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All questions of Animal Kingdom for BPSC (Bihar) Exam
With reference to the human body, consider the following statements:
1. The production of somatropin goes up when a person exercises.
2. Men’s testes produce progesterone.
3. Women’s adrenal glands secret testosterone.
4. Stress causes the adrenal to release very less amount of cortisol than usual.Q. Which of these statements are correct?- a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- b)1, 2 and 3
- c)2, 3 and 4
- d)1 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the human body, consider the following statements:
1. The production of somatropin goes up when a person exercises.
2. Men’s testes produce progesterone.
3. Women’s adrenal glands secret testosterone.
4. Stress causes the adrenal to release very less amount of cortisol than usual.
1. The production of somatropin goes up when a person exercises.
2. Men’s testes produce progesterone.
3. Women’s adrenal glands secret testosterone.
4. Stress causes the adrenal to release very less amount of cortisol than usual.
Q. Which of these statements are correct?
a)
1, 2, 3 and 4
b)
1, 2 and 3
c)
2, 3 and 4
d)
1 and 4
|
Surbhi Basu answered |
During exercise, the level of somatotropin goes up. Testes secrete testosterone and females’ adrenal glands secrete progesterone. Stress causes the adrenal glands to release very less amount of cortisol (a steroid hormone) than usual.
Consider the following statements:
1. Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
2. Sex chromosome in human male is named XX.
3. Chromosomes are best seen in metaphase.Q. Which of the statements given above are false about chromosomes?- a)1 and 2
- b)2 only
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)None of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
2. Sex chromosome in human male is named XX.
3. Chromosomes are best seen in metaphase.
1. Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
2. Sex chromosome in human male is named XX.
3. Chromosomes are best seen in metaphase.
Q. Which of the statements given above are false about chromosomes?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
None of these
|
|
Nitya Gupta answered |
Humans are diploid organisms by having two members or homologous chromosomes in a pair. Total 23 pairs of chromosomes exist in each somatic cell of the body. Total 46 chromosomes occur. One particular pair individually in male and female determines their respective sex. This one pair is XX in females and XY in males. All the 46 chromosomes in pairs can be seen under microscope at metaphase stage in the cells which are undergoing mitosis.
Consider the following statements:
1. Warm-blooded animals can remain active in cold environment in which cold-blooded animals can hardly move.
2. Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)Both 1 and 2
- c)2 only
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Warm-blooded animals can remain active in cold environment in which cold-blooded animals can hardly move.
2. Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
1. Warm-blooded animals can remain active in cold environment in which cold-blooded animals can hardly move.
2. Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
Both 1 and 2
c)
2 only
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Sagarika Menon answered |
The correct answer is:
- Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- This statement is correct. Warm-blooded animals have the ability to regulate their internal body temperature, allowing them to remain active in cold environments where cold-blooded animals may struggle due to their reliance on external sources of heat for temperature regulation.
- This statement is also correct. Cold-blooded animals typically have lower metabolic rates and require much less energy to survive compared to warm-blooded animals, which need to maintain a constant internal body temperature through metabolic processes that require more energy.
What is the main role of connective tissues in the body?- a)To facilitate muscle contraction
- b)To provide shape to the body
- c)To transmit nervous signals
- d)To bind and support other tissues and organs
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
To facilitate muscle contraction
b)
To provide shape to the body
c)
To transmit nervous signals
d)
To bind and support other tissues and organs
|
Academic Studio answered |
Connective tissues primarily function to bind and support other tissues and organs in the body. While they play a role in various bodily functions, their main purpose is to provide structural support and cohesion.
What is the primary function of the skeletal system in the body?- a)To provide insulation
- b)To store excess fat
- c)To protect internal organs
- d)To facilitate digestion
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
To provide insulation
b)
To store excess fat
c)
To protect internal organs
d)
To facilitate digestion
|
|
Academic Studio answered |
The primary function of the skeletal system is to protect internal organs, such as the brain, spinal cord, and lungs. It provides a rigid framework that safeguards these delicate structures.
What did Watson and Crick propose about the structure of DNA in 1953?- a)DNA is a single-stranded polymer of nucleotides.
- b)DNA is a protein-based genetic material.
- c)DNA is a double-stranded polymer of nucleotides arranged as a helix.
- d)DNA is a random arrangement of nucleotides.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
DNA is a single-stranded polymer of nucleotides.
b)
DNA is a protein-based genetic material.
c)
DNA is a double-stranded polymer of nucleotides arranged as a helix.
d)
DNA is a random arrangement of nucleotides.
|
T.S Academy answered |
Watson and Crick proposed that DNA is a double-stranded polymer of nucleotides arranged as a helix, known as the double helix structure.
What term is used to describe the elimination of defective germplasm in a society through measures like sexual separation and sterilization?- a)Genetic engineering
- b)Genetic counseling
- c)Positive eugenics
- d)Negative eugenics
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Genetic engineering
b)
Genetic counseling
c)
Positive eugenics
d)
Negative eugenics
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
Negative eugenics refers to the elimination of defective germplasm in a society through measures like sexual separation and sterilization.
What is the condition characterized by the excessive use of an organ leading to its development according to Lamarck's theory?- a)Evolution
- b)Atrophy
- c)Acquired characteristics
- d)Hypertrophy
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Evolution
b)
Atrophy
c)
Acquired characteristics
d)
Hypertrophy
|
Mohit Goyal answered |
Understanding Acquired Characteristics in Lamarck's Theory
Lamarck's theory of evolution is centered around the idea that organisms can develop traits during their lifetime based on their experiences and usage of certain organs. The condition characterized by the excessive use of an organ leading to its development is referred to as "acquired characteristics."
Key Concepts of Acquired Characteristics:
- Definition: Acquired characteristics are traits that are not inherited genetically but are developed through an organism's interaction with its environment.
- Mechanism: According to Lamarck, if an organism uses a particular organ extensively, that organ will become stronger and better developed. For instance, a blacksmith's arm might become more muscular due to the heavy usage of that limb.
- Examples in Nature:
- Giraffes are often cited as an example, where it is suggested that ancestors of giraffes developed longer necks by stretching to reach higher leaves.
- Similarly, aquatic animals may develop fins or other adaptations through their interactions with water, leading to enhanced capabilities.
Contrast with Other Concepts:
- Evolution: While evolution refers to the gradual development of species over generations, acquired characteristics focus specifically on individual changes during a lifetime.
- Atrophy: This term describes the weakening or reduction of an organ due to disuse, which is the opposite of hypertrophy, emphasizing the lack of development.
- Hypertrophy: This is the increase in size of an organ or tissue through the increase in the size of its cells, often due to excessive use.
Conclusion:
In summary, option "C" reflects Lamarck's belief that traits acquired during an organism's lifetime can influence evolutionary changes, a fundamental aspect of his theory that distinguishes it from other evolutionary concepts.
Lamarck's theory of evolution is centered around the idea that organisms can develop traits during their lifetime based on their experiences and usage of certain organs. The condition characterized by the excessive use of an organ leading to its development is referred to as "acquired characteristics."
Key Concepts of Acquired Characteristics:
- Definition: Acquired characteristics are traits that are not inherited genetically but are developed through an organism's interaction with its environment.
- Mechanism: According to Lamarck, if an organism uses a particular organ extensively, that organ will become stronger and better developed. For instance, a blacksmith's arm might become more muscular due to the heavy usage of that limb.
- Examples in Nature:
- Giraffes are often cited as an example, where it is suggested that ancestors of giraffes developed longer necks by stretching to reach higher leaves.
- Similarly, aquatic animals may develop fins or other adaptations through their interactions with water, leading to enhanced capabilities.
Contrast with Other Concepts:
- Evolution: While evolution refers to the gradual development of species over generations, acquired characteristics focus specifically on individual changes during a lifetime.
- Atrophy: This term describes the weakening or reduction of an organ due to disuse, which is the opposite of hypertrophy, emphasizing the lack of development.
- Hypertrophy: This is the increase in size of an organ or tissue through the increase in the size of its cells, often due to excessive use.
Conclusion:
In summary, option "C" reflects Lamarck's belief that traits acquired during an organism's lifetime can influence evolutionary changes, a fundamental aspect of his theory that distinguishes it from other evolutionary concepts.
What principle does homeopathy follow for treatment?- a)"Opposites cure opposites"
- b)"Likes cure likes"
- c)"Nature heals itself"
- d)"Prevention is better than cure"
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
"Opposites cure opposites"
b)
"Likes cure likes"
c)
"Nature heals itself"
d)
"Prevention is better than cure"
|
Ias Masters answered |
Homeopathy follows the principle of "likes cure likes." This means that a substance that causes symptoms in a healthy person can be used in diluted form to treat similar symptoms in a sick person.
What is the characteristic feature of malignant tumor cells in cancer?- a)They remain localized and do not spread
- b)They are benign and harmless
- c)They undergo metastasis, spreading to neighboring tissues
- d)They do not replicate
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
They remain localized and do not spread
b)
They are benign and harmless
c)
They undergo metastasis, spreading to neighboring tissues
d)
They do not replicate
|
Rishabh Malik answered |
Understanding Malignant Tumor Cells
Malignant tumor cells are characterized by their aggressive nature and ability to invade other tissues, a feature that distinguishes them from benign tumors. The correct answer to the question about malignant tumor cells is option 'C': they undergo metastasis, spreading to neighboring tissues.
Key Features of Malignant Tumor Cells
Conclusion
The capability of malignant tumor cells to metastasize is a significant factor in cancer severity and treatment challenges. Understanding this characteristic is crucial in cancer diagnosis and developing effective therapies. Early detection and intervention are vital to managing malignancy and preventing the spread of cancerous cells.
Malignant tumor cells are characterized by their aggressive nature and ability to invade other tissues, a feature that distinguishes them from benign tumors. The correct answer to the question about malignant tumor cells is option 'C': they undergo metastasis, spreading to neighboring tissues.
Key Features of Malignant Tumor Cells
- Invasive Growth: Malignant cells can invade surrounding tissues, unlike benign cells that remain localized.
- Metastasis: These cells can break away from the primary tumor, travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system, and form secondary tumors in distant organs.
- Uncontrolled Division: Malignant cells replicate uncontrollably, leading to tumor growth and potential spread throughout the body.
- Altered Cell Characteristics: Malignant cells often exhibit abnormal shapes, sizes, and structures, differentiating them from normal cells.
- Resistance to Apoptosis: They can evade programmed cell death (apoptosis), allowing them to survive longer than normal cells.
Conclusion
The capability of malignant tumor cells to metastasize is a significant factor in cancer severity and treatment challenges. Understanding this characteristic is crucial in cancer diagnosis and developing effective therapies. Early detection and intervention are vital to managing malignancy and preventing the spread of cancerous cells.
What is the primary cause of AIDS?- a)Bacterial infection
- b)Overactive immune response
- c)Human T-Cell Lymphotropic Virus-III (HTLV III)
- d)Genetic mutation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Bacterial infection
b)
Overactive immune response
c)
Human T-Cell Lymphotropic Virus-III (HTLV III)
d)
Genetic mutation
|
Ujwal Chatterjee answered |
Primary Cause of AIDS
AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, is primarily caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), specifically the strain designated as HTLV III. Understanding this virus is crucial to comprehending how AIDS develops.
What is HTLV III?
- HTLV III is an early name for HIV, which is a retrovirus that attacks the immune system.
- It primarily targets CD4+ T cells, which are vital for a robust immune response.
How HIV Causes AIDS
- The virus enters the body through blood, sexual contact, or from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding.
- Once inside, HIV integrates its genetic material into the host's cells. It replicates, leading to a progressive decline in the number of CD4+ T cells.
- As the immune system weakens, the body becomes increasingly susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain cancers.
Stages of HIV Infection
- Initial Infection: Flu-like symptoms may occur, but many individuals remain asymptomatic for years.
- Chronic Phase: The virus continues to replicate, and CD4+ T cell counts gradually decline.
- AIDS: Diagnosed when CD4+ T cell counts drop below a critical level or when opportunistic infections manifest.
Importance of Early Detection
- Early diagnosis and antiretroviral therapy (ART) can significantly prolong life and improve quality by maintaining immune function and preventing the progression to AIDS.
In summary, option 'C' is correct because HTLV III (HIV) is the virus responsible for the immune system's deterioration, leading to AIDS. Understanding this virus is essential for prevention, treatment, and management of the disease.
AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, is primarily caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), specifically the strain designated as HTLV III. Understanding this virus is crucial to comprehending how AIDS develops.
What is HTLV III?
- HTLV III is an early name for HIV, which is a retrovirus that attacks the immune system.
- It primarily targets CD4+ T cells, which are vital for a robust immune response.
How HIV Causes AIDS
- The virus enters the body through blood, sexual contact, or from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding.
- Once inside, HIV integrates its genetic material into the host's cells. It replicates, leading to a progressive decline in the number of CD4+ T cells.
- As the immune system weakens, the body becomes increasingly susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain cancers.
Stages of HIV Infection
- Initial Infection: Flu-like symptoms may occur, but many individuals remain asymptomatic for years.
- Chronic Phase: The virus continues to replicate, and CD4+ T cell counts gradually decline.
- AIDS: Diagnosed when CD4+ T cell counts drop below a critical level or when opportunistic infections manifest.
Importance of Early Detection
- Early diagnosis and antiretroviral therapy (ART) can significantly prolong life and improve quality by maintaining immune function and preventing the progression to AIDS.
In summary, option 'C' is correct because HTLV III (HIV) is the virus responsible for the immune system's deterioration, leading to AIDS. Understanding this virus is essential for prevention, treatment, and management of the disease.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion(A): In humans, female sex is determined by XX-chromosomes.
Reason(R): Male sex is determined by YY-chromosomes.- a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- c)A is true, but R is false.
- d)A is false, but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion(A): In humans, female sex is determined by XX-chromosomes.
Reason(R): Male sex is determined by YY-chromosomes.
Assertion(A): In humans, female sex is determined by XX-chromosomes.
Reason(R): Male sex is determined by YY-chromosomes.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is true, but R is false.
d)
A is false, but R is true.
|
Amrutha Kapoor answered |
Humans are diploid with 23 pairs of chromosomes. Of this, 22 pairs are somatic and the one pair is sex chromosomes. This particular pair exists as XX in human females and XY in males. The presence of two X chromosomes contributes to the female phenotype while presence of only one Y chromosome is responsible for the human to be male. Females produce only X-type haploid gametes and males produce two types (X and Y) of haploid gametes. Fusion of either X or Y of male gamete with the female gamete determines the sex of the offspring.
Consider the following statements:
1. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin.
2. Gills are not present in any stage of lifespan of frogs.Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 only
- c)2 only
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin.
2. Gills are not present in any stage of lifespan of frogs.
1. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin.
2. Gills are not present in any stage of lifespan of frogs.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 only
c)
2 only
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Pragati Banerjee answered |
Explanation:
Frogs are amphibians that have adaptations to live both on land and in water. They have unique respiratory systems that allow them to breathe in both air and water. Let's take a look at the given statements.
1. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin.
This statement is true. Frogs have lungs that allow them to breathe in air, just like humans. However, they also have a unique adaptation that allows them to breathe through their skin. Their skin is thin and moist, which makes it easier for oxygen to diffuse into their bloodstream. This is especially helpful when they are underwater and cannot breathe through their lungs.
2. Gills are not present in any stage of lifespan of frogs.
This statement is also true. While some amphibians, such as salamanders, have gills as larvae, frogs do not. Instead, they undergo a metamorphosis from tadpole to adult frog. During this process, their gills are replaced by lungs, and they develop the ability to breathe through their skin.
In conclusion, both statements are true, but only statement 1 is correct. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin, but they do not have gills at any stage of their lifespan.
Frogs are amphibians that have adaptations to live both on land and in water. They have unique respiratory systems that allow them to breathe in both air and water. Let's take a look at the given statements.
1. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin.
This statement is true. Frogs have lungs that allow them to breathe in air, just like humans. However, they also have a unique adaptation that allows them to breathe through their skin. Their skin is thin and moist, which makes it easier for oxygen to diffuse into their bloodstream. This is especially helpful when they are underwater and cannot breathe through their lungs.
2. Gills are not present in any stage of lifespan of frogs.
This statement is also true. While some amphibians, such as salamanders, have gills as larvae, frogs do not. Instead, they undergo a metamorphosis from tadpole to adult frog. During this process, their gills are replaced by lungs, and they develop the ability to breathe through their skin.
In conclusion, both statements are true, but only statement 1 is correct. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin, but they do not have gills at any stage of their lifespan.
According to Weismann, which cells are responsible for passing on hereditary variations to the next generations?- a)Somatic cells
- b)Germ cells
- c)Muscle cells
- d)Nerve cells
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Somatic cells
b)
Germ cells
c)
Muscle cells
d)
Nerve cells
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
According to Weismann, germ cells are responsible for passing on hereditary variations to the next generations. He emphasized the distinction between germ cells and somatic cells in terms of hereditary information.
What is the term for the process of decoding mRNA for protein synthesis?- a)Translation
- b)Transcription
- c)Replication
- d)Duplication
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription
c)
Replication
d)
Duplication
|
Ananya Ahuja answered |
Understanding Translation
Translation is the essential biological process where the information encoded in messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded to synthesize proteins. This process is crucial for expressing the genetic information carried by DNA.
Key Steps in Translation:
- Initiation:
- The ribosome assembles around the mRNA molecule.
- The first transfer RNA (tRNA) brings the corresponding amino acid to the start codon (AUG) on the mRNA.
- Elongation:
- The ribosome moves along the mRNA, reading codons (three-nucleotide sequences).
- Each tRNA brings a specific amino acid that matches the codon, forming a growing polypeptide chain.
- Termination:
- When a stop codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) is reached, the process ends.
- Release factors bind to the ribosome, prompting the release of the polypeptide and the disassembly of the ribosome.
Importance of Translation:
- Protein Synthesis:
- Proteins are essential for numerous cellular functions, including structure, enzymatic activity, and regulation.
- Gene Expression:
- Translation is a key step in the central dogma of molecular biology, linking genetic information from DNA to functional proteins.
Conclusion:
In summary, translation is the process of decoding mRNA to synthesize proteins, making it a fundamental aspect of cellular biology and the flow of genetic information. Understanding this process is essential for fields like genetics, molecular biology, and biotechnology.
Translation is the essential biological process where the information encoded in messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded to synthesize proteins. This process is crucial for expressing the genetic information carried by DNA.
Key Steps in Translation:
- Initiation:
- The ribosome assembles around the mRNA molecule.
- The first transfer RNA (tRNA) brings the corresponding amino acid to the start codon (AUG) on the mRNA.
- Elongation:
- The ribosome moves along the mRNA, reading codons (three-nucleotide sequences).
- Each tRNA brings a specific amino acid that matches the codon, forming a growing polypeptide chain.
- Termination:
- When a stop codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) is reached, the process ends.
- Release factors bind to the ribosome, prompting the release of the polypeptide and the disassembly of the ribosome.
Importance of Translation:
- Protein Synthesis:
- Proteins are essential for numerous cellular functions, including structure, enzymatic activity, and regulation.
- Gene Expression:
- Translation is a key step in the central dogma of molecular biology, linking genetic information from DNA to functional proteins.
Conclusion:
In summary, translation is the process of decoding mRNA to synthesize proteins, making it a fundamental aspect of cellular biology and the flow of genetic information. Understanding this process is essential for fields like genetics, molecular biology, and biotechnology.
What is the term for the uncontrolled growth of cells that accompanies cellular transformation in cancer?- a)Metastasis
- b)Neoplasm
- c)Apoptosis
- d)Differentiation
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Metastasis
b)
Neoplasm
c)
Apoptosis
d)
Differentiation
|
|
Sandeep Banerjee answered |
Understanding Neoplasm
Neoplasm refers to the uncontrolled and abnormal growth of cells that occurs during cellular transformation, particularly in cancer. This process is central to the development of tumors and can be benign or malignant.
Key Characteristics of Neoplasm:
- Uncontrolled Cell Division: Neoplasms arise when regulatory mechanisms that control cell growth and division fail. This leads to excessive proliferation of cells.
- Loss of Normal Function: Unlike normal cells, neoplastic cells often lose their ability to perform their specialized functions. They may also evade apoptosis (programmed cell death), allowing them to survive longer than they should.
- Genetic Mutations: The transformation of normal cells into neoplastic cells is often driven by genetic mutations. These mutations can be caused by various factors, including environmental toxins, radiation, or inherited genetic predispositions.
Types of Neoplasms:
- Benign Neoplasms: These are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body. They can still cause problems by pressing on surrounding organs.
- Malignant Neoplasms (Cancers): These are cancerous growths that invade surrounding tissues and can metastasize (spread) to distant sites in the body, making them more dangerous.
Conclusion:
In summary, neoplasm is the correct term for the uncontrolled growth of cells associated with cancerous transformation. Understanding this concept is crucial for recognizing how cancer develops and progresses, which is vital for diagnosis and treatment strategies.
Neoplasm refers to the uncontrolled and abnormal growth of cells that occurs during cellular transformation, particularly in cancer. This process is central to the development of tumors and can be benign or malignant.
Key Characteristics of Neoplasm:
- Uncontrolled Cell Division: Neoplasms arise when regulatory mechanisms that control cell growth and division fail. This leads to excessive proliferation of cells.
- Loss of Normal Function: Unlike normal cells, neoplastic cells often lose their ability to perform their specialized functions. They may also evade apoptosis (programmed cell death), allowing them to survive longer than they should.
- Genetic Mutations: The transformation of normal cells into neoplastic cells is often driven by genetic mutations. These mutations can be caused by various factors, including environmental toxins, radiation, or inherited genetic predispositions.
Types of Neoplasms:
- Benign Neoplasms: These are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body. They can still cause problems by pressing on surrounding organs.
- Malignant Neoplasms (Cancers): These are cancerous growths that invade surrounding tissues and can metastasize (spread) to distant sites in the body, making them more dangerous.
Conclusion:
In summary, neoplasm is the correct term for the uncontrolled growth of cells associated with cancerous transformation. Understanding this concept is crucial for recognizing how cancer develops and progresses, which is vital for diagnosis and treatment strategies.
Which of the following diseases are infectious in milch animals?
1. Hand diseases
2. Anthrax
3. Black quarter
4. Cowpox
Q. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:- a)1, 2 and 3
- b)2, 3 and 4
- c)1 and 4
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following diseases are infectious in milch animals?
1. Hand diseases
2. Anthrax
3. Black quarter
4. Cowpox
Q. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Hand diseases
2. Anthrax
3. Black quarter
4. Cowpox
Q. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
2, 3 and 4
c)
1 and 4
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
|
Hiral Singh answered |
Milch animals are those animals which are source of milk, e.g. cow, goat, buffalo. Foot-andmouth disease, caused by Aphthae epizooticae is an infectious disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals. Anthrax is an acute infectious disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Blackleg, black quarter is an infectious bacterial disease caused by Clostridium chauvoei affecting cattle, sheep and goats. Cowpox is caused by cowpox virus and is infectious.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules.
Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated from restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases.- a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- c)A is true, but R is false.
- d)A is false, but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules.
Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated from restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases.
Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules.
Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated from restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is true, but R is false.
d)
A is false, but R is true.
|
|
Rishabh Sen answered |
In genetic engineering, a DNA segment from any foreign source can be inserted into any other genetic material. The enzymes, called restriction endonucleases, act like scissors that cut apart a particular or specific part of the DNA. This cut out DNA piece can be inserted into other genetic material which has been cut to make space for containing the foreign DNA. The DNA once inserted can be ligated by enzymes known as ligases.
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): If somebody stops taking green vegetables, he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R): He will suffer from vitamin A deficiency.- a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- c)A is true, but R is false.
- d)A is false, but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): If somebody stops taking green vegetables, he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R): He will suffer from vitamin A deficiency.
Assertion (A): If somebody stops taking green vegetables, he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R): He will suffer from vitamin A deficiency.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is true, but R is false.
d)
A is false, but R is true.
|
|
Akanksha Ahuja answered |
Vitamin A has a major role in phototransduction. Its deficiency causes night blindness in humans. Xerophthalmia, keratomalacia can also occur with its deficiency. Green, yellow-orange-red (dark- coloured) fruits and vegetables, eggs, milk; fortified cereals are rich source of vitamin A. Their avoidance over a long period may cause the vit-A deficiency symptoms.
Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitos.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the dengue.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)3 only
- d)1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitos.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the dengue.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitos.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the dengue.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
1 and 3 only
|
|
Amrita Bose answered |
Dengue is a viral disease transmitted through mosquito. Fever, headache, pain in joints, back muscles and eyeballs, skin rash for a few days, bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the dengue fever.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Bone) (Name)
A. Breast bone 1. Clavicle
B. Collar bone 2. Patella
C. Knee cap 3. Scapula
D. Shoulder blade 4. Sternum- a)A: 4, B: 1, C: 3, D: 2
- b)A:1, B: 4, C: 3, D: 2
- c)A: 1, B: 4, C: 2, D: 3
- d)A:4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Bone) (Name)
A. Breast bone 1. Clavicle
B. Collar bone 2. Patella
C. Knee cap 3. Scapula
D. Shoulder blade 4. Sternum
List-I List-II
(Bone) (Name)
A. Breast bone 1. Clavicle
B. Collar bone 2. Patella
C. Knee cap 3. Scapula
D. Shoulder blade 4. Sternum
a)
A: 4, B: 1, C: 3, D: 2
b)
A:1, B: 4, C: 3, D: 2
c)
A: 1, B: 4, C: 2, D: 3
d)
A:4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3
|
|
Surbhi Basu answered |
Sternum is the breast bone. Clavicle is the collar bone. Patella is the knee cap. Scapula is the shoulder blade.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A): A true nucleus is absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes.
Reason (R): An undifferentiated, unorganised fibrillar chromosome existsinside the prokaryotic cells.- a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- c)A is false, but R is true.
- d)Both A and R are false.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A): A true nucleus is absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes.
Reason (R): An undifferentiated, unorganised fibrillar chromosome existsinside the prokaryotic cells.
Assertion (A): A true nucleus is absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes.
Reason (R): An undifferentiated, unorganised fibrillar chromosome existsinside the prokaryotic cells.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is false, but R is true.
d)
Both A and R are false.
|
|
Srishti Nambiar answered |
In the prokaryotes, all the genetic materials lie inside the cell, no clear or separate nuclear wall is recognized in these cells. In fact no membranebound organelles are found in the prokaryotes. While on the other hand, one of the characteristic features of the eukaryotic cells is the presence of membrane bound organelles. Clear and distinguished nuclear membrane bounds the genetic material inside.
Consider the following statements:
1. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of binomial nomenclature of organisms.
2. The word taxonomy was coined by Augustin de Candolle.
Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of binomial nomenclature of organisms.
2. The word taxonomy was coined by Augustin de Candolle.
Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of binomial nomenclature of organisms.
2. The word taxonomy was coined by Augustin de Candolle.
Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Tanishq Rane answered |
Carolus Linnaeus is credited as the father of modern taxonomy. He had created the binomial nomenclature of the living organism as he introduced it in Species Plantarum in 1753. The term taxonomy was originally coined by Augustin Pyramus de Candolle in 1813.
Consider the following statements:
1. Progeria is the genetic disease associated with fast ageing.
2. Progeric patients never live beyond early years of 5 or 6.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Progeria is the genetic disease associated with fast ageing.
2. Progeric patients never live beyond early years of 5 or 6.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Progeria is the genetic disease associated with fast ageing.
2. Progeric patients never live beyond early years of 5 or 6.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Mahi Gupta answered |
Understanding Progeria
Progeria, also known as Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome (HGPS), is a rare genetic disorder that causes children to age rapidly. Let's analyze the given statements to understand their accuracy.
Statement 1: Progeria is the genetic disease associated with fast ageing.
- This statement is correct. Progeria is indeed a genetic condition caused by a mutation in the LMNA gene, which leads to accelerated aging in affected individuals.
- Patients with Progeria exhibit symptoms associated with aging, such as hair loss, joint stiffness, and cardiovascular issues, at a very young age.
Statement 2: Progeric patients never live beyond early years of 5 or 6.
- This statement is incorrect. While it's true that Progeria significantly reduces life expectancy, many patients can live into their teens or even early twenties. The average life expectancy is around 13 years, though some have lived longer.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, only the first statement is true. Therefore, the correct answer is option A: 1 only.
Understanding Progeria helps shed light on the genetic factors influencing aging and the importance of ongoing research to improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
Progeria, also known as Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome (HGPS), is a rare genetic disorder that causes children to age rapidly. Let's analyze the given statements to understand their accuracy.
Statement 1: Progeria is the genetic disease associated with fast ageing.
- This statement is correct. Progeria is indeed a genetic condition caused by a mutation in the LMNA gene, which leads to accelerated aging in affected individuals.
- Patients with Progeria exhibit symptoms associated with aging, such as hair loss, joint stiffness, and cardiovascular issues, at a very young age.
Statement 2: Progeric patients never live beyond early years of 5 or 6.
- This statement is incorrect. While it's true that Progeria significantly reduces life expectancy, many patients can live into their teens or even early twenties. The average life expectancy is around 13 years, though some have lived longer.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, only the first statement is true. Therefore, the correct answer is option A: 1 only.
Understanding Progeria helps shed light on the genetic factors influencing aging and the importance of ongoing research to improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): In filariasis, the lower legs and scrotum are swelled to unproportionate level.
Reason (R): The filarial worms block the lymph vessels and lymph node.- a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- c)A is true, but R is false.
- d)A is false, but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): In filariasis, the lower legs and scrotum are swelled to unproportionate level.
Reason (R): The filarial worms block the lymph vessels and lymph node.
Assertion (A): In filariasis, the lower legs and scrotum are swelled to unproportionate level.
Reason (R): The filarial worms block the lymph vessels and lymph node.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is true, but R is false.
d)
A is false, but R is true.
|
|
Deepak Ghosh answered |
Lymphatic filariasis is caused by nematodes of genera, Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi and Brugia timori, which occupy the lymphatic system, including the lymph nodes. In chronic cases, the worms lead to disease elephantiasis in which legs and sometimes genital organs swell up.
Which nutrient is primarily responsible for the body's growth and maintenance?- a)Vitamins
- b)Minerals
- c)Proteins
- d)Carbohydrates
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Vitamins
b)
Minerals
c)
Proteins
d)
Carbohydrates
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Proteins are primarily responsible for the body's growth and maintenance. They are essential for building and repairing tissues.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A): Regeneration in animals is one of the strategies to escape predation.
Reason (R): These strategies include the rearrangement of pre-existing tissue.- a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- c)A is false, but R is true.
- d)Both A and R are false.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A): Regeneration in animals is one of the strategies to escape predation.
Reason (R): These strategies include the rearrangement of pre-existing tissue.
Assertion (A): Regeneration in animals is one of the strategies to escape predation.
Reason (R): These strategies include the rearrangement of pre-existing tissue.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is false, but R is true.
d)
Both A and R are false.
|
|
Debanshi Sarkar answered |
Both assertion and reason are false. Regeneration is not itself a strategy but rather the shedding off of any organ is a strategy to avoid predation. The strategy to regenerate the body parts from the preexisting tissue or adult stem cells. This actually involves the de-differentiation of the mature cells to make them a sort of stem cells again which can then differentiate to make the lost part. The later strategy is different than the strategy involved in escaping predation.
Consider the following statements:
1. Sphagnum is used as a packing material for transporting living plants.
2. Drug ephedrine is obtained from stem of Sphagnum.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Sphagnum is used as a packing material for transporting living plants.
2. Drug ephedrine is obtained from stem of Sphagnum.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Sphagnum is used as a packing material for transporting living plants.
2. Drug ephedrine is obtained from stem of Sphagnum.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Deepak Ghosh answered |
Sphagnum is also called as peat moss. These have leaf-like appendages that have many circular openings which enable them to absorb liquids readily. Thus they are commercially important as soil structure enhancer, packing material for living plants. Ephedrine is a sympathomimetic amine commonly used as a stimulant, appetite suppressant, concentration aid, decongestant. Ephedrine is obtained from the plant Ephedra sinica and other members of the Ephedra genus.
Match List-I (animals) with List-II (class/ phylum) and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-IIA. Octopus 1. Pisces
B. Jellyfish 2. Arthropoda
C. Silver fish 3. Mollusca
D. Bombay duck 4. Coelenterata- a)A: 3, B: 4, C: 2, D: 1
- b)A: 3, B: 2, C: 4, D: 1
- c)A: 2, B: 3, C: 1, D:4
- d)A: 2, B: 1, C: 3, D: 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Match List-I (animals) with List-II (class/ phylum) and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
A. Octopus 1. Pisces
B. Jellyfish 2. Arthropoda
C. Silver fish 3. Mollusca
D. Bombay duck 4. Coelenterata
B. Jellyfish 2. Arthropoda
C. Silver fish 3. Mollusca
D. Bombay duck 4. Coelenterata
a)
A: 3, B: 4, C: 2, D: 1
b)
A: 3, B: 2, C: 4, D: 1
c)
A: 2, B: 3, C: 1, D:4
d)
A: 2, B: 1, C: 3, D: 4
|
|
Sagar Nair answered |
Octopus belongs to Mollusca. Jellyfish belongs to Coelenterata. Silver fish belongs to Arthropoda. Bombay Duck belongs to Pisces.
With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.Q. Which of the statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Q. Which of the statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Ipsita Basak answered |
After the removal of wastes from the kidneys, the cleaner blood is sent back through the renal veins. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
What type of neurons carry impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs?- a)Afferent (Sensory) neurons
- b)Efferent (Motor) neurons
- c)Internuncial (Connector) neurons
- d)Reflex neurons
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Afferent (Sensory) neurons
b)
Efferent (Motor) neurons
c)
Internuncial (Connector) neurons
d)
Reflex neurons
|
Rishabh Choudhary answered |
Understanding Neurons and Their Functions
Neurons are specialized cells in the nervous system that transmit information through electrical and chemical signals. They are categorized based on their function: afferent (sensory), efferent (motor), and interneurons.
Afferent (Sensory) Neurons
- These neurons carry impulses from sensory receptors to the central nervous system (CNS).
- They detect external stimuli like light, sound, and touch.
- Afferent neurons are responsible for conveying sensory information to the brain for processing.
Efferent (Motor) Neurons
- Efferent neurons, also known as motor neurons, transmit impulses from the CNS to effector organs.
- They play a crucial role in initiating responses in muscles and glands.
- Efferent neurons are essential for voluntary movements, such as walking or grasping an object, as well as involuntary functions like heartbeat regulation.
Internuncial (Connector) Neurons
- These neurons, also known as interneurons, connect afferent and efferent neurons within the CNS.
- They process information and facilitate communication between different regions of the nervous system.
- While they are crucial for reflex actions and complex processing, they do not carry impulses directly to effector organs.
Reflex Neurons
- Reflex neurons are not a distinct category but refer to the neural pathways involved in reflex actions.
- They include both sensory and motor neurons, allowing for quick, automatic responses to stimuli.
Conclusion
Given the definitions and functions of these neurons, the correct answer is option B: Efferent (Motor) Neurons. They are responsible for carrying impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs, enabling the body to respond to stimuli effectively.
Neurons are specialized cells in the nervous system that transmit information through electrical and chemical signals. They are categorized based on their function: afferent (sensory), efferent (motor), and interneurons.
Afferent (Sensory) Neurons
- These neurons carry impulses from sensory receptors to the central nervous system (CNS).
- They detect external stimuli like light, sound, and touch.
- Afferent neurons are responsible for conveying sensory information to the brain for processing.
Efferent (Motor) Neurons
- Efferent neurons, also known as motor neurons, transmit impulses from the CNS to effector organs.
- They play a crucial role in initiating responses in muscles and glands.
- Efferent neurons are essential for voluntary movements, such as walking or grasping an object, as well as involuntary functions like heartbeat regulation.
Internuncial (Connector) Neurons
- These neurons, also known as interneurons, connect afferent and efferent neurons within the CNS.
- They process information and facilitate communication between different regions of the nervous system.
- While they are crucial for reflex actions and complex processing, they do not carry impulses directly to effector organs.
Reflex Neurons
- Reflex neurons are not a distinct category but refer to the neural pathways involved in reflex actions.
- They include both sensory and motor neurons, allowing for quick, automatic responses to stimuli.
Conclusion
Given the definitions and functions of these neurons, the correct answer is option B: Efferent (Motor) Neurons. They are responsible for carrying impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs, enabling the body to respond to stimuli effectively.
What term is used to describe the external appearance of an organism for a particular contrasting character?- a)Genotype
- b)Phenotype
- c)Homozygote
- d)Heterozygote
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygote
d)
Heterozygote
|
Spectrum Coaching Institute answered |
Phenotype refers to the external appearance of an organism for a particular contrasting character, which is influenced by its genotype.
What is the main difference between hormones and enzymes?- a)Hormones are proteins, while enzymes are nucleic acids.
- b)Hormones are secreted by exocrine glands, while enzymes are secreted by endocrine glands.
- c)Hormones are involved in chemical reactions, while enzymes are chemical messengers.
- d)Enzymes can work anywhere in the body, while hormones can only work in target regions.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Hormones are proteins, while enzymes are nucleic acids.
b)
Hormones are secreted by exocrine glands, while enzymes are secreted by endocrine glands.
c)
Hormones are involved in chemical reactions, while enzymes are chemical messengers.
d)
Enzymes can work anywhere in the body, while hormones can only work in target regions.
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Enzymes are biocatalysts that can function in various parts of the body, catalyzing chemical reactions. In contrast, hormones are chemical messengers released by endocrine glands and can only exert their effects in specific target regions where receptor cells are present.
What are the four main types of animal tissues?- a)Epithelial, Connective, Muscular, Skeletal
- b)Epithelial, Muscular, Connective, Nervous
- c)Epidermal, Cartilaginous, Cardiac, Nervous
- d)Endodermal, Exodermal, Connective, Visceral
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Epithelial, Connective, Muscular, Skeletal
b)
Epithelial, Muscular, Connective, Nervous
c)
Epidermal, Cartilaginous, Cardiac, Nervous
d)
Endodermal, Exodermal, Connective, Visceral
|
|
Rajat Mukherjee answered |
Types of Animal Tissues
Animal tissues are classified into four main types, each serving distinct functions in the body. The correct answer is option 'B': Epithelial, Muscular, Connective, and Nervous.
Epithelial Tissue
- Forms the protective outer layer of the body and lines internal organs.
- Functions include absorption, secretion, and sensation.
- Types include squamous, cuboidal, columnar, and transitional epithelium.
Muscular Tissue
- Responsible for body movements and the movement of substances within the body.
- Divided into three types:
- Skeletal Muscle: Voluntary, striated muscle attached to bones.
- Cardiac Muscle: Involuntary, striated muscle found in the heart.
- Smooth Muscle: Involuntary, non-striated muscle found in walls of organs.
Connective Tissue
- Provides support, binds other tissues, and stores energy.
- Types include:
- Loose Connective Tissue: Supports organs and structures.
- Dense Connective Tissue: Forms tendons and ligaments.
- Specialized Connective Tissues: Blood, bone, cartilage, and adipose tissue.
Nervous Tissue
- Composed of neurons and glial cells.
- Responsible for transmitting impulses and processing information.
- Plays a crucial role in controlling bodily functions and responding to stimuli.
Conclusion
Understanding these four main types of animal tissues is essential for studying physiology and anatomy, as they form the basis for organ and system functions in living organisms. Each type of tissue contributes uniquely to the overall health and functionality of the body.
Animal tissues are classified into four main types, each serving distinct functions in the body. The correct answer is option 'B': Epithelial, Muscular, Connective, and Nervous.
Epithelial Tissue
- Forms the protective outer layer of the body and lines internal organs.
- Functions include absorption, secretion, and sensation.
- Types include squamous, cuboidal, columnar, and transitional epithelium.
Muscular Tissue
- Responsible for body movements and the movement of substances within the body.
- Divided into three types:
- Skeletal Muscle: Voluntary, striated muscle attached to bones.
- Cardiac Muscle: Involuntary, striated muscle found in the heart.
- Smooth Muscle: Involuntary, non-striated muscle found in walls of organs.
Connective Tissue
- Provides support, binds other tissues, and stores energy.
- Types include:
- Loose Connective Tissue: Supports organs and structures.
- Dense Connective Tissue: Forms tendons and ligaments.
- Specialized Connective Tissues: Blood, bone, cartilage, and adipose tissue.
Nervous Tissue
- Composed of neurons and glial cells.
- Responsible for transmitting impulses and processing information.
- Plays a crucial role in controlling bodily functions and responding to stimuli.
Conclusion
Understanding these four main types of animal tissues is essential for studying physiology and anatomy, as they form the basis for organ and system functions in living organisms. Each type of tissue contributes uniquely to the overall health and functionality of the body.
What is the normal systolic blood pressure in a healthy adult?- a)60 mm Hg
- b)80 mm Hg
- c)120 mm Hg
- d)160 mm Hg
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
60 mm Hg
b)
80 mm Hg
c)
120 mm Hg
d)
160 mm Hg
|
|
Devansh Ghoshal answered |
Understanding Normal Systolic Blood Pressure
Systolic blood pressure (SBP) is a critical measure of cardiovascular health, reflecting the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats.
Normal Range
- The normal systolic blood pressure for a healthy adult typically ranges from 90 mm Hg to 120 mm Hg.
- Therefore, a systolic reading of 120 mm Hg is considered optimal.
Significance of 120 mm Hg
- A reading of 120 mm Hg indicates that the heart is effectively pumping blood through the arteries.
- Maintaining blood pressure within this range is essential for preventing cardiovascular diseases.
Consequences of Abnormal Blood Pressure
- Low Blood Pressure (Hypotension): Readings below 90 mm Hg can lead to dizziness and fainting.
- High Blood Pressure (Hypertension): Readings consistently above 130 mm Hg may increase the risk of heart disease and stroke.
Conclusion
- Thus, option 'C' (120 mm Hg) is the correct answer, representing the ideal systolic blood pressure in a healthy adult.
- Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing complications.
Systolic blood pressure (SBP) is a critical measure of cardiovascular health, reflecting the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats.
Normal Range
- The normal systolic blood pressure for a healthy adult typically ranges from 90 mm Hg to 120 mm Hg.
- Therefore, a systolic reading of 120 mm Hg is considered optimal.
Significance of 120 mm Hg
- A reading of 120 mm Hg indicates that the heart is effectively pumping blood through the arteries.
- Maintaining blood pressure within this range is essential for preventing cardiovascular diseases.
Consequences of Abnormal Blood Pressure
- Low Blood Pressure (Hypotension): Readings below 90 mm Hg can lead to dizziness and fainting.
- High Blood Pressure (Hypertension): Readings consistently above 130 mm Hg may increase the risk of heart disease and stroke.
Conclusion
- Thus, option 'C' (120 mm Hg) is the correct answer, representing the ideal systolic blood pressure in a healthy adult.
- Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing complications.
The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacterial diseases is
(a) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(b) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(c) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(d) The development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics- a)A
- b)B
- c)C
- d)D
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacterial diseases is
(a) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(b) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(c) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(d) The development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
(a) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(b) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(c) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(d) The development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
|
|
Rounak Kapoor answered |
Introduction
Antibiotics have revolutionized the treatment of bacterial infections, but they cannot address all bacterial diseases effectively due to several factors. The development of antibiotic resistance is a critical issue.
Understanding Antibiotic Resistance
- Mechanism of Resistance: Bacteria can acquire mutations or genetic material from other bacteria that confer resistance to antibiotics. This allows them to survive even in the presence of these drugs.
- Natural Selection: When antibiotics are used, susceptible bacteria are killed, but resistant strains survive and multiply. This natural selection process leads to an increase in resistant populations.
Impact on Treatment
- Ineffective Therapies: Resistant strains can render standard antibiotic treatments ineffective, leading to persistent or worsening infections.
- Limited Options: In cases of resistance, healthcare providers may have to resort to more potent antibiotics, which can have more severe side effects and may not be as widely available.
Broader Implications
- Public Health Concern: The rise of antibiotic-resistant bacteria poses a significant threat to global health, making previously treatable infections potentially deadly.
- Need for New Strategies: Addressing antibiotic resistance requires a multifaceted approach, including responsible antibiotic use, development of new drugs, and alternative therapies.
Conclusion
In summary, while antibiotics are a crucial tool in fighting bacterial infections, the development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics significantly limits their effectiveness. This highlights the need for ongoing research and responsible antibiotic stewardship to combat the growing challenge of antibiotic resistance.
Antibiotics have revolutionized the treatment of bacterial infections, but they cannot address all bacterial diseases effectively due to several factors. The development of antibiotic resistance is a critical issue.
Understanding Antibiotic Resistance
- Mechanism of Resistance: Bacteria can acquire mutations or genetic material from other bacteria that confer resistance to antibiotics. This allows them to survive even in the presence of these drugs.
- Natural Selection: When antibiotics are used, susceptible bacteria are killed, but resistant strains survive and multiply. This natural selection process leads to an increase in resistant populations.
Impact on Treatment
- Ineffective Therapies: Resistant strains can render standard antibiotic treatments ineffective, leading to persistent or worsening infections.
- Limited Options: In cases of resistance, healthcare providers may have to resort to more potent antibiotics, which can have more severe side effects and may not be as widely available.
Broader Implications
- Public Health Concern: The rise of antibiotic-resistant bacteria poses a significant threat to global health, making previously treatable infections potentially deadly.
- Need for New Strategies: Addressing antibiotic resistance requires a multifaceted approach, including responsible antibiotic use, development of new drugs, and alternative therapies.
Conclusion
In summary, while antibiotics are a crucial tool in fighting bacterial infections, the development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics significantly limits their effectiveness. This highlights the need for ongoing research and responsible antibiotic stewardship to combat the growing challenge of antibiotic resistance.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Ptyalin 1. Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
B. Pepsin 2. Digests starch
C. Renin 3. Digests proteins
D. Oxytocin 4. Hydrolyses fats
5. Induces contraction of smooth muscles- a)A: 2, B: 3, C: 1, D: 5
- b)A: 3, B: 4, C: 2, D: 5
- c)A:2, B: 3, C: 5, D: 1
- d)A:3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Ptyalin 1. Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
B. Pepsin 2. Digests starch
C. Renin 3. Digests proteins
D. Oxytocin 4. Hydrolyses fats
5. Induces contraction of smooth muscles
List-I List-II
A. Ptyalin 1. Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
B. Pepsin 2. Digests starch
C. Renin 3. Digests proteins
D. Oxytocin 4. Hydrolyses fats
5. Induces contraction of smooth muscles
a)
A: 2, B: 3, C: 1, D: 5
b)
A: 3, B: 4, C: 2, D: 5
c)
A:2, B: 3, C: 5, D: 1
d)
A:3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
|
|
Avik Chawla answered |
Ptyalin digests the starch in the mouth. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme which breaks down the proteins into simple peptides. Renin is responsible for converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin. Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates the contraction of smooth muscles of the body.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones.
1. Once the HIV gains a foothold, it can never be eradicated from the body.
2. Many HIV patients, however, can manage the infection with a cocktail of drugs.
3. It is very mutable and infects the respiratory system itself.- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)None
- d)All are correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones.
1. Once the HIV gains a foothold, it can never be eradicated from the body.
2. Many HIV patients, however, can manage the infection with a cocktail of drugs.
3. It is very mutable and infects the respiratory system itself.
1. Once the HIV gains a foothold, it can never be eradicated from the body.
2. Many HIV patients, however, can manage the infection with a cocktail of drugs.
3. It is very mutable and infects the respiratory system itself.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
None
d)
All are correct
|
Isha Yadav answered |
Explanation:
1. HIV cannot be eradicated from the body:
- Once HIV gains a foothold in the body, it integrates itself into the DNA of immune cells, making it difficult to completely eradicate.
- This integration allows the virus to remain in the body for life, even with treatment.
2. Managing HIV with drugs:
- While HIV cannot be completely eliminated, many patients can manage the infection with antiretroviral therapy (ART).
- ART involves a combination of drugs that can suppress the virus, allowing patients to lead healthy lives and reduce the risk of transmission.
3. Mutability and respiratory system:
- HIV is indeed a highly mutable virus, which means it can quickly evolve and develop resistance to drugs.
- However, HIV primarily infects immune cells such as CD4 T cells and not the respiratory system itself.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct. HIV cannot be eradicated from the body, but with proper treatment, many patients can effectively manage the infection. Statement 3, on the other hand, is incorrect as HIV primarily targets immune cells and not the respiratory system.
Consider the following statements and the correct ones.
(1) Fish that eradicates the mosquito larva is Gambusia.
(2) The instrument used to measure blood pressure is Autoanalyser.
(3) CT scanning was developed by Godfrey Hounsfield.- a)Only 1
- b)Only 2
- c)Only 1 and 3
- d)All are correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements and the correct ones.
(1) Fish that eradicates the mosquito larva is Gambusia.
(2) The instrument used to measure blood pressure is Autoanalyser.
(3) CT scanning was developed by Godfrey Hounsfield.
(1) Fish that eradicates the mosquito larva is Gambusia.
(2) The instrument used to measure blood pressure is Autoanalyser.
(3) CT scanning was developed by Godfrey Hounsfield.
a)
Only 1
b)
Only 2
c)
Only 1 and 3
d)
All are correct
|
|
Ipsita Dey answered |
The instrument used for measuring blood pressure is known as Sphygmomanometer or BP apparatus. Blood pressure is usually measured from left brachial artery. Autoanalyser is a computer controlled instrument for various biochemical tests on sample of blood, urine or other body fluids. CT scanning, developed by Godfrey Hounsfield in 1968, (Nobel Prize in 1979). Gambusia is a larvivorous fish, used as a biocontrol agent for mosquitoes.
Consider the following statements:
1. Food prepared by plant is transported to different parts of plant through phloem.
2. Water and minerals in plant is transported through phloem.
3. The cell wall of phloem cells is rich in lignin.Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3
- c)1 and 3
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Food prepared by plant is transported to different parts of plant through phloem.
2. Water and minerals in plant is transported through phloem.
3. The cell wall of phloem cells is rich in lignin.
1. Food prepared by plant is transported to different parts of plant through phloem.
2. Water and minerals in plant is transported through phloem.
3. The cell wall of phloem cells is rich in lignin.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3
c)
1 and 3
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Tanishq Rane answered |
In the leaves, the photosynthates or sugars are converted into starch and via phloem their transport to all the other parts occur. The xylem cells transport only water and some minerals from the roots upto the shoots. The xylem vessels are dead cells with empty lumen but they are hard to carryout the water transport by depositing secondary wall materials, such as lignin.
Which type of teeth are elongated, conical, and sharp, used for piercing and tearing food?- a)Incisors
- b)Canines
- c)Premolars
- d)Molars
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Incisors
b)
Canines
c)
Premolars
d)
Molars
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
Canines are elongated, conical, and sharp teeth used for piercing and tearing food. They are often larger in size in males and serve various functions, including defense and offense.
What is the normal range for the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?- a)1-5 mm/hr
- b)10-20 mm/hr
- c)30-40 mm/hr
- d)4-10 mm/hr
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
1-5 mm/hr
b)
10-20 mm/hr
c)
30-40 mm/hr
d)
4-10 mm/hr
|
|
Janhavi Dey answered |
Understanding Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a blood test that measures how quickly red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube that contains a blood sample. It is often used as a non-specific marker of inflammation in the body.
Normal Range of ESR
- The normal range varies by age and gender, but generally, for adults:
- Men: 0-15 mm/hr
- Women: 0-20 mm/hr
- The answer provided, "4-10 mm/hr," is considered a normal range for many healthy adults, particularly in a clinical setting.
Significance of ESR Values
- An ESR of 4-10 mm/hr indicates minimal to no inflammation.
- Higher values can suggest the presence of inflammatory conditions, infections, or other medical issues.
Factors Influencing ESR
- Age: ESR tends to increase with age.
- Gender: Women typically have higher ESR values than men.
- Other factors: Pregnancy, anemia, and certain medications can also affect ESR readings.
Clinical Uses of ESR
- ESR is commonly used to assist in diagnosing and monitoring various conditions, including:
- Autoimmune diseases (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, lupus)
- Infections
- Certain cancers
In conclusion, option 'D' (4-10 mm/hr) is a reasonable normal range for ESR in many contexts, reflecting a healthy state with minimal inflammation. Always consult with healthcare professionals for interpretation of ESR results in the context of individual health status.
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a blood test that measures how quickly red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube that contains a blood sample. It is often used as a non-specific marker of inflammation in the body.
Normal Range of ESR
- The normal range varies by age and gender, but generally, for adults:
- Men: 0-15 mm/hr
- Women: 0-20 mm/hr
- The answer provided, "4-10 mm/hr," is considered a normal range for many healthy adults, particularly in a clinical setting.
Significance of ESR Values
- An ESR of 4-10 mm/hr indicates minimal to no inflammation.
- Higher values can suggest the presence of inflammatory conditions, infections, or other medical issues.
Factors Influencing ESR
- Age: ESR tends to increase with age.
- Gender: Women typically have higher ESR values than men.
- Other factors: Pregnancy, anemia, and certain medications can also affect ESR readings.
Clinical Uses of ESR
- ESR is commonly used to assist in diagnosing and monitoring various conditions, including:
- Autoimmune diseases (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, lupus)
- Infections
- Certain cancers
In conclusion, option 'D' (4-10 mm/hr) is a reasonable normal range for ESR in many contexts, reflecting a healthy state with minimal inflammation. Always consult with healthcare professionals for interpretation of ESR results in the context of individual health status.
Where are the end-products of digestion absorbed in the digestive system?- a)Stomach
- b)Small intestine
- c)Large intestine
- d)Mouth
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Stomach
b)
Small intestine
c)
Large intestine
d)
Mouth
|
Anu Kulkarni answered |
Absorption of Nutrients in the Digestive System
The end-products of digestion, which include amino acids, fatty acids, and simple sugars, are primarily absorbed in the small intestine. Here’s a detailed explanation:
1. Role of the Small Intestine
- The small intestine is the most critical site for nutrient absorption.
- It is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
- The inner lining of the small intestine is covered with tiny, finger-like projections called villi, which increase the surface area for absorption.
2. Digestive Process Completion
- Digestion begins in the mouth and continues in the stomach, where food is broken down into simpler forms.
- However, the majority of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine.
- Enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver aid in breaking down food into its absorbable components.
3. Mechanisms of Absorption
- Nutrients are absorbed through the intestinal walls into the bloodstream via diffusion, active transport, and facilitated diffusion.
- Amino acids and simple sugars enter the bloodstream directly, while fatty acids are absorbed into the lymphatic system before eventually entering the bloodstream.
4. Summary
- While the stomach plays a role in digestion, it is not the site of nutrient absorption.
- The large intestine primarily absorbs water and electrolytes, not the end-products of digestion.
- Therefore, the correct answer to where the end-products of digestion are absorbed is the small intestine (Option B).
In conclusion, the small intestine is essential for the absorption of nutrients, making it a vital component of the digestive system.
The end-products of digestion, which include amino acids, fatty acids, and simple sugars, are primarily absorbed in the small intestine. Here’s a detailed explanation:
1. Role of the Small Intestine
- The small intestine is the most critical site for nutrient absorption.
- It is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
- The inner lining of the small intestine is covered with tiny, finger-like projections called villi, which increase the surface area for absorption.
2. Digestive Process Completion
- Digestion begins in the mouth and continues in the stomach, where food is broken down into simpler forms.
- However, the majority of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine.
- Enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver aid in breaking down food into its absorbable components.
3. Mechanisms of Absorption
- Nutrients are absorbed through the intestinal walls into the bloodstream via diffusion, active transport, and facilitated diffusion.
- Amino acids and simple sugars enter the bloodstream directly, while fatty acids are absorbed into the lymphatic system before eventually entering the bloodstream.
4. Summary
- While the stomach plays a role in digestion, it is not the site of nutrient absorption.
- The large intestine primarily absorbs water and electrolytes, not the end-products of digestion.
- Therefore, the correct answer to where the end-products of digestion are absorbed is the small intestine (Option B).
In conclusion, the small intestine is essential for the absorption of nutrients, making it a vital component of the digestive system.
Which of the following is an example of a genetic disorder caused by a recessive gene?- a)Hemophilia
- b)Down's Syndrome
- c)Klinefelter Syndrome
- d)Sickle Cell Anemia
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Hemophilia
b)
Down's Syndrome
c)
Klinefelter Syndrome
d)
Sickle Cell Anemia
|
Lohit Matani answered |
Sickle Cell Anemia is an example of a genetic disorder caused by a recessive gene. It results from the presence of two recessive alleles for hemoglobin.
What are the three types of RNAs involved in DNA's control on enzyme synthesis?- a)mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
- b)DNA, mRNA, and tRNA
- c)RNA, DNA, and rRNA
- d)tRNA, rRNA, and DNA
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
b)
DNA, mRNA, and tRNA
c)
RNA, DNA, and rRNA
d)
tRNA, rRNA, and DNA
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
These three types of RNAs involved in DNA's control on enzyme synthesis are messenger RNA (mRNA), ribosomal RNA (rRNA), and transfer RNA (tRNA). They play essential roles in the process of protein synthesis.
Why is mRNA called "messenger RNA"?- a)Because it is involved in the transfer of amino acids.
- b)Because it carries the genetic message from DNA for protein synthesis.
- c)Because it is a component of ribosomes.
- d)Because it synthesizes enzymes.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Because it is involved in the transfer of amino acids.
b)
Because it carries the genetic message from DNA for protein synthesis.
c)
Because it is a component of ribosomes.
d)
Because it synthesizes enzymes.
|
Valor Academy answered |
MRNA is called "messenger RNA" because it carries the genetic message from the DNA molecule for the synthesis of a protein or a polypeptide. It acts as a messenger, delivering the instructions for protein synthesis.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five danger signals of cancer mentioned in the text?- a)A lump or hard area in the breast
- b)A persistent cough or hoarseness
- c)A change in a wart or mole
- d)A sudden loss of appetite
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
A lump or hard area in the breast
b)
A persistent cough or hoarseness
c)
A change in a wart or mole
d)
A sudden loss of appetite
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
The five danger signals of cancer mentioned in the text are a lump or hard area in the breast, a swelling or sore throat, a persistent cough or hoarseness, a change in a wart or mole, and a persistent change in diet and bowel habits. Sudden loss of appetite is not included in this list.
Consider the following statements about Vechur cattle breed
1. Vechur is the world’s largest cow.
2. It is indigenous breed found in Kerala.
3. Its milk protein has medicinal value.
4. Commonly used in farming as draught animal.Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- b)1, 2 and 3
- c)2, 3 and 4
- d)3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Vechur cattle breed
1. Vechur is the world’s largest cow.
2. It is indigenous breed found in Kerala.
3. Its milk protein has medicinal value.
4. Commonly used in farming as draught animal.
1. Vechur is the world’s largest cow.
2. It is indigenous breed found in Kerala.
3. Its milk protein has medicinal value.
4. Commonly used in farming as draught animal.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1, 2, 3 and 4
b)
1, 2 and 3
c)
2, 3 and 4
d)
3 and 4
|
|
Keerthana Kulkarni answered |
The Vechur cattle is a rare breed of Bos indicus, named after the village Vechoor in Kottayam district of the state of Kerala in India. Its average length is 124 cm and height is 87 cm, according to the Guineas Book of Records, it’s the smallest cattle breed in the world. Its milk is considered to have medicinal properties. Unlike other cattle, they can resist drought by being hardy towards it.
Which of the following professionals are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA?
1. Researchers from carbon-14 isotope
2. X-ray technician
3. Coal miner
4. Dyer and painter
Q. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:- a)2 only
- b)1, 2 and 4
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)1, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following professionals are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA?
1. Researchers from carbon-14 isotope
2. X-ray technician
3. Coal miner
4. Dyer and painter
Q. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Researchers from carbon-14 isotope
2. X-ray technician
3. Coal miner
4. Dyer and painter
Q. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a)
2 only
b)
1, 2 and 4
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
1, 3 and 4
|
Rithika Yadav answered |
X-Ray technique, C14 and Dyer technique is a very important technique for a permanent change in DNA. But in coal miner, C14 amount is very very less. So, there is no risk of change in DNA.
Match the hormones in List-I with items in List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Adrenaline 1. Anger, fear, danger
B. Oestrogen 2. Attracting partners of smell through sense
C. Insulin 3. Females
D. Pheromones 4. Glucose- a)A: 3, B: 1, C: 4, D: 2
- b)A: 1, B: 3, C: 2, D: 4
- c)A: 1, B: 3, C: 4, D: 2
- d)A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Match the hormones in List-I with items in List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Adrenaline 1. Anger, fear, danger
B. Oestrogen 2. Attracting partners of smell through sense
C. Insulin 3. Females
D. Pheromones 4. Glucose
List-I List-II
A. Adrenaline 1. Anger, fear, danger
B. Oestrogen 2. Attracting partners of smell through sense
C. Insulin 3. Females
D. Pheromones 4. Glucose
a)
A: 3, B: 1, C: 4, D: 2
b)
A: 1, B: 3, C: 2, D: 4
c)
A: 1, B: 3, C: 4, D: 2
d)
A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
|
|
Akshat Jain answered |
Adrenalines are secreted in the situations of exercise, fear or any kind of dangerous situation. Oestrogens are steroid hormones or female primary sex hormones. Insulin is responsible for the metabolism of sugar in the body. Pheromones are the compounds which are secreted generally from insect; go out to affect the other insects. Some of the pheromones include alarm pheromones, food trail pheromones, and sex pheromones.
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