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A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle. A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.Experiment 1Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Experiment 2Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.Experiment 3Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.Experiment 4Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Q. If particle C and particle D are placed on the axis at the same time, accoring to the results of the experiment, what is likely to occur?- a)They would push (repel) each other.
- b)There would be no reaction.
- c)They would draw in (attract) each other.
- d)The combined effect of their relative charge would displace a test charge located at 0m to +7m.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle.
A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.
The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.
Experiment 1
Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Experiment 2
Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.
Experiment 3
Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.
Experiment 4
Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Q. If particle C and particle D are placed on the axis at the same time, accoring to the results of the experiment, what is likely to occur?
a)
They would push (repel) each other.
b)
There would be no reaction.
c)
They would draw in (attract) each other.
d)
The combined effect of their relative charge would displace a test charge located at 0m to +7m.
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Michael Warren answered |
Understanding the Charges of Particles
In the experiments, the behavior of test charges around particles A, B, C, and D indicates their respective charge signs and magnitudes.
Particle C's Charge
- Particle C, located at 0m, displaces the test charge from +8m to +10m.
- Since it repels the test charge, Particle C must have a positive charge.
Particle D's Charge
- Particle D is situated at -5.5m. The test charge, initially at +2.5m, is displaced to +7.5m.
- This indicates that Particle D also repels the test charge, suggesting it has a positive charge as well.
Interaction Between C and D
- Both Particle C and Particle D exert a repulsive force on the test charge.
- Since both particles have a positive charge, they will repel each other due to the fundamental principle that like charges repel.
Conclusion
- When placed on the axis simultaneously, Particle C and Particle D will push (repel) each other. Hence, the correct response to the question is option 'A'.
This interaction aligns with the principles of electrostatics, where similar charges repel, leading to the conclusion of their mutual repulsion in this scenario.
In the experiments, the behavior of test charges around particles A, B, C, and D indicates their respective charge signs and magnitudes.
Particle C's Charge
- Particle C, located at 0m, displaces the test charge from +8m to +10m.
- Since it repels the test charge, Particle C must have a positive charge.
Particle D's Charge
- Particle D is situated at -5.5m. The test charge, initially at +2.5m, is displaced to +7.5m.
- This indicates that Particle D also repels the test charge, suggesting it has a positive charge as well.
Interaction Between C and D
- Both Particle C and Particle D exert a repulsive force on the test charge.
- Since both particles have a positive charge, they will repel each other due to the fundamental principle that like charges repel.
Conclusion
- When placed on the axis simultaneously, Particle C and Particle D will push (repel) each other. Hence, the correct response to the question is option 'A'.
This interaction aligns with the principles of electrostatics, where similar charges repel, leading to the conclusion of their mutual repulsion in this scenario.
Sleep plays a vital role in defining the daily activities of virtually all animals. During periods of sleep, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active and induces a relaxed state in response to increased levels of the hormone melatonin. Yet, despite its ubiquity in the animal kingdom, the purpose of sleep and its role in our daily lives has been disputed by scientists. Two scientists discuss their theories about the purpose of sleep.Scientist 1During periods of sleep, animals are able to conserve energy that they would otherwise be spending on unnecessary activity. If an animal’s primary food source is most abundant during daylight, it is a waste of precious energy to be moving about at night. For example, many herbivores, such as squirrels, are diurnal (sleep during the night) because their food source is available during the day, while many insectivores, such as bats, are nocturnal (sleep during the day) because their food source is available during the night. Food sources, as an animal’s most valuable resource, dictate their sleep cycles. Many animal traits observable today evolved as a result of the supply and demand of food in their natural habitat.Scientist 2During waking hours, it is true that the body utilizes large amounts of energy. However, the role of sleep is to restore biological products that were utilized during periods of wakefulness, rather than simply avoid utilizing energy in the first place. Many types of biological molecules, such as hormones, are released throughout the body while an animal is active. Sleep serves as a period of inactivity during which the body can manufacture and store a supply of these molecules for future use during the next period of activity. Furthermore, sleep allows the body to repair cellular damages that has accumulated during waking hours. Experimental evidence shows that when animals are deprived of sleep, their immune system quickly weakens and death rates increase. Sleep is necessary for animals to prevent accumulation of damage and to regenerate crucial biomolecules for daily life.Q. An animal is deprived of sleep for three days. According to Scientist 1?- a)The animal will die.
- b)The animal will become nocturnal.
- c)The animal will have low energy levels.
- d)The animal will be prone to illness.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Sleep plays a vital role in defining the daily activities of virtually all animals. During periods of sleep, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active and induces a relaxed state in response to increased levels of the hormone melatonin. Yet, despite its ubiquity in the animal kingdom, the purpose of sleep and its role in our daily lives has been disputed by scientists. Two scientists discuss their theories about the purpose of sleep.
Scientist 1
During periods of sleep, animals are able to conserve energy that they would otherwise be spending on unnecessary activity. If an animal’s primary food source is most abundant during daylight, it is a waste of precious energy to be moving about at night. For example, many herbivores, such as squirrels, are diurnal (sleep during the night) because their food source is available during the day, while many insectivores, such as bats, are nocturnal (sleep during the day) because their food source is available during the night. Food sources, as an animal’s most valuable resource, dictate their sleep cycles. Many animal traits observable today evolved as a result of the supply and demand of food in their natural habitat.
Scientist 2
During waking hours, it is true that the body utilizes large amounts of energy. However, the role of sleep is to restore biological products that were utilized during periods of wakefulness, rather than simply avoid utilizing energy in the first place. Many types of biological molecules, such as hormones, are released throughout the body while an animal is active. Sleep serves as a period of inactivity during which the body can manufacture and store a supply of these molecules for future use during the next period of activity. Furthermore, sleep allows the body to repair cellular damages that has accumulated during waking hours. Experimental evidence shows that when animals are deprived of sleep, their immune system quickly weakens and death rates increase. Sleep is necessary for animals to prevent accumulation of damage and to regenerate crucial biomolecules for daily life.
Q. An animal is deprived of sleep for three days. According to Scientist 1?
a)
The animal will die.
b)
The animal will become nocturnal.
c)
The animal will have low energy levels.
d)
The animal will be prone to illness.
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Orion Classes answered |
Scientist 1 argues that sleep is necessary in order to conserve energy. Thus, if an animal is deprived of sleep, they will have lower energy.
Scientist 2, however, might argue that the animal would become sick.
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle. A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.Experiment 1Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Experiment 2Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.Experiment 3Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.Experiment 4Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Q. The results of Experiment 1 and 2 show that __________.- a)Particle A has a higher magnitude of charge than particle B.
- b)Particle A has a lower charge density than particle B.
- c)Particle A has a lower magnitude of charge than particle B.
- d)Particle A has the same magnitude of charge as particle B.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle.
A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.
The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.
Experiment 1
Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Experiment 2
Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.
Experiment 3
Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.
Experiment 4
Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Q. The results of Experiment 1 and 2 show that __________.
a)
Particle A has a higher magnitude of charge than particle B.
b)
Particle A has a lower charge density than particle B.
c)
Particle A has a lower magnitude of charge than particle B.
d)
Particle A has the same magnitude of charge as particle B.
|
|
Orion Classes answered |
Particle A has a lower magnitude of charge than particle B because it displaced the test charge by a smaller amount.
In experiment 1, the test charge moved from +3m to +7.5m, a difference of 4.5m.
In experiment 2, the test charge moved from 0m to –7.5m, a difference of 7.5m.
The experiments give no insight into charge density.
Two scientists wanted to test the solubility of different substances. Solubility is a measure of how many moles of a given substance (known as the solute) can dissolve in a given volume of another substance (known as the solvent). The solvent can also be thought of as the substance present in greater amount, while the solute can be seen as the substance present in lesser amount. The scientists performed the following experiments to investigate this property.Experiment 1The scientists tested the number of moles of several substances that could be completely dissolved in 50mL of water at various temperatures. They made their solutions by slowly adding amounts of each substance to beakers sitting on a hot plate containing water and a stirring rod until no more of the substance dissolved in the solution. The beakers were weighed before and after the additions and the difference in mass was calculated to be the added mass of the substance. The researchers then calculated the number of moles that dissolved for each trial using the molecular mass and the recorded mass for each trial. Results are recorded in Table 1.Table 1
Experiment 2In this experiment, the scientists wanted to test the solubility of NaCl in a variety of liquids at several temperatures. Their procedure was similar to that of Experiment 1, but with a range of liquids and only one solid. The results are compiled in Table 2.Table 2
Q. In Experiment 2, which of the following combinations of temperature and solvent dissolved the greatest number of moles of NaCl?- a)HCl at 50∘C
- b)Methanol at 50∘C
- c)Ethanol at 30∘C
- d)HCl at 30∘C
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Two scientists wanted to test the solubility of different substances. Solubility is a measure of how many moles of a given substance (known as the solute) can dissolve in a given volume of another substance (known as the solvent). The solvent can also be thought of as the substance present in greater amount, while the solute can be seen as the substance present in lesser amount. The scientists performed the following experiments to investigate this property.
Experiment 1
The scientists tested the number of moles of several substances that could be completely dissolved in 50mL of water at various temperatures. They made their solutions by slowly adding amounts of each substance to beakers sitting on a hot plate containing water and a stirring rod until no more of the substance dissolved in the solution. The beakers were weighed before and after the additions and the difference in mass was calculated to be the added mass of the substance. The researchers then calculated the number of moles that dissolved for each trial using the molecular mass and the recorded mass for each trial. Results are recorded in Table 1.
Table 1
Experiment 2
In this experiment, the scientists wanted to test the solubility of NaCl in a variety of liquids at several temperatures. Their procedure was similar to that of Experiment 1, but with a range of liquids and only one solid. The results are compiled in Table 2.
Table 2
Q. In Experiment 2, which of the following combinations of temperature and solvent dissolved the greatest number of moles of NaCl?
a)
HCl at 50∘C
b)
Methanol at 50∘C
c)
Ethanol at 30∘C
d)
HCl at 30∘C
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
To find the correct answer to this question, we need to look for it in Table 2. We are asked to find the greatest number of moles of NaCl that dissolved. Begin by searching in the last column until you find the largest value. Then, look at the temperature and solvent corresponding to that value and see if any answer choices match what you found.
In this case, the largest number of moles dissolved is 0.12029. This corresponds with HCl at 50∘C, which is in fact one of our answer choices.
Sleep plays a vital role in defining the daily activities of virtually all animals. During periods of sleep, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active and induces a relaxed state in response to increased levels of the hormone melatonin. Yet, despite its ubiquity in the animal kingdom, the purpose of sleep and its role in our daily lives has been disputed by scientists. Two scientists discuss their theories about the purpose of sleep.Scientist 1During periods of sleep, animals are able to conserve energy that they would otherwise be spending on unnecessary activity. If an animal’s primary food source is most abundant during daylight, it is a waste of precious energy to be moving about at night. For example, many herbivores, such as squirrels, are diurnal (sleep during the night) because their food source is available during the day, while many insectivores, such as bats, are nocturnal (sleep during the day) because their food source is available during the night. Food sources, as an animal’s most valuable resource, dictate their sleep cycles. Many animal traits observable today evolved as a result of the supply and demand of food in their natural habitat.Scientist 2During waking hours, it is true that the body utilizes large amounts of energy. However, the role of sleep is to restore biological products that were utilized during periods of wakefulness, rather than simply avoid utilizing energy in the first place. Many types of biological molecules, such as hormones, are released throughout the body while an animal is active. Sleep serves as a period of inactivity during which the body can manufacture and store a supply of these molecules for future use during the next period of activity. Furthermore, sleep allows the body to repair cellular damages that has accumulated during waking hours. Experimental evidence shows that when animals are deprived of sleep, their immune system quickly weakens and death rates increase. Sleep is necessary for animals to prevent accumulation of damage and to regenerate crucial biomolecules for daily life.Q. Which of the following, if true, would most support Scientist 1?- a)Human ancestors evolved from being nocturnal to being diurnal.
- b)Many rodents are nocturnal, but squirrels are diurnal.
- c)Birds sleep in trees to avoid predators on the ground.
- d)Bears hibernate in the winter because their food source is scarce.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Sleep plays a vital role in defining the daily activities of virtually all animals. During periods of sleep, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active and induces a relaxed state in response to increased levels of the hormone melatonin. Yet, despite its ubiquity in the animal kingdom, the purpose of sleep and its role in our daily lives has been disputed by scientists. Two scientists discuss their theories about the purpose of sleep.
Scientist 1
During periods of sleep, animals are able to conserve energy that they would otherwise be spending on unnecessary activity. If an animal’s primary food source is most abundant during daylight, it is a waste of precious energy to be moving about at night. For example, many herbivores, such as squirrels, are diurnal (sleep during the night) because their food source is available during the day, while many insectivores, such as bats, are nocturnal (sleep during the day) because their food source is available during the night. Food sources, as an animal’s most valuable resource, dictate their sleep cycles. Many animal traits observable today evolved as a result of the supply and demand of food in their natural habitat.
Scientist 2
During waking hours, it is true that the body utilizes large amounts of energy. However, the role of sleep is to restore biological products that were utilized during periods of wakefulness, rather than simply avoid utilizing energy in the first place. Many types of biological molecules, such as hormones, are released throughout the body while an animal is active. Sleep serves as a period of inactivity during which the body can manufacture and store a supply of these molecules for future use during the next period of activity. Furthermore, sleep allows the body to repair cellular damages that has accumulated during waking hours. Experimental evidence shows that when animals are deprived of sleep, their immune system quickly weakens and death rates increase. Sleep is necessary for animals to prevent accumulation of damage and to regenerate crucial biomolecules for daily life.
Q. Which of the following, if true, would most support Scientist 1?
a)
Human ancestors evolved from being nocturnal to being diurnal.
b)
Many rodents are nocturnal, but squirrels are diurnal.
c)
Birds sleep in trees to avoid predators on the ground.
d)
Bears hibernate in the winter because their food source is scarce.
|
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
Scientist 1 claims that sleep allows animals to conserve energy during times when food is less readily available. Thus, a bear sleeping because its food is unavailable supports Scientist 1's theory.
The only other answer involving food states "Bats that are given infinite food availability sleep more." According to Scientist 1, this would mean that the bats also have unlimited energy and would require less sleep. They would not need to conserve energy if they had unlimited food.
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle. A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.Experiment 1Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Experiment 2Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.Experiment 3Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.Experiment 4Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Q. The results of experiments 3 and 4 show that __________.- a)Particle D has a lower charge than particle C.
- b)Particle D has the opposite charge sign that particle C has.
- c)Particle D has a higher charge than particle C.
- d)Particle D has the same charge as particle C.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle.
A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.
The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.
Experiment 1
Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Experiment 2
Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.
Experiment 3
Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.
Experiment 4
Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Q. The results of experiments 3 and 4 show that __________.
a)
Particle D has a lower charge than particle C.
b)
Particle D has the opposite charge sign that particle C has.
c)
Particle D has a higher charge than particle C.
d)
Particle D has the same charge as particle C.
|
|
Orion Classes answered |
We know that particles D and C have the same sign, as they pushed the test charge in the same direction.
We know that D has the higher magnitude because it displaced the test charge from +2.5m to +7.5m, a difference of 5m, while C displaced the test charge from +8m to +10m, a difference of 2m.
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle. A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.Experiment 1Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Experiment 2Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.Experiment 3Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.Experiment 4Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Q. Which of the following represents the order of charge of the four particles, from highest to lowest?- a)A, B, C, D
- b)B, D, C, A
- c)D, A, C, B
- d)B, D, A, C
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle.
A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.
The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.
Experiment 1
Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Experiment 2
Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.
Experiment 3
Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.
Experiment 4
Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Q. Which of the following represents the order of charge of the four particles, from highest to lowest?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, D, C, A
c)
D, A, C, B
d)
B, D, A, C
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|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
Particle B displaced the test charge from 0m to –7.5m, a distance of 7.5m
Particle D displaced the test charge from +2.5m to +7.5m, a distance of 5m
Particle A displaced the test charge from +3m to +7.5m, a distance of 4.5m
Particle C displaced the test charge from +8m to +10m, a distance of 2m
Sleep plays a vital role in defining the daily activities of virtually all animals. During periods of sleep, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active and induces a relaxed state in response to increased levels of the hormone melatonin. Yet, despite its ubiquity in the animal kingdom, the purpose of sleep and its role in our daily lives has been disputed by scientists. Two scientists discuss their theories about the purpose of sleep.Scientist 1During periods of sleep, animals are able to conserve energy that they would otherwise be spending on unnecessary activity. If an animal’s primary food source is most abundant during daylight, it is a waste of precious energy to be moving about at night. For example, many herbivores, such as squirrels, are diurnal (sleep during the night) because their food source is available during the day, while many insectivores, such as bats, are nocturnal (sleep during the day) because their food source is available during the night. Food sources, as an animal’s most valuable resource, dictate their sleep cycles. Many animal traits observable today evolved as a result of the supply and demand of food in their natural habitat.Scientist 2During waking hours, it is true that the body utilizes large amounts of energy. However, the role of sleep is to restore biological products that were utilized during periods of wakefulness, rather than simply avoid utilizing energy in the first place. Many types of biological molecules, such as hormones, are released throughout the body while an animal is active. Sleep serves as a period of inactivity during which the body can manufacture and store a supply of these molecules for future use during the next period of activity. Furthermore, sleep allows the body to repair cellular damages that has accumulated during waking hours. Experimental evidence shows that when animals are deprived of sleep, their immune system quickly weakens and death rates increase. Sleep is necessary for animals to prevent accumulation of damage and to regenerate crucial biomolecules for daily life.Q. Which of the following, if true, would most support Scientist 2?- a)Tigers that are deprived of sleep often become sick
- b)Antelope that have been injured sleep less than those that are healthy
- c)Elephants in a herd sleep at the same time as a group
- d)Mother dogs often stay awake at night to guard their pups
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Sleep plays a vital role in defining the daily activities of virtually all animals. During periods of sleep, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active and induces a relaxed state in response to increased levels of the hormone melatonin. Yet, despite its ubiquity in the animal kingdom, the purpose of sleep and its role in our daily lives has been disputed by scientists. Two scientists discuss their theories about the purpose of sleep.
Scientist 1
During periods of sleep, animals are able to conserve energy that they would otherwise be spending on unnecessary activity. If an animal’s primary food source is most abundant during daylight, it is a waste of precious energy to be moving about at night. For example, many herbivores, such as squirrels, are diurnal (sleep during the night) because their food source is available during the day, while many insectivores, such as bats, are nocturnal (sleep during the day) because their food source is available during the night. Food sources, as an animal’s most valuable resource, dictate their sleep cycles. Many animal traits observable today evolved as a result of the supply and demand of food in their natural habitat.
Scientist 2
During waking hours, it is true that the body utilizes large amounts of energy. However, the role of sleep is to restore biological products that were utilized during periods of wakefulness, rather than simply avoid utilizing energy in the first place. Many types of biological molecules, such as hormones, are released throughout the body while an animal is active. Sleep serves as a period of inactivity during which the body can manufacture and store a supply of these molecules for future use during the next period of activity. Furthermore, sleep allows the body to repair cellular damages that has accumulated during waking hours. Experimental evidence shows that when animals are deprived of sleep, their immune system quickly weakens and death rates increase. Sleep is necessary for animals to prevent accumulation of damage and to regenerate crucial biomolecules for daily life.
Q. Which of the following, if true, would most support Scientist 2?
a)
Tigers that are deprived of sleep often become sick
b)
Antelope that have been injured sleep less than those that are healthy
c)
Elephants in a herd sleep at the same time as a group
d)
Mother dogs often stay awake at night to guard their pups
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
Scientist 2's theory states that "when animals are deprived of sleep, their immune system quickly weakens". Thus, when tigers are deprived of sleep, their immune systems would weaken and they would be likely to become sick.
The only other answer choice dealing with repairing damage and restoring the body is "Antelope that have been injured sleep less than those that are healthy". According to scientist 2, animals with more damage would likely sleep more to repair the damage, not less.
A scientific experiment is conducted to test if calcium can affect gene regulation. Scientists hypothesized that high levels of calcium would interact with the proteins Cs3 and Gfy, which in turn would increase the transcription of genes F4597 and BC392. The experiment procedure is summarized below. - Isolate the genes F4597 and BC392.
- Create a vector within yeast cells containing the two genes
- Culture yeast cells
- Grow yeast cells in different growth mediums- one medium lacking calcium (plate A) and one medium with supplemented calcium (plate B)
Q. What might it suggest if both plates were found to have no gene activity?- a)An outside variable is suppressing the gene activity and masking the results of calcium.
- b)There was contamination at one or several steps in the experiment that prevented the yeast from growing.
- c)None of the statements could be reasons for no gene activity within the plates.
- d)All of the statements could be reasons for no gene activity within the plates.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A scientific experiment is conducted to test if calcium can affect gene regulation. Scientists hypothesized that high levels of calcium would interact with the proteins Cs3 and Gfy, which in turn would increase the transcription of genes F4597 and BC392. The experiment procedure is summarized below.
- Isolate the genes F4597 and BC392.
- Create a vector within yeast cells containing the two genes
- Culture yeast cells
- Grow yeast cells in different growth mediums- one medium lacking calcium (plate A) and one medium with supplemented calcium (plate B)
Q. What might it suggest if both plates were found to have no gene activity?
a)
An outside variable is suppressing the gene activity and masking the results of calcium.
b)
There was contamination at one or several steps in the experiment that prevented the yeast from growing.
c)
None of the statements could be reasons for no gene activity within the plates.
d)
All of the statements could be reasons for no gene activity within the plates.
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
All of the possible statements are situations that could exist within this experiment. It is very possible contamination took place. If the vectors were not done properly, then the genes might even be in the yeast cells, which would show up as no gene activity. It is also always possible an outside factor not addressed in the experiment is interferring with the results.
Two scientists wanted to test the solubility of different substances. Solubility is a measure of how many moles of a given substance (known as the solute) can dissolve in a given volume of another substance (known as the solvent). The solvent can also be thought of as the substance present in greater amount, while the solute can be seen as the substance present in lesser amount. The scientists performed the following experiments to investigate this property.Experiment 1The scientists tested the number of moles of several substances that could be completely dissolved in 50mL of water at various temperatures. They made their solutions by slowly adding amounts of each substance to beakers sitting on a hot plate containing water and a stirring rod until no more of the substance dissolved in the solution. The beakers were weighed before and after the additions and the difference in mass was calculated to be the added mass of the substance. The researchers then calculated the number of moles that dissolved for each trial using the molecular mass and the recorded mass for each trial. Results are recorded in Table 1.Table 1
Experiment 2In this experiment, the scientists wanted to test the solubility of NaCl in a variety of liquids at several temperatures. Their procedure was similar to that of Experiment 1, but with a range of liquids and only one solid. The results are compiled in Table 2.Table 2
Q. Which of the following correctly ranks the solutes from Experiment 1 in decreasing order of solubility in water at 50∘C?- a)NaCl,KNO3,CuSO4,AgCl
- b)CuSO4,KNO3,NaCl,AgCl
- c)CuSO4,NaCl,KNO3,AgCl
- d)AgCl,NaCl,KNO3,CuSO4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Two scientists wanted to test the solubility of different substances. Solubility is a measure of how many moles of a given substance (known as the solute) can dissolve in a given volume of another substance (known as the solvent). The solvent can also be thought of as the substance present in greater amount, while the solute can be seen as the substance present in lesser amount. The scientists performed the following experiments to investigate this property.
Experiment 1
The scientists tested the number of moles of several substances that could be completely dissolved in 50mL of water at various temperatures. They made their solutions by slowly adding amounts of each substance to beakers sitting on a hot plate containing water and a stirring rod until no more of the substance dissolved in the solution. The beakers were weighed before and after the additions and the difference in mass was calculated to be the added mass of the substance. The researchers then calculated the number of moles that dissolved for each trial using the molecular mass and the recorded mass for each trial. Results are recorded in Table 1.
Table 1
Experiment 2
In this experiment, the scientists wanted to test the solubility of NaCl in a variety of liquids at several temperatures. Their procedure was similar to that of Experiment 1, but with a range of liquids and only one solid. The results are compiled in Table 2.
Table 2
Q. Which of the following correctly ranks the solutes from Experiment 1 in decreasing order of solubility in water at 50∘C?
a)
NaCl,KNO3,CuSO4,AgCl
b)
CuSO4,KNO3,NaCl,AgCl
c)
CuSO4,NaCl,KNO3,AgCl
d)
AgCl,NaCl,KNO3,CuSO4
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
The introduction explains that solubility is a measure of how many moles of a substance can dissolve in a given volume of another substance. This is a very important clue that tells us we need to focus on the "moles added" column rather than the "grams added" column. We need to rank our substances in decreasing order, so we need start with the one with the highest solubility at 50∘C.
The number of moles dissolved at 50∘C are as follows.
NaCl: 0.04004
KNO3: 0.03412
CuSO4: 0.1603
AgCl: 1.6047∗10−5
So the correct order is:
NaCl,KNO3,CuSO4,AgCl
A particle accelerator functions by exerting a magnetic field on charged particles which are shot into the accelerator. The magnetic field causes the charged particles to move around in a circle of radius R that can be predicted by the following equation, where mp is the mass of the particle in kilograms, v is the initial speed at which the particle was shot in meters per second, q is the charge of the particle in Coulombs, and B is the strength of the magnetic field in Tesla. R=mpv/qBA proton weighs approximately 1 amu (atomic mass units) and has a charge of 1.6∗10−19 C. An electron has the same magnitude of charge, but it has about 1/1800 of the proton's mass. What would happen to radius R if we were to suddenly switch the particle in the accelerator from a proton to an electron, keeping all of the other conditions the same?- a)Radius R would decrease 900-fold.
- b)Radius R would decrease 1800-fold.
- c)Radius R would increase 900-fold.
- d)Radius R would increase 1800-fold.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A particle accelerator functions by exerting a magnetic field on charged particles which are shot into the accelerator. The magnetic field causes the charged particles to move around in a circle of radius R that can be predicted by the following equation, where mp is the mass of the particle in kilograms, v is the initial speed at which the particle was shot in meters per second, q is the charge of the particle in Coulombs, and B is the strength of the magnetic field in Tesla.
R=mpv/qB
A proton weighs approximately 1 amu (atomic mass units) and has a charge of 1.6∗10−19 C. An electron has the same magnitude of charge, but it has about 1/1800 of the proton's mass. What would happen to radius R if we were to suddenly switch the particle in the accelerator from a proton to an electron, keeping all of the other conditions the same?
a)
Radius R would decrease 900-fold.
b)
Radius R would decrease 1800-fold.
c)
Radius R would increase 900-fold.
d)
Radius R would increase 1800-fold.
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Emily Price answered |
Explanation:
Given:
- Mass of proton (mp) = 1 amu
- Charge of proton (q) = 1.6x10^-19 C
- Mass of electron = 1/1800 of proton's mass
- Charge of electron = same as proton's charge
Formula for radius R:
R = (mp * v) / (q * B)
Analysis:
- For the proton:
- mp = 1 amu = 1.67x10^-27 kg
- q = 1.6x10^-19 C
- For the electron:
- mp = 1/1800 * 1.67x10^-27 kg ≈ 9.3x10^-31 kg
- q = 1.6x10^-19 C
Comparison:
- For the same initial speed, magnetic field strength, and charge, the radius R is inversely proportional to the mass of the particle.
- Since the mass of the electron is approximately 1800 times smaller than the mass of the proton, the radius R would increase 1800-fold if we were to switch the particle from a proton to an electron.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D - Radius R would increase 1800-fold.
Given:
- Mass of proton (mp) = 1 amu
- Charge of proton (q) = 1.6x10^-19 C
- Mass of electron = 1/1800 of proton's mass
- Charge of electron = same as proton's charge
Formula for radius R:
R = (mp * v) / (q * B)
Analysis:
- For the proton:
- mp = 1 amu = 1.67x10^-27 kg
- q = 1.6x10^-19 C
- For the electron:
- mp = 1/1800 * 1.67x10^-27 kg ≈ 9.3x10^-31 kg
- q = 1.6x10^-19 C
Comparison:
- For the same initial speed, magnetic field strength, and charge, the radius R is inversely proportional to the mass of the particle.
- Since the mass of the electron is approximately 1800 times smaller than the mass of the proton, the radius R would increase 1800-fold if we were to switch the particle from a proton to an electron.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D - Radius R would increase 1800-fold.
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:PV=nRT Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.Q. As the kinetic energy of a molecule increases, one would expect the potential energy to:- a)Increase
- b)Decrease
- c)Cannot Be Determined
- d)Remain the Same
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.
Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:
PV=nRT
Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.
The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.
Q. As the kinetic energy of a molecule increases, one would expect the potential energy to:
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Cannot Be Determined
d)
Remain the Same
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
Using the last few sentences of the first paragraph as a guide, we can see that the total energy is fixed. Thus, some combination of kinetic and potential energies makes up the total energy. We can relate how the energies combine with the following formula: ET = EK + EP. Thus, if the kinetic energy increases, the potential energy would have to decrease to keep the sum total the same.
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:PV=nRT Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.Q. In an oxygen molecule, O2, the two oxygen atoms oscillate about a fixed central point. Which form of kinetic energy is best described here?- a)Translational
- b)Vibrational
- c)Rotational
- d)None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.
Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:
PV=nRT
Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.
The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.
Q. In an oxygen molecule, O2, the two oxygen atoms oscillate about a fixed central point. Which form of kinetic energy is best described here?
a)
Translational
b)
Vibrational
c)
Rotational
d)
None of the Above
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
In the first paragraph, the passage tells us that individual atoms in a bond that move towards and away from each other constitute vibrational energy. Based on the question, the two oxygen atoms oscillate around the central point (the mid-point of their bond). Thus, this is vibrational energy.
An experiment was done to look at the effects of iodine supplements on the production of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. Individuals in the study were divided into categorizes based on the dosage of iodine supplemented. The chart below summarizes the data collected. THY1 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group prior to taking the supplement. THY2 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group after three months of taking supplements.
Q. Group 2 was given a placebo supplement, which shows:- a)The placebo supplement resulted in a thyroxine increase that was the same as the thyroxine increase in the control group.
- b)The placebo supplement resulted in a higher thyroxine increase than the thyroxine increase in the control group.
- c)The placebo supplement resulted in a higher thyroxine decrease than the thyroxine decrease in the control group.
- d)The placebo supplement did not change the thyroxine level.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
An experiment was done to look at the effects of iodine supplements on the production of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. Individuals in the study were divided into categorizes based on the dosage of iodine supplemented. The chart below summarizes the data collected. THY1 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group prior to taking the supplement. THY2 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group after three months of taking supplements.
Q. Group 2 was given a placebo supplement, which shows:
a)
The placebo supplement resulted in a thyroxine increase that was the same as the thyroxine increase in the control group.
b)
The placebo supplement resulted in a higher thyroxine increase than the thyroxine increase in the control group.
c)
The placebo supplement resulted in a higher thyroxine decrease than the thyroxine decrease in the control group.
d)
The placebo supplement did not change the thyroxine level.
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
Group 2 had a higher thyroxine increase ( a .114 difference) than the thyroxine increase in Group 1 (0.069).
The origin of the universe has been a highly debated topic among physicists. In the middle of the twentieth century, there were two prevalent models regarding the origin of the universe. The first model, called the Big Bang Theory, suggests that the universe was spontaneously created approximately 14 billion years ago. The second model, called the Steady State Theory, suggests that the universe contains no beginning or end, is always expanding, and contains a constant density.Initially, the Big Bang Theory was widely disregarded by physicists and astronomers. In fact, the name “Big Bang” was coined by Fred Hoyle, a supporter of the Steady State Theory, who used the term in a derogatory manner. The Big Bang Theory suggests that prior to the creation of matter, a physical object that occupies space and possesses mass, the universe was filled homogenously with high-energy density and very high temperature and pressure. The universe was rapidly expanding and cooling resulting in the creation of atoms. The initial atoms that were produced were much lighter than the atoms currently found on earth, the lightest of which are hydrogen, helium, and lithium. After this initial creation of the universe, it continued to expand. The Big Bang Theory is now the prevalent theory for the origin of the universe.The Steady State Theory suggests that there is no start or end to the universe in time or space, yet the universe is always expanding. Furthermore, the Steady State Theory states that new stars and galaxies replace old stars and galaxies and the overall appearance of the universe does not change over time.Two sources of evidence are used to support or refute the discussed hypotheses. The first piece of data is the presence of primordial gas clouds, pockets of the universe that contain gases lighter than those found in the current universe. The second piece of evidence is that other galaxies are “red shifted”. The term red-shift indicates that as objects move farther away, the light they emit changes wavelength and appears to be more red. Q. The Big Bang Theory states:- a)The big bang produced gases with a lighter mass than those found on Earth
- b)The universe was created by the cooling of a hot, high energy mass
- c)The universe is always expanding
- d)All of the other choices
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The origin of the universe has been a highly debated topic among physicists. In the middle of the twentieth century, there were two prevalent models regarding the origin of the universe. The first model, called the Big Bang Theory, suggests that the universe was spontaneously created approximately 14 billion years ago. The second model, called the Steady State Theory, suggests that the universe contains no beginning or end, is always expanding, and contains a constant density.
Initially, the Big Bang Theory was widely disregarded by physicists and astronomers. In fact, the name “Big Bang” was coined by Fred Hoyle, a supporter of the Steady State Theory, who used the term in a derogatory manner. The Big Bang Theory suggests that prior to the creation of matter, a physical object that occupies space and possesses mass, the universe was filled homogenously with high-energy density and very high temperature and pressure. The universe was rapidly expanding and cooling resulting in the creation of atoms. The initial atoms that were produced were much lighter than the atoms currently found on earth, the lightest of which are hydrogen, helium, and lithium. After this initial creation of the universe, it continued to expand. The Big Bang Theory is now the prevalent theory for the origin of the universe.
The Steady State Theory suggests that there is no start or end to the universe in time or space, yet the universe is always expanding. Furthermore, the Steady State Theory states that new stars and galaxies replace old stars and galaxies and the overall appearance of the universe does not change over time.
Two sources of evidence are used to support or refute the discussed hypotheses. The first piece of data is the presence of primordial gas clouds, pockets of the universe that contain gases lighter than those found in the current universe. The second piece of evidence is that other galaxies are “red shifted”. The term red-shift indicates that as objects move farther away, the light they emit changes wavelength and appears to be more red.
Q. The Big Bang Theory states:
a)
The big bang produced gases with a lighter mass than those found on Earth
b)
The universe was created by the cooling of a hot, high energy mass
c)
The universe is always expanding
d)
All of the other choices
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Orion Classes answered |
The Big Bang Theory states that the universe containing mass was created around 14 billion years ago when the universe was in a hot, dense state that was full of energy. The universe was cooling and expanding resulting in the creation of atoms (and mass). The first gases created contained elements that are smaller than those found on earth. The universe continues to expand.
The cause of the extinction of dinosaurs 65 million years ago is currently debated. Some attribute the extinction to volcanic activity while others attribute it to asteroid or comet impact. Two scientists offer conflicting viewpoints on the most probable cause of the mass extinction.Scientist AThe extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by the impact of an asteroid or large comet. Unusually high levels of the rare metal iridium (found in extraterrestrial material) have been discovered in a layer of clay deposited at just the time of the extinction. In addition, this layer of clay contained quartz grains with a crystal structure that has been distorted by exceedingly high pressures (almost certainly caused by an impact). This colossal impact brought about a period of severe cooling that affected dinosaur eggs rather than adult dinosaurs. Small reptiles could survive by protecting their minute eggs in a variety of ways. However, there was no way for dinosaurs to protect their large eggs against a quickly-changing climate.Scientist BThe extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by a volcanic outburst. In general, volcanic eruptions can have potent effects on climate. In 1815 the volcano Tambora in Indonesia erupted, spreading a pall of dust around the globe that resulted in killing frosts around Europe. The much larger eruption that formed the Deccan basalts about 65 million years ago would have caused a deeper and more prolonged cooling that directly affected adult dinosaurs. The rare metal iridium has been found both in active volcanoes and in a layer of clay deposited around the time of the dinosaur extinction. Therefore the dinosaurs were most likely affected by a massive volcanic eruption.Nowadays, various natural phenomena can produce clouds of dust that spread over large areas. Based on the information in the passage, Scientist B would most likely predict which of the following outcomes near these affected areas?- a)No significant climate change
- b)Cooling
- c)Warming
- d)Volcanic eruption
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The cause of the extinction of dinosaurs 65 million years ago is currently debated. Some attribute the extinction to volcanic activity while others attribute it to asteroid or comet impact. Two scientists offer conflicting viewpoints on the most probable cause of the mass extinction.
Scientist A
The extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by the impact of an asteroid or large comet. Unusually high levels of the rare metal iridium (found in extraterrestrial material) have been discovered in a layer of clay deposited at just the time of the extinction. In addition, this layer of clay contained quartz grains with a crystal structure that has been distorted by exceedingly high pressures (almost certainly caused by an impact). This colossal impact brought about a period of severe cooling that affected dinosaur eggs rather than adult dinosaurs. Small reptiles could survive by protecting their minute eggs in a variety of ways. However, there was no way for dinosaurs to protect their large eggs against a quickly-changing climate.
Scientist B
The extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by a volcanic outburst. In general, volcanic eruptions can have potent effects on climate. In 1815 the volcano Tambora in Indonesia erupted, spreading a pall of dust around the globe that resulted in killing frosts around Europe. The much larger eruption that formed the Deccan basalts about 65 million years ago would have caused a deeper and more prolonged cooling that directly affected adult dinosaurs. The rare metal iridium has been found both in active volcanoes and in a layer of clay deposited around the time of the dinosaur extinction. Therefore the dinosaurs were most likely affected by a massive volcanic eruption.
Nowadays, various natural phenomena can produce clouds of dust that spread over large areas. Based on the information in the passage, Scientist B would most likely predict which of the following outcomes near these affected areas?
a)
No significant climate change
b)
Cooling
c)
Warming
d)
Volcanic eruption
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|
Orion Classes answered |
Scientist B states that an 1815 volcanic eruption in Indonesia resulted in a pall of dust, which then led to cold temperatures around Europe. One can infer that dust clouds today would produce a similar effect.
The cause of the extinction of dinosaurs 65 million years ago is currently debated. Some attribute the extinction to volcanic activity while others attribute it to asteroid or comet impact. Two scientists offer conflicting viewpoints on the most probable cause of the mass extinction.Scientist AThe extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by the impact of an asteroid or large comet. Unusually high levels of the rare metal iridium (found in extraterrestrial material) have been discovered in a layer of clay deposited at just the time of the extinction. In addition, this layer of clay contained quartz grains with a crystal structure that has been distorted by exceedingly high pressures (almost certainly caused by an impact). This colossal impact brought about a period of severe cooling that affected dinosaur eggs rather than adult dinosaurs. Small reptiles could survive by protecting their minute eggs in a variety of ways. However, there was no way for dinosaurs to protect their large eggs against a quickly-changing climate.Scientist BThe extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by a volcanic outburst. In general, volcanic eruptions can have potent effects on climate. In 1815 the volcano Tambora in Indonesia erupted, spreading a pall of dust around the globe that resulted in killing frosts around Europe. The much larger eruption that formed the Deccan basalts about 65 million years ago would have caused a deeper and more prolonged cooling that directly affected adult dinosaurs. The rare metal iridium has been found both in active volcanoes and in a layer of clay deposited around the time of the dinosaur extinction. Therefore the dinosaurs were most likely affected by a massive volcanic eruption.Q. With which of the following statements are both scientists most likely to agree?- a)Massive climate change primarily affected adult dinosaurs
- b)Massive climate change played a key role in the extinction
- c)Massive climate change primarily affected dinosaur eggs
- d)An extraterrestrial object brought about climate change 65 million years ago
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The cause of the extinction of dinosaurs 65 million years ago is currently debated. Some attribute the extinction to volcanic activity while others attribute it to asteroid or comet impact. Two scientists offer conflicting viewpoints on the most probable cause of the mass extinction.
Scientist A
The extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by the impact of an asteroid or large comet. Unusually high levels of the rare metal iridium (found in extraterrestrial material) have been discovered in a layer of clay deposited at just the time of the extinction. In addition, this layer of clay contained quartz grains with a crystal structure that has been distorted by exceedingly high pressures (almost certainly caused by an impact). This colossal impact brought about a period of severe cooling that affected dinosaur eggs rather than adult dinosaurs. Small reptiles could survive by protecting their minute eggs in a variety of ways. However, there was no way for dinosaurs to protect their large eggs against a quickly-changing climate.
Scientist B
The extinction of dinosaurs was most likely caused by a volcanic outburst. In general, volcanic eruptions can have potent effects on climate. In 1815 the volcano Tambora in Indonesia erupted, spreading a pall of dust around the globe that resulted in killing frosts around Europe. The much larger eruption that formed the Deccan basalts about 65 million years ago would have caused a deeper and more prolonged cooling that directly affected adult dinosaurs. The rare metal iridium has been found both in active volcanoes and in a layer of clay deposited around the time of the dinosaur extinction. Therefore the dinosaurs were most likely affected by a massive volcanic eruption.
Q. With which of the following statements are both scientists most likely to agree?
a)
Massive climate change primarily affected adult dinosaurs
b)
Massive climate change played a key role in the extinction
c)
Massive climate change primarily affected dinosaur eggs
d)
An extraterrestrial object brought about climate change 65 million years ago
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Orion Classes answered |
Scientist A believes that an extraterrestrial object was responsible for the massive climate change, whereas Scientist B attributes the change to a volcanic eruption. Both scientists agree, however, that climate change led to the mass extinction. Scientist A believes that climate change affected dinosaur eggs while Scientist B believes climate change affected adult dinosaurs.
A scientific experiment is conducted to test if calcium can affect gene regulation. Scientists hypothesized that high levels of calcium would interact with the proteins Cs3 and Gfy, which in turn would increase the transcription of genes F4597 and BC392. The experiment procedure is summarized below. - Isolate the genes F4597 and BC392.
- Create a vector within yeast cells containing the two genes
- Culture yeast cells
- Grow yeast cells in different growth mediums- one medium lacking calcium (plate A) and one medium with supplemented calcium (plate B)
Q. What result would disprove the hypothesis? - a)All of these outcomes would disprove the hypothesis.
- b)Both Plate A and Plate B had equal gene activity.
- c)All of these outcomes would support the hypothesis.
- d)Plate B has vastly increased gene activity while Plate A has only a little gene activity.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A scientific experiment is conducted to test if calcium can affect gene regulation. Scientists hypothesized that high levels of calcium would interact with the proteins Cs3 and Gfy, which in turn would increase the transcription of genes F4597 and BC392. The experiment procedure is summarized below.
- Isolate the genes F4597 and BC392.
- Create a vector within yeast cells containing the two genes
- Culture yeast cells
- Grow yeast cells in different growth mediums- one medium lacking calcium (plate A) and one medium with supplemented calcium (plate B)
Q. What result would disprove the hypothesis?
a)
All of these outcomes would disprove the hypothesis.
b)
Both Plate A and Plate B had equal gene activity.
c)
All of these outcomes would support the hypothesis.
d)
Plate B has vastly increased gene activity while Plate A has only a little gene activity.
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
If both Plate A and Plate B had equal gene activity, it would mean that calcium levels did not affect the proteins or the gene activity. This would disprove the hypothesis, which stated that calcium would increase the transcription of the genes.
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:PV=nRT Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.Q. An oxygen molecule moving from the left side of a chamber to the right would display what type(s) of kinetic energy?- a)Rotational
- b)Vibrational
- c)Translational
- d)All of the Above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.
Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:
PV=nRT
Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.
The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.
Q. An oxygen molecule moving from the left side of a chamber to the right would display what type(s) of kinetic energy?
a)
Rotational
b)
Vibrational
c)
Translational
d)
All of the Above
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
In the first passage, after describing the different types of kinetic energy, the passage notes that a molecule would likely have varying combinations of kinetic energy. Thus, a molecule moving across the room would display translational, vibrational, and rotational motion.
An experiment was carried out measuring the boiling point and freezing point of an unknown organic liquid (Sample X) with varying levels of salt dissolved within it. The experiment was conducted in the following manner:First, the experimenter measured the boiling point and freezing point of Sample X. Next, a known quantity of salt was dissolved into the sample and then the boiling point and freezing points were measured again. The results of the experiment are outlined in the table below:
Q. What can we say is the relationship between concentration of salt in Sample X and the boiling point of Sample X?- a)A negative exponential correlation
- b)A positive exponential correlation
- c)A negative linear correlation
- d)A positive linear correlation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
An experiment was carried out measuring the boiling point and freezing point of an unknown organic liquid (Sample X) with varying levels of salt dissolved within it. The experiment was conducted in the following manner:
First, the experimenter measured the boiling point and freezing point of Sample X.
Next, a known quantity of salt was dissolved into the sample and then the boiling point and freezing points were measured again.
The results of the experiment are outlined in the table below:
Q. What can we say is the relationship between concentration of salt in Sample X and the boiling point of Sample X?
a)
A negative exponential correlation
b)
A positive exponential correlation
c)
A negative linear correlation
d)
A positive linear correlation
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
The correct answer is that the boiling point of Sample X is positively and linearly correlated with the concentration of salt dissolved in Sample X. As we can see on the chart provided, every time the experimenter increased the concentration of the salt by 10 mg/L, the boiling point of Sample X increased by 1.4 degrees Celsius. Therefore, we can call this a positive linear correlation.
An experiment was done to look at the effects of iodine supplements on the production of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. Individuals in the study were divided into categorizes based on the dosage of iodine supplemented. The chart below summarizes the data collected. THY1 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group prior to taking the supplement. THY2 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group after three months of taking supplements.
Q. The results of this experiment strengthen the theory that: - a)Iodine supplements do not have an impact when at high dosages.
- b)Iodine supplements have a greater impact when at smaller dosages.
- c)Iodine supplements do not have any impact on Thyroxine levels.
- d)Iodine supplements have a greater impact when at higher dosages.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
An experiment was done to look at the effects of iodine supplements on the production of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. Individuals in the study were divided into categorizes based on the dosage of iodine supplemented. The chart below summarizes the data collected. THY1 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group prior to taking the supplement. THY2 is the average amount of thyroxine in the group after three months of taking supplements.
Q. The results of this experiment strengthen the theory that:
a)
Iodine supplements do not have an impact when at high dosages.
b)
Iodine supplements have a greater impact when at smaller dosages.
c)
Iodine supplements do not have any impact on Thyroxine levels.
d)
Iodine supplements have a greater impact when at higher dosages.
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
When looking at the chart, the higher the thyroxine level, the greater the difference between THY1 and THY2.
A scientist is studying the makeup of a crossection of the ground on a plot of land on the Pacific coast. The cross-section is as follows:
The line noted by the X marks earth that was on the surface approximately 20,000 years ago. The law of superposition states that, in cross-sections of the Earth's crust, layers that are closer to the center of the Earth are older than those that are farther away. Which layer(s) are older than 20,000 years?- a)Layer E only
- b)Layer D only
- c)Layer A only
- d)Layers A, B, C, D, and E
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A scientist is studying the makeup of a crossection of the ground on a plot of land on the Pacific coast. The cross-section is as follows:
The line noted by the X marks earth that was on the surface approximately 20,000 years ago. The law of superposition states that, in cross-sections of the Earth's crust, layers that are closer to the center of the Earth are older than those that are farther away.
Which layer(s) are older than 20,000 years?
a)
Layer E only
b)
Layer D only
c)
Layer A only
d)
Layers A, B, C, D, and E
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Orion Classes answered |
The correct answer is Layer E. It may be tempting to add Layer D to this answer. However, since Layer D also intersects with other layers, we cannot say with certainty that it is older than 20,000 years based on the law of superposition.
One night there was a meteor shower and scientists in four different regions, A, B, C and D, observed and counted the number of meteors seen. The scientists noted the duration of the meteor shower and the visibility of the stars. 
How does the visibility of the night sky impact the number of meteors observed? - a)There is no relationship
- b)The less clear the stars, the more meteors were seen
- c)The better the visibility of the stars led to a higher number of meteors seen
- d)The more clear the stars, the less meteors were seen
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
One night there was a meteor shower and scientists in four different regions, A, B, C and D, observed and counted the number of meteors seen. The scientists noted the duration of the meteor shower and the visibility of the stars.
How does the visibility of the night sky impact the number of meteors observed?
a)
There is no relationship
b)
The less clear the stars, the more meteors were seen
c)
The better the visibility of the stars led to a higher number of meteors seen
d)
The more clear the stars, the less meteors were seen
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Orion Classes answered |
Regions A and B saw more meteors than the other regions. These two regions also had the be visibility of the night sky. Region C had no visibility of the night sky and saw no meteors. Region C could somewhat see the night sky and saw the second lowest number of meteors. This means as the visibility increased so did the number of meteors seen.
A student wants to perform an experiment that tests the relationship between the pressure of a gas and the volume it occupies. To perform this experiment, the student places a specific type of gas in a sealed chamber that can change pressure and that can adapt its volume to the gas within it. The chamber also adjusts to the changing pressure such that the temperature (which also has an effect on gas volume) does not change. The following data was obtained:
Q. In a second experiment, the student tries the same experiment described in the pre-question text and uses a different gas for each trial. If the readings for volume yielded the same results, what could be said about the relationship between type of gas and volume?- a)They are directly related.
- b)They are inversely related.
- c)The variables are not related.
- d)This second experiment would provide the information necessary to discern such a relationship, but to reach a conclusion we would need information about which gasses were used.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A student wants to perform an experiment that tests the relationship between the pressure of a gas and the volume it occupies. To perform this experiment, the student places a specific type of gas in a sealed chamber that can change pressure and that can adapt its volume to the gas within it. The chamber also adjusts to the changing pressure such that the temperature (which also has an effect on gas volume) does not change. The following data was obtained:
Q. In a second experiment, the student tries the same experiment described in the pre-question text and uses a different gas for each trial. If the readings for volume yielded the same results, what could be said about the relationship between type of gas and volume?
a)
They are directly related.
b)
They are inversely related.
c)
The variables are not related.
d)
This second experiment would provide the information necessary to discern such a relationship, but to reach a conclusion we would need information about which gasses were used.
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
The correct answer is that there is no relationship. As type of gas was one of the variables held constant in the first experiment, once the type of gas was no longer held constant, we would expect different results than those that experiment one yielded; however, since the data came out the same, we can safely conclude that there is no observable relationship between type of gas and volume.
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle. A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.Experiment 1Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Experiment 2Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.Experiment 3Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.Experiment 4Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.Q. Which of the particles is negatively charged?- a)Particle C
- b)Particle A
- c)Particle D
- d)Particle B
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A physicist performs a series of experiments to determine the relative magnitude of electric charge on four particles. A given particle is considered to have a higher magnitude of charge than another if it will push out (or draw in) a positive test charge farther than the other particle.
A particle that pushes the test charge has positive charge, while a particle that pulls (or draws in) the test charge has negative charge. This is known as the sign of the charge. Magnitude of charge is unrelated to sign.
The experiment is conducted on a horizontal axis that measures from 20m in total: from –10m on the left to +10m on the right, with a measurement of 0m in the middle.
Experiment 1
Particle A is placed at position –5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has a specific magnitude of charge and is located at +3m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Experiment 2
Particle B is placed at position –8m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at 0m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to –7.5m.
Experiment 3
Particle C is placed at position 0m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +8m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +10m.
Experiment 4
Particle D is placed at position –5.5m on the horizontal axis. The test charge has the same magnitude of charge as the previous experiment and is located at +2.5m on that same axis. The result of the experiment is that the test charge is displaced to +7.5m.
Q. Which of the particles is negatively charged?
a)
Particle C
b)
Particle A
c)
Particle D
d)
Particle B
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
All of the particles are initially placed to the left of the test charge. Particle B is the only one that "draws in" the test charge to the left, from 0m to –7.5m (we are told initially that the axis runs from –10m on the left to 10m on the right, with 0m in the middle).
A particle accelerator functions by exerting a magnetic field on charged particles which are shot into the accelerator. The magnetic field causes the charged particles to move around in a circle of radius R that can be predicted by the following equation, where mp is the mass of the particle in kilograms, v is the initial speed at which the particle was shot in meters per second, q is the charge of the particle in Coulombs, and B is the strength of the magnetic field in Tesla. R=mpv/qBIf a given magnetic field's strength B=x and its radius R=y, what would the radius R be at B=3x?- a)R/6
- b)R/3
- c)R
- d)3R
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A particle accelerator functions by exerting a magnetic field on charged particles which are shot into the accelerator. The magnetic field causes the charged particles to move around in a circle of radius R that can be predicted by the following equation, where mp is the mass of the particle in kilograms, v is the initial speed at which the particle was shot in meters per second, q is the charge of the particle in Coulombs, and B is the strength of the magnetic field in Tesla.
R=mpv/qB
If a given magnetic field's strength B=x and its radius R=y, what would the radius R be at B=3x?
a)
R/6
b)
R/3
c)
R
d)
3R
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
The correct answer is R/3 We know by the equation that B and R are inversely related. As one increases, the other decreases, and vice versa. Therefore, if B is tripled, R must be divided by 3.
Scientists studied a species of termites and looked at their foraging habitats across the United States. The termite’s population in a given tree was measured by the level of decomposition within a tree due to the termites eating the bark. The experiment also kept track of the level of shade tolerance for each species of tree. For the species of trees in this experiment, shade tolerance fell into two main categorizes- shade tolerant (ST) and intermediate shade (IS). Lastly, they recorded the average amount of rainfall in that given month for the species location being observed. The chart below summarizes the data. Scientists hypothesized that the level of decomposition would be highest in tree species with a higher average rainfall. In addition, they hypothesized trees allowing more shade would allow for more termites, and in turn more decomposition. 
Q. According to the data in the chart, did the experiment support or disprove their hypothesis? - a)The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a high level of decomposition in species with lower average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had higher levels of decomposition.
- b)The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a high level of decomposition in species with higher average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had higher levels of decomposition.
- c)The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a low level of decomposition in species with higher average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had lower levels of decomposition.
- d)The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a high level of decomposition in species with higher average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had lower levels of decomposition.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Scientists studied a species of termites and looked at their foraging habitats across the United States. The termite’s population in a given tree was measured by the level of decomposition within a tree due to the termites eating the bark. The experiment also kept track of the level of shade tolerance for each species of tree. For the species of trees in this experiment, shade tolerance fell into two main categorizes- shade tolerant (ST) and intermediate shade (IS). Lastly, they recorded the average amount of rainfall in that given month for the species location being observed. The chart below summarizes the data. Scientists hypothesized that the level of decomposition would be highest in tree species with a higher average rainfall. In addition, they hypothesized trees allowing more shade would allow for more termites, and in turn more decomposition.
Q. According to the data in the chart, did the experiment support or disprove their hypothesis?
a)
The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a high level of decomposition in species with lower average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had higher levels of decomposition.
b)
The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a high level of decomposition in species with higher average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had higher levels of decomposition.
c)
The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a low level of decomposition in species with higher average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had lower levels of decomposition.
d)
The data in the chart supports the hypothesis by showing a high level of decomposition in species with higher average rainfall. In addition, trees allowing more shade had lower levels of decomposition.
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
As stated in the prompt, scientists hypothesized the level of decomposition would be highest in tree species with a higher average rainfall. In addition, they hypothesized trees allowing more shade would allow for more termites, and in turn more decomposition.
The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that has led to many important scientific discoveries. Light of a particular wavelength is shined onto a piece of metal, showering the metal with photons. Wavelength is inversely related to a photon's energy. That is, with a smaller wavelength, the photon has greater energy. The wavelength of the light is decreased until a detector next to the metal senses that electrons are being ejected from the metal. This sensor also tells us how many electrons are ejected per second, which we call electrical current. At this point, any additional decrease in wavelength does not affect the number of electrons ejected. This point is called the metal's work function. However, if we then begin to increase the intensity of the light being shone (meaning the amount of light as opposed to the light's wavelength), the number of electrons picked up by the sensor increases. Q. Light intensity can best be described as which of the following?- a)The energy of photons of a light source
- b)The number of photons being emitted by a light source
- c)The color of light used
- d)The speed at which photons of a light source travel
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that has led to many important scientific discoveries. Light of a particular wavelength is shined onto a piece of metal, showering the metal with photons. Wavelength is inversely related to a photon's energy. That is, with a smaller wavelength, the photon has greater energy. The wavelength of the light is decreased until a detector next to the metal senses that electrons are being ejected from the metal. This sensor also tells us how many electrons are ejected per second, which we call electrical current. At this point, any additional decrease in wavelength does not affect the number of electrons ejected. This point is called the metal's work function. However, if we then begin to increase the intensity of the light being shone (meaning the amount of light as opposed to the light's wavelength), the number of electrons picked up by the sensor increases.
Q. Light intensity can best be described as which of the following?
a)
The energy of photons of a light source
b)
The number of photons being emitted by a light source
c)
The color of light used
d)
The speed at which photons of a light source travel
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
The correct answer is the number of photons. In the passage, we are told that the intensity of a light is related to the amount of light used. As light can be quantified in terms of photons, we know that this means that more intensity implies more photons. Any answer related to energy (including wavelength, force, and color) are incorrect because energy does not directly affect number of photons emitted and the speed of light is always the same.
A scientific experiment is conducted to test if calcium can affect gene regulation. Scientists hypothesized that high levels of calcium would interact with the proteins Cs3 and Gfy, which in turn would increase the transcription of genes F4597 and BC392. The experiment procedure is summarized below. - Isolate the genes F4597 and BC392.
- Create a vector within yeast cells containing the two genes
- Culture yeast cells
- Grow yeast cells in different growth mediums- one medium lacking calcium (plate A) and one medium with supplemented calcium (plate B)
Q. Would new information about the lack of absorption of calcium through a growth medium strengthen or weaken this experiment and why?- a)This information would have no affect on the experiment.
- b)This information would strengthen the experiment because it would increase the range of results.
- c)This information would weaken the experiment because it would decrease the influence of the independent variable (amount of calcium).
- d)The information would weaken the experiment.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A scientific experiment is conducted to test if calcium can affect gene regulation. Scientists hypothesized that high levels of calcium would interact with the proteins Cs3 and Gfy, which in turn would increase the transcription of genes F4597 and BC392. The experiment procedure is summarized below.
- Isolate the genes F4597 and BC392.
- Create a vector within yeast cells containing the two genes
- Culture yeast cells
- Grow yeast cells in different growth mediums- one medium lacking calcium (plate A) and one medium with supplemented calcium (plate B)
Q. Would new information about the lack of absorption of calcium through a growth medium strengthen or weaken this experiment and why?
a)
This information would have no affect on the experiment.
b)
This information would strengthen the experiment because it would increase the range of results.
c)
This information would weaken the experiment because it would decrease the influence of the independent variable (amount of calcium).
d)
The information would weaken the experiment.
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Ayesha Joshi answered |
Information showing that calclum is not properly absorbed into growth mediums would weaken the experiment because it would skew the results for Plate B and create a smaller contrast between Plate A and Plate B.
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:PV=nRT Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.Q. The relationship between total energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy could best be described as:- a)ET = EK + EP
- b)ET = EK = EP
- c)ET = EK − EP
- d)EK = ET + EP
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.
Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:
PV=nRT
Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.
The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.
Q. The relationship between total energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy could best be described as:
a)
ET = EK + EP
b)
ET = EK = EP
c)
ET = EK − EP
d)
EK = ET + EP
|
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
The end of the first paragraph helps us answer this question. We are told that a molecule contains a fixed amount of total energy and that some combination of kinetic and potential energy combines to create this sum total. Thus, the relationship that best depicts how the various forms of energy relate is ET = EK + EP.
A student wants to perform an experiment that tests the relationship between the pressure of a gas and the volume it occupies. To perform this experiment, the student places a specific type of gas in a sealed chamber that can change pressure and that can adapt its volume to the gas within it. The chamber also adjusts to the changing pressure such that the temperature (which also has an effect on gas volume) does not change. The following data was obtained:Q. In Trial 4, the chamber used in the experiment malfunctioned and there was a slight decrease in temperature, leading to a faulty reading of volume for Trial 4. Given this information, what can we say about the relationship between the temperature of a gas and its volume?- a)Temperature and volume are directly and exponentially related.
- b)Temperature and volume are directly related.
- c)Temperature and volume are directly and linearly related.
- d)Temperature and volume are indirectly and linearly related.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A student wants to perform an experiment that tests the relationship between the pressure of a gas and the volume it occupies. To perform this experiment, the student places a specific type of gas in a sealed chamber that can change pressure and that can adapt its volume to the gas within it. The chamber also adjusts to the changing pressure such that the temperature (which also has an effect on gas volume) does not change. The following data was obtained:
Q. In Trial 4, the chamber used in the experiment malfunctioned and there was a slight decrease in temperature, leading to a faulty reading of volume for Trial 4. Given this information, what can we say about the relationship between the temperature of a gas and its volume?
a)
Temperature and volume are directly and exponentially related.
b)
Temperature and volume are directly related.
c)
Temperature and volume are directly and linearly related.
d)
Temperature and volume are indirectly and linearly related.
|
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
This is a tricky question. First we must estimate what the correct reading for Trial 4 should have been to see how the decrease in temperature affected the volume. Using mental math, we can deduce that the volume reading for Trial 4 should have been about 22.4/2.5 or (multiplying both the denominator and numerator by 4) 89.6/10 or essentially 9. Since the actual reading was 8.2 Liters, we know that the decrease in temperature decreased the volume, implying a direct relationship. That is, as one goes up, the other goes up, and vice versa. However our work is not done. Since we do not know by how much the temperature changed, we cannot make a call as to whether the relationship is linear or exponential. Therefore, the correct answer is that it is simply directly related.
The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that has led to many important scientific discoveries. Light of a particular wavelength is shined onto a piece of metal, showering the metal with photons. Wavelength is inversely related to a photon's energy. That is, with a smaller wavelength, the photon has greater energy. The wavelength of the light is decreased until a detector next to the metal senses that electrons are being ejected from the metal. This sensor also tells us how many electrons are ejected per second, which we call electrical current. At this point, any additional decrease in wavelength does not affect the number of electrons ejected. This point is called the metal's work function. However, if we then begin to increase the intensity of the light being shone (meaning the amount of light as opposed to the light's wavelength), the number of electrons picked up by the sensor increases. Q. Based on the information in the passage, the term "work function" can be most accurately described as which of the following?- a)The point at which the metal has run out of electrons which can be ejected
- b)The point at which the energy of the photons hitting the metal has hit a limit
- c)The point at which the energy of the photons hitting the metal is barely enough to eject electrons from that metal
- d)The point at which no more electrons can or will leave the metal
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that has led to many important scientific discoveries. Light of a particular wavelength is shined onto a piece of metal, showering the metal with photons. Wavelength is inversely related to a photon's energy. That is, with a smaller wavelength, the photon has greater energy. The wavelength of the light is decreased until a detector next to the metal senses that electrons are being ejected from the metal. This sensor also tells us how many electrons are ejected per second, which we call electrical current. At this point, any additional decrease in wavelength does not affect the number of electrons ejected. This point is called the metal's work function. However, if we then begin to increase the intensity of the light being shone (meaning the amount of light as opposed to the light's wavelength), the number of electrons picked up by the sensor increases.
Q. Based on the information in the passage, the term "work function" can be most accurately described as which of the following?
a)
The point at which the metal has run out of electrons which can be ejected
b)
The point at which the energy of the photons hitting the metal has hit a limit
c)
The point at which the energy of the photons hitting the metal is barely enough to eject electrons from that metal
d)
The point at which no more electrons can or will leave the metal
|
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
The correct answer is that it is the point at which the energy of the photons is barely enough to eject electrons. We know this because, as the passage says, decreasing the wavelength (increasing the energy) of the photons does not eject electrons until exactly this point. This implies that this gradual increase in photon energy passed the threshold we are calling the "work function" and led to electrons being ejected.
A scientist is studying the makeup of a crossection of the ground on a plot of land on the Pacific coast. The cross-section is as follows:
The line noted by the X marks earth that was on the surface approximately 20,000 years ago. The law of superposition states that, in cross-sections of the Earth's crust, layers that are closer to the center of the Earth are older than those that are farther away. An archaeologist hypothesizes that early humans inhabited this coastal region around 22,000 years ago. In which layer is the archaeologist most likely to find evidence to support his hypothesis?- a)Layer A
- b)Layer E
- c)Layer D
- d)Layer C
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A scientist is studying the makeup of a crossection of the ground on a plot of land on the Pacific coast. The cross-section is as follows:
The line noted by the X marks earth that was on the surface approximately 20,000 years ago. The law of superposition states that, in cross-sections of the Earth's crust, layers that are closer to the center of the Earth are older than those that are farther away.
An archaeologist hypothesizes that early humans inhabited this coastal region around 22,000 years ago. In which layer is the archaeologist most likely to find evidence to support his hypothesis?
a)
Layer A
b)
Layer E
c)
Layer D
d)
Layer C
|
|
Orion Classes answered |
The correct answer is Layer E. Layer E is the only layer that is below the line marked at 20,000 years old. Therefore, we can infer that, if in any of these layers lies evidence to support his hypothesis, it must be in Layer E.
Scientist 1: Scientist 1 claims that the best spot to find gold is near volcanic areas. This scientist claims that the high temperatures and high pressure helps to form the gold. Therefore the best area to find large quantities of gold is near volcanoes.Scientist 2: Scientist 2 asserts that the best area to find gold is in rivers. In the rivers the gold can be free flowing and easier to see. In addition, the gold found in the rivers does not necessarily require equipment for digging. It is is found in the river due to the water carrying, rather than eroding it. What is not taken into account by Scientist 1? - a)The quality of the gold
- b)Potential volcanic activity
- c)All of these
- d)The rarity of volcanoes
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Scientist 1: Scientist 1 claims that the best spot to find gold is near volcanic areas. This scientist claims that the high temperatures and high pressure helps to form the gold. Therefore the best area to find large quantities of gold is near volcanoes.
Scientist 2: Scientist 2 asserts that the best area to find gold is in rivers. In the rivers the gold can be free flowing and easier to see. In addition, the gold found in the rivers does not necessarily require equipment for digging. It is is found in the river due to the water carrying, rather than eroding it.
What is not taken into account by Scientist 1?
a)
The quality of the gold
b)
Potential volcanic activity
c)
All of these
d)
The rarity of volcanoes
|
|
Orion Classes answered |
Scientist 1 wants to look for gold near volcanic areas, which may requiring some digging. This can be dangerous as digging may impact the stability of the volcano and cause an eruption that will harm the workers. Also, volcanoes can be hard to find, depending on what transportation resources are available, and the quality of gold is not considered in Scientist 1's argument.
Scientists studied a species of termites and looked at their foraging habitats across the United States. The termite’s population in a given tree was measured by the level of decomposition within a tree due to the termites eating the bark. The experiment also kept track of the level of shade tolerance for each species of tree. For the species of trees in this experiment, shade tolerance fell into two main categorizes- shade tolerant (ST) and intermediate shade (IS). Lastly, they recorded the average amount of rainfall in that given month for the species location being observed. The chart below summarizes the data. Scientists hypothesized that the level of decomposition would be highest in tree species with a higher average rainfall. In addition, they hypothesized trees allowing more shade would allow for more termites, and in turn more decomposition. 
Q. Based on this experiment, the optimal foraging habitats of termites can best be described as __________.- a)rainy, sunny environments
- b)rainy, shady environments
- c)dry, shady environments
- d)dry, sunny environments
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Scientists studied a species of termites and looked at their foraging habitats across the United States. The termite’s population in a given tree was measured by the level of decomposition within a tree due to the termites eating the bark. The experiment also kept track of the level of shade tolerance for each species of tree. For the species of trees in this experiment, shade tolerance fell into two main categorizes- shade tolerant (ST) and intermediate shade (IS). Lastly, they recorded the average amount of rainfall in that given month for the species location being observed. The chart below summarizes the data. Scientists hypothesized that the level of decomposition would be highest in tree species with a higher average rainfall. In addition, they hypothesized trees allowing more shade would allow for more termites, and in turn more decomposition.
Q. Based on this experiment, the optimal foraging habitats of termites can best be described as __________.
a)
rainy, sunny environments
b)
rainy, shady environments
c)
dry, shady environments
d)
dry, sunny environments
|
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
The experimental data shows that the greatest amount of termites are found in trees that have a high shade tolerance and get a lot of rain.
The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that has led to many important scientific discoveries. Light of a particular wavelength is shined onto a piece of metal, showering the metal with photons. Wavelength is inversely related to a photon's energy. That is, with a smaller wavelength, the photon has greater energy. The wavelength of the light is decreased until a detector next to the metal senses that electrons are being ejected from the metal. This sensor also tells us how many electrons are ejected per second, which we call electrical current. At this point, any additional decrease in wavelength does not affect the number of electrons ejected. This point is called the metal's work function. However, if we then begin to increase the intensity of the light being shone (meaning the amount of light as opposed to the light's wavelength), the number of electrons picked up by the sensor increases. Q. According to the information in the passage, what can we infer would happen if the intensity of the light were decreased immediately after reaching the work function?- a)The current would remain and increase.
- b)The current would remain unchanged.
- c)More information is necessary.
- d)The current would remain, but would decrease.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that has led to many important scientific discoveries. Light of a particular wavelength is shined onto a piece of metal, showering the metal with photons. Wavelength is inversely related to a photon's energy. That is, with a smaller wavelength, the photon has greater energy. The wavelength of the light is decreased until a detector next to the metal senses that electrons are being ejected from the metal. This sensor also tells us how many electrons are ejected per second, which we call electrical current. At this point, any additional decrease in wavelength does not affect the number of electrons ejected. This point is called the metal's work function. However, if we then begin to increase the intensity of the light being shone (meaning the amount of light as opposed to the light's wavelength), the number of electrons picked up by the sensor increases.
Q. According to the information in the passage, what can we infer would happen if the intensity of the light were decreased immediately after reaching the work function?
a)
The current would remain and increase.
b)
The current would remain unchanged.
c)
More information is necessary.
d)
The current would remain, but would decrease.
|
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
The correct answer is that the current would remain, but it would decrease. At the end of the passage, we are told that intensity of the light affects the current in a direct relationship. That is, more intensity means greater current. Therefore, as we have seen that the presence of a current is related to the wavelength of the light used, we know that the current would remain. Furthermore, as we have decreased the intensity, we know that this current would simply decrease.
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:PV=nRT Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.Q. As the potential energy of a molecule decreases, one would expect the kinetic energy to:- a)Remain the Same
- b)Increase
- c)Decrease
- d)Cannot Be Determined
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Both gases and liquids are considered to be fluids that have individual molecules that move around with kinetic and potential energy. Kinetic energy, defined as the energy related to motion, takes three forms: translational energy that occurs as a molecule moves from position A to position B, rotational energy that occurs as a molecule spins around an imaginary axis at its center of mass, and vibrational energy that occurs as individual atoms in a molecular bond move towards and away from each other. Usually, molecules possess varying combinations of kinetic energy forms. In contrast, potential energy is defined as stored energy that could be released to become kinetic energy. The total energy of a molecule is fixed, meaning that a molecule has some combination of kinetic and potential energies.
Varying amount of kinetic and potential energies define how molecules in a fluid interact with each other. For example, when the kinetic energy of a molecule is high (greater than 1000J), it can no longer interact with neighboring molecules strongly enough to remain a liquid. However, if the potential energies are too high (greater than 1000 J), molecules cannot escape a liquid to become a gas. If the kinetic energy is high and the potential energy is low, molecules tend to become a gas and can be modeled by an equation known as the Ideal Gas Law:
PV=nRT
Where P is the pressure of a gas, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of a gas, R is a constant, and T is temperature in degrees Kelvin.
The Ideal Gas Law perfectly applies to particles with no mass, no intermolecular interactions, and no true volume. However, real molecules do not adhere perfectly to the Ideal Gas Law.
Q. As the potential energy of a molecule decreases, one would expect the kinetic energy to:
a)
Remain the Same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
d)
Cannot Be Determined
|
|
Ayesha Joshi answered |
Using the last few sentences of the first paragraph as a guide, we can see that the total energy of a molecule is fixed and contains a fixed combination of kinetic and potential energies. Thus, we can relate the combination to the total by the following formula: ET = EK + EP. Thus, if the potential energy decreases, the kinetic energy must increase in order to keep the total energy of the molecule constant.
The origin of the universe has been a highly debated topic among physicists. In the middle of the twentieth century, there were two prevalent models regarding the origin of the universe. The first model, called the Big Bang Theory, suggests that the universe was spontaneously created approximately 14 billion years ago. The second model, called the Steady State Theory, suggests that the universe contains no beginning or end, is always expanding, and contains a constant density.Initially, the Big Bang Theory was widely disregarded by physicists and astronomers. In fact, the name “Big Bang” was coined by Fred Hoyle, a supporter of the Steady State Theory, who used the term in a derogatory manner. The Big Bang Theory suggests that prior to the creation of matter, a physical object that occupies space and possesses mass, the universe was filled homogenously with high-energy density and very high temperature and pressure. The universe was rapidly expanding and cooling resulting in the creation of atoms. The initial atoms that were produced were much lighter than the atoms currently found on earth, the lightest of which are hydrogen, helium, and lithium. After this initial creation of the universe, it continued to expand. The Big Bang Theory is now the prevalent theory for the origin of the universe.The Steady State Theory suggests that there is no start or end to the universe in time or space, yet the universe is always expanding. Furthermore, the Steady State Theory states that new stars and galaxies replace old stars and galaxies and the overall appearance of the universe does not change over time.Two sources of evidence are used to support or refute the discussed hypotheses. The first piece of data is the presence of primordial gas clouds, pockets of the universe that contain gases lighter than those found in the current universe. The second piece of evidence is that other galaxies are “red shifted”. The term red-shift indicates that as objects move farther away, the light they emit changes wavelength and appears to be more red.Q. A primordial gas has less mass than ________.- a)Hydrogen
- b)An atom
- c)Light
- d)Energy
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The origin of the universe has been a highly debated topic among physicists. In the middle of the twentieth century, there were two prevalent models regarding the origin of the universe. The first model, called the Big Bang Theory, suggests that the universe was spontaneously created approximately 14 billion years ago. The second model, called the Steady State Theory, suggests that the universe contains no beginning or end, is always expanding, and contains a constant density.
Initially, the Big Bang Theory was widely disregarded by physicists and astronomers. In fact, the name “Big Bang” was coined by Fred Hoyle, a supporter of the Steady State Theory, who used the term in a derogatory manner. The Big Bang Theory suggests that prior to the creation of matter, a physical object that occupies space and possesses mass, the universe was filled homogenously with high-energy density and very high temperature and pressure. The universe was rapidly expanding and cooling resulting in the creation of atoms. The initial atoms that were produced were much lighter than the atoms currently found on earth, the lightest of which are hydrogen, helium, and lithium. After this initial creation of the universe, it continued to expand. The Big Bang Theory is now the prevalent theory for the origin of the universe.
The Steady State Theory suggests that there is no start or end to the universe in time or space, yet the universe is always expanding. Furthermore, the Steady State Theory states that new stars and galaxies replace old stars and galaxies and the overall appearance of the universe does not change over time.
Two sources of evidence are used to support or refute the discussed hypotheses. The first piece of data is the presence of primordial gas clouds, pockets of the universe that contain gases lighter than those found in the current universe. The second piece of evidence is that other galaxies are “red shifted”. The term red-shift indicates that as objects move farther away, the light they emit changes wavelength and appears to be more red.
Q. A primordial gas has less mass than ________.
a)
Hydrogen
b)
An atom
c)
Light
d)
Energy
|
|
Orion Classes answered |
The primoridal gases at the creation of the universe contained less mass than the elements on earth today. Hydrogen is the smallest element, therefore, primordial gases must comprise less mass than hydrogen. Atoms can vary in size and mass based on the type. Energy and light do not contain mass.
The origin of the universe has been a highly debated topic among physicists. In the middle of the twentieth century, there were two prevalent models regarding the origin of the universe. The first model, called the Big Bang Theory, suggests that the universe was spontaneously created approximately 14 billion years ago. The second model, called the Steady State Theory, suggests that the universe contains no beginning or end, is always expanding, and contains a constant density.Initially, the Big Bang Theory was widely disregarded by physicists and astronomers. In fact, the name “Big Bang” was coined by Fred Hoyle, a supporter of the Steady State Theory, who used the term in a derogatory manner. The Big Bang Theory suggests that prior to the creation of matter, a physical object that occupies space and possesses mass, the universe was filled homogenously with high-energy density and very high temperature and pressure. The universe was rapidly expanding and cooling resulting in the creation of atoms. The initial atoms that were produced were much lighter than the atoms currently found on earth, the lightest of which are hydrogen, helium, and lithium. After this initial creation of the universe, it continued to expand. The Big Bang Theory is now the prevalent theory for the origin of the universe.The Steady State Theory suggests that there is no start or end to the universe in time or space, yet the universe is always expanding. Furthermore, the Steady State Theory states that new stars and galaxies replace old stars and galaxies and the overall appearance of the universe does not change over time.Two sources of evidence are used to support or refute the discussed hypotheses. The first piece of data is the presence of primordial gas clouds, pockets of the universe that contain gases lighter than those found in the current universe. The second piece of evidence is that other galaxies are “red shifted”. The term red-shift indicates that as objects move farther away, the light they emit changes wavelength and appears to be more red.Q. A red-shift can be used to estimate_________.- a)The size of the universe
- b)The intensity of light
- c)Whether an object is moving away.
- d)Color
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The origin of the universe has been a highly debated topic among physicists. In the middle of the twentieth century, there were two prevalent models regarding the origin of the universe. The first model, called the Big Bang Theory, suggests that the universe was spontaneously created approximately 14 billion years ago. The second model, called the Steady State Theory, suggests that the universe contains no beginning or end, is always expanding, and contains a constant density.
Initially, the Big Bang Theory was widely disregarded by physicists and astronomers. In fact, the name “Big Bang” was coined by Fred Hoyle, a supporter of the Steady State Theory, who used the term in a derogatory manner. The Big Bang Theory suggests that prior to the creation of matter, a physical object that occupies space and possesses mass, the universe was filled homogenously with high-energy density and very high temperature and pressure. The universe was rapidly expanding and cooling resulting in the creation of atoms. The initial atoms that were produced were much lighter than the atoms currently found on earth, the lightest of which are hydrogen, helium, and lithium. After this initial creation of the universe, it continued to expand. The Big Bang Theory is now the prevalent theory for the origin of the universe.
The Steady State Theory suggests that there is no start or end to the universe in time or space, yet the universe is always expanding. Furthermore, the Steady State Theory states that new stars and galaxies replace old stars and galaxies and the overall appearance of the universe does not change over time.
Two sources of evidence are used to support or refute the discussed hypotheses. The first piece of data is the presence of primordial gas clouds, pockets of the universe that contain gases lighter than those found in the current universe. The second piece of evidence is that other galaxies are “red shifted”. The term red-shift indicates that as objects move farther away, the light they emit changes wavelength and appears to be more red.
Q. A red-shift can be used to estimate_________.
a)
The size of the universe
b)
The intensity of light
c)
Whether an object is moving away.
d)
Color
|
|
Orion Classes answered |
From the text: The term red-shift indicates that as objects move farther away, the light they emit changes wavelength and appears to be more red.
Therefore, an object that has a red-shift is moving farther away from the observer. This phenomenon can be used to determine if galaxies are moving farther away.
Scientist 1: This scientist asserts that drilling for oil should be performed in the ocean. Scientist 1 claims that in the ocean, the oil is at a shorter depth below the Earth’s surface than on dry land. The shorter drilling depth is more ideal for access by drills.Scientist 2: Scientist 2 believes that drilling for oil should be performed on dry land and not underwater. This is due to the fact that water is at a higher pressure than is observed on the surface of Earth. Scientist 2 asserts that drilling at the lower pressure will be less likely to damage the equipment resulting in an unsuccessful event.Experiment: The scientists conduct various experiments. The data that the scientists collect indicates the depth at which it is necessary to drill on land and in the ocean in order to reach. The other data that the scientist collect is on the pressure that the equipment will need to experience while drilling for oil at each location.If a third option was present for drilling on a coastal region that allows for the short drilling depth and for drilling to be done on land, which scientist would support drilling at this location?- a)Cannot be determined from the given information
- b)Scientist 2, since the drilling depth is short
- c)Neither scientist would want to drill here because it is a non-ideal loaction
- d)Both of the scientist would want to drill here, since it combines the benefits of both locations
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Scientist 1: This scientist asserts that drilling for oil should be performed in the ocean. Scientist 1 claims that in the ocean, the oil is at a shorter depth below the Earth’s surface than on dry land. The shorter drilling depth is more ideal for access by drills.
Scientist 2: Scientist 2 believes that drilling for oil should be performed on dry land and not underwater. This is due to the fact that water is at a higher pressure than is observed on the surface of Earth. Scientist 2 asserts that drilling at the lower pressure will be less likely to damage the equipment resulting in an unsuccessful event.
Experiment: The scientists conduct various experiments. The data that the scientists collect indicates the depth at which it is necessary to drill on land and in the ocean in order to reach. The other data that the scientist collect is on the pressure that the equipment will need to experience while drilling for oil at each location.
If a third option was present for drilling on a coastal region that allows for the short drilling depth and for drilling to be done on land, which scientist would support drilling at this location?
a)
Cannot be determined from the given information
b)
Scientist 2, since the drilling depth is short
c)
Neither scientist would want to drill here because it is a non-ideal loaction
d)
Both of the scientist would want to drill here, since it combines the benefits of both locations
|
|
Orion Classes answered |
This coastal location removes the issue of water pressure, while keeping the short drilling distance that would be the benefit of drilling underwater. Both scientists would want to drill at this location because it contains the benefits that both of the scientists prefer.
Chapter doubts & questions for Research Summaries - Science for ACT 2025 is part of ACT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the ACT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for ACT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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