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All questions of NCERT Based Tests for UPSC CSE Exam

Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award is given in which of the following fields?
  • a)
    In the soil conservation
  • b)
    In the field of wildlife conservation
  • c)
    In the field of women empowerment
  • d)
    In science
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
The Government of India instituted an ‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award for Wildlife Conservation’ in the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi, who in 1731 sacrificed her life along with 363 others for the protection of ‘khejri’ trees in Khejarli village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan.

Consider the following:
1. Cotton
2. PET
3. Plastic
Which of the above is/are example(s) of natural polymers?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruv Yadav answered
Introduction:
In the given options, we are asked to identify the natural polymers among cotton, PET, and plastic. To determine this, we need to understand what natural polymers are and how they differ from synthetic polymers.

Natural Polymers:
Natural polymers are large molecules composed of repeating subunits found in nature. These polymers are typically derived from living organisms and can be extracted or synthesized from natural sources. Unlike synthetic polymers, natural polymers have a complex molecular structure and are biodegradable.

Analysis of the Options:
Let's analyze each option to determine if it is a natural polymer:

1. Cotton: Cotton is a natural polymer. It is composed of cellulose, a complex carbohydrate, which is a natural polymer found in the cell walls of plants. Cotton fibers are made up of long chains of cellulose molecules, making it a natural polymer.

2. PET (Polyethylene terephthalate): PET is a synthetic polymer and not a natural polymer. It is a thermoplastic polymer that is derived from petroleum. PET is commonly used in the production of bottles, containers, and polyester fibers.

3. Plastic: The term "plastic" is a broad category that includes both natural and synthetic polymers. However, in the context of the given options, it is unclear which specific type of plastic is being referred to. Some plastics, such as polypropylene and polyethylene, are derived from petroleum and are synthetic polymers. On the other hand, there are certain types of natural polymers, such as natural rubber and shellac, that can be considered as plastics. Without further information, we cannot definitively categorize "plastic" as a natural polymer.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis, it can be concluded that cotton (option 1) is the only example of a natural polymer among the given options. PET (option 2) is a synthetic polymer, and the categorization of "plastic" (option 3) as a natural polymer is ambiguous without additional information. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. The earth attracts the moon with a force that is:
  • a)
    More than that exerted by the moon
  • b)
    Same as that exerted by the moon
  • c)
    Less than that exerted by the moon
  • d)
    Not related to that exerted by the moon
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Sharma answered
  • Gravitational attraction is caused by the mass of an object. Since Earth is far more massive than the Moon, the gravitational force exerted on the Moon is far greater than that of the Moon on the Earth.
  • An example of the difference: while the Moon causes tides on the Earth, the Earth has the Moon locked so that the same face (minus some wobbling) is always visible from the Earth.

In a rocket, a large volume of gases produced by the combustion of fuel is allowed to escape through its tail nozzle in the downward direction with the tremendous speed and makes the rocket move upward.
Which principle is followed in this take off of the rocket?
a) Moment of inertia
b) Conservation of momentum
c) Newton’s first law of motion
d) Newton’s law of gravitation
Correct answer is option 'B'.
Can you explain this answer?

UPSC Achievers answered
Rocket Propulsion follow these two principles: 
1) Newton’s Third Law 
2) Principle of Conservation of Momentum 
Here’s the detailed explanation:

Newton's Third Law of Motion and Rocket Propulsion:
Newton's Third Law of Motion: The principle of rocket propulsion works on the 'Newton's Third Law of Motion'. It states that, 'to every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction'.
Application: In the case of a rocket, the engine emits hot burning gases in the downward direction. These gases apply an equal and opposite reaction force to the rocket in the upward direction.

Principle of conservation of momentum and Rocket Propulsion:
The principle of conservation of momentum: It states that whenever two bodies collide or get separated, then their total momentum before collision or separation is equal to their total momentum after collision or separation.
Application: Since the gases of the rocket and the rocket are stationery at the start, their total momentum is zero. After the gases start burning, the momentum imparted to the rocket is equal and opposite to that of the gases. Hence their total momentum is zero.

Hence, Correct Answer is B

You can go through the course of Science & Technology for UPSC CSE: 
and can cover all the important aspects relevant from UPSC point of view through it.

Which of the following is not a physical change?
  • a)
    Boiling of water to give water vapour
  • b)
    Melting of ice to give water
  • c)
    Dissolution of salt in water
  • d)
    Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
A physical change involves only change in physical state whereas a chemical change results in the formation of new substances. Boiling of water, melting of ice and dissolution of salt are physical changes as no new products are formed.

With regard to organic manure, consider the following statements:
1. It enhances the water holding capacity of the soil.
2. It makes the soil loose and porous.
3. It enhances the number of friendly microbes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2 and 3. Let's understand why each statement is correct:

1. It enhances the water holding capacity of the soil:
Organic manure, such as compost or animal manure, contains organic matter that improves the water holding capacity of the soil. When organic matter decomposes, it forms humus, which acts as a sponge, holding water in the soil. This helps to prevent water runoff and allows the soil to retain moisture for a longer period. As a result, the soil becomes more capable of sustaining plant growth, especially during dry periods.

2. It makes the soil loose and porous:
Organic manure contains organic matter that enriches the soil and improves its structure. The organic matter helps to break up compacted soil, making it loose and porous. This improves the soil's ability to hold air and water, facilitating better root growth and nutrient uptake by plants. The increased porosity also enhances soil drainage, preventing waterlogging and reducing the risk of root rot.

3. It enhances the number of friendly microbes:
Organic manure provides a food source for beneficial microorganisms in the soil. These microbes break down organic matter and release essential nutrients in a form that plants can absorb. The presence of organic manure in the soil promotes the growth and multiplication of these beneficial microbes, such as bacteria, fungi, and earthworms. These microbes help in nutrient cycling, soil aeration, and the suppression of harmful pathogens, thus creating a healthier soil ecosystem.

In conclusion, organic manure has several positive effects on soil health. It enhances the water holding capacity of the soil, making it more resilient to drought conditions. It also improves soil structure, making it loose and porous, which aids in root growth and nutrient availability. Additionally, organic manure promotes the growth of friendly microbes that contribute to nutrient cycling and soil health. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Which is the Indian breed of high milk-yielding variety of cow?
  • a)
    Jersey
  • b)
    Ongole
  • c)
    Sahiwal
  • d)
    Red sindhi
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Singh answered
Sahiwal is a breed of 'Zebu cattle' and is considered to be one of the best milch cattle breeds in India. The breed has derived its name from the Sahiwal area in Montgomery district of Punjab in Pakistan.

Regarding the lens, consider the following statements:
1. A transparent material bound by two surfaces, of which one or both surfaces are spherical, forms a lens.
2. A lens, either a convex lens or a concave lens, has two spherical surfaces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Sharma answered
  • A transparent material bound by two surfaces, of which one or both surfaces are spherical, forms a lens. This means that a lens is bound by at least one spherical surface. In such lenses, the other surface would be plane. A lens may have two spherical surfaces, bulging outwards. Such a lens is called a double convex lens. It is simply called a convex lens. It is thicker at the middle as compared to the edges.
  • Similarly, a double concave lens is bounded by two spherical surfaces, curved inwards. It is thicker at the edges than at the middle. A double concave lens is simply called a concave lens.A lens, either a convex lens or a concave lens, has two spherical surfaces. Each of these surfaces forms a part of a sphere.

Due to which phenomena sound is heard at longer distances in nights than in day?
  • a)
    Reflection
  • b)
    Refraction
  • c)
    Interference of sound
  • d)
    Diffraction of sound
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Om Basu answered
Refraction of Sound: Explanation

Introduction:
Sound is a form of energy that travels in the form of waves through different mediums. The speed of sound varies depending on various factors such as temperature, humidity, and wind conditions. One of the phenomena that affect the propagation of sound is refraction.

Definition of Refraction:
Refraction is the bending of sound waves as they pass from one medium to another due to a change in their speed. When sound waves enter a medium with a different density or temperature, they change their direction.

Refraction of Sound in the Atmosphere:
During the day, the temperature of the Earth's surface increases, leading to the heating of the air closest to the surface. This causes the air near the surface to be less dense compared to the higher layers of the atmosphere. As a result, the speed of sound in the lower layers of the atmosphere is lower than the speed of sound in the upper layers.

Explanation:
The phenomenon of refraction causes sound waves to bend towards the region of higher speed as they travel from one medium to another. In the case of sound traveling through the atmosphere, the sound waves tend to bend away from the surface of the Earth during the day.

This bending of sound waves away from the surface of the Earth during the day prevents the sound from reaching longer distances. The sound waves get reflected back towards the ground due to the change in medium and the bending effect. Hence, the sound is heard at shorter distances during the day.

However, during the night, the surface of the Earth cools down, causing the air near the surface to become denser. This leads to a reversal in the density gradient of the atmosphere. As a result, the sound waves tend to bend towards the surface of the Earth during the night.

Implication:
This bending effect allows sound waves to travel longer distances during the night. The sound waves refract towards the ground and follow a curved path, allowing them to reach distant locations. This is why sound is heard at longer distances during the night compared to the day.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the phenomenon of refraction plays a significant role in the propagation of sound waves. During the day, the bending of sound waves away from the surface of the Earth limits the distance over which the sound can be heard. However, during the night, the bending of sound waves towards the surface of the Earth allows them to travel longer distances, resulting in sound being heard at greater distances.

Which one of the following crops does not require nitrogenous fertiliser?
  • a)
    Wheat
  • b)
    Millet
  • c)
    Beans
  • d)
    Paddy
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Roy answered
Introduction:
Nitrogen is an essential nutrient required by plants for their growth and development. It is a major component of proteins, nucleic acids, and chlorophyll. Most plants obtain nitrogen from the soil in the form of nitrates or ammonium ions. However, some crops have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen with the help of symbiotic bacteria.

Explanation:
Among the given options, beans (option C) do not require nitrogenous fertilizer. Let's understand why.

Nitrogen Fixation:
Some plants have a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria, which are capable of converting atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants. This process is called nitrogen fixation. These bacteria reside in root nodules of leguminous plants, such as beans, peas, and lentils. The bacteria take atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into ammonia, which is then used by the plants for their growth. Therefore, leguminous crops like beans do not require nitrogenous fertilizers as they can obtain nitrogen through biological fixation.

Other Crops:
1. Wheat (option A): Wheat is not capable of nitrogen fixation and relies on the availability of nitrogen in the soil. Therefore, wheat crops require nitrogenous fertilizers to meet their nitrogen requirements.
2. Millet (option B): Similar to wheat, millet crops do not have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen. Hence, they need nitrogenous fertilizers to fulfill their nitrogen needs.
3. Paddy (option D): Paddy, also known as rice, does not have the ability to fix nitrogen either. It requires nitrogenous fertilizers to meet its nitrogen demands.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, among the given options, beans do not require nitrogenous fertilizers as they have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen with the help of symbiotic bacteria present in their root nodules. On the other hand, crops like wheat, millet, and paddy rely on nitrogenous fertilizers to meet their nitrogen requirements.

Which of the following laws states that- the electric current flowing through a metallic wire is directly proportional to the potential difference V, across its ends, provided its temperature remains the same?
  • a)
    Faraday's law
  • b)
    Charles’s law
  • c)
    Ohm’s law
  • d)
    Fleming's law
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eshaan Kapoor answered
  • In 1827, a German physicist Georg Simon Ohm (1787–1854) found out the relationship between the current I, flowing in a metallic wire and the potential difference across its terminals.
  • He stated that the electric current flowing through a metallic wire is directly proportional to the potential difference V, across its ends provided its temperature remains the same. This is called Ohm’s law.

Which of the following are the three primary nutrients needed for plant growth?
  • a)
    Calcium, sulphur and magnesium.
  • b)
    Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.
  • c)
    Zinc, boron and copper.
  • d)
    Calcium/zinc/copper.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sounak Menon answered
The Three Primary Nutrients for Plant Growth

The three primary nutrients needed for plant growth are nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K). These nutrients are often referred to as macronutrients because plants require them in relatively large quantities compared to other essential elements.

Nitrogen (N)
- Nitrogen is essential for the growth and development of plants.
- It is a major component of amino acids, proteins, enzymes, and chlorophyll.
- Nitrogen is responsible for promoting leaf and stem growth.
- It helps in the production of healthy, lush foliage and enhances photosynthesis.
- Lack of nitrogen can result in stunted growth, yellowing of leaves (chlorosis), and poor overall plant health.

Phosphorus (P)
- Phosphorus plays a crucial role in energy transfer and storage within plants.
- It is necessary for the formation of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is the primary energy currency in cells.
- Phosphorus is involved in DNA and RNA synthesis, as well as the development of roots, flowers, and fruits.
- It aids in early root growth and establishment.
- Insufficient phosphorus can lead to poor root development, delayed flowering, and reduced fruit production.

Potassium (K)
- Potassium is vital for various physiological processes in plants.
- It helps in the activation of enzymes involved in photosynthesis and respiration.
- Potassium regulates water uptake and retention, enhancing the plant's ability to withstand drought and stress.
- It promotes strong stems and improves disease resistance.
- Lack of potassium can result in weakened plants, reduced fruit quality, and increased susceptibility to pests and diseases.

Conclusion
Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are the three primary nutrients essential for plant growth. These macronutrients play crucial roles in various physiological processes and are necessary for the development of healthy and productive plants. By providing plants with adequate amounts of these nutrients, gardeners and farmers can ensure optimal growth, productivity, and overall plant health.

Which of the following statements is not correct?
  • a)
    Like charges attract each other.
  • b)
    Electric charge obtained by rubbing materials against each other is static.
  • c)
    Electricity is generated by the movement of charge.
  • d)
    The charge from any charged object is sent to the earth by earthing.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
  • Like charges repel each other, while unlike charges attract each other.Charge is generated by rubbing objects against each other. It is a convention to call the charge acquired by a glass rod when it is rubbed with silk as positive.
  • The other kind of charge is called negative.When charge moves, electricity is generated.The process of sending the extra charge from a charged object is called earthing.

Consider the following statements:
1. The chemical process of the purification of drinking water is called chlorination.
2. To protect the Ganges from pollution, Ganga Action Plan was started in the year 1985.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kritika Basak answered
Explanation:

1. Chlorination for Drinking Water Purification:
- The statement that the chemical process of purifying drinking water is called chlorination is correct.
- Chlorination is a common method used to disinfect water by adding chlorine or chlorine compounds to the water.
- Chlorine kills bacteria and other microorganisms present in the water, making it safe for consumption.
- It is a crucial step in ensuring the safety of drinking water and preventing waterborne diseases.

2. Ganga Action Plan (GAP) for Ganges Pollution:
- The statement mentioning the Ganga Action Plan (GAP) being initiated in 1985 to protect the Ganges from pollution is also correct.
- The Ganga Action Plan was launched by the Government of India in 1985 with the aim of reducing pollution and improving the water quality of the Ganga River.
- The plan focused on the interception, diversion, and treatment of domestic sewage and industrial effluents flowing into the Ganges.
- It was one of the first major initiatives to clean up a polluted river in India and has since been followed by other similar projects for different rivers in the country.
Therefore, both statements are correct as chlorination is indeed used for water purification, and the Ganga Action Plan was indeed started in 1985 to address pollution in the Ganges.

Consider the following statements regarding food preservatives.
1. Sodium Benzoate and Sodium Metabisulfite are common food preservatives.
2. Salt, sugar, edible oil and vinegar are used as food preservatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Singh answered
  • Microorganisms contaminate food items. Preservatives are used to prevent the contamination of food items.
  • Sodium Benzoate and Sodium Metabisulfite are common food preservatives. These chemicals are used for the manufacture of jams and squash. Salt, sugar, edible oil and vinegar are used to inhibit the multiplication of microorganisms in food items.
  • For example, salt, edible oil and vinegar are used to prevent the contamination of pickles; and sugar is used to prevent the contamination of jams and squash.

Puberty age in males is
  • a)
    10-12
  • b)
    12-16
  • c)
    8-10
  • d)
    More than 14 years
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Kumar answered
Puberty usually occurs in girls between the ages of 10 and 14, while in boys it generally occurs later, between the ages of 12 and 16. In some African-American girls, puberty begins earlier, at about age 9, meaning that puberty occurs from ages 9 to 14.

Consider the following statements regarding the moon.
1. The moon completes one rotation on its axis as it completes one revolution around the Earth.
2. The day on which the whole disc of the moon is visible is known as the full moon day. The time period between two consecutive full moons is a little less than 29 days.
3. Neil Armstrong landed on the moon for the first time followed by Edwin Aldrin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
  • The moon completes one rotation on its axis as it completes one revolution around the Earth. The day of the appearance of the full disc of the moon is called full moon day, but the time period between two consecutive full moons is a little more than 29 days. In many calendars, this is the period of a month.
  • The day on which the whole disc of the moon is visible is known as the full moon day. Thereafter, every night the size of the bright part of the moon appears to become thinner and thinner.
  • On the fifteenth day the moon is not visible. This day is known as the new moon day. The next day, only a small portion of the moon appears in the sky. This is known as the crescent moon.
  • Then again the moon grows larger every day. On the fifteenth day once again we get a full view of the moon. On July 21, 1969 the American astronaut Neil Armstrong landed on the moon for the first time followed by Edwin Aldrin.

The process of loosening and turning the soil is called:
  • a)
    Ploughing
  • b)
    Levelling
  • c)
    Manuring
  • d)
    All the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Datta answered
Introduction:
The process of loosening and turning the soil is called ploughing. It is an important agricultural practice that helps prepare the soil for planting crops. Ploughing involves breaking up the soil, turning it over, and creating furrows for planting seeds.

Explanation:
Ploughing is an essential step in the cultivation of crops as it helps improve soil structure and fertility. It provides several benefits to the soil and the crops grown on it. Let's discuss these benefits in detail:

1. Loosening the soil:
Ploughing helps in loosening the compacted soil, which is necessary for the growth of plant roots. This process allows air, water, and nutrients to penetrate the soil more easily, promoting healthy root development.

2. Weed control:
Ploughing helps control weeds by uprooting and burying them deep into the soil. This prevents weed growth and competition with the cultivated crops. Turning the soil also exposes weed seeds to sunlight, which can inhibit their germination.

3. Enhancing soil aeration:
By breaking up the soil, ploughing improves soil aeration. This allows oxygen to reach the root zone, facilitating the respiration process of the plants. Adequate oxygen availability promotes healthy root growth and overall plant development.

4. Mixing organic matter:
During ploughing, organic matter such as crop residues or manure can be incorporated into the soil. This improves the soil's nutrient content, organic matter content, and overall fertility. Organic matter acts as a source of nutrients for the plants and also enhances the soil's water-holding capacity.

5. Pest and disease management:
Ploughing can help manage pests and diseases by burying crop residues and pathogens deep into the soil. This reduces the survival and spread of pests and diseases, minimizing their impact on subsequent crops.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, ploughing is the process of loosening and turning the soil, which is crucial for successful crop cultivation. It improves soil structure, enhances nutrient availability, controls weeds, and manages pests and diseases. Ploughing is an integral part of sustainable agricultural practices and plays a vital role in ensuring high crop yields.

What is the unit of loudness?
  • a)
    Bel
  • b)
    Phon
  • c)
    Decibel
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The sensation of a sound perceived in an ear is measured by another term called loudness which depends on intensity of sound and sensitiveness of the ear. Unit of loudness is bel. A practical unit of loudness is decibel (dB) which is 1/10th of bel. Another unit of loudness is phon.

Regarding the modern periodic table, consider the following statements:
1. Properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number.
2. There are 7 groups and 18 periods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
1. The Modern Periodic Law states: 'Properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number'.
2. The atomic number gives us the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom and this number increases by one in going from one element to the next.
3. Elements, when arranged in order of increasing atomic number Z, lead us to the classification known as the Modern Periodic Table. Prediction of properties of elements could be made with more precision when elements were arranged on the basis of increasing atomic number.
4. The Modern Periodic Table has 18 vertical columns known as ‘groups’ and 7 horizontal rows known as ‘periods’.

Sex hormones are secreted by endocrine glands. Consider the following statements regarding the same.
1. Estrogen and testosterone are sex hormones. These are responsible for the secondary sexual characters in the human body.
2. Estrogen is the male hormone, while testosterone is the female hormone.
3. The secretion of these hormones is regulated by a separate hormone, secreted by the pituitary.
Which of the above given statements/statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Introduction
Understanding sex hormones and their roles is essential in human biology. Let’s analyze the statements provided regarding sex hormones, particularly estrogen and testosterone.

Statement 1: Correct
- Estrogen and testosterone are indeed sex hormones.
- They play crucial roles in the development of secondary sexual characteristics:
- **Estrogen**: Promotes breast development, wider hips, and menstrual cycle regulation in females.
- **Testosterone**: Responsible for muscle mass, voice deepening, and facial hair growth in males.

Statement 2: Incorrect
- This statement incorrectly identifies the hormones:
- **Estrogen** is primarily a female hormone associated with female characteristics.
- **Testosterone** is primarily a male hormone associated with male characteristics.
- Therefore, the characterization in this statement is reversed.

Statement 3: Correct
- The secretion of estrogen and testosterone is regulated by hormones from the pituitary gland:
- **Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** and **Luteinizing hormone (LH)** are secreted by the anterior pituitary.
- These hormones stimulate the gonads (ovaries in females and testes in males) to produce sex hormones.

Conclusion
- Based on the analysis:
- **Correct Statements**: 1 and 3
- **Incorrect Statement**: 2
- Hence, the correct answer is **option 'C': 1 and 3 only**.

Which leaves are used to protect stored grains from insects and microorganisms?
  • a)
    Mango leaves
  • b)
    Peepal leaves
  • c)
    Banana leaves
  • d)
    Neem leaves
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Megha Sharma answered
Neem leaves are used to protect stored grains from insects and microorganisms. Neem, also known as Azadirachta indica, is a tree native to the Indian subcontinent. Its leaves have been traditionally used in various applications due to their medicinal and insecticidal properties.

The use of neem leaves for grain protection can be attributed to the following factors:

1. Insecticidal properties:
- Neem leaves contain various bioactive compounds such as azadirachtin, nimbin, and salannin, which exhibit strong insecticidal properties.
- These compounds disrupt the feeding, growth, and reproduction of insects, making them effective in controlling pest infestation in stored grains.
- Neem leaves act as a natural insecticide, preventing the growth and spread of insects that can damage stored grains.

2. Antimicrobial properties:
- Neem leaves possess antimicrobial properties that inhibit the growth of microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi.
- The bioactive compounds present in neem leaves, such as nimbin and gedunin, have been found to exhibit antimicrobial activity.
- By inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, neem leaves help in preventing the spoilage of stored grains and maintaining their quality.

3. Safe and eco-friendly:
- Neem leaves are a natural and safe option for grain protection as they do not pose any health hazards to humans or animals.
- Unlike synthetic chemical pesticides, neem leaves are biodegradable and do not contribute to environmental pollution.
- The use of neem leaves for grain protection aligns with sustainable and eco-friendly agricultural practices.

In conclusion, neem leaves are used to protect stored grains from insects and microorganisms due to their insecticidal and antimicrobial properties. The bioactive compounds present in neem leaves act as natural pesticides, effectively controlling pest infestation and preventing spoilage of stored grains. Additionally, the use of neem leaves is safe and environmentally friendly, making it a preferred choice for grain protection.

Hydrogen bomb is based on which of the following reactions?
  • a)
    Controlled fusion reaction
  • b)
    Thermonuclear fusion reaction
  • c)
    Controlled fission reaction
  • d)
    Thermonuclear fission reaction
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Hydrogen Bomb
The hydrogen bomb, also known as a thermonuclear bomb, operates on the principle of thermonuclear fusion. This process involves the merging of light atomic nuclei to form heavier nuclei, releasing a tremendous amount of energy in the process.
Key Features of Thermonuclear Fusion
- Fusion Reaction: In a hydrogen bomb, isotopes of hydrogen, specifically deuterium and tritium, are fused together under extreme temperatures and pressures. This is similar to the processes that occur in the core of stars, including our Sun.
- Energy Release: The fusion of these hydrogen isotopes releases energy exponentially greater than that from traditional chemical explosives or fission reactions. This is due to the substantial binding energy that is released when nucleons combine into a more stable nucleus.
- Temperature and Pressure: The conditions necessary for fusion require temperatures in the order of millions of degrees Celsius, which is achieved through an initial fission explosion. This fission reaction acts as a trigger for the subsequent fusion process.
Why Not Controlled Fusion or Fission?
- Controlled Fusion Reaction: While research into controlled fusion (like that in fusion reactors) aims to harness energy from fusion safely, hydrogen bombs do not employ this method, as they are designed for explosive power rather than energy generation.
- Fission: Controlled fission reactions, as found in nuclear reactors, involve splitting heavy nuclei (like uranium or plutonium) and do not produce the same energy levels or mechanisms involved in the hydrogen bomb's operation.
In conclusion, the hydrogen bomb is fundamentally based on thermonuclear fusion reactions, making option 'B' the correct choice.

Plants take in air during respiration. What do the plants do in the next step?
  • a)
    Utilise carbon dioxide and give out oxygen into the atmosphere.
  • b)
    Utilise oxygen and give out carbon dioxide.
  • c)
    Utilise both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
  • d)
    Give out both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Pillai answered
Respiration in Plants

Plants undergo respiration just like animals do. During respiration, plants take in air through small pores called stomata present on their leaves. The air contains oxygen and carbon dioxide. The process of respiration occurs in two stages:

1. Glycolysis - In this stage, glucose is broken down into pyruvate molecules. This process occurs in the cytoplasm of the plant cell and does not require oxygen.

2. Aerobic Respiration - In this stage, the pyruvate molecules produced in glycolysis are further broken down in the presence of oxygen. This process occurs in the mitochondria of the plant cell.

What Happens Next?

After taking in air during respiration, the plants utilize oxygen and give out carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. This is because during the second stage of respiration, the pyruvate molecules combine with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water, and energy.

The equation for respiration in plants is:

Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy

Therefore, the correct answer to the given question is option B, i.e., plants utilize oxygen and give out carbon dioxide during respiration.

Select the chain that contains primary consumers:
  • a)
    Bird, rabbit, elephant
  • b)
    Grass, parrot, snake
  • c)
    Snake, hawk, tiger
  • d)
    Bacteria, fungi, viruses
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

  • A primary consumer is an organism that feeds on primary producers. Organisms of this type make up the second trophic level and are consumed or predated by secondary consumers, tertiary consumers or apex predators.
  • Primary consumers are usually herbivores that feed on autotrophic plants, which produce their own food through photosynthesis.

Meristematic tissues are those which help in increasing the length and girth of the plan.
Which of the following statements given below is correct about the meristematic tissue?
  • a)
    It is made up of cells that are incapable of cell division
  • b)
    It is made up of cells that are capable of cell division
  • c)
    It is composed of single type of cells
  • d)
    It is composed of more than one type of cells
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meristematic Tissue: They are the group of young cells, which consists of actively dividing cells and leads to increase in length and thickness of the plant. There are different types of meristematic tissues, which are classified on the basis of positions, functions, plane of divisions, origin and development. The three main types of meristematic tissues depending on the occurrence of the meristematic tissue on the plant body are
1. Apical Meristem.
2. Lateral Meristem.
3. Intercalary Meristem.
Functions of Meristematic Tissue
1. It is responsible for the growth of the new organs.
2. Involved in the movement of water and nutrition within the plants.
3. These tissues are responsible for both primary and secondary growth of the plant.
4. It is the outermost tissue, functions by providing protection from mechanical injury.
5. It gives rise to the epidermis layer, cortex, endodermis, ground tissue and vascular tissue.

Why was Thomson's Model of an atom failed?
1. It could not explain the screening of negative charges from that of positive
2. It did not tell about the presence of electrons
3. It did not give an idea about the discrete energy levels
4. It explained the atom as a whole to be electrically neutral
Choose the correct option from the following:
  • a)
    3 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 Only
  • d)
    2 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
  • Thomson atomic model was proposed by William Thomson in the year 1900. This model explained the description of an inner structure of the atom theoretically. It was strongly supported by Sir Joseph Thomson, who had discovered the electron earlier. During a cathode ray tube experiment, a negatively charged particle was discovered by J.J. Thomson. This experiment took place in the year 1897.
  • Cathode ray tube is a vacuum tube. The negative particle was called an electron. Thomson assumed that an electron is two thousand times lighter than a proton and believed that an atom is made up of thousands of electrons.
  • In this atomic structure model, he considered atoms surrounded by a cloud having positive as well as negative charges. The demonstration of the ionization of air by X-ray was also done by him together with Rutherford.
  • They were the first to demonstrate it. Thomson’s model of an atom is similar to a plum pudding. Postulates of Thomson’s atomic model: Postulate 1: An atom consists of a positively charged sphere with electrons embedded in it Postulate 2: An atom as a whole is electrically neutral because the negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude Thomson atomic model is compared to watermelon.

Molecular mass is defined as the:
  • a)
    Mass of one molecule of any substance compared with the mass of one atom of C – 12
  • b)
    Mass of one atom compared with the mass of one atom of hydrogen
  • c)
    Mass of one atom compared with the mass of one molecule
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
  • Molecular mass is a number equal to the sum of the atomic masses of the atoms in a molecule. The molecular mass gives the mass of a molecule relative to that of the 12C atom, which is taken to have a mass of 12.
  • Molecular mass is a dimensionless quantity, but it is given the unit Dalton or atomic mass unit as a means of indicating the mass is relative to 1/12th the mass of a single atom of carbon-12.

Among the following choose the correct option that best describes the characteristics of spirogyra.
  • a)
    Multicellular, autotrophic, root like rhizoids.
  • b)
    Cytoplasmic strands, autotrophic, presence of rhizome.
  • c)
    Presence of male cones, nonvascular, filaments.
  • d)
    Filamentous, presence of Cytoplasmic strands, presence of pyrenoids.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Debanshi Gupta answered

Characteristics of Spirogyra:

Spirogyra is a type of filamentous green algae with unique characteristics that set it apart from other organisms. Here are some key features that describe Spirogyra:

- Filamentous Structure: Spirogyra has a filamentous body structure, consisting of long, unbranched chains of cells.

- Presence of Cytoplasmic Strands: The cells of Spirogyra contain spiral-shaped chloroplasts, which are interconnected by cytoplasmic strands.

- Presence of Pyrenoids: Spirogyra cells also contain pyrenoids, which are specialized structures involved in the storage of starch.

These characteristics make Spirogyra a distinctive organism within the plant kingdom, and contribute to its ability to carry out photosynthesis and thrive in aquatic environments.

With reference to nuclear fusion, consider the following statements:
1. During the nuclear fusion reaction two lighter nuclei are joined to make a heavier nucleus.
2. Nuclear fusion reactions take place in the Sun and Star. It takes considerable energy to force the nuclei to fuse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
  • Fusion means joining lighter nuclei to make a heavier nucleus, most commonly hydrogen isotopes are added together to create Helium. It releases a tremendous amount of energy, according to the Einstein equation, as the mass of the product is little less than the sum of the masses of the original individual nuclei.
  • Such nuclear fusion reactions are the source of energy in the Sun and other stars. It takes considerable energy to force the nuclei to fuse. The conditions needed for this process are extreme – millions of degrees of temperature and millions of pascals of pressure.

Epithelial tissue always has an exposed outer surface and an inner surface anchored to connective tissue by a thin, non- cellular structure called the
  • a)
    Non-stratified layer
  • b)
    Stratified layer
  • c)
    Basement membrane
  • d)
    Fibroblast
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
Epithelial Tissue: They are formed by cells which cover the external parts of the body organs and line the organ surfaces such as the surface of the skin, the reproductive tract, the airways, and the inner lining of the digestive tract. Functions of Epithelial Tissue
1. Play a major role in sensory reception, excretion, filtration and other metabolic activities.
2. Provide mechanical strength and resistance to the underlying cells and tissue.
3. It is involved in the movement of materials through the process of filtration, diffusion and secretion.
4. Protects the internal organs against the invasions of pathogens, toxins, physical trauma, radiation, etc. Epithelial tissues are also involved in secreting hormones, enzymes, mucus and other products from ducts and transporting it to the circulatory system.

The seat belts are provided in the cars so that if the car stops suddenly due to an emergency braking, the persons sitting on the front seats are not thrown forward violently and saved from getting injured. Can you guess the law due to which a person falls in forward direction on the sudden stopping of the car?
  • a)
    Newton’s first law of motion
  • b)
    Newton’s second law of motion
  • c)
    Newton’s third law of motion
  • d)
    Newton’s law of gravitation
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Kumar answered
Explanation:

Newton’s first law of motion states that an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will remain in motion with a constant velocity unless acted upon by a net external force. This is also known as the law of inertia.

When a car is in motion, the passengers inside the car are also in motion. When the car stops suddenly due to an emergency braking, the passengers inside the car tend to continue their motion in the same direction due to the law of inertia. This means that the passengers tend to move forward in the direction of the car’s motion before it stopped suddenly. This is the reason why a person falls forward on sudden stopping of the car.

The seat belts are designed to prevent this forward motion of the passengers. When a car stops suddenly, the seat belt applies a force on the passenger in the opposite direction to their motion, which helps to slow down their forward motion and bring them to a stop. This prevents the passengers from getting injured due to the sudden stop.

Conclusion:

Therefore, it can be concluded that a person falls in forward direction on the sudden stopping of the car due to Newton’s first law of motion, which is the law of inertia. The seat belts in the cars are designed to prevent this forward motion of the passengers and protect them from getting injured.

Osmosis is a process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one. Can you pick out the option among the following which does not belong to this process?
  • a)
    The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane is affected by the amount of substances dissolved in it.
  • b)
    Membranes are made of organic molecules such as proteins and lipids.
  • c)
    Molecules soluble in organic solvents can easily pass through the membrane.
  • d)
    Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
  • Osmosis is the diffusion of a solvent through a differentially permeable membrane. In biological systems, the solvent will usually be water.
  • Osmosis will occur whenever the water concentrations are different on either side of a differentially permeable membrane. Osmosis can be defined as the movement of water molecules from a higher water concentration area to the area of less water concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
  • In other words, it can be defined as the diffusion of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane. It is a special case of diffusion of water (High to low). For example, water in the roots of plants is transported through osmosis.

Consider the following statements with respect to sound:
1. It can travel through solids, liquids, gases and vacuum.
2. The intensity of sound is measured in decibels (dB).
3. For the human ear, the range of audible frequencies is roughly from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Sound cannot travel in vacuum.The intensity of sound is measured in decibels (dB).The number of oscillations per second is called the frequency of oscillation. Frequency is expressed in Hertz.
  • Its symbol is Hz. A frequency of 1 Hz is one oscillation per second. Sounds of frequencies less than about 20 vibrations per second (20 Hz) cannot be detected by the human ear.
  • On the higher side, sounds of frequencies higher than about 20,000 vibrations per second (20 kHz) are also not audible to the human ear. Thus, for the human ear, the range of audible frequencies is roughly from 20 to 20,000 Hz.

Which of the following statements is not correct about deforestation?
  • a)
    Deforestation increases the temperature on the earth.
  • b)
    Ground water level gets lowered.
  • c)
    The soil properties remain unaffected.
  • d)
    The water holding capacity of soil is lowered.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • Deforestation means that less carbon dioxide will be taken up by the plants, resulting in an increase in its amount in the atmosphere.
  • This will lead to global warming as carbon dioxide traps the heat rays reflected by the earth. Deforestation also lowers the ground water level. The major reason behind the changes of soil properties is deforestation. This causes soil erosion. Soil erosion lowers the content of humus in soil and soil fertility also declines. Soil erosion also causes desertification.
  • Deforestation adversely affects the water holding capacity of the soil. The movement of water from the soil surface into the ground (infiltration rate) is reduced. This is responsible for floods.

The school bags are generally provided with the broad strips because:
  • a)
    It will spread the force of the bag over the large area of the shoulder of the child producing large pressure
  • b)
    It will spread the force of the bag over the large area of the shoulder of the child producing less pressure
  • c)
    It has become a trend among the students to carry the bags with wide strips
  • d)
    It will spread the force of the bag over the small area of the shoulder of the child producing less pressure
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Malik answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option B: It will spread the force of the bag over the large area of the shoulder of the child producing less pressure.

Reasoning:

When designing school bags, it is important to consider the well-being and comfort of the students who will be carrying them. Broad strips on school bags serve a specific purpose, which is to distribute the force exerted by the bag over a larger surface area of the shoulder. This helps in reducing the pressure exerted on the shoulder and provides a more comfortable carrying experience for the child.

Advantages of Broad Strips:

1. Force Distribution: Broad strips on school bags help in spreading the force exerted by the bag over a larger area of the shoulder. This means that the weight of the bag is distributed more evenly, reducing the pressure on a specific point on the shoulder. This is especially important when students have to carry heavy books and other items in their bags.

2. Less Pressure: By distributing the force over a larger area, the pressure exerted on the shoulder is reduced. This can help prevent shoulder pain, discomfort, and even potential injuries that may arise from carrying heavy bags with narrow straps.

3. Improved Comfort: The use of broad straps on school bags enhances the overall comfort of carrying the bag. The broader straps provide better support and stability to the bag, allowing the child to carry it with ease for extended periods of time.

4. Prevention of Shoulder Strain: Carrying heavy bags with narrow straps can lead to strain on the shoulders, neck, and back. Broad straps help in minimizing this strain by evenly distributing the weight, reducing the risk of musculoskeletal issues.

5. Longevity of the Bag: By spreading the force over a larger area, the pressure on the straps themselves is reduced. This helps in preventing wear and tear on the straps, increasing the overall durability and longevity of the bag.

In conclusion, the provision of broad strips on school bags is beneficial as it spreads the force of the bag over a larger area of the shoulder, resulting in less pressure and improved comfort for the child.

Animals have eyes shaped in different ways, and have various specialities. Consider the following statements regarding these specialities:
1. Eyes of a crab are quite small but they enable the crab to look all around him.
2. Butterflies have large eyes that seem to be made up of thousands of little eyes.
3. The Owl has a large cornea and a large pupil to allow more light in its eye.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Eyes of a crab are quite small but they enable the crab to look all around him. Butterflies have large eyes that seem to be made up of thousands of little eyes. It can see not only the front and the sides but back as well.
  • The owl has a large cornea and a large pupil to allow more light in its eye. Owls can see very well at night but not during the day. Also, it has on its retina a large number of rods and only a few cones. The day birds on the other hand, have more cones and fewer rods.

In the context of lenses, consider the following assertions —
1. The image formed by a convex lens is real, inverted and larger in size than the object.
2. The image formed by a concave lens is always virtual, erect, and smaller in size than the object.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • The convex lens forms a erect and magnified image.A convex lens converges (bends inward) the light generally falling on it. Therefore, it is called a converging lens. The concave lens always forms a virtual, erect, and smaller in size image than the object.
  • The concave lens diverges (bends outward) the light and is called a diverging lens.

Consider the following statements:
1. The fuels which are produced by plants and animals are called biomass.
2. The main Constituent of Biogas is Methane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eshaan Kapoor answered
  • Cow dung cakes serve as a steady source of fuel. Since, these fuels are derived from plants and animals hence they constitute – Biomass.
  • These fuels, however, do not produce much heat on burning but a lot of smoke is given out when they are burnt. Cow-dung, various plant materials like crops residue, vegetable waste and sewage are decomposed in the absence of oxygen to give Biogas. Since the starting material is mainly cow-dung, it is popularly known as ‘gobar-gas’.
  • Bio-gas is produced in a dome-shaped plant. Bio-gas is an excellent fuel as it contains up to 75% methane. It burns without smoke, leaves no residue like ash in wood, charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity is high.

Consider the following:
1. Algae: Spirogyra
2. Protozoa: Chlamydomonas
3. Fungi: Rhizopus (bread mould)
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
  • Of the given microorganisms, Spirogyra and Chlamydomonas are examples of algae. Common examples of protozoa are amoeba and paramecium.
  • Rhizopus (bread mould), Penicillium and Aspergillus are examples of fungi. Microorganisms can be unicellular, like bacteria; some are multicellular, like algae and fungi.
  • Some microorganisms are dependent on other microorganisms (parasitic), while some are not (free living). Microorganisms like amoeba live alone (solitary) while fungi live in groups (colonial).

Assertion (A): In India, 98% of the coal is found in Gondwana rocks of the Moran region.
Reason (R): The main regions of Gondwana rocks are found in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Odisha.
Codes:
  • a)
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • b)
    Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
  • c)
    A is true but R is false
  • d)
    Both A & R is not true
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
  • Around 67 % of total commercial energy produced in India and 98% of India's total account is found in Gondwana rocks of the Moran region.
  • The main regions of Gondwana rocks are found in West Bengal, Jharkhand and Odisha. There are four types of coal found in India: Anthracite (Best quality of coal found only in Jammu & Kashmir); Bituminous (Second best quality of coal); Lignite (Found in Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Jammu & Kashmir).
  • Coal accounts for approx. 67 % of total commercial energy produced in India and 98% of India’s total account is found in Gondwana rocks of Moran region.

If the current through the wire increases, the magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point:
  • a)
    Increases
  • b)
    Decreases
  • c)
    Firstly increases and then decreases
  • d)
    Can’t comment anything
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
The current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to magnetic field. As the electric current through the wire increases, the magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point increases.

Consider the following assertions :
1. The regions close to the equator get maximum heat from the Sun.
2. The warm air rises, and the cooler air from the regions in the 0-30 degrees latitude belt, moves in the equator from the 30 degree side.
3. Due to the uneven heating of 30° to 60° latitude, the wind flows from 60° latitude to 30° latitude.
Which of the above assertions is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Regions close to the equator get maximum heat from the Sun:
- This assertion is correct as the regions near the equator receive direct sunlight throughout the year, leading to higher temperatures compared to regions further away from the equator.

Warm air rises, and cooler air from the 0-30 degrees latitude belt moves towards the equator:
- This assertion is also correct as warm air near the equator rises, creating a low-pressure area. Cooler air from the regions around 0-30 degrees latitude moves in to replace the rising warm air, creating a wind pattern known as the Hadley Cell.

Wind flows from 60° latitude to 30° latitude due to uneven heating:
- This assertion is incorrect. The wind actually flows from 30° latitude to 60° latitude due to the temperature difference between these regions. The warm air near the equator rises, moves towards the poles, cools down, sinks at around 30° latitude, and then flows back towards the equator at the surface level.
Therefore, the correct assertions are 1 and 2 only.

What property of an element determines its chemical behaviour?
  • a)
    Size of an element
  • b)
    Valency of an element
  • c)
    Molar mass of the element
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
  • The chemical properties of an element are determined by the configuration of its electrons in orbit around its nucleus.
  • The number of electrons in orbit is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus (each proton has an electrical charge of plus one, while each electron has the same charge only negative one).
  • Since all atoms (of all elements are electrically neutral), the number of electrons in orbit around the nucleus equals the number of protons in those nuclei, so the electrical charges balance each other. It is the way that these electrons orbit the nucleus (according to definite laws) that determines each element’s chemical properties. See a Periodic Table of the Elements. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is its Atomic Number.

Consider the following statements about retina:
1. Retina contains several nerve cells.
2. The blind spot is present at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina.
3. The impression of an image does not vanish immediately from the retina.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
  • Retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve.
  • There are two kinds of cells (i) cones, which are sensitive to bright light and (ii) rods, which are sensitive to dim light. At the junction of the optic nerve and the retina, there are no sensory cells, so no vision is possible at that spot. This is called the blind spot.
  • The impression of an image does not vanish immediately from the retina. It persists there for about 1/16th of a second. So, if still images of a moving object are flashed on the eye at a rate faster than 16 per second, then the eye perceives this object as moving.

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