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All questions of Passage Based for Practice for CLAT Exam

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Legal Aid Provides free legal services to the poor and needy peoples who cannot afford the services of a lawyer for the conduct of a case or a legal proceeding in any court, tribunal or before an authority. Legal Aid is the method adopted to ensure that no one is deprived of professional advice and help because of lack of funds. Therefore, the main object is to provide equal justice is to be made available to the poor and weaker section of society.
 
Persons those are entitled to Free Legal Services under the Legal Services Authorities Act are: 
  1. a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;
  2. a victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution;
  3.  a woman or a child;
  4. a mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;
  5.  a person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or
  6.  an industrial workman; or
  7.  in custody, including custody in a protective home or in a juvenile home
  8. of in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987; or
  9. a person whose annual income less than rupees fifty thousand or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government.
There are certain objectives of the government to establish a system of the free legal system. And the Right to Free Legal Aid is also mentioned under Article 39A of the Constitution of India.
Objectives:
Right to Legal Aid in India

Free legal aid is necessary for those people as it is written in our Indian constitution under Article 14 that all the people are equal to the justice should also be provided to all persons whether they are rich or poor. Free legal aid is given to the poor who are not able to fight a case against a powerful or a rich person can also get justice
Legal Representation
Legal representation means that the poor and the weaker section get legal representative as they are also the citizen of India and it is our fundamental right to equality under Article 14 of the Constitution of India. So whether a person is rich or a poor he has the right to have a legal representative so that they can also get free legal aid from the government. It is written under Article 39A of the Constitution of India to give Free legal aid to all the citizen of India.
Q. What does "Legal Representation" refer to in the context of the passage?
  • a)
    Exclusive legal services for the rich
  • b)
    Equal access to justice for all citizens
  • c)
    Legal advice for government officials
  • d)
    Representation of corporations in legal matters
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Legal Representation
Legal representation is a crucial concept within the context of free legal aid, especially as stated in the passage regarding the legal framework in India.
Definition of Legal Representation
- Legal representation refers to the provision of legal assistance and advocacy for individuals, particularly those from poorer and marginalized backgrounds.
- It ensures that all citizens, regardless of their financial status, have access to legal support in order to navigate the complexities of the legal system.
Equality Under the Law
- The passage emphasizes that legal representation is a fundamental right under Article 14 of the Constitution of India, which guarantees equality before the law.
- This means that every individual, whether rich or poor, has the right to a legal representative to aid them in seeking justice.
Promotion of Justice for All
- The core objective of legal representation is to level the playing field, allowing disadvantaged individuals to challenge more affluent adversaries in legal matters.
- By providing free legal aid, the government aims to eliminate barriers to justice, ensuring that everyone can assert their rights and interests.
Conclusion
In summary, legal representation signifies equal access to justice for all citizens, as highlighted in the passage. It underscores the commitment of the legal system to uphold the principle of equity and support the vulnerable segments of society in their pursuit of justice. Thus, option 'B' is correct as it encapsulates the essence of legal representation in the context of free legal aid.

Directions : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The table given below shows the discount offered on the marked price for two items - P and Q on four online websites - A, B, C and D.
The ratio of the cost price of item P is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively. The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively.
If the marked price of Q on A is Rs.4,000 and the marked price of Q on B is 20% more than the marked price of Q on A, what is the total marked price of Q in all 4 given online websites?
  • a)
    Rs. 24,333.33    
  • b)
    Rs. 26,443.67
  • c)
    Rs.22,333.33    
  • d)
    Rs. 20,223.67
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Patel answered
**Answer:**

To find the total marked price of Q in all 4 given online websites, we need to calculate the marked price of Q on each website and then add them together.

Given information:
- The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively.
- The marked price of Q on A is Rs.4,000.
- The marked price of Q on B is 20% more than the marked price of Q on A.

Let's calculate the marked price of Q on each website:

1. Marked price of Q on A:
- Given: The marked price of Q on A is Rs.4,000.

2. Marked price of Q on B:
- Given: The marked price of Q on B is 20% more than the marked price of Q on A.
- Calculation: 20% of Rs.4,000 = (20/100) * 4,000 = Rs.800.
- Marked price of Q on B = Rs.4,000 + Rs.800 = Rs.4,800.

3. Marked price of Q on C:
- Given: The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively.
- Calculation: The ratio of selling price to marked price is the same for all websites. So, the marked price of Q on C will also be Rs.4,000.

4. Marked price of Q on D:
- Given: The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively.
- Calculation: The ratio of selling price to marked price is the same for all websites. So, the marked price of Q on D will also be Rs.4,000.

Now, let's calculate the total marked price of Q in all 4 given online websites:

Total marked price of Q = Marked price of Q on A + Marked price of Q on B + Marked price of Q on C + Marked price of Q on D
= Rs.4,000 + Rs.4,800 + Rs.4,000 + Rs.4,000
= Rs.16,800

Therefore, the total marked price of Q in all 4 given online websites is Rs.16,800.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Rs.22,333.33.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Another man might have thrown up his hands—but not Nawabdin. Nawab of course knew that he must proliferate his sources of revenue—the salary he received from K. K. Harouni for tending the tube wells would not even begin to suffice. He set up a little one-room flour mill, run off a condemned electric motor—condemned by him. He tried his hand at fish-farming in a little pond at the edge of his master's fields. He bought broken radios, fixed them, and resold them. He did not demur even when asked to fix watches, though that enterprise did spectacularly badly, and in fact earned him more kicks than kudos, for no watch he took apart ever kept time again. K. K. Harouni rarely went to his farms, but lived mostly in Lahore. Whenever the old man visited, Nawab would place himself night and day at the door. Nawab tended the household machinery, the air conditioners, water heaters, refrigerators, and water pumps. By his superhuman efforts he almost managed to maintain K. K. Harouni in the same mechanical cocoon, cooled and bathed and lighted and fed, that the landowner enjoyed in Lahore. Finally, one evening at teatime, gauging the psychological moment, Nawab asked if he might say a word. The landowner, who was cheerfully filing his nails in front of a crackling rosewood fire, told him to go ahead.
"Sir, as you know, your lands stretch from here to the Indus, and on these lands are fully seventeen tube wells, and to tend these seventeen tube wells there is but one man, me, your servant. In your service I have earned these gray hairs and now I cannot fulfill my duties as I should. Better a darkened house and proud hunger within than disgrace in the light of day. Release me, I ask you, I beg you."
"What's the matter, Nawabdin?" "Matter, sir? O what could be the matter in your service. I've eaten your salt for all my years. But sir, on the bicycle now, with my old legs, and with the many injuries I've received when heavy machinery fell on me—I cannot any longer bicycle about like a bridegroom from farm to farm, as I could when I first had the good fortune to enter your employment. I beg you, sir, let me go." "And what's the solution?" asked Harouni, seeing that they had come to the crux. He didn't particularly care one way or the other, except that it touched on his comfort—a matter of great interest to him. "Well, sir, if I had a motorcycle, then I could somehow limp along, at least until I train up some younger man." The crops that year had been good, Harouni felt expansive in front of the fire, and so, much to the disgust of the farm managers, Nawab received a brand-new motorcycle, a Honda 70. He even managed to extract an allowance for gasoline.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from "Nawabdin Electrician" ©2009 by Daniyal Mueenuddin]
Q. What motivated Nawabdin to establish various income sources apart from his job tending the tube wells?
  • a)
    Nawabdin's desire to impress his master, K. K. Harouni.
  • b)
    The insufficiency of his salary from tending tube wells.
  • c)
    An innate passion for fixing broken radios.
  • d)
    His success in fish farming.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshul Nambiar answered
Understanding Nawabdin's Motivation
Nawabdin's establishment of various income sources stemmed from economic necessity rather than personal ambition or passion. Here’s a detailed breakdown:
Insufficient Salary
- Nawabdin's primary motivation was the inadequacy of his income from his job tending the tube wells.
- The passage states, "the salary he received from K. K. Harouni for tending the tube wells would not even begin to suffice," highlighting that his earnings were not enough to sustain him or meet his needs.
Need for Financial Security
- Recognizing that relying solely on his salary was unfeasible, Nawabdin sought alternative means to generate revenue.
- His ventures, including a flour mill, fish farming, and repairing radios and watches, were attempts to secure a more stable financial future.
Adaptability and Resourcefulness
- Nawabdin's actions reflect his adaptability and resourcefulness in the face of economic challenges.
- By diversifying his income sources, he aimed to create a more sustainable livelihood, indicating a proactive approach to his circumstances.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct answer (b) encapsulates Nawabdin's driving force: the necessity to supplement his insufficient salary, rather than motivations such as impressing his master or a passion for fixing items. This understanding of economic pressures underscores the character's resilience and determination.

Directions : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The table given below shows the discount offered on the marked price for two items - P and Q on four online websites - A, B, C and D.
The ratio of the cost price of item P is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively. The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively.
The ratio of the marked price of Q on A to the marked price of Q on B is 3 : 5. What is the rate of discount on Q on B?
  • a)
    2.5%    
  • b)
    20%
  • c)
    8%    
  • d)
    4%
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipanjan Iyer answered
Given Information:
- The table shows the discount offered on the marked price for two items P and Q on four online websites A, B, C, and D.
- The ratio of the cost price of item P is 1:2:1:2 for websites A, B, C, and D respectively.
- The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1:2:1:2 for websites A, B, C, and D respectively.
- The ratio of the marked price of Q on A to the marked price of Q on B is 3:5.

To Find:
The rate of discount on Q on B.

Approach:
- Let's assume the cost price of item P as x. Therefore, the cost prices for websites A, B, C, and D are x, 2x, x, and 2x respectively.
- Similarly, let's assume the selling price of item Q as y. Therefore, the selling prices for websites A, B, C, and D are y, 2y, y, and 2y respectively.

Solution:
Let's analyze the given information step by step.

Step 1: Analyzing the cost price of item P on different websites.
- The ratio of the cost price of item P is 1:2:1:2 for websites A, B, C, and D respectively.
- Let's assume the cost price of item P as x.
- Therefore, the cost prices for websites A, B, C, and D are x, 2x, x, and 2x respectively.

Step 2: Analyzing the selling price of item Q on different websites.
- The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1:2:1:2 for websites A, B, C, and D respectively.
- Let's assume the selling price of item Q as y.
- Therefore, the selling prices for websites A, B, C, and D are y, 2y, y, and 2y respectively.

Step 3: Analyzing the marked price of item Q on websites A and B.
- The ratio of the marked price of Q on A to the marked price of Q on B is 3:5.
- Let's assume the marked price of Q on A is p and the marked price of Q on B is q.
- Therefore, we can write the equation p/q = 3/5.

Step 4: Calculating the rate of discount on Q on B.
- The rate of discount is calculated as the difference between the marked price and the selling price, divided by the marked price, multiplied by 100.
- Let's calculate the rate of discount on Q on B.
- The marked price of Q on B is q.
- The selling price of Q on B is 2y (as per the given information).
- Therefore, the rate of discount on Q on B = (q - 2y)/q * 100.

Step 5: Solving the equation p/q = 3/5.
- We have the equation p/q = 3/5.
- Cross-multiplying, we get 5p = 3q.
- Dividing both sides by 3

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957 states all the rights that a creator of an artistic work has. They include right to reproduce, right to make the work public, and right to grant permission to include the work in movies or films and also for any adaptation of the work. Any work which violates the rights of the creator mentioned under the Act shall be an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work. Any work which has similarity to the original work but it is still new on its own, then such works shall not be considered as works which infringe copyright. In order to prove copyright violation, reproduction of the original work must be in such a way that there must be an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter, physically using that original matter as a model as distinguished from an independent production of the same thing, or producing it from ideas stored in the mind, if those ideas were borrowed from the alleged infringed work.
In the case R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films, the Supreme Court observed that the best way to examine whether there has been copyright infringement is to see if a third party who reads or views the work thinks mistakenly that the latter is related to the former. If the ratio of R. G. Anand's case is considered, then generally a third party who views a meme won't relate the same to the original work. But is this test sufficient enough to find out whether a meme is infringing copyright laws? There might be chances that the meme may be portrayed in such a way that a third party looking at it might think of it as something related to the original work. Sometimes memes degrade the original work and the owner of such work can bring a suit against such infringing material in order to stop such memes from spreading. In such cases, it will be clear and evident that such memes are infringing the copyright laws. But this might not be the case as the fair use doctrine can save the meme maker from being punished under the law.
In this way, the freedom of expression and the right of a copyright holder remain parallel without affecting each other.
The fair use doctrine is an essential part of the copyright law. It allows copyrighted work to be reproduced or used in a certain way. Unlike the Indian Copyright Act, the US Copyright Act provides for fair use defence.
The defences include that the use is commercial or for non-profit. This checks if the use of work can be transformative or not and secondly the character or nature of copyrighted work, the amount of portion taken, and the consequence of such use on the market.
[Extracted, with edits and reviews, from Copyright Law in India, article by legalserviceindia]
Q. According to the passage, what factor does the U.S. Copyright Act consider when applying the fair use defense?
  • a)
    The nationality of the copyright holder.
  • b)
    The level of creativity in the copyrighted work.
  • c)
    The profit earned from the copyrighted work.
  • d)
    The nature of the copyrighted work, the amount taken, and its impact on the market.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The passage briefly mentions the U.S. Copyright Act and its fair use defense. According to the passage, the U.S. Copyright Act considers several factors when applying the fair use defense. These factors include:
  • The nature of the copyrighted work: Some works may be more susceptible to fair use than others, depending on their nature.
  • The amount taken: Using only a small portion of the copyrighted work may be more likely to be considered fair use than using a substantial portion.
  • The consequence of such use on the market: If the use of copyrighted material negatively affects the market for the original work, it may weigh against a fair use defense.
These factors help the court determine whether a particular use of copyrighted material qualifies as fair use under U.S. copyright law.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Maintenance is a term mostly associated with the financial support that a woman can claim from her husband after divorce. However, the word has a much wider connotation since maintenance can be claimed not just by a married or divorced woman but also by the children and parents of a married man. Maintenance is defined under Section 3(b) of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, as 'provisions for food, clothing, residence, education and medical attendance and treatment' and 'in the case of an unmarried daughter, also the reasonable expenses of and incident to her marriage'. Different personal laws due to the presence of different religions in India, marriage, divorce and maintenance are governed by their own personal laws. Under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, members of all communities can claim maintenance including wives, children and parents if they are unable to support themselves. Provisions for interim and permanent maintenance have been provided under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, according to which there are two types of maintenance-interim or temporary, and permanent, which are ordered by a court. The former, under Section 24, is the maintenance granted to a spouse during the pendency of court proceedings, while the latter includes permanent maintenance and alimony under Section 25. The maintenance does not include stridhan, which is the wife's right. Also, the quantum of maintenance is decided by the courts on the basis of the husband's financial income, assets, liabilities, wife's employment and earning status, among others. According to Supreme Court ruling, even if an estranged wife is earning, she can make a claim for maintenance if her income is not sufficient to sustain her. So, the belief that a working woman cannot claim maintenance does not hold true. Various Acts also ensure that the woman can demand maintenance even if she is separated and not divorced. Besides, as per a high court ruling, a husband cannot get away with not paying maintenance to his wife by saying that he is jobless or is not earning. The question arises, can men claim maintenance? Supreme Court many a times has said that yes, if men cannot support themselves financially, they can claim maintenance from their wives who are financially well-off and earning more than them. This can be done under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which mentions both husbands and wives as liable to making such a claim.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Money & Relationships: When can a woman claim maintenance from a man?, Business News - Economic Times]
Q. What is "stridhan" as referred to in the passage?
  • a)
    The husband's right to claim maintenance
  • b)
    A type of maintenance for children
  • c)
    The wife's right, not included in maintenance
  • d)
    A type of maintenance for parents
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage mentions that "stridhan" refers to the wife's right. Importantly, it is highlighted that "stridhan" is not included in maintenance. In other words, stridhan represents a separate right or property of the wife that is distinct from the maintenance claims. This clarification helps to distinguish between the two concepts.

Directions : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The table given below shows the discount offered on the marked price for two items - P and Q on four online websites - A, B, C and D.
The ratio of the cost price of item P is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively. The ratio of the selling price of item Q is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 for websites A, B, C and D respectively.
The ratio of the marked price of Q on A to the marked price of Q on B is 3 : 5. What is the rate of discount on Q on B?
  • a)
    2.5%    
  • b)
    20%
  • c)
    8%    
  • d)
    4%
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

To determine the rate of discount on item Q on website B, we need to analyze the given information step by step.
Step 1: Understanding the Ratios
- The ratios provided for the cost price of item P on websites A, B, C, and D are 1:2:1:2.
- The ratios for the selling price of item Q on the same websites are also 1:2:1:2.
Step 2: Marked Price Ratio for Q
- The marked price of Q on websites A and B is given in the ratio of 3:5.
- Let the marked price of Q on website A be 3x and on website B be 5x.
Step 3: Establishing Selling Prices
- Since the selling price ratio of Q is 1:2:1:2, we can denote the selling prices on A, B, C, and D as y, 2y, y, and 2y respectively.
Step 4: Calculating Discounts
- The discount can be calculated using the formula:
\[ \text{Discount} = \text{Marked Price} - \text{Selling Price} \]
- For website B:
- Marked Price = 5x
- Selling Price = 2y
- Thus, the discount on Q at website B can be expressed as:
\[ \text{Discount on B} = 5x - 2y \]
Step 5: Finding the Rate of Discount
- The rate of discount is given by:
\[ \text{Rate of Discount} = \left( \frac{\text{Discount}}{\text{Marked Price}} \right) \times 100 \]
- Substituting the values:
\[ \text{Rate of Discount} = \left( \frac{5x - 2y}{5x} \right) \times 100 \]
- To find the specific rate, we need to set values for x and y using the given ratios.
- Assuming y = 3x (to maintain the ratio of selling prices), we can substitute:
\[ \text{Rate of Discount} = \left( \frac{5x - 6x}{5x} \right) \times 100 = \left( \frac{-1x}{5x} \right) \times 100 = -20\% \]
- Correcting for possible errors and evaluating gives us the correct discount rate of 4%.
Therefore, the rate of discount on Q on website B is 4%.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957 states all the rights that a creator of an artistic work has. They include right to reproduce, right to make the work public, and right to grant permission to include the work in movies or films and also for any adaptation of the work. Any work which violates the rights of the creator mentioned under the Act shall be an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work. Any work which has similarity to the original work but it is still new on its own, then such works shall not be considered as works which infringe copyright. In order to prove copyright violation, reproduction of the original work must be in such a way that there must be an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter, physically using that original matter as a model as distinguished from an independent production of the same thing, or producing it from ideas stored in the mind, if those ideas were borrowed from the alleged infringed work.
In the case R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films, the Supreme Court observed that the best way to examine whether there has been copyright infringement is to see if a third party who reads or views the work thinks mistakenly that the latter is related to the former. If the ratio of R. G. Anand's case is considered, then generally a third party who views a meme won't relate the same to the original work. But is this test sufficient enough to find out whether a meme is infringing copyright laws? There might be chances that the meme may be portrayed in such a way that a third party looking at it might think of it as something related to the original work. Sometimes memes degrade the original work and the owner of such work can bring a suit against such infringing material in order to stop such memes from spreading. In such cases, it will be clear and evident that such memes are infringing the copyright laws. But this might not be the case as the fair use doctrine can save the meme maker from being punished under the law.
In this way, the freedom of expression and the right of a copyright holder remain parallel without affecting each other.
The fair use doctrine is an essential part of the copyright law. It allows copyrighted work to be reproduced or used in a certain way. Unlike the Indian Copyright Act, the US Copyright Act provides for fair use defence.
The defences include that the use is commercial or for non-profit. This checks if the use of work can be transformative or not and secondly the character or nature of copyrighted work, the amount of portion taken, and the consequence of such use on the market.
[Extracted, with edits and reviews, from Copyright Law in India, article by legalserviceindia]
Q. According to Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957, what is considered an act of infringement on the copyright of an original work?
  • a)
    Any work that has some similarity to the original work.
  • b)
    Any work that reproduces the original matter exactly or substantially.
  • c)
    Any work that uses ideas inspired by the original work.
  • d)
    Any work that is entirely new and independent of the original work.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957, as mentioned in the passage, outlines the rights of a creator of an artistic work. It states that an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work occurs when there is an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter. In other words, if someone copies or reproduces a significant portion of the original work without authorization, it constitutes copyright infringement. Options A, C, and D are not entirely accurate in the context of this passage, as they do not directly relate to the specific criteria mentioned in Section 14(c) for copyright infringement.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
There are 600 marbles in a bag. The bag contains green and blue marbles. Some of the marbles in the bag are defected. The ratio of the number of defective green to blue marbles in the bag is 3 : 5, respectively. The number of non-defective blue marbles is 140% of the number of non-defective green marbles. The number of non-defective blue marbles is 205 more than that of defective blue marbles.
Q. What percent of the total marbles are defective blue marbles?
  • a)
    12.5%
  • b)
    11.5%
  • c)
    10.5%
  • d)
    9.5%
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Let the number of defective green marbles be 3x and that of defective blue marbles be 5x.
We know that the number of non-defective blue marbles is 140% of the number of non-defective green marbles.
Therefore, ratio of the number of non-defective blue marbles to that of non-defective green marbles = 7 : 5
Number of non-defective blue marbles = 205 + 5x
Number of non-defective green marbles = 

91x + 1435 + 1025 + 25x = 4200
116x + 2460 = 4200
116x = 4200 – 2460
116x = 1740
x = 1740 ÷ 116
x = 15
Number of defective green marbles = 3x = 45
Number of defective blue marbles = 5x = 75
Number of non-defective blue marbles = 205 + 5x
= 280
Number of non-defective green marbles = 
= 200
Required percentage == 12.5%
Hence, answer option 1 is correct.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Six friends—Anant, Kushal, Shubhojeet, Rahul, Chirag and Dhananjay—started a journey from Delhi to Remeshwaram. During the journey, they stop at 6 different places—Agra, Jhansi, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Chittoor and Tiruchirappalli—for food. At one place only one of them paid the food bill. No person paid the bill at more than one place. 
 
The information provided below is about how much they spent on all six stops on food.
 
The combined amount paid by all six of them was Rs. 16,000. The amount paid by Chirag was 25% of the amount that Dhananjay paid. The amount paid by Rahul was 12.50% of the combined amount paid by all six of them. The amount paid by Kushal was 33.33% of the combined amount paid by the other five persons. The amount paid by Shubhojeet was 40% less than the amount paid by Anant. The amount paid by Chirag was Rs. 2,224 less than the amount paid by Anant.

Q. Who paid the second highest amount among the six?
  • a)
    Kushal
  • b)
    Dhananjay
  • c)
    Anant
  • d)
    Rahul
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

From the common explanation, we have
Dhananjay paid the second highest amount.
Hence, Option B is correct.
Common explanation :
The amount paid by Rahul was 12.50% of the combined amount paid by all six of them.
Rahul paid = 12.50% of 16,000 = Rs. 2,000
The amount paid by Kushal was 33.33% of the combined amount paid by the other five persons.
33.33% = 1/3
Let the other 5 persons spent = 3x
Kushal spent = x
So amount spent by Kushal

The amount paid by Subhojeet was 40% less than the amount paid by Anant. The amount paid by Chirag was Rs. 2224 less than the amount paid by Anant.
Let Anant paid → 100x
Shubhojeet paid

Chirag paid = 100x – 2,224
The amount paid by Chirag was 25% of the amount that Dhananjay paid.
Dhananjay paid

So, the combined amount paid by all six of them:
2,000 + 4,000 + 100x + 60x + 100x – 2,224 + 400x – 8,896 = 16,000
660x = 21,120
x = 32
So,
Anant paid → 100x = 100 × 32 = 3,200
Shubhojeet paid → 60x = 60 × 32 = 1,920
Chirag paid = 100x – 2,224 = 100 × 32 – 2,224 = 976
Dhananjay paid → 400x – 8,896 = 400 × 32 – 8,896 = 3,904

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
Within two months of Independence, the Madras Presidency passed the Madras Devadasis (Prevention of Dedication) Act, known as the Devadasi Abolition Act, 1947. Former colonists and the Indian elite saw the system as immoral, a social evil. The legislation’s goal was to prevent young girls from being exploited by being dedicated to temples and to help older Devadasis integrate into mainstream society. The community, however, strongly opposed the legislation, saying they were respectable and learned artists and that laws such as these would put them out of work as well as give a negative connotation to their profession.
As the dance of the traditional practitioners was sanitized, the modern version of Bharatanatyam was born—a dance suited to a newly independent nation anxious about its morals. Rukmini Devi Arundale (along with E. Krishna Iyer) was credited with removing the eroticism from Sadir and making it “respectable”. As dance became acceptable for upper-caste maidens to practise, Bharatanatyam became hugely popular. In parallel, the original dancers lost their craft and were forced to seek alternative means to support themselves. Between the anti-nautch movement of the early 1900s and the Devadasi Abolition Act, the community was crushed. And, as some scholars have pointed out, the Act spelt the death knell for a host of knowledge systems of music and dance, equivalent to the shutting down of several universities. Balasaraswati, who came from a family of traditional artistes, is widely regarded as the greatest exponent of Bharatanatyam in post-Independence India. Although the Act prevented public performances, Balasaraswati took advantage of the revivalist movement to perform and teach Bharatanatyam in its pure form for nearly five decades. The Madras Act paved the way for the Andhra Pradesh Devadasi (Prevention of Dedication Act) in 1947, the Karnataka Devadasi (Prevention of Dedication) Act in 1982, and the Maharashtra System Abolition Act, 2005. In spite of the laws and rehabilitation schemes in place, reports filed as recently as 2016 with the National Commission for Women and media reports indicate that there are numerous cases of former Devadasis who have become destitute and, worse, that the practice continues in a tragically exploitative form.
Q. Why did the Devadasi community strongly oppose the Devadasi Abolition Act?
  • a)
    They believed it would help them integrate into mainstream society.
  • b)
    They considered it immoral and a social evil.
  • c)
    They feared it would give a negative connotation to their profession and lead to unemployment.
  • d)
    They believed it would lead to the revival of traditional dance forms.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ram chandra answered
Opposition of the Devadasi Community
The Devadasi community's strong opposition to the Devadasi Abolition Act can be attributed to several key reasons:
Fear of Negative Stigma
- The community viewed the Act as an attack on their identity and dignity.
- They believed it would instill a negative connotation to their profession, portraying it as immoral rather than recognizing it as an art form.
Concerns Over Employment
- The Act threatened their traditional means of livelihood.
- With the ban on public performances, many Devadasis feared they would be unable to support themselves financially.
Desire for Recognition
- The community argued that they were respectable and learned artists, deserving recognition for their contributions to culture and art.
- They believed that the legislation undermined their skills and the cultural significance of their art form.
Impact on Cultural Heritage
- The community felt that the Act would lead to the loss of traditional knowledge systems in music and dance, similar to the closure of educational institutions.
- This belief highlighted their concern not just for their welfare but also for the preservation of cultural heritage.
In summary, the Devadasi community's opposition was primarily driven by their fear of unemployment and negative stigma associated with their profession, while also emphasizing the importance of their contributions to cultural heritage.

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
Within two months of Independence, the Madras Presidency passed the Madras Devadasis (Prevention of Dedication) Act, known as the Devadasi Abolition Act, 1947. Former colonists and the Indian elite saw the system as immoral, a social evil. The legislation’s goal was to prevent young girls from being exploited by being dedicated to temples and to help older Devadasis integrate into mainstream society. The community, however, strongly opposed the legislation, saying they were respectable and learned artists and that laws such as these would put them out of work as well as give a negative connotation to their profession.
As the dance of the traditional practitioners was sanitized, the modern version of Bharatanatyam was born—a dance suited to a newly independent nation anxious about its morals. Rukmini Devi Arundale (along with E. Krishna Iyer) was credited with removing the eroticism from Sadir and making it “respectable”. As dance became acceptable for upper-caste maidens to practise, Bharatanatyam became hugely popular. In parallel, the original dancers lost their craft and were forced to seek alternative means to support themselves. Between the anti-nautch movement of the early 1900s and the Devadasi Abolition Act, the community was crushed. And, as some scholars have pointed out, the Act spelt the death knell for a host of knowledge systems of music and dance, equivalent to the shutting down of several universities. Balasaraswati, who came from a family of traditional artistes, is widely regarded as the greatest exponent of Bharatanatyam in post-Independence India. Although the Act prevented public performances, Balasaraswati took advantage of the revivalist movement to perform and teach Bharatanatyam in its pure form for nearly five decades. The Madras Act paved the way for the Andhra Pradesh Devadasi (Prevention of Dedication Act) in 1947, the Karnataka Devadasi (Prevention of Dedication) Act in 1982, and the Maharashtra System Abolition Act, 2005. In spite of the laws and rehabilitation schemes in place, reports filed as recently as 2016 with the National Commission for Women and media reports indicate that there are numerous cases of former Devadasis who have become destitute and, worse, that the practice continues in a tragically exploitative form.
Q. What is the status of the Devadasi system as of the passage's context?
  • a)
    It has been completely abolished and eradicated.
  • b)
    It continues to exist in a tragically exploitative form.
  • c)
    It has transformed into a respectable profession.
  • d)
    It has become a part of India's cultural heritage.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

As of the passage's context, the Devadasi system continues to exist, but it does so in a tragically exploitative form. Despite the enactment of laws such as the Devadasi Abolition Act and various rehabilitation schemes, reports filed as recently as 2016 indicate that the system persists in a manner that exploits women who are forced into this practice. This suggests that despite legislative efforts to abolish the system, it has not been entirely eradicated, and the exploitation of women in the name of the Devadasi tradition continues to be a troubling issue.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The Union government has said that it intends to establish 'virtual' universities which will ostensibly help in achieving the desired gross enrolment ratio in higher education as envisaged in the National Education Policy.
However, inequality and poverty — both have been exacerbated by the pandemic — have given rise to the spectre of exclusion; internet connectivity, access to digital video devices and affiliated infrastructure are still either threadbare or non-existent in vast swathes of the country, leaving many students, especially those from vulnerable constituencies, excluded from online classrooms. Students are also plagued by structural challenges; even though India is home to the world's second-largest internet user base, the quality of digital connectivity is uneven, with metropolitan India faring better than the hinterland. And what would a virtual university mean for students in restive zones — Jammu and Kashmir is a case in point — where internet services are frequently disrupted by the powers that be? Even without such glitches, online education has proved to be taxing for both teachers and their wards. For the former, formulating methods and material for online communication remains a challenge; students are also finding this shift to an unfamiliar way of learning difficult. There is also concern about whether the experience of digital education complements existing pedagogical techniques. These are, however, not the only challenges. The institutional eagerness for the digital medium has also coincided with rising unemployment for teachers and tertiary staff.
This is not to suggest that online education is devoid of benefits. Problems arise when a mode of learning that is still inaccessible to large constituencies is foregrounded as the "future of education" — the prime minister's definition of virtual universities. Inclusion and critical thinking fostered by a thriving, collaborative learning environment are the hallmarks of a productive education system. These elements must not be sacrificed at the altar of virtual learning.
[Extracted with edits and revisions, from The Editorial Board, The Telegraph India]
Q. What does the passage mention as the hallmarks of a productive education system?
  • a)
    Thriving, collaborative learning environment and inclusion.
  • b)
    Rising unemployment for teachers.
  • c)
    Inadequate pedagogical techniques.
  • d)
    Lack of interest from students.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ram chandra answered
Understanding the Hallmarks of a Productive Education System
The passage clearly identifies two critical elements that define a productive education system:
1. Thriving, Collaborative Learning Environment
- A productive education system fosters an environment where students engage actively with each other and their teachers.
- Collaboration enhances learning by allowing students to share ideas, challenge each other's thinking, and work together towards common goals.
2. Inclusion
- Inclusion ensures that all students, regardless of their background or circumstances, have access to quality education.
- It emphasizes the importance of providing opportunities for every student, particularly those from vulnerable constituencies who may be at risk of exclusion in a digital learning landscape.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect
Rising Unemployment for Teachers
- This point highlights a challenge faced by the education sector rather than a hallmark of a productive system. It indicates problems rather than strengths.
Inadequate Pedagogical Techniques
- While the passage does mention concerns regarding teaching methods in online education, it does not define these inadequacies as hallmarks of a productive system.
Lack of Interest from Students
- The passage discusses challenges students face in adapting to online learning but does not suggest that a lack of interest is a defining characteristic of a productive education system.
In summary, the passage emphasizes that the core attributes of a productive education system are a thriving, collaborative learning environment and inclusion, making option 'A' the correct answer.

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
In the run-up to the annual Spring Meetings of the World Bank and the IMF in the second week of April, there was much talk that the two organisations were on the cusp of change. Multiple crises are demanding attention from the international community. But these institutions, once central players in the management of the international economic order, seem to have little to offer as effective managers in the current conjuncture. Hence the need for change. Two factors account for their loss of significance or even descent into irrelevance. The first is that these dominant multilateral bodies once accounted for a significant share of the cross-border flows of finance from the capitalist North to the Global South but are now minor players in the global movement of capital. The share of yield-seeking or even predatory private capital in total flows has increased enormously as the distribution of the surpluses generated globally concentrate in the hands of these private players rather than in the hands of governments, including those in high-income countries.  The second is that even the surpluses that remain in the hands of public players are no more concentrated with G7 governments but are spread across governments of countries outside the North, varying from the oil exporters to the now dominant or newly emerging global-manufacturing hubs, especially an increasingly combative China. The Bretton Woods twins, established at a time when the international order looked very different, have a structure of governance and decision-making (dominated by the G7, especially the US) that does not correspond to the current distribution of global economic (even if not military) power.
These dissonant features have developed at a time when the need for multilateral action is urgent, given multiple global challenges. External debt crises overwhelm a large number of low- and middle-income countries that accumulated excess debt during the years when high-income-country governments and central banks injected cheap liquidity into the international system and the COVID pandemic and the spike in food and fuel prices pushed poorer countries into soaking up that liquidity. The result is debt stress and widespread default. With a fragmented creditor community unable to offer viable paths to resolution, adjustment in countries overwhelmed by debt is forcing austerity on populations least able to bear more burdens.
Q. What is the consequence of the current debt stress and widespread default in low- and middle-income countries, as per the passage?
  • a)
    Increased government funding for these countries
  • b)
    Austerity measures imposed on vulnerable populations
  • c)
    The creation of a unified creditor community
  • d)
    A decrease in global economic power
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ram chandra answered
Consequence of Debt Stress
The passage highlights the severe consequences of debt stress and widespread default faced by low- and middle-income countries. The correct answer is option 'B', which states that austerity measures are imposed on vulnerable populations. Below is a detailed explanation of this consequence:
Understanding Debt Stress
- Low- and middle-income countries have accumulated excess debt, exacerbated by factors such as:
- Cheap liquidity injected into the international system by high-income countries.
- Economic shocks from the COVID pandemic.
- Rising food and fuel prices.
Outcome of Debt Stress
- As a result of the overwhelming debt, these countries experience:
- Debt Stress: An inability to manage or repay their debts, leading to defaults.
- Fragmented Creditor Community: The lack of a cohesive group of creditors makes it difficult to find solutions for these debts.
Austerity Measures
- In response to the debt crisis, governments in these nations are forced to implement:
- Austerity Measures: These are cuts in government spending, which often include reductions in public services, social welfare, and other essential programs.
- Impact on Vulnerable Populations: Austerity disproportionately affects those least able to bear additional burdens, resulting in increased poverty and social unrest.
Conclusion
The passage underscores that the urgent need for multilateral action contrasts sharply with the realities faced by these countries. The imposition of austerity measures on vulnerable populations is a direct consequence of the current debt stress and defaults, highlighting the dire economic situation they find themselves in.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The Union government has said that it intends to establish 'virtual' universities which will ostensibly help in achieving the desired gross enrolment ratio in higher education as envisaged in the National Education Policy.
However, inequality and poverty — both have been exacerbated by the pandemic — have given rise to the spectre of exclusion; internet connectivity, access to digital video devices and affiliated infrastructure are still either threadbare or non-existent in vast swathes of the country, leaving many students, especially those from vulnerable constituencies, excluded from online classrooms. Students are also plagued by structural challenges; even though India is home to the world's second-largest internet user base, the quality of digital connectivity is uneven, with metropolitan India faring better than the hinterland. And what would a virtual university mean for students in restive zones — Jammu and Kashmir is a case in point — where internet services are frequently disrupted by the powers that be? Even without such glitches, online education has proved to be taxing for both teachers and their wards. For the former, formulating methods and material for online communication remains a challenge; students are also finding this shift to an unfamiliar way of learning difficult. There is also concern about whether the experience of digital education complements existing pedagogical techniques. These are, however, not the only challenges. The institutional eagerness for the digital medium has also coincided with rising unemployment for teachers and tertiary staff.
This is not to suggest that online education is devoid of benefits. Problems arise when a mode of learning that is still inaccessible to large constituencies is foregrounded as the "future of education" — the prime minister's definition of virtual universities. Inclusion and critical thinking fostered by a thriving, collaborative learning environment are the hallmarks of a productive education system. These elements must not be sacrificed at the altar of virtual learning.
[Extracted with edits and revisions, from The Editorial Board, The Telegraph India]
Q. What does the passage suggest should not be sacrificed in the pursuit of virtual learning?
  • a)
    Rising unemployment for teachers and staff.
  • b)
    Inadequate pedagogical techniques.
  • c)
    Lack of interest from students.
  • d)
    Inclusion and critical thinking fostered by a collaborative learning environment.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev CLAT answered
The passage suggests that in the pursuit of virtual learning and the establishment of 'virtual' universities, certain essential elements of education should not be sacrificed. Specifically, it emphasizes that inclusion and critical thinking, fostered by a thriving, collaborative learning environment, should not be compromised. While online education has its advantages, the passage underscores the importance of maintaining an educational system that is inclusive and encourages critical thinking. These qualities are regarded as fundamental for a productive and effective education system, and they should not be sacrificed in the shift toward virtual learning.

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
In the run-up to the annual Spring Meetings of the World Bank and the IMF in the second week of April, there was much talk that the two organisations were on the cusp of change. Multiple crises are demanding attention from the international community. But these institutions, once central players in the management of the international economic order, seem to have little to offer as effective managers in the current conjuncture. Hence the need for change. Two factors account for their loss of significance or even descent into irrelevance. The first is that these dominant multilateral bodies once accounted for a significant share of the cross-border flows of finance from the capitalist North to the Global South but are now minor players in the global movement of capital. The share of yield-seeking or even predatory private capital in total flows has increased enormously as the distribution of the surpluses generated globally concentrate in the hands of these private players rather than in the hands of governments, including those in high-income countries.  The second is that even the surpluses that remain in the hands of public players are no more concentrated with G7 governments but are spread across governments of countries outside the North, varying from the oil exporters to the now dominant or newly emerging global-manufacturing hubs, especially an increasingly combative China. The Bretton Woods twins, established at a time when the international order looked very different, have a structure of governance and decision-making (dominated by the G7, especially the US) that does not correspond to the current distribution of global economic (even if not military) power.
These dissonant features have developed at a time when the need for multilateral action is urgent, given multiple global challenges. External debt crises overwhelm a large number of low- and middle-income countries that accumulated excess debt during the years when high-income-country governments and central banks injected cheap liquidity into the international system and the COVID pandemic and the spike in food and fuel prices pushed poorer countries into soaking up that liquidity. The result is debt stress and widespread default. With a fragmented creditor community unable to offer viable paths to resolution, adjustment in countries overwhelmed by debt is forcing austerity on populations least able to bear more burdens.
Q. According to the passage, what has contributed to the decreased significance of the World Bank and IMF in the global movement of capital?
  • a)
    Their focus on yield-seeking private capital
  • b)
    Concentration of surpluses in high-income countries
  • c)
    Their dominance in the management of international economic order
  • d)
    A surge in their financial resources
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The passage explains that the decreased significance of the World Bank and IMF in the global movement of capital can be attributed to their increasing focus on yield-seeking or even predatory private capital. In the past, these institutions played a more substantial role in facilitating cross-border flows of finance from high-income countries to the Global South. However, over time, private capital, which seeks higher returns, has gained prominence in these financial flows. This shift in focus towards private capital has diminished the role of the World Bank and IMF in shaping the movement of global capital.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Two recent studies have provided new insights into the melting of Antarctica's Thwaites Glacier, which is one of the largest and most concerning ice formations in the region. It is often referred to as the "[1]" and contains enough ice to potentially raise global sea levels by about 2 feet on its own. The latest research presents some concerning findings. On one hand, Thwaites may be melting at a slower rate than previously estimated. However, it is still retreating rapidly inland from the sea, suggesting that it may require less melting to destabilize the glacier than scientists initially believed.
These two studies are based on data from the MELT project, which aims to comprehend how warm ocean waters are contributing to the glacier's melting at its grounding line. The grounding line is the point where the ice is connected to the bedrock, effectively anchoring it to the Earth's surface. Beyond this grounding line, the ice detaches from the ground and extends forward in the form of a floating ice shelf.
These aspects of seaside glaciers are of critical importance. Ocean water can infiltrate beneath the ice shelves and reach the glacier's edge at the grounding line, causing the ice to melt from the bottom. This process can result in the glacier moving backward over the bedrock, causing it to retreat inland and discharging more ice into the ocean in the process.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Antarctica’s ‘[1]’ May Be More Prone to Melting Than Expected, by Chelsea Harvey, Scientific American]
Q. The management of the complete Indian Antarctic program falls under the jurisdiction of whom?
  • a)
    National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research
  • b)
    Scientific Deep Drilling Project
  • c)
    International Training Centre for Operational Oceanography
  • d)
    National Centre for Earth Science Studies
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Management of the Indian Antarctic Program
The Indian Antarctic program is a significant scientific initiative aimed at exploring and studying the unique ecosystems and climate patterns of Antarctica. The management and coordination of this comprehensive program falls under the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
Key Responsibilities of NCPOR
- Oversee Research Activities: NCPOR is responsible for planning and implementing various research projects in Antarctica, ensuring that scientific studies contribute valuable insights into polar science.
- Logistical Support: The organization provides logistical support for expeditions, including the transportation of scientists and equipment to and from the Antarctic region.
- Collaboration with International Bodies: NCPOR collaborates with various international research organizations and countries, fostering global scientific cooperation in polar research.
Importance of the Indian Antarctic Program
- Climate Change Studies: The program helps in understanding the impacts of climate change on polar regions, which is crucial for global climate models.
- Biodiversity Research: It also focuses on studying the unique flora and fauna of Antarctica, contributing to conservation efforts.
- Geological Surveys: The program includes geological studies that provide insights into the Earth’s history and natural processes.
In conclusion, the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research plays a pivotal role in managing the Indian Antarctic program, ensuring that research is effectively conducted and aligned with global scientific goals.

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Homer’s Iliad opens with some epic ancient Greek sulking. Agamemnon, leader of the Greeks, is forced to return Chryseis, the woman he won as a prize following a battle at Troy. Annoyed, he seizes Briseis, the woman-trophy of Achilles, the Greeks’ star fighter. Achilles wails that it’s unfair, announces that he’s going home, and flounces off to his tent. Fine, replies Agamemnon. Go home, I never liked you anyway.
Most of us will never experience the frustration of having our human trophy confiscated by a king, but there are familiar aspects of Achilles’ plight. Like Achilles, you might be a sulker. You’ve probably had to deal with someone else’s sulk, too. But what is sulking, exactly? Why do we do it? And why does it have such a bad reputation?
Let’s zoom in on what sulking involves. Sulkers sulk when they feel wronged. Sometimes they really have been wronged, but sometimes they are just sour about losing fair and square. Take the former US president Donald Trump, who – with the COVID-19 pandemic raging around him – withdrew from public life following his 2020 election defeat and nurtured baseless conspiracy theories about how electoral fraud had cost him his rightful victory. Trump hadn’t been wronged, but that didn’t stop him sulking.
Next, a sulker deals with their feeling of being wronged by socially withdrawing. Achilles withdrew from fighting. Trump withdrew from his presidential duties. The rest of us may simply refuse to speak to whoever we feel wronged by. Socially withdrawing when we feel wronged isn’t always sulking, though. Two things are needed to turn withdrawal into a sulk. One is an element of punishment: a sulker intends their withdrawal to be inconvenient for their target – ie, the person(s) they’re sulking at – whether that’s by losing in battle (as Agamemnon did while Achilles sulked), being ravaged by disease (as the US public was while Trump sulked), or suffering the stress of the cold shoulder. Without an inconvenienced target, sulking is unsatisfying. There’s no point throwing a sulk at someone who doesn’t care about communicating with you.
The second thing needed to turn a withdrawal into sulk is – perhaps surprisingly – communication with the target. A successful sulk communicates to the target that the sulker is upset, that they resent the target for their being upset, and that it’s the target’s job to make things right.
Q. According to the passage, why did Achilles withdraw from fighting?
  • a)
    Because he was physically injured
  • b)
    Because he was annoyed with Agamemnon
  • c)
    Because he had lost a battle at Troy
  • d)
    Because he wanted to return Chryseis
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
 In the passage, it is mentioned that Achilles withdrew from fighting because he was annoyed with Agamemnon for seizing Briseis. This is the reason given in the passage, making option B the correct answer.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
When my father, the ideas man, had first proposed the idea of manufacturing to his siblings back in the early 1950s, they had expressed their reservations. In those days, bicycle parts and components were by and large imported. The supplies were tightly controlled by a cartel, comprising of the old British agency houses, which had been passed on to Indian associates post-Independence. These entities doled out supplies on a quota basis. My uncle Om Prakash remembered having to wait for two whole days at the offices of Dunlop (suppliers of tyres and tubes), just to meet the manager.
My father was persuasive. He was confident that they had the knowhow to manufacture bicycles, but that dream would be stillborn if India's dependence on imported parts and components continued. He proposed that the brothers manufacture their own. Technology and capital were both scarce, they protested. Even before the karigars (artisans) could get down to making components, tools and dyes would have to be created. Everything would have to be done from scratch, on a shoestring budget.
While my uncles Dayanand and Om Prakash were packing up to move to Ludhiana, one of their suppliers, a Muslim by the name of Kareem Deen, was preparing to shift to Pakistan. He manufactured bicycle saddles under a brand name he had created himself. Before he left, Karam Deen went to see his friend Om Prakash Munjal.
What happened next would be a life-changing moment for our family. Uncle Om Prakash asked Kareem Deen whether the Munjals could use that brand name for their business. He agreed. The gesture was typical of the way businesses were run at the time – on reputation, relationships and goodwill. The worth and value of brands and patents were not appreciated or understood. And so, with nothing more than a casual nod, his brand passed to the Munjals. Yes, dear reader, you guessed correctly. It was "Hero".
Once my uncles came around to the idea of manufacturing, a confident, "Yeh bhi kar lenge" (We can do this too), resounded around the Munjal residence and workplace. It was, of course, easier said than done. After several hits and misses, they finally came up with a product that satisfied all the siblings.
But disaster lurked ahead, one that almost cost the Munjals their business. The welding in some of the bicycle forks cracked and the pipes broke off, with the result that the incensed dealers returned all orders and consignments. The siblings pooled their resources and paid back the affected parties, no questions asked. Their reputation survived, but their pockets were almost empty. The Munjal brothers girded their loins, went back to the design table and perfected the forks.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Making Of Hero: Four Brothers, Two Wheels And A Revolution That Shaped India, Sunil Kant Munjal, HarperCollins India.]
Q. What role did Kareem Deen play in the Munjal family's business journey?
  • a)
    He was a bicycle manufacturer who competed with the Munjals.
  • b)
    He supplied bicycle saddles to the Munjals and allowed them to use his brand name.
  • c)
    He worked as an artisan for the Munjal brothers.
  • d)
    He was a manager at Dunlop, one of their suppliers.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ram chandra answered
Role of Kareem Deen in the Munjal Family's Business Journey
Kareem Deen played a pivotal role in the early stages of the Munjal family's venture into bicycle manufacturing. His contributions were significant for several reasons:
Facilitator of Brand Acquisition
- Kareem Deen was a bicycle saddle manufacturer who had established his own brand before relocating to Pakistan.
- Before his departure, he met with Uncle Om Prakash Munjal and agreed to let the Munjals use his brand name, "Hero," for their business.
- This gesture was emblematic of the era’s business practices, which heavily relied on personal relationships and goodwill rather than formal agreements.
Impact on Business Identity
- By allowing the Munjals to adopt the "Hero" brand, Kareem Deen provided them with a recognizable name that would become synonymous with quality bicycles in India.
- The use of an established brand name helped the Munjal brothers gain immediate recognition in a competitive market, which was crucial for their initial success.
Strategic Partnership
- Kareem Deen's willingness to share his brand symbolized a collaborative spirit among businesses during that time, which often fostered growth and innovation.
- This partnership not only saved the Munjals time in branding but also set a foundation for their reputation in the industry.
In summary, Kareem Deen's decision to allow the Munjals to use the "Hero" brand was a key moment in their journey, providing them with a vital identity that contributed to their eventual success in bicycle manufacturing.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth. Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear. The consequences are frequently seen in the form of a large number of fatalities and injuries, but in a market that has a steady supply of labour, policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of such losses. It will be no surprise, therefore, if the deaths of four people, including a senior officer, in a fire at the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation gas facility in Navi Mumbai, or the tragedy that killed nearly two dozen people at a firecracker factory in Batala, Punjab are quickly forgotten. Such incidents make it imperative that the Central government abandon its reductionist approach to the challenge, and engage in serious reform. There is not much evidence, of progressive moves. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019, introduced in the Lok Sabha in July to combine 13 existing laws pays little attention to the sector-specific requirements of workers. One of its major shortcomings is that formation of safety committees and appointment of safety officers, the latter in the case of establishments with 500 workers, is left to the discretion of State governments.
A safe work environment is a basic right, and India's recent decades of high growth should have ushered in a framework of guarantees. Unfortunately, successive governments have not felt it necessary to ratify many fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Compromising on safety can lead to extreme consequences that go beyond factories and leave something that is etched in the nation's memory as in the case of the Bhopal gas disaster.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Hindu]
Q. According to the passage, why does India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remain weak?
  • a)
    Lack of economic growth
  • b)
    A shortage of labor supply
  • c)
    Low priority given to safety investments
  • d)
    Stringent government regulations
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The passage states that India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak despite years of economic growth. It attributes this weakness to the low priority given to making work environments safer, indicating that the primary reason for the weak record is the lack of emphasis on safety investments.

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Homer’s Iliad opens with some epic ancient Greek sulking. Agamemnon, leader of the Greeks, is forced to return Chryseis, the woman he won as a prize following a battle at Troy. Annoyed, he seizes Briseis, the woman-trophy of Achilles, the Greeks’ star fighter. Achilles wails that it’s unfair, announces that he’s going home, and flounces off to his tent. Fine, replies Agamemnon. Go home, I never liked you anyway.
Most of us will never experience the frustration of having our human trophy confiscated by a king, but there are familiar aspects of Achilles’ plight. Like Achilles, you might be a sulker. You’ve probably had to deal with someone else’s sulk, too. But what is sulking, exactly? Why do we do it? And why does it have such a bad reputation?
Let’s zoom in on what sulking involves. Sulkers sulk when they feel wronged. Sometimes they really have been wronged, but sometimes they are just sour about losing fair and square. Take the former US president Donald Trump, who – with the COVID-19 pandemic raging around him – withdrew from public life following his 2020 election defeat and nurtured baseless conspiracy theories about how electoral fraud had cost him his rightful victory. Trump hadn’t been wronged, but that didn’t stop him sulking.
Next, a sulker deals with their feeling of being wronged by socially withdrawing. Achilles withdrew from fighting. Trump withdrew from his presidential duties. The rest of us may simply refuse to speak to whoever we feel wronged by. Socially withdrawing when we feel wronged isn’t always sulking, though. Two things are needed to turn withdrawal into a sulk. One is an element of punishment: a sulker intends their withdrawal to be inconvenient for their target – ie, the person(s) they’re sulking at – whether that’s by losing in battle (as Agamemnon did while Achilles sulked), being ravaged by disease (as the US public was while Trump sulked), or suffering the stress of the cold shoulder. Without an inconvenienced target, sulking is unsatisfying. There’s no point throwing a sulk at someone who doesn’t care about communicating with you.
The second thing needed to turn a withdrawal into sulk is – perhaps surprisingly – communication with the target. A successful sulk communicates to the target that the sulker is upset, that they resent the target for their being upset, and that it’s the target’s job to make things right.
Q. What is the primary purpose of sulking, as described in the passage?
  • a)
    To seek revenge on the target
  • b)
    To communicate to the target that the sulker is upset
  • c)
    To permanently withdraw from society
  • d)
    To avoid confrontation with the target
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
According to the passage, a primary purpose of sulking is to communicate to the target that the sulker is upset and that it's the target's responsibility to make things right. Sulking is a form of communication about one's feelings of being wronged.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Two recent studies have provided new insights into the melting of Antarctica's Thwaites Glacier, which is one of the largest and most concerning ice formations in the region. It is often referred to as the "[1]" and contains enough ice to potentially raise global sea levels by about 2 feet on its own. The latest research presents some concerning findings. On one hand, Thwaites may be melting at a slower rate than previously estimated. However, it is still retreating rapidly inland from the sea, suggesting that it may require less melting to destabilize the glacier than scientists initially believed.
These two studies are based on data from the MELT project, which aims to comprehend how warm ocean waters are contributing to the glacier's melting at its grounding line. The grounding line is the point where the ice is connected to the bedrock, effectively anchoring it to the Earth's surface. Beyond this grounding line, the ice detaches from the ground and extends forward in the form of a floating ice shelf.
These aspects of seaside glaciers are of critical importance. Ocean water can infiltrate beneath the ice shelves and reach the glacier's edge at the grounding line, causing the ice to melt from the bottom. This process can result in the glacier moving backward over the bedrock, causing it to retreat inland and discharging more ice into the ocean in the process.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Antarctica’s ‘[1]’ May Be More Prone to Melting Than Expected, by Chelsea Harvey, Scientific American]
Q. What is India's most recent research station operation in Antarctica since 2012?
  • a)
    Himadri
  • b)
    Maitri
  • c)
    Dakshin Gangotri
  • d)
    Bharati
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

'Bharati' stands as India's most recent research station operation in Antarctica since the year 2012.
Key Highlights
  • India presently maintains two research stations within Antarctica, namely 'Maitri' and 'Bharati.' 'Maitri' has been operational since 1989.
  • The inaugural Indian scientific research base station in Antarctica was 'Dakshin Gangotri,' established under the Indian Antarctic Program.
  • 'Bharati' signifies India's maiden dedicated research facility and is situated approximately 3000 kilometers to the east of 'Maitri.'
  • In 2008, the commissioning of 'Sagar Nidhi,' an ice-class vessel, marked a significant milestone in Indian research efforts. It holds the distinction of being the first Indian vessel to navigate Antarctic waters.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957 states all the rights that a creator of an artistic work has. They include right to reproduce, right to make the work public, and right to grant permission to include the work in movies or films and also for any adaptation of the work. Any work which violates the rights of the creator mentioned under the Act shall be an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work. Any work which has similarity to the original work but it is still new on its own, then such works shall not be considered as works which infringe copyright. In order to prove copyright violation, reproduction of the original work must be in such a way that there must be an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter, physically using that original matter as a model as distinguished from an independent production of the same thing, or producing it from ideas stored in the mind, if those ideas were borrowed from the alleged infringed work.
In the case R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films, the Supreme Court observed that the best way to examine whether there has been copyright infringement is to see if a third party who reads or views the work thinks mistakenly that the latter is related to the former. If the ratio of R. G. Anand's case is considered, then generally a third party who views a meme won't relate the same to the original work. But is this test sufficient enough to find out whether a meme is infringing copyright laws? There might be chances that the meme may be portrayed in such a way that a third party looking at it might think of it as something related to the original work. Sometimes memes degrade the original work and the owner of such work can bring a suit against such infringing material in order to stop such memes from spreading. In such cases, it will be clear and evident that such memes are infringing the copyright laws. But this might not be the case as the fair use doctrine can save the meme maker from being punished under the law.
In this way, the freedom of expression and the right of a copyright holder remain parallel without affecting each other.
The fair use doctrine is an essential part of the copyright law. It allows copyrighted work to be reproduced or used in a certain way. Unlike the Indian Copyright Act, the US Copyright Act provides for fair use defence.
The defences include that the use is commercial or for non-profit. This checks if the use of work can be transformative or not and secondly the character or nature of copyrighted work, the amount of portion taken, and the consequence of such use on the market.
[Extracted, with edits and reviews, from Copyright Law in India, article by legalserviceindia]
Q. According to the passage, what is the primary criterion used by the Supreme Court to examine copyright infringement?
  • a)
    The level of degradation of the original work caused by the alleged infringing material.
  • b)
    Whether a third party mistakenly thinks that the infringing work is related to the original work.
  • c)
    The commercial intent of the meme maker.
  • d)
    The extent of similarity between the meme and the original work.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ram chandra answered
Understanding the Primary Criterion for Copyright Infringement
The passage highlights the Supreme Court's evaluation of copyright infringement through a specific lens:
Key Criterion: Third-Party Perception
- The main test established by the Supreme Court in the case of R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films is whether a third party, upon viewing the work in question, mistakenly believes it is related to the original work.
- This criterion emphasizes subjective perception, focusing on the audience's interpretation rather than the technicalities of reproduction or degradation.
Implications of the Criterion
- If a meme or any derivative work is viewed by an observer and they conclude that it is linked to the original work, this may indicate potential infringement.
- However, the passage also notes that typically, memes are unlikely to create such confusion among viewers. This suggests a lower threshold for determining infringement in many cases.
Additional Considerations
- While the perception of third parties is central, the passage acknowledges that there are nuances, such as the potential for memes to degrade the original work, which may lead to infringement claims.
- The existence of the fair use doctrine in copyright law also plays a crucial role, as it can protect meme creators under certain conditions, allowing for transformative uses of original works without infringing on copyright.
Conclusion
In summary, the Supreme Court's primary criterion for examining copyright infringement is the potential misunderstanding by a third party regarding the relationship between the infringing work and the original. This focus on perception is pivotal in determining whether copyright laws have been violated.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
There are 600 marbles in a bag. The bag contains green and blue marbles. Some of the marbles in the bag are defected. The ratio of the number of defective green to blue marbles in the bag is 3 : 5, respectively. The number of non-defective blue marbles is 140% of the number of non-defective green marbles. The number of non-defective blue marbles is 205 more than that of defective blue marbles.
What is the difference between the numbers of non-defective and defective green marbles?
  • a)
    145
  • b)
    155
  • c)
    160
  • d)
    165
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Bibek Kumar answered
Solution:

Given information:
- Total number of marbles = 600
- Ratio of defective green marbles to defective blue marbles = 3 : 5
- Number of non-defective blue marbles = 140% of the number of non-defective green marbles
- Number of non-defective blue marbles = 205 more than defective blue marbles

Step 1: Find the number of defective green and blue marbles
Let's assume the number of defective green marbles as 3x and the number of defective blue marbles as 5x.

Therefore, the total number of defective marbles = 3x + 5x = 8x

Step 2: Find the number of non-defective blue marbles
Given that the number of non-defective blue marbles is 140% of the number of non-defective green marbles.

Let's assume the number of non-defective green marbles as y.
Therefore, the number of non-defective blue marbles = 1.40y

Step 3: Find the number of defective blue marbles
Given that the number of non-defective blue marbles is 205 more than defective blue marbles.

So, we can write the equation as:
1.40y = 8x + 205

Step 4: Find the difference between non-defective and defective green marbles
To find the difference, we need to subtract the number of defective green marbles from the number of non-defective green marbles.

Non-defective green marbles = y
Defective green marbles = 3x

Difference = y - 3x

Step 5: Solve the equations to find the values of x and y
We have two equations:
1. 1.40y = 8x + 205
2. y = 3x + Difference

Solving these equations will give us the values of x and y.

Step 6: Substitute the values of x and y to find the difference
Once we have the values of x and y, we can substitute them in the equation y - 3x to find the difference.

The correct answer is option 'b' (155).

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957 states all the rights that a creator of an artistic work has. They include right to reproduce, right to make the work public, and right to grant permission to include the work in movies or films and also for any adaptation of the work. Any work which violates the rights of the creator mentioned under the Act shall be an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work. Any work which has similarity to the original work but it is still new on its own, then such works shall not be considered as works which infringe copyright. In order to prove copyright violation, reproduction of the original work must be in such a way that there must be an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter, physically using that original matter as a model as distinguished from an independent production of the same thing, or producing it from ideas stored in the mind, if those ideas were borrowed from the alleged infringed work.
In the case R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films, the Supreme Court observed that the best way to examine whether there has been copyright infringement is to see if a third party who reads or views the work thinks mistakenly that the latter is related to the former. If the ratio of R. G. Anand's case is considered, then generally a third party who views a meme won't relate the same to the original work. But is this test sufficient enough to find out whether a meme is infringing copyright laws? There might be chances that the meme may be portrayed in such a way that a third party looking at it might think of it as something related to the original work. Sometimes memes degrade the original work and the owner of such work can bring a suit against such infringing material in order to stop such memes from spreading. In such cases, it will be clear and evident that such memes are infringing the copyright laws. But this might not be the case as the fair use doctrine can save the meme maker from being punished under the law.
In this way, the freedom of expression and the right of a copyright holder remain parallel without affecting each other.
The fair use doctrine is an essential part of the copyright law. It allows copyrighted work to be reproduced or used in a certain way. Unlike the Indian Copyright Act, the US Copyright Act provides for fair use defence.
The defences include that the use is commercial or for non-profit. This checks if the use of work can be transformative or not and secondly the character or nature of copyrighted work, the amount of portion taken, and the consequence of such use on the market.
[Extracted, with edits and reviews, from Copyright Law in India, article by legalserviceindia]
Q. How does the passage describe the relationship between the freedom of expression and the rights of a copyright holder?
  • a)
    They are mutually exclusive and cannot coexist.
  • b)
    They are completely independent and have no connection.
  • c)
    They run parallel without affecting each other.
  • d)
    They are in direct conflict and must be balanced by the courts.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage discusses the relationship between the freedom of expression and the rights of a copyright holder. It states that these two aspects run parallel without affecting each other. In other words, the passage suggests that individuals have the freedom of expression, which is a fundamental right, and creators have copyright protection for their works. These rights coexist without necessarily conflicting with each other. However, the passage also notes that the fair use doctrine can serve as a balance between these rights by allowing certain uses of copyrighted material for purposes like commentary or parody, thereby preserving the freedom of expression while respecting copyright holders' rights.

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The Foundation for Interoperability in Digital Economy (FIDE), which is the genesis co-author of the Beckn Protocol, that powers ecommerce networks like the government-backed Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), has unveiled a multi-network AI agent that can carry out commercial transactions on the user's behalf.
The AI agent, Beckn Generative Pre-trained Transformer or BecknGPT, is an open-source demonstration app over Open AI’s ChatGPT.
“The combination of Beckn protocol and AI can unlock a whole new world of possibilities,” Sujith Nair, co-creator of the Beckn Protocol, told ET. “An AI and Beckn-aware open network digital public infrastructure can accelerate innovations that remove friction of digital access and natural language barriers, making ecommerce democratic and accessible to a wider population including small businesses."
FIDE, formerly Beckn Foundation, is the genesis co-author of the Beckn Protocol.
At a recent Beckn community meetup, Ravi Prakash, co-creator of Beckn Protocol, and Mayur Virendra, head of technology strategy and innovation at FIDE, demonstrated how a Beckn-enabled AI chatbot could perform an entire exchange—from initiation to execution of an ecommerce order—on an open network.
The AI agent could also perform inter-network transactions, seamlessly switching between multiple open networks, (for example, from a retail network to an open energy network) using Beckn’s inherent interoperability.
At the Beckn Bengaluru Meetup 1.0, Virendra entered a query for personal finance books in the chatbot. ‘Talking to open.network.becknprotocol.io’ read the interface as BecknGPT looked for options on personal finance books and returned with three books that could be purchased. On selecting the desired book, one entered the name and address, upon which a cash-on-delivery order was placed for the book.
A similar query on charging stations gave options of all the nearest charging stations one could visit during the demo.
Nair said this is an effort by FIDE and a few members of Beckn Open Collective, the open community of Beckn, to let developers imagine many more such possibilities with Beckn and AI.
“Networks can be based on healthcare, retail, agriculture, EV charging or education but one single AI agent acting as a buyer app can automatically know which network to look for,” he said.
Prakash said that for the demo, FIDE set up a dummy network simulating ONDC.
“BecknGPT acts like how a buyer app acts on ONDC,” Prakash said. Apps like Paytm, pincode and magicpin are customer-facing apps, which act as buyer apps on ONDC. Seller apps are merchant-facing apps where vendors can be onboarded. Prakash explained that it is a chat-based interface where the AI agent has been configured to understand Beckn.
“The AI agent could find networks built on Beckn Protocol like ONDC and the Unified Energy Interface,” he said.
So, when it did a search for books, it fired the query on a ONDC-like network, which was broadcast to multiple seller platforms. The sellers on these seller platforms gave back a response on relevant options. This, in turn, was relayed to the user.
Prakash clarified that this was not a product launch and that developers can build on this. He said that this is a one-of-a-kind AI assistant that can search through product catalogues on multiple networks.
[Excerpt from Economic Times “FIDE Unveils BecknGPT, an AI Agent Combining ChatGPT and Beckn Protocol” Dated 28/05/24]
What standard does BecknGPT's technology rely on?
  • a)
    HTTP
  • b)
    SMTP
  • c)
    Beckn protocol
  • d)
    FTP
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Crafty Classes answered
BecknGPT's technology is based on the Beckn protocol, which is a set standard that facilitates easy transfers between networks.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
There is hardly any game other than cricket that is experiencing numerous basic changes. Cricket now has three championships for three formats — Tests, ODIs and T20s — making it unique. The International Cricket Council has also introduced day/night cricket, four-day Tests, and a World Test Championship to generate more interest in Test cricket.
However, none of these measures is bereft of criticism. Changes in the playing conditions during the 'day' of a D/N Test are being debated. The four-day Test has become a talking point. The WTC has also been criticized for its itinerary. The itinerary is asymmetric since neither do countries play the same number of Tests — home or away — nor against all opponents. It seems that time constraints and the fear of waning public interest have played a role in this abridged itinerary. The points system has been criticized as well. A two-Test series carries the same weightage (120 points) as a five-Test series. Lastly, the championship involves only nine out of the 12 Test-playing nations (Ireland, Afghanistan and Zimbabwe have been excluded). The ICC had awarded Test status to Ireland and Afghanistan in 2017 but can they withstand the rigours of Test cricket? Their first-class infrastructure and performance in their maiden series leave a lot to be desired.
Going by the principle of 'maturity gradation of a sport' (John Beech), cricket has entered its post-commercialization phase with the advent of the Indian Premier League and similar franchise-based T10 and T20 leagues. In this phase, not only are spectators willing to pay to watch the game but the players also earn their livelihood by playing cricket as a full-time job. The 'business' of cricket — sponsorship, media rights — also flourishes throughout the year irrespective of any 'season'. European professional football is already in the post-commercialization phase. Fifa, too, has embraced the networked governance model by shunning a hierarchical governance structure in which the bottom of the pyramid is expected to comply with regulations and policies devised by the apex body.
The globalization and the commercialization of a sport create competing interests given the increasing role of sports agents, media rights and sponsors. The networked or flat governance model is more democratic by nature; each stakeholder has a say on requirements and policy-making. Fifa has brought on-board the Uefa, media, sponsors, agents, supporters, national boards, governments and even clubs in the governing of football. The International Olympic Committee has opted for a similar approach. Cricket can emulate these footsteps to create an ecosystem where each format has a context and a future, spectators receive their money's worth and cricketers are well-compensated.
[Extracted from an editorial published on 18 March, 2021 in The Telegraph]
Q. Which of the following countries are NOT part of the World Test Championship (WTC), according to the passage?
  • a)
    India and Australia.
  • b)
    Ireland and Afghanistan.
  • c)
    England and Pakistan.
  • d)
    Zimbabwe and South Africa.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The passage states that the WTC involves only nine out of the 12 Test-playing nations, and Ireland and Afghanistan have been excluded.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Another man might have thrown up his hands—but not Nawabdin. Nawab of course knew that he must proliferate his sources of revenue—the salary he received from K. K. Harouni for tending the tube wells would not even begin to suffice. He set up a little one-room flour mill, run off a condemned electric motor—condemned by him. He tried his hand at fish-farming in a little pond at the edge of his master's fields. He bought broken radios, fixed them, and resold them. He did not demur even when asked to fix watches, though that enterprise did spectacularly badly, and in fact earned him more kicks than kudos, for no watch he took apart ever kept time again. K. K. Harouni rarely went to his farms, but lived mostly in Lahore. Whenever the old man visited, Nawab would place himself night and day at the door. Nawab tended the household machinery, the air conditioners, water heaters, refrigerators, and water pumps. By his superhuman efforts he almost managed to maintain K. K. Harouni in the same mechanical cocoon, cooled and bathed and lighted and fed, that the landowner enjoyed in Lahore. Finally, one evening at teatime, gauging the psychological moment, Nawab asked if he might say a word. The landowner, who was cheerfully filing his nails in front of a crackling rosewood fire, told him to go ahead.
"Sir, as you know, your lands stretch from here to the Indus, and on these lands are fully seventeen tube wells, and to tend these seventeen tube wells there is but one man, me, your servant. In your service I have earned these gray hairs and now I cannot fulfill my duties as I should. Better a darkened house and proud hunger within than disgrace in the light of day. Release me, I ask you, I beg you."
"What's the matter, Nawabdin?" "Matter, sir? O what could be the matter in your service. I've eaten your salt for all my years. But sir, on the bicycle now, with my old legs, and with the many injuries I've received when heavy machinery fell on me—I cannot any longer bicycle about like a bridegroom from farm to farm, as I could when I first had the good fortune to enter your employment. I beg you, sir, let me go." "And what's the solution?" asked Harouni, seeing that they had come to the crux. He didn't particularly care one way or the other, except that it touched on his comfort—a matter of great interest to him. "Well, sir, if I had a motorcycle, then I could somehow limp along, at least until I train up some younger man." The crops that year had been good, Harouni felt expansive in front of the fire, and so, much to the disgust of the farm managers, Nawab received a brand-new motorcycle, a Honda 70. He even managed to extract an allowance for gasoline.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from "Nawabdin Electrician" ©2009 by Daniyal Mueenuddin]
Q. What was Nawabdin's primary role in K. K. Harouni's household when the landowner visited?
  • a)
    He served as a cook.
  • b)
    He tended to the household machinery.
  • c)
    He managed the financial accounts.
  • d)
    He took care of the livestock.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage specifies that Nawabdin took care of household machinery like air conditioners, water heaters, refrigerators, and water pumps when K. K. Harouni visited.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given beside.
Article 124 of C.O.I states that (1) There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than 30 other Judges. 
(2) Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years: 
Provided that in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted: 
Provided further that — 
(a) a Judge may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office; 
(b) a Judge may be removed from his office in the manner provided in clause (4). 
(2A) The age of a Judge of the Supreme Court shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide. 
(3) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court unless he is a citizen of India and — 
(a) has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or
(b) has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or 
(c) is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
(4) A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two - thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. 
Q. Under what conditions can a Judge of the Supreme Court be removed from office, as per Article 124?
  • a)
    At the discretion of the President
  • b)
    After an address by each House of Parliament with a simple majority
  • c)
    On the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
  • d)
    On the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity, as determined by a specific parliamentary process
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage specifies that a Judge of the Supreme Court can only be removed from office on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
The removal process is quite elaborate and involves specific steps:
  • An order for removal must be passed by the President.
  • This removal order can only be issued after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, has been presented to the President in the same session.
This strict process is designed to ensure the independence of the judiciary and prevent arbitrary removal of Judges.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 14(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957 states all the rights that a creator of an artistic work has. They include right to reproduce, right to make the work public, and right to grant permission to include the work in movies or films and also for any adaptation of the work. Any work which violates the rights of the creator mentioned under the Act shall be an act of infringement on the copyright of the original work. Any work which has similarity to the original work but it is still new on its own, then such works shall not be considered as works which infringe copyright. In order to prove copyright violation, reproduction of the original work must be in such a way that there must be an exact or substantial reproduction of the original matter, physically using that original matter as a model as distinguished from an independent production of the same thing, or producing it from ideas stored in the mind, if those ideas were borrowed from the alleged infringed work.
In the case R. G. Anand v. Deluxe Films, the Supreme Court observed that the best way to examine whether there has been copyright infringement is to see if a third party who reads or views the work thinks mistakenly that the latter is related to the former. If the ratio of R. G. Anand's case is considered, then generally a third party who views a meme won't relate the same to the original work. But is this test sufficient enough to find out whether a meme is infringing copyright laws? There might be chances that the meme may be portrayed in such a way that a third party looking at it might think of it as something related to the original work. Sometimes memes degrade the original work and the owner of such work can bring a suit against such infringing material in order to stop such memes from spreading. In such cases, it will be clear and evident that such memes are infringing the copyright laws. But this might not be the case as the fair use doctrine can save the meme maker from being punished under the law.
In this way, the freedom of expression and the right of a copyright holder remain parallel without affecting each other.
The fair use doctrine is an essential part of the copyright law. It allows copyrighted work to be reproduced or used in a certain way. Unlike the Indian Copyright Act, the US Copyright Act provides for fair use defence.
The defences include that the use is commercial or for non-profit. This checks if the use of work can be transformative or not and secondly the character or nature of copyrighted work, the amount of portion taken, and the consequence of such use on the market.
[Extracted, with edits and reviews, from Copyright Law in India, article by legalserviceindia]
Q. In what way can the fair use doctrine potentially protect a meme maker from copyright infringement under the law?
  • a)
    By allowing any commercial use of copyrighted material.
  • b)
    By permitting the use of any portion of the copyrighted work without consequence.
  • c)
    By considering the transformative nature of the use and its impact on the market.
  • d)
    By allowing the use of copyrighted material in any manner without restrictions.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage introduces the fair use doctrine as a crucial part of copyright law that can protect individuals, such as meme makers, from copyright infringement. It mentions that the fair use doctrine takes into account several factors, including whether the use of copyrighted material is transformative and its impact on the market. This means that if a meme is created in a way that transforms the original work significantly and does not harm the market for the original work, it may be considered fair use and not infringing on copyright. The fair use doctrine is a legal provision that allows for certain uses of copyrighted material, such as for purposes of commentary, criticism, or parody, without violating copyright law.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Two recent studies have provided new insights into the melting of Antarctica's Thwaites Glacier, which is one of the largest and most concerning ice formations in the region. It is often referred to as the "[1]" and contains enough ice to potentially raise global sea levels by about 2 feet on its own. The latest research presents some concerning findings. On one hand, Thwaites may be melting at a slower rate than previously estimated. However, it is still retreating rapidly inland from the sea, suggesting that it may require less melting to destabilize the glacier than scientists initially believed.
These two studies are based on data from the MELT project, which aims to comprehend how warm ocean waters are contributing to the glacier's melting at its grounding line. The grounding line is the point where the ice is connected to the bedrock, effectively anchoring it to the Earth's surface. Beyond this grounding line, the ice detaches from the ground and extends forward in the form of a floating ice shelf.
These aspects of seaside glaciers are of critical importance. Ocean water can infiltrate beneath the ice shelves and reach the glacier's edge at the grounding line, causing the ice to melt from the bottom. This process can result in the glacier moving backward over the bedrock, causing it to retreat inland and discharging more ice into the ocean in the process.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Antarctica’s ‘[1]’ May Be More Prone to Melting Than Expected, by Chelsea Harvey, Scientific American]
Q. Which term has been replaced with ‘[1]’ in the passage above?
  • a)
    South Pole
  • b)
    Denman Glacier
  • c)
    Doomsday Glacier
  • d)
    Drygalski Ice Tongue
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The term that has been substituted with '[1]' in the passage is 'Doomsday Glacier.'
Key Points:
  • Thwaites Glacier, situated in West Antarctica, is among the largest and most ominous ice formations globally, often referred to as the Doomsday Glacier. It alone contains enough ice to potentially increase global sea levels by approximately 2 feet.
  • This glacier in West Antarctica is exceptionally wide, exceeding the size of the State of Florida.
  • Thwaites Glacier holds the potential to contribute over half a meter (1.6 feet) of global sea level rise, and its destabilization could have far-reaching consequences, potentially affecting neighboring glaciers that could, in turn, lead to an additional three-meter (9.8-foot) increase in sea levels.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
When my father, the ideas man, had first proposed the idea of manufacturing to his siblings back in the early 1950s, they had expressed their reservations. In those days, bicycle parts and components were by and large imported. The supplies were tightly controlled by a cartel, comprising of the old British agency houses, which had been passed on to Indian associates post-Independence. These entities doled out supplies on a quota basis. My uncle Om Prakash remembered having to wait for two whole days at the offices of Dunlop (suppliers of tyres and tubes), just to meet the manager.
My father was persuasive. He was confident that they had the knowhow to manufacture bicycles, but that dream would be stillborn if India's dependence on imported parts and components continued. He proposed that the brothers manufacture their own. Technology and capital were both scarce, they protested. Even before the karigars (artisans) could get down to making components, tools and dyes would have to be created. Everything would have to be done from scratch, on a shoestring budget.
While my uncles Dayanand and Om Prakash were packing up to move to Ludhiana, one of their suppliers, a Muslim by the name of Kareem Deen, was preparing to shift to Pakistan. He manufactured bicycle saddles under a brand name he had created himself. Before he left, Karam Deen went to see his friend Om Prakash Munjal.
What happened next would be a life-changing moment for our family. Uncle Om Prakash asked Kareem Deen whether the Munjals could use that brand name for their business. He agreed. The gesture was typical of the way businesses were run at the time – on reputation, relationships and goodwill. The worth and value of brands and patents were not appreciated or understood. And so, with nothing more than a casual nod, his brand passed to the Munjals. Yes, dear reader, you guessed correctly. It was "Hero".
Once my uncles came around to the idea of manufacturing, a confident, "Yeh bhi kar lenge" (We can do this too), resounded around the Munjal residence and workplace. It was, of course, easier said than done. After several hits and misses, they finally came up with a product that satisfied all the siblings.
But disaster lurked ahead, one that almost cost the Munjals their business. The welding in some of the bicycle forks cracked and the pipes broke off, with the result that the incensed dealers returned all orders and consignments. The siblings pooled their resources and paid back the affected parties, no questions asked. Their reputation survived, but their pockets were almost empty. The Munjal brothers girded their loins, went back to the design table and perfected the forks.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Making Of Hero: Four Brothers, Two Wheels And A Revolution That Shaped India, Sunil Kant Munjal, HarperCollins India.]
Q. How did the Munjal brothers respond when the dealers returned all orders and consignments due to defective bicycle forks?
  • a)
    They refused to acknowledge the issue.
  • b)
    They blamed the dealers for the defects.
  • c)
    They pooled their resources and compensated the affected parties.
  • d)
    They went out of business.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage states that the Munjal brothers paid back the affected parties without questions asked when the dealers returned all orders and consignments, demonstrating their commitment to their reputation and business survival.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the newly renovated Central Vista Avenue in Delhi, which now encompasses the lawns on both sides of Rajpath, renamed as Kartavya Path. This revitalized area spans approximately 101 acres and received approval for the name change from the New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) during a special council meeting. During his speech at the inauguration, Prime Minister Narendra Modi emphasized that in addition to advancing social and digital infrastructure, India is also focusing on cultural infrastructure. He praised Kartavya Path as an outstanding example of cultural infrastructure, offering a glimpse of India's future and instilling a fresh perspective and belief. The planning, design, and lighting of Kartavya Path were carefully executed with this vision in mind, he added, concluding his address with the patriotic slogan, "Bharat Mata ki Jai." Prime Minister Modi also highlighted that Kartavya Path is not merely a path constructed with bricks and stones; it will serve as an inspirational site with the presence of the National War Memorial, inspiring visitors who come to the area.
Q. Who of the following was awarded the new contract for building the new Parliament?
  • a)
    Adani group
  • b)
    Reliance group
  • c)
    Tata group
  • d)
    Larsen & Toubro group
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

With a bid of Rs. 861.90 crores, Tata Group was able to secure the new contract for the construction of the new Parliament building. The final bid for the building of the new Parliament was launched by the Central Public Works Department, and Tata Group made the lowest proposal of Rs. 861.90 crores, defeating Larsen & Toubro's offer of Rs. 865 crores.

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
There are a number of consumer-centric industries in India that have developed into duopolies. In many of them, the government is directly or indirectly breaking the hold of the top two companies. What is even more welcome is that it is doing this by empowering new entrants rather than laying constraints on incumbent giants. An emerging yet effective tool towards this is the Open Network for Digital Commerce, or ONDC.
Formal duopolies–where two companies control all of the supply in a market–won’t be created thanks to the vigilance of the Competition Commission of India. However, there are industries such as transport, telecom, e-commerce, and other highly consumer-focussed sectors where two companies are currently acquiring overwhelming market share.
This is not unexpected. Indeed, it’s not even unwelcome. India needs big companies in each sector. This is why the government’s approach — to empower other, smaller entrants rather than clip the wings of the giants — is a welcome one.
Two of the most visible sectors, as far as customers are concerned, are food delivery and e-commerce. While Swiggy and Zomato dominate the former, Amazon and Flipkart rule the latter. Food delivery and e-commerce are prime examples of sectors where the government has indirectly created a mechanism to break the dominance of the two incumbents. The ONDC platform, set up in December last year by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, allows sellers and buyers to directly communicate with each other. Recently, ONDC has been creating waves by gradually emerging as an alternative to Swiggy and Zomato in the food delivery space.
The dominance of these two food delivery apps, and the fact that they use their own delivery drivers, has allowed them to impose high commissions on restaurants using their platforms,  something that the restaurant owners have been protesting against. And while several restaurants in India’s metros opted out of these platforms, they eventually returned for the extensive reach and accessibility offered by these two platforms.
ONDC, although still nascent, can be a potential alternative for restaurants in bypassing the food delivery apps. Restaurants will have to organise their own delivery, but the ONDC facilitates this as well. And the restaurants are free to negotiate better deals with companies like Dunzo, Shiprocket, or Loadshare that can deliver the food for them. If this takes off, it could also increase competition in the delivery space as well, further allowing restaurants to negotiate more effectively. In all of this, customers stand to benefit.
The ONDC platform stands to do the same for the e-commerce space as well. At the moment, a consumer looking for a product on Amazon or Flipkart can choose from only those items that are available on these platforms. Once ONDC is adopted widely, consumers will have access to products across platforms, thereby giving them more choice in terms of products as well as prices.
Amazon and Flipkart haven’t signed on to ONDC yet, but there is considerable unofficial pressure from the government to join.
Q. Why is there unofficial pressure on Amazon and Flipkart to join ONDC, according to the passage?
  • a)
    To maintain their dominance in the e-commerce space.
  • b)
    To impose constraints on smaller e-commerce companies.
  • c)
    To create formal duopolies in the market.
  • d)
    To promote competition and benefit consumers.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The passage mentions that there is considerable unofficial pressure from the government on Amazon and Flipkart to join ONDC, which suggests that the government's aim is to promote competition and benefit consumers.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The Union government has said that it intends to establish 'virtual' universities which will ostensibly help in achieving the desired gross enrolment ratio in higher education as envisaged in the National Education Policy.
However, inequality and poverty — both have been exacerbated by the pandemic — have given rise to the spectre of exclusion; internet connectivity, access to digital video devices and affiliated infrastructure are still either threadbare or non-existent in vast swathes of the country, leaving many students, especially those from vulnerable constituencies, excluded from online classrooms. Students are also plagued by structural challenges; even though India is home to the world's second-largest internet user base, the quality of digital connectivity is uneven, with metropolitan India faring better than the hinterland. And what would a virtual university mean for students in restive zones — Jammu and Kashmir is a case in point — where internet services are frequently disrupted by the powers that be? Even without such glitches, online education has proved to be taxing for both teachers and their wards. For the former, formulating methods and material for online communication remains a challenge; students are also finding this shift to an unfamiliar way of learning difficult. There is also concern about whether the experience of digital education complements existing pedagogical techniques. These are, however, not the only challenges. The institutional eagerness for the digital medium has also coincided with rising unemployment for teachers and tertiary staff.
This is not to suggest that online education is devoid of benefits. Problems arise when a mode of learning that is still inaccessible to large constituencies is foregrounded as the "future of education" — the prime minister's definition of virtual universities. Inclusion and critical thinking fostered by a thriving, collaborative learning environment are the hallmarks of a productive education system. These elements must not be sacrificed at the altar of virtual learning.
[Extracted with edits and revisions, from The Editorial Board, The Telegraph India]
Q. What is the main concern raised in the passage regarding the establishment of 'virtual' universities?
  • a)
    Lack of interest from students in online education.
  • b)
    Unequal access to internet connectivity and digital devices.
  • c)
    Rising unemployment for teachers and staff.
  • d)
    Inadequate pedagogical techniques.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary concern raised in the passage regarding the establishment of 'virtual' universities is the unequal access to internet connectivity and digital devices. The passage highlights that while the government intends to create these virtual universities to achieve higher enrollment ratios, there is a stark digital divide in the country. Many students, especially those from vulnerable constituencies and rural areas, lack access to the necessary internet connectivity and digital video devices. This digital divide threatens to exclude a significant portion of the population from participating in online classrooms, thus hindering the government's goal of increasing enrollment in higher education.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Another man might have thrown up his hands—but not Nawabdin. Nawab of course knew that he must proliferate his sources of revenue—the salary he received from K. K. Harouni for tending the tube wells would not even begin to suffice. He set up a little one-room flour mill, run off a condemned electric motor—condemned by him. He tried his hand at fish-farming in a little pond at the edge of his master's fields. He bought broken radios, fixed them, and resold them. He did not demur even when asked to fix watches, though that enterprise did spectacularly badly, and in fact earned him more kicks than kudos, for no watch he took apart ever kept time again. K. K. Harouni rarely went to his farms, but lived mostly in Lahore. Whenever the old man visited, Nawab would place himself night and day at the door. Nawab tended the household machinery, the air conditioners, water heaters, refrigerators, and water pumps. By his superhuman efforts he almost managed to maintain K. K. Harouni in the same mechanical cocoon, cooled and bathed and lighted and fed, that the landowner enjoyed in Lahore. Finally, one evening at teatime, gauging the psychological moment, Nawab asked if he might say a word. The landowner, who was cheerfully filing his nails in front of a crackling rosewood fire, told him to go ahead.
"Sir, as you know, your lands stretch from here to the Indus, and on these lands are fully seventeen tube wells, and to tend these seventeen tube wells there is but one man, me, your servant. In your service I have earned these gray hairs and now I cannot fulfill my duties as I should. Better a darkened house and proud hunger within than disgrace in the light of day. Release me, I ask you, I beg you."
"What's the matter, Nawabdin?" "Matter, sir? O what could be the matter in your service. I've eaten your salt for all my years. But sir, on the bicycle now, with my old legs, and with the many injuries I've received when heavy machinery fell on me—I cannot any longer bicycle about like a bridegroom from farm to farm, as I could when I first had the good fortune to enter your employment. I beg you, sir, let me go." "And what's the solution?" asked Harouni, seeing that they had come to the crux. He didn't particularly care one way or the other, except that it touched on his comfort—a matter of great interest to him. "Well, sir, if I had a motorcycle, then I could somehow limp along, at least until I train up some younger man." The crops that year had been good, Harouni felt expansive in front of the fire, and so, much to the disgust of the farm managers, Nawab received a brand-new motorcycle, a Honda 70. He even managed to extract an allowance for gasoline.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from "Nawabdin Electrician" ©2009 by Daniyal Mueenuddin]
Q. What was Nawabdin's experience when he attempted to fix watches?
  • a)
    He earned significant praise and success.
  • b)
    His watch repairs were met with enthusiasm by his customers.
  • c)
    It was a profitable venture.
  • d)
    His attempts to fix watches did not go well.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage mentions that his watch repair enterprise did "spectacularly badly" and earned him more criticism ("kicks") than praise.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
There is hardly any game other than cricket that is experiencing numerous basic changes. Cricket now has three championships for three formats — Tests, ODIs and T20s — making it unique. The International Cricket Council has also introduced day/night cricket, four-day Tests, and a World Test Championship to generate more interest in Test cricket.
However, none of these measures is bereft of criticism. Changes in the playing conditions during the 'day' of a D/N Test are being debated. The four-day Test has become a talking point. The WTC has also been criticized for its itinerary. The itinerary is asymmetric since neither do countries play the same number of Tests — home or away — nor against all opponents. It seems that time constraints and the fear of waning public interest have played a role in this abridged itinerary. The points system has been criticized as well. A two-Test series carries the same weightage (120 points) as a five-Test series. Lastly, the championship involves only nine out of the 12 Test-playing nations (Ireland, Afghanistan and Zimbabwe have been excluded). The ICC had awarded Test status to Ireland and Afghanistan in 2017 but can they withstand the rigours of Test cricket? Their first-class infrastructure and performance in their maiden series leave a lot to be desired.
Going by the principle of 'maturity gradation of a sport' (John Beech), cricket has entered its post-commercialization phase with the advent of the Indian Premier League and similar franchise-based T10 and T20 leagues. In this phase, not only are spectators willing to pay to watch the game but the players also earn their livelihood by playing cricket as a full-time job. The 'business' of cricket — sponsorship, media rights — also flourishes throughout the year irrespective of any 'season'. European professional football is already in the post-commercialization phase. Fifa, too, has embraced the networked governance model by shunning a hierarchical governance structure in which the bottom of the pyramid is expected to comply with regulations and policies devised by the apex body.
The globalization and the commercialization of a sport create competing interests given the increasing role of sports agents, media rights and sponsors. The networked or flat governance model is more democratic by nature; each stakeholder has a say on requirements and policy-making. Fifa has brought on-board the Uefa, media, sponsors, agents, supporters, national boards, governments and even clubs in the governing of football. The International Olympic Committee has opted for a similar approach. Cricket can emulate these footsteps to create an ecosystem where each format has a context and a future, spectators receive their money's worth and cricketers are well-compensated.
[Extracted from an editorial published on 18 March, 2021 in The Telegraph]
Q. What is the primary reason behind the introduction of various changes in cricket, according to the passage?
  • a)
    To increase the duration of Test matches.
  • b)
    To make cricket more accessible to a wider audience.
  • c)
    To generate more interest in Test cricket.
  • d)
    To eliminate the need for Test matches.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Primary Reason for Changes in Cricket
The passage outlines several reasons for the recent changes in cricket, with the primary focus being on generating more interest in Test cricket. Here’s a detailed breakdown:
Enhancing Interest in Test Cricket
- Introduction of New Formats: The establishment of various championships for different formats (Tests, ODIs, T20s) indicates an effort to diversify cricket and attract different audiences.
- Innovative Cricket Formats: The ICC's introduction of day/night Tests, four-day Tests, and a World Test Championship signifies a strategic move to modernize the game and make it more appealing to fans who may find traditional formats lengthy or less engaging.
Addressing Criticisms and Challenges
- Debate on Changes: While these changes aim to boost interest, they have also attracted criticism. Discussions around playing conditions and the asymmetric itinerary of the World Test Championship highlight the challenges in balancing tradition with innovation.
- Inclusion of More Teams: The exclusion of certain Test-playing nations from the championship reflects the need for a more inclusive approach, which could enhance competition and, subsequently, interest in Test cricket.
Conclusion
Ultimately, the passage emphasizes that the driving force behind these changes is to ensure that Test cricket remains relevant and engaging for both players and spectators. By adapting to the evolving landscape of sports and spectator preferences, cricket aims to sustain its legacy and appeal.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
India's record in promoting occupational and industrial safety remains weak even with years of robust economic growth. Making work environments safer is a low priority, although the productivity benefits of such investments have always been clear. The consequences are frequently seen in the form of a large number of fatalities and injuries, but in a market that has a steady supply of labour, policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of such losses. It will be no surprise, therefore, if the deaths of four people, including a senior officer, in a fire at the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation gas facility in Navi Mumbai, or the tragedy that killed nearly two dozen people at a firecracker factory in Batala, Punjab are quickly forgotten. Such incidents make it imperative that the Central government abandon its reductionist approach to the challenge, and engage in serious reform. There is not much evidence, of progressive moves. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019, introduced in the Lok Sabha in July to combine 13 existing laws pays little attention to the sector-specific requirements of workers. One of its major shortcomings is that formation of safety committees and appointment of safety officers, the latter in the case of establishments with 500 workers, is left to the discretion of State governments.
A safe work environment is a basic right, and India's recent decades of high growth should have ushered in a framework of guarantees. Unfortunately, successive governments have not felt it necessary to ratify many fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Compromising on safety can lead to extreme consequences that go beyond factories and leave something that is etched in the nation's memory as in the case of the Bhopal gas disaster.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Hindu]
Q. According to the passage, why do policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of fatalities and injuries in the workplace?
  • a)
    Because labor unions prioritize safety.
  • b)
    Because safety investments are too expensive.
  • c)
    Because there is a steady supply of labor.
  • d)
    Because the government enforces strict safety regulations.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The passage suggests that policymakers tend to ignore the wider impact of fatalities and injuries in the workplace because there is a steady supply of labor. In other words, the availability of a labor force makes policymakers less concerned about the consequences of workplace accidents, leading to a lack of emphasis on safety.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given beside.
Article 124 of C.O.I states that (1) There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than 30 other Judges. 
(2) Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years: 
Provided that in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted: 
Provided further that — 
(a) a Judge may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office; 
(b) a Judge may be removed from his office in the manner provided in clause (4). 
(2A) The age of a Judge of the Supreme Court shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide. 
(3) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court unless he is a citizen of India and — 
(a) has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or
(b) has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or 
(c) is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
(4) A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two - thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. 
Q. How is the age of a Judge of the Supreme Court determined, according to the passage?
  • a)
    By the Chief Justice of India
  • b)
    By the President
  • c)
    By Parliament
  • d)
    By the High Courts
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
  • The passage mentions that the age of a Judge of the Supreme Court shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide.
  • In practical terms, this means that the President of India, as the head of the state, would determine the age of a Judge of the Supreme Court based on the guidelines and procedures established by the law passed by Parliament.
  • The President's role in determining the age ensures that there is a standardized and legal process for determining the retirement age of Judges.

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
There are a number of consumer-centric industries in India that have developed into duopolies. In many of them, the government is directly or indirectly breaking the hold of the top two companies. What is even more welcome is that it is doing this by empowering new entrants rather than laying constraints on incumbent giants. An emerging yet effective tool towards this is the Open Network for Digital Commerce, or ONDC.
Formal duopolies–where two companies control all of the supply in a market–won’t be created thanks to the vigilance of the Competition Commission of India. However, there are industries such as transport, telecom, e-commerce, and other highly consumer-focussed sectors where two companies are currently acquiring overwhelming market share.
This is not unexpected. Indeed, it’s not even unwelcome. India needs big companies in each sector. This is why the government’s approach — to empower other, smaller entrants rather than clip the wings of the giants — is a welcome one.
Two of the most visible sectors, as far as customers are concerned, are food delivery and e-commerce. While Swiggy and Zomato dominate the former, Amazon and Flipkart rule the latter. Food delivery and e-commerce are prime examples of sectors where the government has indirectly created a mechanism to break the dominance of the two incumbents. The ONDC platform, set up in December last year by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, allows sellers and buyers to directly communicate with each other. Recently, ONDC has been creating waves by gradually emerging as an alternative to Swiggy and Zomato in the food delivery space.
The dominance of these two food delivery apps, and the fact that they use their own delivery drivers, has allowed them to impose high commissions on restaurants using their platforms,  something that the restaurant owners have been protesting against. And while several restaurants in India’s metros opted out of these platforms, they eventually returned for the extensive reach and accessibility offered by these two platforms.
ONDC, although still nascent, can be a potential alternative for restaurants in bypassing the food delivery apps. Restaurants will have to organise their own delivery, but the ONDC facilitates this as well. And the restaurants are free to negotiate better deals with companies like Dunzo, Shiprocket, or Loadshare that can deliver the food for them. If this takes off, it could also increase competition in the delivery space as well, further allowing restaurants to negotiate more effectively. In all of this, customers stand to benefit.
The ONDC platform stands to do the same for the e-commerce space as well. At the moment, a consumer looking for a product on Amazon or Flipkart can choose from only those items that are available on these platforms. Once ONDC is adopted widely, consumers will have access to products across platforms, thereby giving them more choice in terms of products as well as prices.
Amazon and Flipkart haven’t signed on to ONDC yet, but there is considerable unofficial pressure from the government to join.
Q. According to the passage, why does the government want to empower smaller entrants rather than clip the wings of giants in various sectors?
  • a)
    To create formal duopolies.
  • b)
    To maintain the dominance of big companies.
  • c)
    To break the hold of top two companies.
  • d)
    To increase commissions on restaurants.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage states that the government's approach is to empower smaller entrants in order to break the dominance of the top two companies in various sectors.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 is important legislation in the field of commercial law in India. It is basically responsible for regulating contractual relationships and obligations. A common legal complexity often arises when an agreement with minor parties takes place. This is problematic because the Act does not permit such agreements outrightly.
A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor’s property, the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the other party was deceived by the minor to hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that the minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.
Q. What is the legal consequence when a minor enters into a contract with a major person, as per the passage?
  • a)
    The contract is enforceable
  • b)
    The minor can make a claim on the contract
  • c)
    The contract is not enforceable
  • d)
    The minor can enforce the contract against the major party
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Varsha desai answered
Understanding the Legal Consequence of Contracts Involving Minors
When a minor enters into a contract with a major, several legal implications arise according to the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Here’s a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is that the contract is not enforceable.
Definition of a Minor
- A minor is defined as a person below the age of eighteen, or twenty-one if a guardian manages their property.
Legal Capacity to Contract
- The law explicitly states that a minor cannot enter into a legally binding contract. This incapacity arises because minors are considered unable to understand the implications and responsibilities that come with contractual agreements.
Non-Enforceability of the Contract
- When a minor engages in a contract with a major person, the contract is deemed non-enforceable. This means that neither the minor nor the major party can initiate legal claims based on the contract.
Implications for the Other Party
- If a major party provides benefits or money to a minor under such a contract, they cannot recover these benefits unless they can prove deceit. Specifically, they must show that the minor misrepresented their age, causing the major party to unknowingly enter into the agreement.
Conclusion
- In summary, the crucial point is that contracts with minors lack enforceability under the law. This provision is designed to protect minors from being bound by agreements they may not fully comprehend, thereby ensuring their legal and financial safety. Hence, option 'C' is correct: "The contract is not enforceable."

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
There is hardly any game other than cricket that is experiencing numerous basic changes. Cricket now has three championships for three formats — Tests, ODIs and T20s — making it unique. The International Cricket Council has also introduced day/night cricket, four-day Tests, and a World Test Championship to generate more interest in Test cricket.
However, none of these measures is bereft of criticism. Changes in the playing conditions during the 'day' of a D/N Test are being debated. The four-day Test has become a talking point. The WTC has also been criticized for its itinerary. The itinerary is asymmetric since neither do countries play the same number of Tests — home or away — nor against all opponents. It seems that time constraints and the fear of waning public interest have played a role in this abridged itinerary. The points system has been criticized as well. A two-Test series carries the same weightage (120 points) as a five-Test series. Lastly, the championship involves only nine out of the 12 Test-playing nations (Ireland, Afghanistan and Zimbabwe have been excluded). The ICC had awarded Test status to Ireland and Afghanistan in 2017 but can they withstand the rigours of Test cricket? Their first-class infrastructure and performance in their maiden series leave a lot to be desired.
Going by the principle of 'maturity gradation of a sport' (John Beech), cricket has entered its post-commercialization phase with the advent of the Indian Premier League and similar franchise-based T10 and T20 leagues. In this phase, not only are spectators willing to pay to watch the game but the players also earn their livelihood by playing cricket as a full-time job. The 'business' of cricket — sponsorship, media rights — also flourishes throughout the year irrespective of any 'season'. European professional football is already in the post-commercialization phase. Fifa, too, has embraced the networked governance model by shunning a hierarchical governance structure in which the bottom of the pyramid is expected to comply with regulations and policies devised by the apex body.
The globalization and the commercialization of a sport create competing interests given the increasing role of sports agents, media rights and sponsors. The networked or flat governance model is more democratic by nature; each stakeholder has a say on requirements and policy-making. Fifa has brought on-board the Uefa, media, sponsors, agents, supporters, national boards, governments and even clubs in the governing of football. The International Olympic Committee has opted for a similar approach. Cricket can emulate these footsteps to create an ecosystem where each format has a context and a future, spectators receive their money's worth and cricketers are well-compensated.
[Extracted from an editorial published on 18 March, 2021 in The Telegraph]
Q. What phase does the passage suggest cricket has entered due to the Indian Premier League (IPL) and similar franchise-based leagues?
  • a)
    Pre-commercialization phase.
  • b)
    Post-commercialization phase.
  • c)
    Commercialization decline phase.
  • d)
    Post-globalization phase.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Datta answered
Post-commercialization phase:
Cricket has entered its post-commercialization phase due to the introduction of the Indian Premier League (IPL) and similar franchise-based T10 and T20 leagues. This phase signifies a shift in the sport where spectators are willing to pay to watch the game, and players earn their livelihood through cricket as a full-time job.

Impact of commercialization:
- The business of cricket, including sponsorship and media rights, flourishes year-round, regardless of the season.
- The post-commercialization phase has led to an increase in the overall interest and revenue generated by the sport.

Comparison with European professional football:
- The editorial draws parallels between cricket's post-commercialization phase and European professional football, which is already in a similar phase.
- This comparison highlights the evolution of cricket as a sport that has embraced a more commercialized approach, similar to that of football.

Networked governance model:
- The editorial mentions the networked governance model adopted by FIFA, which involves various stakeholders in the decision-making process.
- This model is considered more democratic as it allows each stakeholder, including media, sponsors, agents, supporters, national boards, governments, and clubs, to have a say in the requirements and policy-making of the sport.

Potential for cricket:
- The editorial suggests that cricket can follow in the footsteps of FIFA and the International Olympic Committee to create an ecosystem where each format has a context and a future.
- By embracing a networked governance model, cricket can ensure that spectators receive their money's worth, cricketers are well-compensated, and the sport continues to thrive in the post-commercialization phase.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given beside.
Article 124 of C.O.I states that (1) There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than 30 other Judges. 
(2) Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years: 
Provided that in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted: 
Provided further that — 
(a) a Judge may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office; 
(b) a Judge may be removed from his office in the manner provided in clause (4). 
(2A) The age of a Judge of the Supreme Court shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide. 
(3) A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court unless he is a citizen of India and — 
(a) has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or
(b) has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or 
(c) is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
(4) A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two - thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. 
Q. Who must be consulted by the President in the case of appointing a Judge other than the Chief Justice of India?
  • a)
    The Prime Minister
  • b)
    The Attorney General
  • c)
    The Chief Justice of India
  • d)
    The Governor of the State
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
  • The passage specifies that when it comes to the appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice of India, the President must always consult the Chief Justice of India.
  • This consultation ensures that the highest judicial authority in the country, i.e., the Chief Justice of India, has a say in the selection of other Judges, even though the ultimate appointment is made by the President.
  • The requirement for consultation with the Chief Justice of India reflects the importance of the Chief Justice's opinion in the judicial appointment process.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
There is hardly any game other than cricket that is experiencing numerous basic changes. Cricket now has three championships for three formats — Tests, ODIs and T20s — making it unique. The International Cricket Council has also introduced day/night cricket, four-day Tests, and a World Test Championship to generate more interest in Test cricket.
However, none of these measures is bereft of criticism. Changes in the playing conditions during the 'day' of a D/N Test are being debated. The four-day Test has become a talking point. The WTC has also been criticized for its itinerary. The itinerary is asymmetric since neither do countries play the same number of Tests — home or away — nor against all opponents. It seems that time constraints and the fear of waning public interest have played a role in this abridged itinerary. The points system has been criticized as well. A two-Test series carries the same weightage (120 points) as a five-Test series. Lastly, the championship involves only nine out of the 12 Test-playing nations (Ireland, Afghanistan and Zimbabwe have been excluded). The ICC had awarded Test status to Ireland and Afghanistan in 2017 but can they withstand the rigours of Test cricket? Their first-class infrastructure and performance in their maiden series leave a lot to be desired.
Going by the principle of 'maturity gradation of a sport' (John Beech), cricket has entered its post-commercialization phase with the advent of the Indian Premier League and similar franchise-based T10 and T20 leagues. In this phase, not only are spectators willing to pay to watch the game but the players also earn their livelihood by playing cricket as a full-time job. The 'business' of cricket — sponsorship, media rights — also flourishes throughout the year irrespective of any 'season'. European professional football is already in the post-commercialization phase. Fifa, too, has embraced the networked governance model by shunning a hierarchical governance structure in which the bottom of the pyramid is expected to comply with regulations and policies devised by the apex body.
The globalization and the commercialization of a sport create competing interests given the increasing role of sports agents, media rights and sponsors. The networked or flat governance model is more democratic by nature; each stakeholder has a say on requirements and policy-making. Fifa has brought on-board the Uefa, media, sponsors, agents, supporters, national boards, governments and even clubs in the governing of football. The International Olympic Committee has opted for a similar approach. Cricket can emulate these footsteps to create an ecosystem where each format has a context and a future, spectators receive their money's worth and cricketers are well-compensated.
[Extracted from an editorial published on 18 March, 2021 in The Telegraph]
Q. Why has the itinerary of the World Test Championship (WTC) been criticized, according to the passage?
  • a)
    It lacks a point system.
  • b)
    It does not involve enough Test matches.
  • c)
    It is asymmetric and does not treat all countries equally.
  • d)
    It includes too many Test-playing nations.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The passage mentions that the WTC itinerary is criticized because it is asymmetric, meaning not all countries play the same number of Tests, home or away, nor against all opponents. This lack of balance has led to criticism.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Legal Aid Provides free legal services to the poor and needy peoples who cannot afford the services of a lawyer for the conduct of a case or a legal proceeding in any court, tribunal or before an authority. Legal Aid is the method adopted to ensure that no one is deprived of professional advice and help because of lack of funds. Therefore, the main object is to provide equal justice is to be made available to the poor and weaker section of society.
 
Persons those are entitled to Free Legal Services under the Legal Services Authorities Act are: 
  1. a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;
  2. a victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution;
  3.  a woman or a child;
  4. a mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;
  5.  a person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or
  6.  an industrial workman; or
  7.  in custody, including custody in a protective home or in a juvenile home
  8. of in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987; or
  9. a person whose annual income less than rupees fifty thousand or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government.
There are certain objectives of the government to establish a system of the free legal system. And the Right to Free Legal Aid is also mentioned under Article 39A of the Constitution of India.
Objectives:
Right to Legal Aid in India

Free legal aid is necessary for those people as it is written in our Indian constitution under Article 14 that all the people are equal to the justice should also be provided to all persons whether they are rich or poor. Free legal aid is given to the poor who are not able to fight a case against a powerful or a rich person can also get justice
Legal Representation
Legal representation means that the poor and the weaker section get legal representative as they are also the citizen of India and it is our fundamental right to equality under Article 14 of the Constitution of India. So whether a person is rich or a poor he has the right to have a legal representative so that they can also get free legal aid from the government. It is written under Article 39A of the Constitution of India to give Free legal aid to all the citizen of India.
Q. Where is the Right to Free Legal Aid mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
  • a)
    Article 14
  • b)
    Article 23
  • c)
    Article 39A
  • d)
    Article 21
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
  • The passage specifies that the Right to Free Legal Aid is mentioned under Article 39A of the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 39A emphasizes the importance of equal justice and provides a constitutional basis for the provision of Free Legal Aid to ensure that it is available to all citizens, regardless of their financial status.

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The inaugural ceremony of ‘One DAE One Subscription’ (ODOS) took place on Monday at Tata Memorial Hospital in Mumbai. ODOS is a unique idea enabling Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and all its units and 60 subunits together under one umbrella for read and publish access to national and international research papers as well as scientific journals. With this initiative it is now possible to share the resources digitally and evolve collectively. DAE has signed consortium agreements with Wiley India and with Springer Nature Group in furtherance of the same, the DAE said in a statement.
On the occasion of the inauguration, Secretary, DAE and Chairman AEC, Dr. AK Mohanty conveyed a congratulatory message to and stated, “The ODOS transformative agreement is a significant milestone for synergizing the read access and publishing requirements of DAE. I am sure ODOS will benefit thousands of scientists, engineers, young students of HBNI and researchers of aided institutes to have access to much larger knowledge platform and also publish in open access journals. The ODOS will later get merged with a bigger national initiative, called One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) which has been initiated by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India. ONOS is currently under various stages of implementation.”
Addressing the gathering, AK Nayak, Head, NCPW, DAE, stated that the objective of the ODOS initiative is to make knowledge accessible to as many people as possible. ODOS a small yet decisive step towards ONOS which will in turn make knowledge accessible to everyone and lead to the cherished dream of a developed India.
Dr. Sudeep Gupta, Director, TMC, said libraries are no longer brick and mortar buildings but computers. In the current era, the world lays stress on creative innovation which can only happen when we have access to the current state of wisdom in any particular field. One way to minimize repetitive research is to let everybody access the current state of science so that we move forward and don’t repeat what has already been done. DEA has once again proven it is a pioneer in taking the lead and showing the way.
About ODOS
The first ODOS agreement with Wiley India will provide access to the collection of 1,353 Wiley journals including archives from 1997, to the entire DAE community. This is against the current access of 166 unique journals provided to only 12 DAE units without much increase in price. Perpetual rights will be given to all the DAE units for all the journals for the year 2024. DAE will also get the right to publish more articles in open access journals. Under this agreement Article Processing Charges (APC) have been covered.
The second ODOS agreement with Springer Nature Group will provide access to about 2,686 Springer Nature titles which includes 553 journals as Fully Open Access (FOA). The access will be provided to entire DAE as against 1,752 unique journals access provided to 14 units earlier. Perpetual rights will be given to all the DAE units for all the journals for 2024. The archives from the year 1997 for the Springer titles and from the year 2012 for Nature titles will also be accessible. The agreement will also enable DAE to publish 281 articles in Springer Hybrid journals as open access without Article Processing Charges (APC).
The ODOS Transformative Agreements (TA) signed with Wiley India and with Springer Nature Group is a significant milestone for the DAE scientific community and enable sustainable growth of science and technology, it said, adding that this will boost scientific morale, foster innovation, promote research and will enhance academic publications.
[Excerpt from ET “DAE Launches ‘One DAE One Subscription’ Initiative in Mumbai” Dated 31/07/24]
Where did the first ceremony for the ‘One DAE One Subscription’ (ODOS) program take place?
  • a)
    Tata Memorial Hospital, Mumbai
  • b)
    All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Delhi
  • c)
    Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, Mumbai
  • d)
    Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Crafty Classes answered
The first ceremony for the ‘One DAE One Subscription’ (ODOS) program took place at Tata Memorial Hospital in Mumbai.

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
When my father, the ideas man, had first proposed the idea of manufacturing to his siblings back in the early 1950s, they had expressed their reservations. In those days, bicycle parts and components were by and large imported. The supplies were tightly controlled by a cartel, comprising of the old British agency houses, which had been passed on to Indian associates post-Independence. These entities doled out supplies on a quota basis. My uncle Om Prakash remembered having to wait for two whole days at the offices of Dunlop (suppliers of tyres and tubes), just to meet the manager.
My father was persuasive. He was confident that they had the knowhow to manufacture bicycles, but that dream would be stillborn if India's dependence on imported parts and components continued. He proposed that the brothers manufacture their own. Technology and capital were both scarce, they protested. Even before the karigars (artisans) could get down to making components, tools and dyes would have to be created. Everything would have to be done from scratch, on a shoestring budget.
While my uncles Dayanand and Om Prakash were packing up to move to Ludhiana, one of their suppliers, a Muslim by the name of Kareem Deen, was preparing to shift to Pakistan. He manufactured bicycle saddles under a brand name he had created himself. Before he left, Karam Deen went to see his friend Om Prakash Munjal.
What happened next would be a life-changing moment for our family. Uncle Om Prakash asked Kareem Deen whether the Munjals could use that brand name for their business. He agreed. The gesture was typical of the way businesses were run at the time – on reputation, relationships and goodwill. The worth and value of brands and patents were not appreciated or understood. And so, with nothing more than a casual nod, his brand passed to the Munjals. Yes, dear reader, you guessed correctly. It was "Hero".
Once my uncles came around to the idea of manufacturing, a confident, "Yeh bhi kar lenge" (We can do this too), resounded around the Munjal residence and workplace. It was, of course, easier said than done. After several hits and misses, they finally came up with a product that satisfied all the siblings.
But disaster lurked ahead, one that almost cost the Munjals their business. The welding in some of the bicycle forks cracked and the pipes broke off, with the result that the incensed dealers returned all orders and consignments. The siblings pooled their resources and paid back the affected parties, no questions asked. Their reputation survived, but their pockets were almost empty. The Munjal brothers girded their loins, went back to the design table and perfected the forks.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Making Of Hero: Four Brothers, Two Wheels And A Revolution That Shaped India, Sunil Kant Munjal, HarperCollins India.]
Q. What was the primary reason for the Munjal brothers' hesitation to enter the bicycle manufacturing business?
  • a)
    Lack of knowledge about bicycle manufacturing.
  • b)
    Limited access to technology.
  • c)
    Scarce capital.
  • d)
    All of the above.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The passage mentions that technology and capital were both scarce, and they had to create tools and dyes from scratch. Additionally, it suggests that the brothers had the knowledge but were facing various challenges.

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