form, onset before birth.
2. SMN1 Gene: Responsible for producing a protein crucial for motor neuron survival.
3. Type 4 SMA: Adult onset with milder symptoms.
4. Type 2 SMA: Onset after 18 months and causes severe muscle weakness.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Type 0 SMA: Most severe form, onset before birth.
2. SMN1 Gene: Responsible for producing a protein crucial for motor neuron survival.
3. Type 4 SMA: Adult onset with milder symptoms.
4. Type 2 SMA: Onset after 18 months and causes severe muscle weakness.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Innovative Classes answered |
1. Type 0 SMA: Most severe form, onset before birth.
- Correct. Type 0 SMA is indeed the most severe form and presents before birth. It is characterized by severe muscle weakness and respiratory issues at or before birth.
2. SMN1 Gene: Responsible for producing a protein crucial for motor neuron survival.
- Correct. Mutations in the SMN1 gene lead to a deficiency in the survival motor neuron (SMN) protein, which is essential for the survival of motor neurons. This is the primary cause of SMA.
3. Type 4 SMA: Adult onset with milder symptoms.
- Correct. Type 4 SMA is known for its adult onset and generally milder symptoms compared to other types. It typically manifests after the age of 18 and affects motor function more slowly.
4. Type 2 SMA: Onset after 18 months and causes severe muscle weakness.
- Incorrect. Type 2 SMA typically presents between 6 and 18 months of age, not after 18 months. It does cause significant muscle weakness but not as severe as Type 1.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs regarding Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) and Fort William:1. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: Congenital heart disease is a known cause.2. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: It can be cured with current treatments.3. Fort William: Renamed to Vijay Durg to reflect indigenous military history.4. Fort William: Originally constructed by Robert Clive in 1757.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) and Fort William:
1. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: Congenital heart disease is a known cause.
2. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: It can be cured with current treatments.
3. Fort William: Renamed to Vijay Durg to reflect indigenous military history.
4. Fort William: Originally constructed by Robert Clive in 1757.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Preethi Roy answered |
Understanding the Correctness of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's analyze each statement regarding Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) and Fort William.
1. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: Congenital heart disease is a known cause.
- Correct: Congenital heart defects can lead to PAH due to abnormal blood flow and increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries.
2. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: It can be cured with current treatments.
- Incorrect: While treatments can manage symptoms and improve quality of life, there is currently no cure for PAH.
3. Fort William: Renamed to Vijay Durg to reflect indigenous military history.
- Incorrect: Fort William in Kolkata was not renamed Vijay Durg; it retains its original name.
4. Fort William: Originally constructed by Robert Clive in 1757.
- Correct: Fort William was indeed constructed under the direction of Robert Clive following the Battle of Plassey in 1757.
Summary of the Analysis
- Correct pairs: 1 and 4
- Incorrect pairs: 2 and 3
Conclusion
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched. The correct answer is option 'B', indicating that among the four pairs, only two are accurate.
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's analyze each statement regarding Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) and Fort William.
1. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: Congenital heart disease is a known cause.
- Correct: Congenital heart defects can lead to PAH due to abnormal blood flow and increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries.
2. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: It can be cured with current treatments.
- Incorrect: While treatments can manage symptoms and improve quality of life, there is currently no cure for PAH.
3. Fort William: Renamed to Vijay Durg to reflect indigenous military history.
- Incorrect: Fort William in Kolkata was not renamed Vijay Durg; it retains its original name.
4. Fort William: Originally constructed by Robert Clive in 1757.
- Correct: Fort William was indeed constructed under the direction of Robert Clive following the Battle of Plassey in 1757.
Summary of the Analysis
- Correct pairs: 1 and 4
- Incorrect pairs: 2 and 3
Conclusion
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched. The correct answer is option 'B', indicating that among the four pairs, only two are accurate.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Hangul Deer is primarily found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as northern Himachal Pradesh.Statement-II:
The Hangul Deer is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer and is critically endangered, requiring specific conservation measures to survive.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Hangul Deer is primarily found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as northern Himachal Pradesh.
The Hangul Deer is primarily found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as northern Himachal Pradesh.
Statement-II:
The Hangul Deer is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer and is critically endangered, requiring specific conservation measures to survive.
The Hangul Deer is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer and is critically endangered, requiring specific conservation measures to survive.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Ias Masters answered |
Statement-I correctly describes the habitat of the Hangul Deer, mentioning its primary locations in Jammu and Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh. Statement-II accurately states that the Hangul Deer is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer and highlights its critical endangered status, emphasizing the need for specific conservation efforts. Statement-II explains the significance of the Hangul Deer's endangered status in the context of its habitat and conservation requirements, making both statements correct and logically interconnected.
Consider the following statements regarding the NAKSHA Scheme:1. The NAKSHA initiative aims to create a comprehensive geospatial database for urban land records using aerial and field surveys integrated with GIS technology.2. The initiative targets cities with an area greater than 35 sq km and a population over 2 lakhs.3. The project is 100% centrally funded to ensure comprehensive coverage and implementation.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the NAKSHA Scheme:
1. The NAKSHA initiative aims to create a comprehensive geospatial database for urban land records using aerial and field surveys integrated with GIS technology.
2. The initiative targets cities with an area greater than 35 sq km and a population over 2 lakhs.
3. The project is 100% centrally funded to ensure comprehensive coverage and implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Hrishikesh Iyer answered |
Overview of the NAKSHA Scheme
The NAKSHA Scheme is an initiative aimed at enhancing urban land records across Indian cities by utilizing advanced geospatial technologies.
Key Features of the NAKSHA Scheme
- Geospatial Database Creation:
The primary goal is to establish a comprehensive geospatial database for urban land records. This involves the use of aerial and field surveys integrated with Geographic Information System (GIS) technology.
- Target Cities:
The initiative specifically focuses on cities that meet certain criteria:
- Area greater than 35 sq km
- Population over 2 lakhs
- Funding Structure:
While the project aims for widespread implementation, it is important to note that it is not 100% centrally funded. This statement is inaccurate, as various funding mechanisms may be involved.
Correctness of Statements
- Statement 1: Correct
The initiative does aim to create a comprehensive geospatial database through aerial and field surveys using GIS technology.
- Statement 2: Correct
The targeting of cities with an area greater than 35 sq km and a population over 2 lakhs is accurate.
- Statement 3: Incorrect
The claim that the project is 100% centrally funded is misleading, as funding can involve multiple sources.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 Only).
The NAKSHA Scheme is an initiative aimed at enhancing urban land records across Indian cities by utilizing advanced geospatial technologies.
Key Features of the NAKSHA Scheme
- Geospatial Database Creation:
The primary goal is to establish a comprehensive geospatial database for urban land records. This involves the use of aerial and field surveys integrated with Geographic Information System (GIS) technology.
- Target Cities:
The initiative specifically focuses on cities that meet certain criteria:
- Area greater than 35 sq km
- Population over 2 lakhs
- Funding Structure:
While the project aims for widespread implementation, it is important to note that it is not 100% centrally funded. This statement is inaccurate, as various funding mechanisms may be involved.
Correctness of Statements
- Statement 1: Correct
The initiative does aim to create a comprehensive geospatial database through aerial and field surveys using GIS technology.
- Statement 2: Correct
The targeting of cities with an area greater than 35 sq km and a population over 2 lakhs is accurate.
- Statement 3: Incorrect
The claim that the project is 100% centrally funded is misleading, as funding can involve multiple sources.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 Only).
Consider the following pairs related to Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) and their characteristics:1. SMRs maximum output: 300 Megawatts electric (MWe)2. SMRs refueling requirement: Every 1 to 2 years3. SMRs integration: Capable of supplying both electricity and heat for industrial applications4. SMRs safety feature: Non-proliferation effortsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) and their characteristics:
1. SMRs maximum output: 300 Megawatts electric (MWe)
2. SMRs refueling requirement: Every 1 to 2 years
3. SMRs integration: Capable of supplying both electricity and heat for industrial applications
4. SMRs safety feature: Non-proliferation efforts
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
1. SMRs maximum output: 300 Megawatts electric (MWe) - Correctly matched. SMRs are defined as small nuclear reactors with a maximum output of 300 MWe.
2. SMRs refueling requirement: Every 1 to 2 years - Incorrectly matched. SMRs typically require refueling every 3 to 7 years. Some advanced designs can operate for up to 30 years without needing refueling, unlike conventional plants which need refueling every 1 to 2 years.
3. SMRs integration: Capable of supplying both electricity and heat for industrial applications - Correctly matched. SMRs can be integrated into energy hubs and are capable of supplying both electricity and heat for industrial applications, district heating, and hydrogen production.
4. SMRs safety feature: Non-proliferation efforts - Correctly matched. SMRs offer distinct safeguards and security advantages, contributing to non-proliferation efforts.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: 1, 3, and 4.
Consider the following pairs regarding recent international relations topics:1. US Tariffs: Imposed on EU for agricultural goods2. India-US Immigration: Deportation of illegal Indian immigrants3. India-Indonesia Relations: Focus on strengthening cybersecurity4. US-China Trade Tension: China investigating Google for antitrust violationsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding recent international relations topics:
1. US Tariffs: Imposed on EU for agricultural goods
2. India-US Immigration: Deportation of illegal Indian immigrants
3. India-Indonesia Relations: Focus on strengthening cybersecurity
4. US-China Trade Tension: China investigating Google for antitrust violations
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
1. US Tariffs: Imposed on EU for agricultural goods - Incorrect. While there have been discussions about tariffs on the EU, the focus in the provided text is on the possibility of future tariffs due to perceived trade imbalances, not specifically on agricultural goods.
2. India-US Immigration: Deportation of illegal Indian immigrants - Correct. The text mentions that the Trump administration has initiated the process of deporting illegal Indian immigrants, raising concerns about bilateral relations.
3. India-Indonesia Relations: Focus on strengthening cybersecurity - Correct. The ties between India and Indonesia include security cooperation, which involves addressing cybersecurity threats as part of their comprehensive strategic partnership.
4. US-China Trade Tension: China investigating Google for antitrust violations - Correct. The text indicates that in response to US tariffs, China has retaliated by investigating Google for antitrust violations.
Only pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched according to the context provided.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Klub-S missile system is recognized for its combat efficiency in high-risk scenarios due to its speed and maneuverability.Statement-II:
The Klub-S missile system can engage surface ships, submarines, and ground targets at distances of up to 300 kilometers.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Klub-S missile system is recognized for its combat efficiency in high-risk scenarios due to its speed and maneuverability.
The Klub-S missile system is recognized for its combat efficiency in high-risk scenarios due to its speed and maneuverability.
Statement-II:
The Klub-S missile system can engage surface ships, submarines, and ground targets at distances of up to 300 kilometers.
The Klub-S missile system can engage surface ships, submarines, and ground targets at distances of up to 300 kilometers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
Statement-I correctly highlights the combat efficiency of the Klub-S missile system in high-risk scenarios due to its speed and maneuverability. The missile's ability to reach supersonic speeds, operate at low cruising altitudes to minimize reaction time, and engage various targets makes it effective in combat situations.
Statement-II accurately identifies the capabilities of the Klub-S missile system, indicating its ability to engage surface ships, submarines, and ground targets at distances of up to 300 kilometers. This showcases the versatility and range of the missile system.
Both statements individually provide accurate information about different aspects of the Klub-S missile system. However, they do not directly relate to or explain each other. Hence, the correct answer is option (b), where both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following statements regarding the Klub-S missile system:1. The Klub-S missile system can engage targets at distances of up to 500 kilometers.2. The Klub-S system includes components such as a fire control system and a vertical launcher unit.3. The missile operates at a high cruising altitude to avoid detection by enemy defenses.- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)2 Only
- d)2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Klub-S missile system:
1. The Klub-S missile system can engage targets at distances of up to 500 kilometers.
2. The Klub-S system includes components such as a fire control system and a vertical launcher unit.
3. The missile operates at a high cruising altitude to avoid detection by enemy defenses.
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
2 Only
d)
2 and 3 Only
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
Let's analyze each statement to determine its correctness:
1. Statement 1: "The Klub-S missile system can engage targets at distances of up to 500 kilometers."
- This statement is incorrect. The Klub-S missile system can engage targets at distances of up to 300 kilometers, not 500 kilometers. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
- This statement is incorrect. The Klub-S missile system can engage targets at distances of up to 300 kilometers, not 500 kilometers. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Statement 2: "The Klub-S system includes components such as a fire control system and a vertical launcher unit."
- This statement is correct. The Klub-S missile system indeed includes a fire control system and a vertical launcher unit (VLU) as part of its components, which are crucial for its operational capabilities. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
- This statement is correct. The Klub-S missile system indeed includes a fire control system and a vertical launcher unit (VLU) as part of its components, which are crucial for its operational capabilities. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
3. Statement 3: "The missile operates at a high cruising altitude to avoid detection by enemy defenses."
- This statement is incorrect. The Klub-S missile operates at a low cruising altitude of 10-15 meters, which minimizes the reaction time available to enemy defenses, making it more challenging to detect and intercept. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
- This statement is incorrect. The Klub-S missile operates at a low cruising altitude of 10-15 meters, which minimizes the reaction time available to enemy defenses, making it more challenging to detect and intercept. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Only Statement 2 is correct, making Option C: 2 Only the right choice.
What is the primary purpose of the Klub-S missile system recently procured by India from Russia?- a)Enhancing air defense capabilities
- b)Strengthening ground-based missile systems
- c)Bolstering the operational capabilities of the Indian Navy's submarine fleet
- d)Improving satellite communication networks
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Klub-S missile system recently procured by India from Russia?
a)
Enhancing air defense capabilities
b)
Strengthening ground-based missile systems
c)
Bolstering the operational capabilities of the Indian Navy's submarine fleet
d)
Improving satellite communication networks
|
T.S Academy answered |
The Klub-S missile system, acquired by India from Russia, aims to significantly enhance the operational capabilities of the Indian Navy's submarine fleet. This system, developed by the Russian defense company NPO Novator, is known for its combat efficiency and the ability to engage surface ships, submarines, and ground targets effectively.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS):
1. The Pinaka MRLS was first deployed during the Kargil War for targeting enemy positions.
2. The Pinaka system has a maximum operational range of 150 kilometers.
3. The recent contracts for the Pinaka MRLS signify an increased investment in enhancing the mobility of the Indian Army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS):
1. The Pinaka MRLS was first deployed during the Kargil War for targeting enemy positions.
2. The Pinaka system has a maximum operational range of 150 kilometers.
3. The recent contracts for the Pinaka MRLS signify an increased investment in enhancing the mobility of the Indian Army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Pinaka MRLS was first deployed during the Kargil War for targeting enemy positions.
2. The Pinaka system has a maximum operational range of 150 kilometers.
3. The recent contracts for the Pinaka MRLS signify an increased investment in enhancing the mobility of the Indian Army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Master Training Institute answered |
To determine which statements are correct, let's examine each one based on the details provided about the Pinaka MRLS:
1. Statement 1: "The Pinaka MRLS was first deployed during the Kargil War for targeting enemy positions."
- This statement is correct. The Pinaka system was indeed first deployed during the Kargil War, where it was effectively used to target enemy positions.
2. Statement 2: "The Pinaka system has a maximum operational range of 150 kilometers."
- This statement is incorrect. The Pinaka system has an operational range exceeding 75 kilometers, not 150 kilometers.
3. Statement 3: "The recent contracts for the Pinaka MRLS signify an increased investment in enhancing the mobility of the Indian Army."
- This statement is incorrect. While the contracts indicate a significant investment in enhancing artillery capabilities, they do not specifically signify an increased investment in mobility. The Pinaka system is already mounted on a Tatra truck, which provides its mobility.
Thus, only Statement 1 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: 1 Only.
Consider the following pairs related to recent scientific and economic developments:1. Marsupials - Unique mammals that give birth to highly developed young, not carried in pouches.2. Swavalambini Programme - Initiative to empower male students in northeastern India.3. Repo Rate - The rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks.4. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in the Western Ghats, known for breeding grounds of an endangered bat species.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to recent scientific and economic developments:
1. Marsupials - Unique mammals that give birth to highly developed young, not carried in pouches.
2. Swavalambini Programme - Initiative to empower male students in northeastern India.
3. Repo Rate - The rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks.
4. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in the Western Ghats, known for breeding grounds of an endangered bat species.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
1. Marsupials - Incorrect. Marsupials are unique mammals that typically give birth to underdeveloped young, which are carried in pouches. Hence, this pair is incorrectly matched.
2. Swavalambini Programme - Incorrect. The Swavalambini Programme is an initiative to empower female students in the northeastern region of India, not male students. This pair is incorrectly matched.
3. Repo Rate - Correct. The repo rate indeed refers to the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks. This pair is correctly matched.
4. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary - Correct. Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Western Ghats and is known for the Barapede caves, which are the only known breeding grounds for the endangered Wroughton's free-tailed bat. This pair is correctly matched.
Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched, aligning with Option C: Only three pairs.
What does the recent sighting of the saffron reedtail damselfly in Karnataka indicate?- a)Presence of pollution in the Netravati River ecosystem
- b)Expansion of the damselfly's habitat across India
- c)Existence of a healthy ecosystem along the Netravati River
- d)Decline in the population of damselflies in the Western Ghats
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What does the recent sighting of the saffron reedtail damselfly in Karnataka indicate?
a)
Presence of pollution in the Netravati River ecosystem
b)
Expansion of the damselfly's habitat across India
c)
Existence of a healthy ecosystem along the Netravati River
d)
Decline in the population of damselflies in the Western Ghats
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
The recent discovery of the saffron reedtail damselfly along the Netravati River in Karnataka serves as an indicator of a healthy ecosystem. Damselflies, particularly the saffron reedtail species, are highly sensitive to environmental changes and pollution. Therefore, their presence in an area signifies the quality of the habitat, emphasizing the importance of preserving their natural environment to maintain biodiversity and ecological balance.
Consider the following statements regarding the Saffron Reedtail Damselfly:1. The saffron reedtail damselfly is found in habitats with poor water quality, often near fast-moving forest streams.2. This species is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.3. The discovery of the saffron reedtail damselfly in Karnataka indicates the presence of a healthy ecosystem.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Saffron Reedtail Damselfly:
1. The saffron reedtail damselfly is found in habitats with poor water quality, often near fast-moving forest streams.
2. This species is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
3. The discovery of the saffron reedtail damselfly in Karnataka indicates the presence of a healthy ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
2 and 3 Only
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The saffron reedtail damselfly is found in habitats with pristine water quality, not poor water quality. They are typically found near slow-moving, not fast-moving, forest streams. These damselflies require clean water for their lifecycle and are sensitive to environmental changes and pollution.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The saffron reedtail damselfly, scientifically known as Indosticta deccanensis, is indeed endemic to the Western Ghats of India. This means that it is native to and can only be found in this particular region.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The discovery of the saffron reedtail damselfly in Karnataka is significant as these species are indicators of a healthy ecosystem. Their presence suggests that the environmental conditions, particularly the water quality, are favorable and relatively undisturbed by pollution.
Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3, making Option D the correct answer.
What is the primary characteristic of microplastics as outlined in the text?- a)Rapid biodegradation in the environment
- b)Large size exceeding 5 mm
- c)Persistence in the environment and accumulation over time
- d)Natural occurrence in groundwater
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary characteristic of microplastics as outlined in the text?
a)
Rapid biodegradation in the environment
b)
Large size exceeding 5 mm
c)
Persistence in the environment and accumulation over time
d)
Natural occurrence in groundwater
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
Microplastics are defined as small plastic particles measuring less than 5 mm. One of their key characteristics is their persistence in the environment, making them difficult to remove, and their ability to accumulate over time. Due to their small size and durability, microplastics pose a significant threat to ecosystems and wildlife, especially when ingested by marine organisms, contributing to bioaccumulation within the food chain.
Consider the following pairs:1. Fiscal Deficit Target for FY26 - 4.4% of GDP2. Inland Mangrove Recognized as Biodiversity Heritage Site - Guneri, Gujarat3. FDI Limit in Insurance - Raised to 100% for companies investing the entire premium in India4. Tax Benefits for Self-Occupied Properties - Claims allowed on three housesHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Fiscal Deficit Target for FY26 - 4.4% of GDP
2. Inland Mangrove Recognized as Biodiversity Heritage Site - Guneri, Gujarat
3. FDI Limit in Insurance - Raised to 100% for companies investing the entire premium in India
4. Tax Benefits for Self-Occupied Properties - Claims allowed on three houses
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
1. Fiscal Deficit Target for FY26 - 4.4% of GDP: This pair is correctly matched. The Union Budget for FY26 targets a fiscal deficit of 4.4% of GDP, as mentioned in both summaries.
2. Inland Mangrove Recognized as Biodiversity Heritage Site - Guneri, Gujarat: This pair is correctly matched. The inland mangrove in Guneri village, located in Kutch, Gujarat, is indeed recognized as a Biodiversity Heritage Site, highlighting its ecological importance.
3. FDI Limit in Insurance - Raised to 100% for companies investing the entire premium in India: This pair is correctly matched. The budget introduced reforms increasing the FDI limit in insurance to 100%, provided the entire premium is invested in India.
4. Tax Benefits for Self-Occupied Properties - Claims allowed on three houses: This pair is incorrectly matched. The budget allows tax benefits for self-occupied properties on two houses, not three.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1, 2, and 3.
Consider the following statements:1. South Georgia Island is a part of the British overseas territory known as South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands.2. The island experiences a sub-Antarctic climate and is covered mostly by tropical vegetation.3. The island is home to significant wildlife populations, including millions of seabirds and seals.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. South Georgia Island is a part of the British overseas territory known as South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands.
2. The island experiences a sub-Antarctic climate and is covered mostly by tropical vegetation.
3. The island is home to significant wildlife populations, including millions of seabirds and seals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Statement 1 is correct. South Georgia Island is indeed a part of the British overseas territory known as South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands. This territory is located in the South Atlantic Ocean and is under British administration.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While South Georgia Island experiences a sub-Antarctic climate characterized by cold, wet, and windy conditions, it is not covered by tropical vegetation. Instead, it has sparse vegetation primarily consisting of resilient grasses and tundra plants, with most of the island covered by perpetual snow.
Statement 3 is correct. The island is renowned for its rich biodiversity, being home to millions of seabirds, such as king penguins, albatrosses, and petrels, as well as large populations of seals, including fur seals and elephant seals. This makes South Georgia Island an ecologically significant area.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:1. Araku Valley - Known for its organic coffee plantations with a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.2. Anantagiri Reserved Forests - Located in the Western Ghats, rich in biodiversity.3. Katiki Waterfalls - Situated in the Araku Valley, known for their natural beauty.4. Asteroid 2024 YR4 - Passed closest to Earth on New Year's Day, at a distance of approximately 800,000 kilometers.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Araku Valley - Known for its organic coffee plantations with a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
2. Anantagiri Reserved Forests - Located in the Western Ghats, rich in biodiversity.
3. Katiki Waterfalls - Situated in the Araku Valley, known for their natural beauty.
4. Asteroid 2024 YR4 - Passed closest to Earth on New Year's Day, at a distance of approximately 800,000 kilometers.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
1. Araku Valley - Known for its organic coffee plantations with a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. This statement is correctly matched. Araku Valley is renowned for its organic coffee cultivation, which has received a GI tag.
2. Anantagiri Reserved Forests - Located in the Western Ghats, rich in biodiversity. This statement is incorrectly matched. Anantagiri Reserved Forests are part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats, and are indeed rich in biodiversity.
3. Katiki Waterfalls - Situated in the Araku Valley, known for their natural beauty. This statement is correctly matched. Katiki Waterfalls are indeed located in the Araku Valley and are celebrated for their scenic beauty.
4. Asteroid 2024 YR4 - Passed closest to Earth on New Year's Day, at a distance of approximately 800,000 kilometers. This statement is incorrectly matched. The asteroid 2024 YR4 passed closest to Earth on Christmas Day, not New Year's Day, at a distance of approximately 800,000 kilometers.
The correctly matched pairs are 1 and 3.
What is the primary economic challenge faced by the Indian shipping industry despite the government's efforts to enhance the maritime sector?- a)Lack of skilled workforce
- b)High borrowing costs and financial constraints
- c)Inadequate infrastructure for shipbuilding
- d)Regulatory hurdles and red tape
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary economic challenge faced by the Indian shipping industry despite the government's efforts to enhance the maritime sector?
a)
Lack of skilled workforce
b)
High borrowing costs and financial constraints
c)
Inadequate infrastructure for shipbuilding
d)
Regulatory hurdles and red tape
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
The Indian shipping industry, despite governmental efforts to boost the maritime sector, faces substantial financial challenges such as high borrowing costs and financial constraints. These obstacles hinder the industry's growth and competitiveness. Addressing these financial issues is crucial for the sustainable development of India's shipping sector.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The loggerhead turtle is the world's largest hard-shelled turtle, slightly larger than the Green sea turtle and the Galapagos tortoise.Statement-II:
Loggerhead turtles are omnivorous, primarily feeding on bottom-dwelling invertebrates, including gastropods, bivalves, and decapods, and have the most extensive known diet of any sea turtle.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The loggerhead turtle is the world's largest hard-shelled turtle, slightly larger than the Green sea turtle and the Galapagos tortoise.
The loggerhead turtle is the world's largest hard-shelled turtle, slightly larger than the Green sea turtle and the Galapagos tortoise.
Statement-II:
Loggerhead turtles are omnivorous, primarily feeding on bottom-dwelling invertebrates, including gastropods, bivalves, and decapods, and have the most extensive known diet of any sea turtle.
Loggerhead turtles are omnivorous, primarily feeding on bottom-dwelling invertebrates, including gastropods, bivalves, and decapods, and have the most extensive known diet of any sea turtle.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
Statement-I correctly identifies the loggerhead turtle as the world's largest hard-shelled turtle, slightly larger than the Green sea turtle and the Galapagos tortoise. Statement-II accurately describes the diet of loggerhead turtles, highlighting their omnivorous nature and preference for bottom-dwelling invertebrates. The second statement complements the first by providing specific details about the turtle's diet, thereby explaining the significance of the first statement. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Similipal Tiger Reserve:1. The Similipal Tiger Reserve was designated as a wildlife sanctuary in 1979 and later recognized as a Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 2009.2. The reserve is predominantly characterized by Northern tropical dry deciduous forests.3. Similipal Tiger Reserve is home to over 50 species of mammals and 300 species of birds.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Similipal Tiger Reserve:
1. The Similipal Tiger Reserve was designated as a wildlife sanctuary in 1979 and later recognized as a Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 2009.
2. The reserve is predominantly characterized by Northern tropical dry deciduous forests.
3. Similipal Tiger Reserve is home to over 50 species of mammals and 300 species of birds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The Similipal Tiger Reserve was indeed designated as a wildlife sanctuary in 1979, and it was recognized as a Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 2009.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The vegetation of the Similipal Tiger Reserve is predominantly Northern tropical moist deciduous forests rather than Northern tropical dry deciduous forests. This is a key characteristic of the reserve's ecology, making the statement false.
- Statement 3 is correct. The reserve is known for its rich biodiversity, including over 50 species of mammals and 300 species of birds, highlighting its importance as a biodiverse habitat.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3, which makes Option C the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Solvent Extractors’ Association of India (SEA) has requested the Government to impose regulations on the import of edible oils from Nepal and other SAARC countries due to misuse of SAFTA norms.
Statement-II:
The Union Budget 2025 has allocated Rs. 96,777 crore for urban development, reflecting a continued increase in budgetary allocations for this sector.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Solvent Extractors’ Association of India (SEA) has requested the Government to impose regulations on the import of edible oils from Nepal and other SAARC countries due to misuse of SAFTA norms.
Statement-II:
The Union Budget 2025 has allocated Rs. 96,777 crore for urban development, reflecting a continued increase in budgetary allocations for this sector.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Solvent Extractors’ Association of India (SEA) has requested the Government to impose regulations on the import of edible oils from Nepal and other SAARC countries due to misuse of SAFTA norms.
Statement-II:
The Union Budget 2025 has allocated Rs. 96,777 crore for urban development, reflecting a continued increase in budgetary allocations for this sector.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Statement-I is correct as it highlights the request made by the Solvent Extractors’ Association of India regarding the regulation of edible oil imports from Nepal and other SAARC countries under SAFTA due to misuse.
Statement-II is also correct as it mentions the allocation of Rs. 96,777 crore for urban development in the Union Budget 2025, showing a consistent increase in budgetary allocations for this sector.
However, Statement-I and Statement-II are unrelated, focusing on different topics - one on trade regulations and the other on urban development budgets. Therefore, while both statements are individually correct, they do not explain each other.
Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA), 2010:1. The operator's liability for nuclear disasters under the CLNDA is capped at ₹1,500 crores, and any claims exceeding this amount are to be managed by the government.2. The CLNDA mandates that any nuclear incident must be reported to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board within 15 days.3. The government's liability under the CLNDA is capped at the equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA), 2010:
1. The operator's liability for nuclear disasters under the CLNDA is capped at ₹1,500 crores, and any claims exceeding this amount are to be managed by the government.
2. The CLNDA mandates that any nuclear incident must be reported to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board within 15 days.
3. The government's liability under the CLNDA is capped at the equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
1. Statement 1 is correct. The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA), 2010, specifies that the operator's liability for nuclear disasters is capped at ₹1,500 crores. This means that the operator is responsible for compensations up to this limit, and if claims exceed this amount, the government is expected to step in to manage the additional claims.
2. Statement 2 is also correct. The CLNDA mandates a specific timeline for reporting nuclear incidents. It requires that any incident must be reported to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board within 15 days to ensure timely action and assessment of the situation.
3. Statement 3 is correct as well. According to the CLNDA, the government's liability is limited to the equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), which is approximately ₹2,100 to ₹2,300 crores. This establishes a clear cap on the government's financial responsibility in the event of nuclear damage.
All three statements accurately reflect the provisions and stipulations under the CLNDA. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA) serves as the legal framework for addressing nuclear incidents in India, established by Parliament in 2010.
Statement-II:
Graphene is a two-dimensional material made up of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a honeycomb lattice.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA) serves as the legal framework for addressing nuclear incidents in India, established by Parliament in 2010.
Statement-II:
Graphene is a two-dimensional material made up of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a honeycomb lattice.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA) serves as the legal framework for addressing nuclear incidents in India, established by Parliament in 2010.
Statement-II:
Graphene is a two-dimensional material made up of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a honeycomb lattice.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Statement-I is correct as the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA) does indeed serve as the legal framework for addressing nuclear incidents in India, established by Parliament in 2010. Statement-II is also correct as it accurately describes graphene as a two-dimensional material made up of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a honeycomb lattice. Moreover, Statement-II explains Statement-I by providing additional information about a different scientific concept.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) occurs when the small arteries in the lungs become thickened and narrowed, obstructing blood flow and raising blood pressure in the lungs.Statement-II:The exact cause of PAH is clearly understood and is believed to result from injury to the cells lining lung blood vessels, leading to vascular disease.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) occurs when the small arteries in the lungs become thickened and narrowed, obstructing blood flow and raising blood pressure in the lungs.
Statement-II:
The exact cause of PAH is clearly understood and is believed to result from injury to the cells lining lung blood vessels, leading to vascular disease.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Academic Studio answered |
Statement-I correctly describes Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) as a condition where the small arteries in the lungs thicken and narrow, leading to obstructed blood flow and increased blood pressure in the lungs. This is an accurate description of PAH.
However, Statement-II is incorrect in stating that the exact cause of PAH is clearly understood. In reality, while there are known factors that contribute to PAH such as injury to lung blood vessels, the exact cause of PAH is not entirely understood. PAH is a complex condition with multiple potential causes, including genetic predispositions, environmental factors, and other medical conditions.
Consider the following statements regarding the MITRA platform launched by SEBI:1. The MITRA platform is designed to assist investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed mutual fund folios.2. A mutual fund folio is classified as inactive if there have been no transactions—financial or non-financial—for a period of five years.3. The platform encourages compliance with Know Your Customer (KYC) norms.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the MITRA platform launched by SEBI:
1. The MITRA platform is designed to assist investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed mutual fund folios.
2. A mutual fund folio is classified as inactive if there have been no transactions—financial or non-financial—for a period of five years.
3. The platform encourages compliance with Know Your Customer (KYC) norms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The MITRA platform, launched by SEBI, is indeed designed to assist investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed mutual fund folios. This is one of the primary purposes of the platform, as it aims to help investors who may have lost track of their investments over time.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The criteria for a mutual fund folio to be classified as inactive is if there have been no investor-initiated transactions—financial or non-financial—for a period of ten years, not five years.
- Statement 3 is correct. The MITRA platform encourages compliance with Know Your Customer (KYC) norms. Ensuring updated KYC information is crucial for investors to manage their investments effectively and for reclaiming any unclaimed or inactive folios.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, which aligns with Option C: 1 and 3 Only.
Consider the following statements regarding Dayanand Saraswati:1. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in the year 1875 to promote social reforms and education.2. He authored the book "Satyarth Prakash," which advocates for the adoption of Western principles over traditional Indian values.3. Dayanand Saraswati was an advocate for women's education and opposed practices like child marriage and untouchability.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Dayanand Saraswati:
1. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in the year 1875 to promote social reforms and education.
2. He authored the book "Satyarth Prakash," which advocates for the adoption of Western principles over traditional Indian values.
3. Dayanand Saraswati was an advocate for women's education and opposed practices like child marriage and untouchability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
1. Statement 1 is correct. Dayanand Saraswati indeed founded the Arya Samaj in 1875, which was a movement aimed at promoting social reforms and education, and was rooted in a return to Vedic principles.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Dayanand Saraswati did author "Satyarth Prakash," the book advocates for a return to Vedic principles rather than the adoption of Western principles. It is aimed at reforming Hindu society by removing superstitions and promoting rationality based on Vedic teachings.
3. Statement 3 is correct. Dayanand Saraswati was a strong advocate for women's education and worked against social practices such as child marriage and untouchability, which he viewed as detrimental to societal progress.
Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Arab League:1. The Arab League was established with the primary objective of military coordination among its member states.2. Consensus-based decision-making in the Arab League requires all member states to agree on significant resolutions.3. The Arab League's Arab Peace Initiative aimed to provide a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Arab League:
1. The Arab League was established with the primary objective of military coordination among its member states.
2. Consensus-based decision-making in the Arab League requires all member states to agree on significant resolutions.
3. The Arab League's Arab Peace Initiative aimed to provide a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
2 and 3 Only
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
1. Statement 1: Incorrect. While military coordination is one of the objectives of the Arab League, it is not the primary objective. The Arab League's primary objectives focus on economic, cultural, political, and military cooperation among member states. Therefore, stating that the primary objective is military coordination alone is inaccurate.
2. Statement 2: Correct. The Arab League makes decisions based on consensus among its member states, which means that all member states must agree on significant resolutions. This consensus-based approach emphasizes collaboration among the member states.
3. Statement 3: Correct. The Arab Peace Initiative, proposed in 2002, is indeed an effort by the Arab League to provide a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, advocating for peace in the region. This initiative was a significant diplomatic move by the Arab League to address this long-standing conflict.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option D, as statements 2 and 3 are correct based on the objectives and initiatives of the Arab League.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
India's telecom regulator, TRAI, has introduced new regulations under the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR), 2018, aimed at reducing spam calls and messages.Statement-II:
The Maharashtra cyber police have denied YouTuber Samay Raina’s request for more time to join the investigation into a case against him, podcaster Ranveer Allahbadia, and others, due to an "obscene joke" made by Allahbadia on Raina's show.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India's telecom regulator, TRAI, has introduced new regulations under the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR), 2018, aimed at reducing spam calls and messages.
India's telecom regulator, TRAI, has introduced new regulations under the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR), 2018, aimed at reducing spam calls and messages.
Statement-II:
The Maharashtra cyber police have denied YouTuber Samay Raina’s request for more time to join the investigation into a case against him, podcaster Ranveer Allahbadia, and others, due to an "obscene joke" made by Allahbadia on Raina's show.
The Maharashtra cyber police have denied YouTuber Samay Raina’s request for more time to join the investigation into a case against him, podcaster Ranveer Allahbadia, and others, due to an "obscene joke" made by Allahbadia on Raina's show.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
Statement-I is correct as it accurately reflects the introduction of new regulations by TRAI to combat spam calls and messages. Statement-II is also correct, mentioning the denial of more time to YouTuber Samay Raina by the Maharashtra cyber police due to an "obscene joke" made by Ranveer Allahbadia. However, there is no direct correlation or explanation between the two statements, making option (b) the correct choice.
What is the primary objective of the regulations introduced by TRAI under the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR), 2018?- a)To increase the number of promotional calls received by users.
- b)To enhance monitoring mechanisms for detecting spam activity.
- c)To reduce the fines imposed on telecom operators.
- d)To allow telemarketers to use normal 10-digit numbers for promotional calls.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the regulations introduced by TRAI under the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR), 2018?
a)
To increase the number of promotional calls received by users.
b)
To enhance monitoring mechanisms for detecting spam activity.
c)
To reduce the fines imposed on telecom operators.
d)
To allow telemarketers to use normal 10-digit numbers for promotional calls.
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
The primary objective of the regulations introduced by TRAI under the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR), 2018, is to enhance monitoring mechanisms for detecting spam activity. These regulations aim to reduce the number of spam calls and messages by requiring telecom operators to analyze call and SMS patterns in real time to identify spammers and take necessary actions. This is a crucial step in combating the persistent issue of spam communications faced by millions of Indians.
Consider the following statements regarding the condition known as "Foetus in Foetu":1. Foetus in foetu is a rare congenital disorder where a malformed foetus develops inside the body of its twin.2. This condition often results in the parasitic twin exhibiting fully developed vital organs.3. Foetus in foetu is typically found in monozygotic twin pregnancies and can remain undetected for many years.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the condition known as "Foetus in Foetu":
1. Foetus in foetu is a rare congenital disorder where a malformed foetus develops inside the body of its twin.
2. This condition often results in the parasitic twin exhibiting fully developed vital organs.
3. Foetus in foetu is typically found in monozygotic twin pregnancies and can remain undetected for many years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
1. Statement 1 is correct. Foetus in foetu is indeed a rare congenital disorder where a malformed foetus develops inside the body of its twin. This condition is characterized by one twin being significantly underdeveloped and becoming enveloped within the other twin's body.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the parasitic twin may exhibit some characteristics of a normal foetus, such as an umbilical cord-like structure, it typically lacks fully developed vital organs. This is a distinguishing feature of foetus in foetu, differentiating it from other conditions like teratomas.
3. Statement 3 is correct. Foetus in foetu usually occurs in monozygotic (identical) twin pregnancies, where one twin becomes enveloped within the other. It can often remain undetected for many years due to its location and the subtlety of its symptoms.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only, as both statements 1 and 3 accurately describe aspects of the foetus in foetu condition, while statement 2 does not.
Consider the following pairs:1. Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) : Reflects the percentage of the working-age population that is employed.
2. Worker Population Ratio (WPR) : Represents the proportion of the population that is employed.
3. Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC) : Facilitates oil transport from Tengiz oil field in Kazakhstan to Russian Black Sea port of Novorossiysk.
4. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) : Operates regional offices in Guwahati, Patna, Kochi, Bhubaneswar, and Kolkata.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) : Reflects the percentage of the working-age population that is employed.
2. Worker Population Ratio (WPR) : Represents the proportion of the population that is employed.
3. Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC) : Facilitates oil transport from Tengiz oil field in Kazakhstan to Russian Black Sea port of Novorossiysk.
4. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) : Operates regional offices in Guwahati, Patna, Kochi, Bhubaneswar, and Kolkata.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
2. Worker Population Ratio (WPR) : Represents the proportion of the population that is employed.
3. Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC) : Facilitates oil transport from Tengiz oil field in Kazakhstan to Russian Black Sea port of Novorossiysk.
4. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) : Operates regional offices in Guwahati, Patna, Kochi, Bhubaneswar, and Kolkata.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
1. Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): Incorrectly matched. LFPR reflects the percentage of the working-age population that is either employed or actively seeking employment, not just those who are employed. It measures the active portion of an economy's labor force.
2. Worker Population Ratio (WPR): Correctly matched. WPR indeed represents the proportion of the population that is employed. It is a direct measure of the employment level within the population.
3. Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC): Correctly matched. The CPC is a major pipeline that facilitates oil transport from the Tengiz oil field in Kazakhstan to the Russian Black Sea port of Novorossiysk, crucial for Kazakhstan's oil exports.
4. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI): Correctly matched. IWAI is responsible for the development and maintenance of inland waterways in India, with regional offices in Guwahati, Patna, Kochi, Bhubaneswar, and Kolkata.
In conclusion, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs regarding the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs):
1. Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 - Includes the Chief Justice of India in the selection panel.
2. Article 324 - Empowers the Election Commission of India to oversee elections.
3. Section 7(1) of the 2023 Act - Excludes the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee.
4. Article 141 - Allows the Supreme Court to issue binding decisions.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs):
1. Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 - Includes the Chief Justice of India in the selection panel.
2. Article 324 - Empowers the Election Commission of India to oversee elections.
3. Section 7(1) of the 2023 Act - Excludes the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee.
4. Article 141 - Allows the Supreme Court to issue binding decisions.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 - Includes the Chief Justice of India in the selection panel.
2. Article 324 - Empowers the Election Commission of India to oversee elections.
3. Section 7(1) of the 2023 Act - Excludes the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee.
4. Article 141 - Allows the Supreme Court to issue binding decisions.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
1. Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 - Includes the Chief Justice of India in the selection panel: Incorrect. The 2023 Act specifically excludes the Chief Justice of India from the selection panel, which has been a point of contention and legal challenge.
2. Article 324 - Empowers the Election Commission of India to oversee elections: Correct. Article 324 of the Constitution of India indeed empowers the Election Commission to supervise, direct, and control the conduct of elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and offices of the President and Vice-President of India.
3. Section 7(1) of the 2023 Act - Excludes the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee: Correct. Section 7(1) of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, excludes the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee, which consists of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition.
4. Article 141 - Allows the Supreme Court to issue binding decisions: Correct. Article 141 of the Constitution states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
Three pairs are correctly matched as per the above analysis.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Aravalli Range acts as a natural green barrier, preventing the Thar Desert's expansion into eastern Rajasthan and the Gangetic plains.Statement-II:
The Aravalli hills play a crucial role in groundwater recharge, acting as natural aquifers.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Aravalli Range acts as a natural green barrier, preventing the Thar Desert's expansion into eastern Rajasthan and the Gangetic plains.
The Aravalli Range acts as a natural green barrier, preventing the Thar Desert's expansion into eastern Rajasthan and the Gangetic plains.
Statement-II:
The Aravalli hills play a crucial role in groundwater recharge, acting as natural aquifers.
The Aravalli hills play a crucial role in groundwater recharge, acting as natural aquifers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
Statement-I correctly highlights the ecological role of the Aravalli Range as a natural green barrier, preventing the expansion of the Thar Desert into neighboring regions. Statement-II complements this by explaining another significant role of the Aravalli hills in groundwater recharge, functioning as natural aquifers. The groundwater recharge aspect is crucial for maintaining ecological balance and supporting the local ecosystem. Therefore, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II indeed provides additional insight that explains the significance of Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs related to the renewed India-US nuclear cooperation:1. 123 Civil Nuclear Agreement - Signed in 2007 to enhance civil nuclear energy collaboration2. Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) - Technology transfer from India to the US3. Holtec International - Partnering with India's Department of Atomic Energy for SMR collaborations4. Large-Scale Localisation - Favors domestic manufacturing of American-designed reactors in the USHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to the renewed India-US nuclear cooperation:
1. 123 Civil Nuclear Agreement - Signed in 2007 to enhance civil nuclear energy collaboration
2. Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) - Technology transfer from India to the US
3. Holtec International - Partnering with India's Department of Atomic Energy for SMR collaborations
4. Large-Scale Localisation - Favors domestic manufacturing of American-designed reactors in the US
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
1. 123 Civil Nuclear Agreement - Correctly matched. The 123 Civil Nuclear Agreement was indeed signed in 2007 with the aim to enhance civil nuclear energy collaboration between India and the US.
2. Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) - Incorrectly matched. The renewed cooperation focuses on Indian efforts to utilize private sector expertise to enter the SMR market, not transferring technology to the US. Thus, the direction of technology transfer in the pair is incorrect.
3. Holtec International - Correctly matched. Holtec International is indeed in discussions with India’s Department of Atomic Energy for potential SMR collaborations, addressing technological and economic challenges.
4. Large-Scale Localisation - Incorrectly matched. The agreement emphasizes the joint construction of American-designed reactors in India, promoting local manufacturing and potential technology transfer to India, rather than favoring domestic manufacturing in the US.
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 2 and 4 are incorrectly matched. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.
What recent diplomatic event between India and China suggests a potential improvement in their relations?- a)The meeting between the Indian Prime Minister and the Chinese President
- b)The visit of India's Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri to China
- c)The signing of a new trade agreement between India and China
- d)The joint military exercise conducted by India and China
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What recent diplomatic event between India and China suggests a potential improvement in their relations?
a)
The meeting between the Indian Prime Minister and the Chinese President
b)
The visit of India's Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri to China
c)
The signing of a new trade agreement between India and China
d)
The joint military exercise conducted by India and China
|
Divey Sethi answered |
The recent visit of India's Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri to China signifies a potential thaw in India-China relations. This diplomatic engagement is a crucial step towards rebuilding bilateral exchanges and addressing key issues such as border stability and economic concerns. It indicates a strategic effort to normalize diplomatic relations between the two nations.
Consider the following pairs:1. Perovskite Nanocrystal: Material with a crystal structure similar to calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3).2. Palamu Tiger Reserve: Located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region, known for tropical rainforests.3. Three-Language Formula: Policy allowing states to choose three languages, with at least two being native to India.4. CsPbX3: A type of perovskite nanocrystal with applications in optoelectronics.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Perovskite Nanocrystal: Material with a crystal structure similar to calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3).
2. Palamu Tiger Reserve: Located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region, known for tropical rainforests.
3. Three-Language Formula: Policy allowing states to choose three languages, with at least two being native to India.
4. CsPbX3: A type of perovskite nanocrystal with applications in optoelectronics.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
1. Perovskite Nanocrystal: Correctly matched. Perovskite nanocrystals indeed share a crystal structure with calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3), having the general formula ABX3.
2. Palamu Tiger Reserve: Incorrectly matched. While the Palamu Tiger Reserve is located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region, it is not known for tropical rainforests. It is dominated by Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous forests, primarily Sal Forests.
3. Three-Language Formula: Correctly matched. The three-language formula in the NEP 2020 allows states to choose three languages, ensuring at least two are native to India. This framework provides flexibility and is designed to accommodate linguistic diversity.
4. CsPbX3: Correctly matched. CsPbX3 represents a type of perovskite nanocrystal used in various optoelectronic applications, particularly in solar cells and LEDs, due to its compositional flexibility and superior properties.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched, confirming that Option C is the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:1. Servicification of Manufacturing - Involves only outsourcing non-core functions to service providers.2. Production Stage Servicification - Utilization of automation, AI, and data analytics to improve efficiency.3. Product Enhancement Servicification - Offering subscription-based or leasing models.4. Business Model Transformation - Transitioning from product sales to solution offerings, such as subscription-based or leasing models.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Servicification of Manufacturing - Involves only outsourcing non-core functions to service providers.
2. Production Stage Servicification - Utilization of automation, AI, and data analytics to improve efficiency.
3. Product Enhancement Servicification - Offering subscription-based or leasing models.
4. Business Model Transformation - Transitioning from product sales to solution offerings, such as subscription-based or leasing models.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Lohit Matani answered |
1. Servicification of Manufacturing - Involves only outsourcing non-core functions to service providers.
- Incorrect. Servicification of Manufacturing involves more than just outsourcing non-core functions; it also includes integrating services such as maintenance, consulting, and digital solutions alongside traditional products.
2. Production Stage Servicification - Utilization of automation, AI, and data analytics to improve efficiency.
- Correct. This correctly describes one aspect of servicification at the production stage, where technology is used to enhance efficiency.
3. Product Enhancement Servicification - Offering subscription-based or leasing models.
- Incorrect. Product Enhancement Servicification typically involves offering services like installation, maintenance, and software updates with products, not subscription-based or leasing models.
4. Business Model Transformation - Transitioning from product sales to solution offerings, such as subscription-based or leasing models.
- Correct. This correctly describes the business model transformation stage of servicification, where companies shift from traditional product sales to offering comprehensive solutions, often through subscription-based or leasing models.
Thus, pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched, making the correct option: Option B, Only two pairs.
Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam.
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