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All questions of October 2020 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Pusa Decomposer’ is a fungi-based liquid solution that can soften hard stubble to the extent that it can be easily mixed with soil in the field to act as compost.
2. It is developed by Indian Agriculture Research Inst itute (IARI).
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: The sky is blue.

This statement is generally true. The sky appears blue during the daytime due to the scattering of sunlight by the Earth's atmosphere.

2. Statement 2: All birds can fly.

This statement is false. While most birds are capable of flight, there are some bird species that have lost the ability to fly, such as penguins and ostriches.

3. Statement 3: Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius.

This statement is true under normal atmospheric pressure. Water boils and turns into steam at 100 degrees Celsius at sea level. However, the boiling point of water can vary depending on altitude and pressure.

4. Statement 4: All mammals lay eggs.

This statement is false. While most mammals give birth to live young, there are a few exceptions such as monotremes (e.g., platypus, echidna) that lay eggs.

5. Statement 5: The Earth is flat.

This statement is false. Scientific evidence overwhelmingly supports the fact that the Earth is a sphere.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season is decided by the respective state governments.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statutory Minimum Price of Sugarcane:
- The statement that "The Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season is decided by the respective state governments" is incorrect.
- The Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season is fixed by the Central Government.
- The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane is determined by the Central Government based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
- The FRP is the minimum price that sugar mills have to pay to sugarcane farmers.
- State governments do not have the authority to decide the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane.

Sugar and Sugarcane as Essential Commodities:
- The statement that "Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act" is correct.
- Sugar and sugarcane are considered essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act, which empowers the government to regulate the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities.
- This classification allows the government to impose stock limits, regulate prices, and take other measures to ensure the availability of these essential goods to the general public.
- The Essential Commodities Act plays a crucial role in preventing hoarding, black marketing, and price manipulation of essential commodities like sugar and sugarcane.
Therefore, the correct answer to the given question is option 'B) 2 only'.

Consider the following statements:
1. INS Kavaratti is an anti-submarine warfare corvette built under Project 28.
2. It belongs to the same class as INS Kamorta, INS Kadmatt and INS Kiltan.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dishani Sarkar answered
Statement 1: INS Kavaratti is an anti-submarine warfare corvette built under Project 28.
Statement 2: It belongs to the same class as INS Kamorta, INS Kadmatt, and INS Kiltan.

Explanation:

INS Kavaratti:
INS Kavaratti is indeed an anti-submarine warfare corvette built under Project 28. Project 28 is a program by the Indian Navy to build a series of anti-submarine warfare corvettes. These corvettes are designed to detect, track, and engage enemy submarines. INS Kavaratti is the last of the four ships built under this project.

INS Kamorta, INS Kadmatt, and INS Kiltan:
INS Kamorta, INS Kadmatt, and INS Kiltan are indeed part of the same class as INS Kavaratti. These four ships are collectively known as the Kamorta-class corvettes. They are all anti-submarine warfare corvettes built under Project 28, and they share several common features and capabilities.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. INS Kavaratti is an anti-submarine warfare corvette built under Project 28, and it belongs to the same class as INS Kamorta, INS Kadmatt, and INS Kiltan. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, "Neither 1 nor 2."

Consider the following statements with respect to the Asur tribes of India:
1. These tribes are mostly prevalent in Himalayan regions and states associated with Himalaya.
2. They are among the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and use radio for transmitting news and songs.
3. The Asur language figures in the list of UNESCO Interactive Atlas of the World’s Languages in Danger.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Statement 1 is not correct: As per the 2011 census, the tribe has a population of around 23,000 in Latehar and Gumla districts. “In the communit y, 50% of the populat ion could barely speak in Asur language. Using mobile radio, the Asur community has been spreading the popularity of the language within their geographical limits.
Statement 2 is correct: Asur is among the nine PVTGs found in Jharkhand. The Asur tribe has been using mobile radio to transmit local news and songs. PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. Due to this factor, more developed and assertive tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more funds directed for their development.
Statement 3 is correct: The Asur language figures in the list of UNESCO Interactive Atlas of the World’s Languages in Danger.

Recently, Tribes India E-Marketplace initiative is launched by which of following?
  • a)
    NITI Aayog
  • b)
    National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  • c)
    TRIFED
  • d)
    Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
In News- Union Minister for Tribal Affairs virtually launched India’s largest handicraft and organic products marketplace, Tribes India E-Marketplace (market.tribesindia.com) on the occasion of Gandhi Jayanti
Option C is correct: TRIFED under Ministry of Tribal Affairs showcased the produce and handicrafts of tribal enterprises from across the country and help them market their produce/ products directly under the Tribes India E-Marketplace initiative. The E-Marketplace will help us in onboarding large number of Tribals and Artisans and give them the immediate benefits of online trade. It will also facilitate B2B trade connecting tribals dependent on Minor Forest Produces and Medicinal plants to large buyers /manufacturers.

Kihoto Hollohan Judgement of the Supreme Court is related to which of the following subjects?
  • a)
    Protecting minorities rights
  • b)
    Disqualification of legislators under Tenth Schedule
  • c)
    Criminalisation of Politics
  • d)
    Code of Conducts of Civil Servants
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
Option B is correct: Recently, the 28 Year Old ‘Kihoto Hollohan judgment’ has found its relevance in the case of ousted Rajasthan Dy. CM and some MLAs who were issued a notice under the anti-defection law. The law covering the disqualification of legislators and the powers of the Speaker in deciding such matters became part of the statute book in 1985 when the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution was adopted. The SC under the Judgement said ‘Judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman’ and nor would interference be permissible at an interlocutory stage of the proceedings.

Consider the following statements:
1. Indus Suture Zone (ISZ) is located in the Ladakh region where Indian and Asian Plates collides each other.
2. Recent observations in the area highlight that it is a locked zone, as against the current understanding that it is a tectonically active zone.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- A recent survey has found that a tectonic fault line that runs through Ladakh, all along the Indus river, is not inactive as was previously thought and is, in fact, moving northward.
Both the statements are correct: The suture zone of the Himalayas or the Indus Suture Zone (ISZ) is located in the Ladakh region where Indian and Asian Plates are joined. It has been found to be tectonically act ive, as against current understanding that it is a locked zone. This could have major implications in terms of earthquake study, prediction, understanding the seismic structure of the mountain chains well as its evolution. Himalaya were known to be made up of north dipping thrusts like the Main Central Thrust (MCT), the Main Boundary Thrust (MBT), and the Main Frontal Thrust (MFT). As per the established models, all of these thrusts except MFT are locked, and overall deformation in Himalaya is being accommodated only along with the MFT.

Y. S. Malik Committee, often seen in the news recent ly, it is associated with?
  • a)
    Eradication malnutrition among children
  • b)
    Tribal sector reforms
  • c)
    Indian Academy of Highway Engineers (IAHE)
  • d)
    Privatisation of Railways
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'C' - Indian Academy of Highway Engineers (IAHE).

The Y. S. Malik Committee has been in the news recently in relation to the Indian Academy of Highway Engineers (IAHE). Let's delve into the details of this committee and its association with the IAHE.

The Indian Academy of Highway Engineers (IAHE) is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Government of India. It serves as a premier training institute for professionals in the field of highway engineering and management. The IAHE aims to enhance the knowledge and skills of highway engineers and professionals through various training programs and courses.

Now, let's understand the role of the Y. S. Malik Committee in the context of the IAHE.

1. Formation of the Committee:
The Y. S. Malik Committee was constituted by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways to review and restructure the IAHE. The committee was headed by Shri Y. S. Malik, former Secretary of the Ministry. Its primary objective was to analyze the functioning of the IAHE and suggest necessary reforms to improve its effectiveness and efficiency.

2. Review of IAHE's Functioning:
The committee conducted a comprehensive review of the IAHE's functioning, including its organizational structure, training programs, faculty, infrastructure, and overall operations. It assessed the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and challenges faced by the IAHE in fulfilling its objectives.

3. Recommendations for Restructuring:
Based on its review, the Y. S. Malik Committee made several recommendations for the restructuring of the IAHE. These recommendations aimed to strengthen the academy's role in capacity building, research, and development in the field of highway engineering. The committee suggested measures to enhance the quality and relevance of the training programs, improve infrastructure facilities, and upgrade the faculty's skills and expertise.

4. Implementation of the Committee's Recommendations:
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is responsible for implementing the recommendations of the Y. S. Malik Committee. The ministry will work towards implementing the suggested reforms to enhance the IAHE's effectiveness and ensure that it remains at the forefront of highway engineering education and training in India.

In conclusion, the Y. S. Malik Committee is associated with the Indian Academy of Highway Engineers (IAHE). It was formed to review and restructure the IAHE, and its recommendations will contribute to strengthening the academy's role in highway engineering education and training in India.

‘Nirbadh init iat ive’ was in the news recently, it has been recent ly launched by which of the following?
  • a)
    Niti Aayog
  • b)
    Ministry of HRD
  • c)
    Employees' Provident Fund Organisation
  • d)
    Indian Space Research Organisation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashna Singh answered
Nirbadh initiative launched by Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)
EPFO recently launched the 'Nirbadh initiative' to ensure uninterrupted services to its subscribers. Let's delve into the details of this initiative.

Key Features of the Nirbadh initiative:
- The initiative aims to make services more accessible and efficient for EPFO subscribers.
- It includes initiatives such as the 'Nirbadh Sewa' portal and the 'Nirbadh Kiosks' for easy access to services.
- The portal allows subscribers to register complaints and track their status online.
- The kiosks provide a physical touchpoint for subscribers to avail services and resolve grievances.

Launch by Employees Provident Fund Organisation:
- The Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
- It manages the largest social security scheme in the country, covering millions of workers in the organized sector.
- The 'Nirbadh initiative' is a step towards enhancing the overall experience of EPFO subscribers and ensuring seamless service delivery.

Significance of the Nirbadh initiative:
- With the launch of this initiative, EPFO aims to improve transparency, accountability, and efficiency in its operations.
- It also demonstrates EPFO's commitment to leveraging technology for the benefit of its subscribers.
- The initiative aligns with the government's vision of promoting digital governance and enhancing citizen-centric services.
In conclusion, the 'Nirbadh initiative' launched by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is a significant step towards improving service delivery and enhancing the overall experience of its subscribers.

With reference to the ‘Kisan Suryodaya Yojana’, consider the following statements:
1. It is aimed at providing subsidy to the farmers for purchasing and utilising solar pumps for the irrigation purpose.
2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- Recently, Prime Minister launched Kisan Suryodaya Yojana and other projects worth Rs 4,100 crore in Gujarat via video conference.
Statement 1 is not correct: It aimed at providing day-time electricit y to farmers in Gujarat for irrigation and farming purposes. Rs. 3,500 crore will be spent over the next three years for providing solar power to farmers for irrigation during daytime (5 AM to 9 PM). Through this, India would show the world the path for One Sun, One World, One Grid.
Statement 2 is correct: It is a centrally sponsored scheme being implemented to expand cult ivated areas with assured irrigation, reduce wastage of water and improve water use efficiency and ensure "Har Khet Ko Paani". The scheme is implemented by the Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Jal Shakti and Rural Development.

The program t itled “Tech for Tribals” was in the news, consider the following statements in this regards:
1. It leads to the holistic development of tribals with a focus on entrepreneurship development, soft skills, IT, and business development.
2. It is launched by TRIFED under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
In News- Tech for Tribals initiative launched on 13th October 2020.
Statement 1 is correct: TRIFED under Ministry of Tribal Affairs in collaboration with Chhattisgarh MFP Federation and IIT, Kanpur launched Tech for Tribals initiative. The program tit led “Tech for Tribals” aims at the holist ic development of tribals wit h a focus on entrepreneurship development, soft skills, IT, and business development through SHGs operating through Van Dhan Kendras (VDVKs).
Statement 2 is correct: It came into existence in 1987. It is a nat ional-level apex organizat ion. The basic objective of the TRIFED is to provide a good price of the ‘Minor Forest Produce (MFP) collected by the tribes of the country. It functions under Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Govt. of India.

With reference to Soil-Transmitted Helminthiases (STH), consider the following statements:
1. These are transmitted via eggs in faeces deposited in the local environment, typically through open defecation.
2. Roundworm and Hookworms are the types of Soil-Transmitted Helminthiases (STH).
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- 14 States have shown a reduction in the Soil-Transmitted Helminthiases (STH) and 9 states have shown a substantial reduction in STH follow-up prevalence survey.
Both statements are correct: Soil-Transmitted Helminthiases (STH), also known as parasitic intestinal worm infection, is known to have detrimental effects on children’s physical growth and well-being and can cause anaemia and under-nutrition. STHs are transmitted via eggs in faeces deposited in the local environment, typically through open defecation or lack of proper hygiene. There are three main types of STH that infect people, roundworm (Ascaris lumbricoides), whipworm (Trichuris trichiura) and hookworms (Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale). Regular deworming as advised by the World Health Organization eliminates worm infestation among children and adolescents living in areas with high STH burden.

What is Cas9 protein that is often seen in the news related to biotechnology?
  • a)
    A molecular scissors used in targeted gene edit ing
  • b)
    A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in pat ients
  • c)
    A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
  • d)
    A gene technology that is used to treat AIDS.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- Recently, Emmanuelle Charpentier of France and Jennifer Doudna of the U.S. won the Nobel Chemistry Prize for the gene-editing technique known as the CRISPR-Cas9 DNA snipping "scissors".
Option A is correct: The CRISPR stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats and was developed in the year 2012. It has revolutionised and has made gene editing very easy and has imparted extreme efficiency in gene editing. An RNA molecule is programmed to locate the particular problematic sequence on the DNA strand. A special protein called Cas9, often described in popular literature as ‘genetic scissor’, is used to break and remove the problematic sequence. The CRISPR-Cas9 tool has already contributed to significant gains in crop resilience, altering their genetic code to better withstand drought and pests. The technology has also led to innovative cancer treatments and many experts hope that it may help in curing the inherited diseases. Genes of plants can be edited to make them withstand pests, or improve their tolerance to drought or temperature.

Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Reserve Bank of India’s Open Market Operations?
1. It is the rate at which the banks are able to borrow overnight funds from RBI against the approved government securities.
2. It is one of the qualitat ive tools of RBI under his monetary po licy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
Statement 1 is not correct: Open market operations is the sale and purchase of government securities and treasury bills by RBI or the central bank of the country. And Marginal Standing Facility is a new Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window created by Reserve Bank of India in its credit policy of May 2011. MSF is the rate at which the banks are able to borrow overnight funds from RBI against the approved government securities.
Statement 2 is not correct: The quantitative instruments are Open Market Operations, Liquidit y Adjustment Facility (Repo and Reverse Repo), Marginal Standing Facility, SLR, CRR, Bank Rate, Credit Ceiling etc. On the other hand, qualitative instruments are credit rationing, moral suasion and direct action (by RBI on banks).

With respect to the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO), consider the following statements:
1. El Nino events are sometimes referred to as the warm and wet half phase of ENSO and La Nina as the cold phase of the ENSO
2. Under the El Nino event, the surface temperature of the Pacific Ocean increases more than usual causing heavy rainfalls in Australia.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
In News- The deviations from the normal surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean can have a large-scale impact on the global weather conditions, and the monsoon climate of the Indian subcontinent also gets affected with these temperature fluctuations.
Statement 1 is not correct: ENSO is a single climate phenomenon; it has three states or phases. The two opposite phases are El Niño and La Niña. El Niño is the warming of the ocean surface, or above-average sea surface temperatures (SST), in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. And, La Nina is basically the opposite of an El Niño: Ocean temperatures along the eastern half of the tropical Pacific cool down and that part of the world dries out
Statement 2 is not correct: During an El Niño event, the surface o f the tropical Pacific Ocean gets warmer than usual, particularly at the equator and along the coasts of South and Central America. Warm oceans lead to low-pressure systems in the atmosphere above, which in turn leads to a lot of rain for the western coasts of South America

Which of the following sites are designated as Ramsar sites in India?
1. Asan Conservation Reserve
2. Dal Lake
3. Kabartal Wetland
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- Recently, Kabartal Wetland (Bihar) and Asan Conservation Reserve (Uttrakhand) have been designated as Ramsar sites, making them ‘Wetlands of International Importance’.
Option C is correct: Asan Conservation Reserve has become the first wetland from Uttarakhand to be included in the prestigious Ramsar sites list. Besides Asan, Kabartal Wetland from Bihar was the second new site to get included in this list. Till February 2020, only 37 sites from India were in the Ramsar site list, which has now been extended to 39.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the "ketogenic diet"?
1. It contains a high percentage of fat, low protein and low amount of carbohydrates.
2. All ketogenic diets ban carb-rich foods.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Both the statements are correct: The ketogenic diet is one of the most popular weight -loss diets the world over. It is a high-fat, moderate-protein and low-carb diet that helps in weight loss by achieving ketosis — a metabolic state where the liver burns body fat and provides fuel for the body, as there is limited access to glucose. Many versions of ketogenic diets exist, but all ban carb-rich foods. In the beginning, it may seem easier to follow a keto diet as there’s no need to count calories and the rules are very simple, but eventually adherence becomes very difficult. One can have eggs, chicken and turkey in poultry, fatty fish like salmon and mackerel, full-fat dairy, nuts and seeds like Macadamia nuts, almonds, walnuts, pumpkin seeds, peanuts and flaxseeds

Consider the following statements:
1. Minimum Support Price(MSP) is the rate at which the government buys grains from farmers.
2. It is fixed on the recommendations of the Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
MSP is the minimum price set by the Government at which farmers can expect to sell their produce for the season. When market prices fall below the announced MSPs, procurement agencies step in to procure the crop and ‘support’ the prices. The Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs announces MSP for various crops at the beginning of each sowing season based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The CACP takes into account demand and supply, the cost of production and price trends in the market among other things when fixing MSPs.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the recently launched AYUSHMAN SAHAKAR scheme?
1. It is a scheme to assist cooperatives in the creation of healt hcare infrastructure in the country.
2. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) will see the implementation of the scheme.
3. It will specifically cover the establishment, modernizat ion, expansion, repairs, renovat ion of hospital and healthcare and education infrastructure.
Choose the correct option using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
In News- The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has launched Ayushman Sahakar scheme recently.
All the statements are correct: It is a scheme to assist cooperatives which plays an important role in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country. It is formulated by National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), an autonomous development finance institution under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. NCDC will extend term loans to prospective cooperatives, a fund will be created for the purpose. Any Cooperative Society with suitable provision in its byelaws to undertake healthcare related activities would be able to access the NCDC fund. NCDC assistance will flow either through the State Governments/ UT Administrations or directly to the eligible cooperatives.

Consider the following statements:
1. Central Pollution Control Board is the executive body for providing technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests
2. Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA) is the Supreme Court mandated body for controlling pollution in all metropolitan cities of India.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In News- The Supreme Court-appointed pollution monitoring body has directed Delhi and neighbouring States to implement air pollution control measures under “very poor” and “severe” category air quality of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) from October 15.
Statement 1 is not correct: Central Pollut ion Control Board is a statutory organisat ion which was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Statement 2 is not correct: EPCA was constituted with the objective of ‘protecting and improving’ the quality of the environment and ‘controlling environmental pollution’ in the National Capital Region. The EPCA also assists the apex court in various environment-related matters in the region. EPCA is Supreme Court mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution in the National Capital Region. It was notified in 1998 by Environment Ministry under Environment Protection Act, 1986.

Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Reserve Bank of India’s Open Market Operations?
1. It is the rate at which the banks are able to borrow overnight funds from RBI against the approved government securities.
2. It is one of the qualitat ive tools of RBI under his monetary po licy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
Statement 1 is not correct: Open market operations is the sale and purchase of government securities and treasury bills by RBI or the central bank of the country. And Marginal Standing Facility is a new Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window created by Reserve Bank of India in its credit policy of May 2011. MSF is the rate at which the banks are able to borrow overnight funds from RBI against the approved government securities.
Statement 2 is not correct: The quantitative instruments are Open Market Operations, Liquidity Adjustment Facility (Repo and Reverse Repo), Marginal Standing Facility, SLR, CRR, Bank Rate, Credit Ceiling etc. On the other hand, qualitat ive instruments are credit rationing, moral suasio n and direct action (by RBI on banks).

The gain of an almost free resource should have aided firm productivit y and business fundamentals but instead of that, the market share has fallen over the years, suggesting a case of which phenomenon of the economy?
  • a)
    Korean disease
  • b)
    Dutch disease
  • c)
    Cronyism disease
  • d)
    English disease
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
Option B is correct: Dutch disease refers to the phenomenon wherein countries that are rich in natural resources witness uneven growth across sectors. According to the thesis, when resource-rich countries export their resources to the rest of the world, it causes the exchange rate of their currency to appreciate significantly; this, in turn, affects other sectors in the country by discouraging their exports while encouraging the import of cheaper alternatives. The term was coined by The Economist in 1977 to describe the decline of the manufacturing industry in the Netherlands. The idea, however, was first proposed by economists Peter Neary and Max Corden in a paper published in 1982.

‘Ravi Chopra committee’ was in the news recently, it is related to
  • a)
    Reform in the defence procurement procedure
  • b)
    Usage of Non-personal data
  • c)
    Review Char Dham Project
  • d)
    Ramping up the healthcare sector
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
In News- The chairman of a Supreme Court-appointed expert committee has alleged violat ions of the court orders in the execut ion of the Chardham road project — a 900 km, ₹12,000 crore enterprise to connect pilgrimage spots in Uttarakhand.
Option C is correct: The Supreme Court had ruled that the width of roads constructed under the Chardham project shall be 5.5 metres. This was ruled based on the recommendation of Ministry of Road Transport and Highway (MoRTH) for mountain roads. The project aims to provide connectivity to the four Hindu pilgrimages such as Kedarnath, Badrinath, Gangotri and Yamunotri that are collectively known as Chardham.

Global Counter-Terrorism Forum (GCTF) is often in the news, consider the following statements in this regard:
1. It is a UN initiated international think tank to resolve the global conscience about terrorism.
2. India is a founding member of GCTF.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- International Energy Security Conference 2020 was recently organised by Global Counter-Terrorism Council (GCTC)
Statement 1 is not correct: GCTF’s is internat ional apolit ical, mult ilateral counter-terrorism (CT) platform of 29 countries and European Union (EU) with an overarching mission of reducing the vulnerability of people worldwide to terrorism by preventing, combating, and prosecuting terrorist acts and countering incitement and recruitment to terrorism. It was launched officially in New York on 22 September 2011.
Statement 2 is not correct: It was launched in 2011. India is a founding member of GCTF. It’s mission is to reduce the vulnerability of people worldwide to terrorism by preventing, combating, and prosecuting terrorist acts and countering incitement and recruitment to terrorism.

Which of the following institutions recently won the Nobel Peace Prize for 2020?
  • a)
    Disaster Risk Reduct ion for Resilience
  • b)
    United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
  • c)
    World Food Programme
  • d)
    United Nations Environment Programme
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
In News- The World Food Programme (WFP) has been praised by world leaders and humanitarian groups after it was awarded 2020's Nobel Peace Prize.
Option C is correct: The World Food Programme (WFP) was honoured for its efforts to combat hunger, for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas and for acting as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict. The Rome-based organisation has been feeding people in some of the world's most dangerous places, with the coronavirus pandemic seen pushing millions more into hunger.

GREEN initiative (Global Action for Reconciling Economic growth and Environment preservation) is launched by which of the following organisation?
  • a)
    World Bank
  • b)
    International Monetary Fund
  • c)
    Bureau of Energy Efficiency
  • d)
    Japan Bank for International Co-operation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
In News- NTPC Ltd entered into a loan agreement with Japanese Government for JPY 50 billion (approx. USD 482 million) under Japan Bank for International Cooperation (JBIC)’s GREEN initiative.
Option D is correct: GREEN initiative stands for Global Action fo r Reconciling Economic growth and Environment preservation initiative. The facility is extended under JBIC's outreach for projects, which ensure the conservation of the global environment. JBIC will provide 60 per cent of the facility amount and the balance will be given by commercial banks (viz., Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation, the Bank of Yokohama Ltd, the San-In Godo Bank Ltd, the Joyo Bank Ltd, and The Nanto Bank Ltd), under the JBIC's guarantee. 

With reference to the RT-PCR (reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction), consider the following statements:
1. These tests only indicate the presence of the virus and it is not helping in knowing if the person is infected and subsequently recovered.
2. These tests give the test only is an hour and require only a single finger prick.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In News- The Centre stressed on the need to increase the number of RT -PCR (reverse transcript ion- polymerase chain react ion) tests to ident ify Covid patients in a bid to reduce TPR and fatality rates.
Statement 1 is correct: The COVID-19 RT-PCR test is a real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (rRT-PCR) test for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from SARS-CoV-2 in upper and lower respiratory specimens. Negative results do not preclude SARS-CoV-2 infection and should not be used as the sole basis for patient management decisions. Negative results must be combined with clinical observations, patient history, and epidemiological information.
Statement 2 is not correct: The test takes much more time to complete, it includes the number of steps like conversion of RNA to DNA, thereafter replication.

The term “MACS 6487” was in the news recently, it is a
  • a)
    Newly discovered Exoplanet
  • b)
    Fertilizer
  • c)
    New wheat variety
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
In News- This was in the news recently, New wheat variet y helps farmers in a village in Maharashtra double their yield
Option C is correct: The wheat variety called MACS 6478 and developed by Scientists from Agharkar Research Institute (ARI). The newly developed common wheat or bread wheat, also called high yielding Aestivum, matures in 110 days and is resistant to most races of leaf and stem rust.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the BrahMos?
1. It is jointly developed by the DRDO and NPOM, an aerospace enterprise of Russia
2. It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant engine in the first stage and a liquid ramjet in the second
3. It can be launched from land, water and air.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In News- Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully test-fired the BrahMos missile.
Statement 1 is correct: BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile which is joint ly developed by the DRDO and NPOM, a leading aerospace enterprise of Russia. Brahmos is named after the rivers Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia Statement 2 is correct: BrahMos is a two-stage missile wit h a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in cruise phase.
Statement 3 is correct: It can be launched from submarines, warships, fighter jets or land.

In reference to the ‘Beirut Declarat ion’ sometimes seen in the news recent ly, which of the following is correct?
  • a)
    It seeks to prepare a Global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism.
  • b)
    It addresses the challenges posed by global climate change and prepares a roadmap.
  • c)
    It chalks out a plan for the refugee crisis and preventing the violation of their human rights.
  • d)
    It enhances the role of religions in promoting human rights.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lalit Yadav answered
Option D is correct: Beirut Declaration enhances the role of religions in promoting human rights. A "Faith for Rights" initiative launched by the Office of the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) in 2017. Building on the 2012 Rabat Plan of Action that laid out religious leaders' core responsibilities in countering incitement to hatred, the Beirut Declaration expands those responsibilities to the full spectrum of human rights. It calls on believers of all fait hs to jo in hands and hearts in articulat ing ways in which they can stand together in defending fundamental rights against discrimination and violence.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct with respect to the Election Commission of India?
1. The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses.
2. The members hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
3. The retired election commissioners are barred from further appointment under the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
In News- Bihar Assembly Elections 2020 are going on and its obvious to know about the Election Commission of India (ECI) through this question.
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Const itution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdict ion in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. Further, the cases of persons found guilty of corrupt practices at elections which come before the Supreme Court and High Courts are also referred to the Commission for its opinion on the question as to whether such person shall be disqualified. The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time and in the manner prescribed by law. The Commission has also the power for removing or reducing the period of such disqualification as also other disqualification under the law.
Statement 2 is not correct: The office is held by them for a term of 6 years or until they attain 65 years, whichever happens first. They can also be removed or can resign at any time before the expiry of their term.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Const itution has not debarred the retiring elect ion commissioners from any further appointment by the government. 

With reference to the Kumhar Sashaktikaran Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative for the empowering of potters’ community in the remotest of locations in the country.
2. It is launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
3. The KVIC is an executive body formed under Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
Statement 1 is correct: Recently, the Union Home Minister distributed 100 electric potter wheels to 100 trained artisans under Kumhar Sashaktikaran Yojana of Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). It is an initiative of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission(KVIC) for the empowerment of the potters’ community in the remotest of locations in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: It is an init iative of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission(KVIC) Statement 3 is not correct: The KVIC is a statutory body formed in April 1957 under the ‘Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956’. It is an apex organisation under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. It seeks to plan, promote, facilitate, organise and assist in the establishment and development of khadi and village industries in the rural areas

Which of the following internat ional conventions deals wit h Persistent Organic Pollutants?
  • a)
    Minamata Convention
  • b)
    Rio-De-Janeiro Convention
  • c)
    Luxembourg Convention
  • d)
    Stockholm Convention
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- The Union Cabinet approved the ratification of seven chemicals listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
Option D is correct: The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants was adopted by the Conference of Plenipotentiaries in 2001 in Stockholm, Sweden. The Convention entered into force in 2004. Over 152 countries ratified the Convention. It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).POPs are listed in various annexes to the Stockholm Convention after thorough scientific research, deliberations and negotiations among member countries. Hexabromocyclododecane, and Hexachlorobutadiene, which was already listed as POPs under Stockholm Convention.

With reference to the opposition (MARS), consider the following statements:
1. In astronomy, it is the circumstance in which two celestial bodies appear in opposite directions in the sky.
2. Due to this, Mars will outshine Jupiter, becoming the third brightest object.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
In News- Due to an event referred to as “opposit ion”, which takes place every two years and two months, Mars will shine the brightest.
Both the statements are correct: ‘Opposition’ is the event when the sun, Earth and an outer planet (Mars in this case) are lined up, with the Earth in the middle. The time of opposition is the point when the outer planet is typically also at its closest distance to the Earth for a given year, and because it is close, the planet appears brighter in the sky. An opposition can occur anywhere along Mars’ orbit, but when it happens when the planet is also closest to the sun, it is also particularly close to the Earth. It will outshine Jupiter, becoming the third brightest object (moon and Venus are first and second, respectively) in the night sky during the month of October.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct with respect to the Election Commission of India?
1. The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses.
2. The members ho ld o ffice for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
3. The retired elect ion commissioners are barred from further appoint ment under the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lalit Yadav answered
In News- Bihar Assembly Elections 2020 are going on and its obvious to know about the Election Commission of India (ECI) through this question.
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Const itution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdict ion in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. Further, the cases of persons found guilty of corrupt practices at elections which come before the Supreme Court and High Courts are also referred to the Commission for its opinion on the question as to whether such person shall be disqualified. The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time and in the manner prescribed by law. The Commission has also the power for removing or reducing the period of such disqualification as also other disqualification under the law.
Statement 2 is not correct: The office is held by them for a term of 6 years or until they attain 65 years, whichever happens first. They can also be removed or can resign at any time before the expiry of their term.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Const itution has not debarred the retiring elect ion commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

‘Operation Gulmarg’ was conducted in Indian history, it is related to which of the following?
  • a)
    Accession of Jammu & Kashmir with India
  • b)
    Insurgency elimination operation of Indian Army
  • c)
    Pakistan’s incursion of Kashmir
  • d)
    Boosting tourism sector in Kashmir
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
In News- Recently, PM has launched what is being seen as the first serious move by India to counter the Kashmir narrative set afloat by Pakistan since 1947.
Option C is correct: Pakistan Army regulars and tribal raiders invaded Kashmir Valley on October 22 in 1947, two months after the Partition of India. The Pakistan Army had codenamed its capture Kashmir mission as Operation Gulmarg. 

Consider the following statements:
1. India has currently 17 commands whereas each one is headed by a 4-star rank military officer.
2. Currently, India has two joint commands.
3. Integrated Theatre Command is a unified command of the three Services, under a single commander.
4. The Shekatkar committee has recommended the creation of 5 integrated theatre commands region wise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    1, 3 and 4 only
  • d)
    2, 3 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- The Army Chief General has said that the next step in defence reforms after the appointment of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) would be the formation of integrated theatre commands.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The Indian armed forces currently have 17 commands. There are 7 commands each of the Army and the Air Force and the Navy has 3 commands.
Each command is headed by a 4-star rank military officer. There is one joint command in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is the first Tri-Service theatre command of the Indian Armed Forces, based at Port Blair in Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India. The integrated theatre command envisages a unified command of the three Services, under a single commander, for geographical theatres (areas) that are of strategic and security concern. The integrated theatre commander will not be answerable to individual Services. In this context, the Shekatkar committee has recommended the creation of 3 integrated theatre commands — northern for the China border, western for the Pakistan border, and southern for the maritime role.

Which of the following organisat ion/ministry has recent ly notified as ‘National Authorit y for Ships Recycling’?
  • a)
    Director-General of Shipping
  • b)
    Ministry of Shipping
  • c)
    Indian National Shipowner's Association
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- Recently, the government notified the Director-General of Shipping as National Authority for Recycling of Ships.
Option A is correct: In 2019, the Government had passed The Recycling of Ships Bill, 2019 which talked about setting up of a national authority that will monitor all activities related to ship recycling. Under the Ship Recycling Act, 2019, India has acceded to the Hong Kong Convention for Ship Recycling under International Maritime Organization (IMO). DG Shipping is a representative of India in the IMO and enforces the conventions. So, the government notified the Director-General of Shipping as National Authority for Recycling of Ships

The term ‘Reserve tranche’ often seen in the news, it is related to -
  • a)
    An international type of monetary reserve currency created by the World Bank.
  • b)
    The interest charged on the long term loan by the World Bank to nations.
  • c)
    The required quota of currency each member country must provide to the IMF.
  • d)
    Line of credit given by the central banks to other nations’ national bank.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
In News- Recently, The country’s foreign exchange reserves touched a lifetime high of $555.12 billion after it surged by $3.615 billion in the week ended October 16. The term ‘Reserve Tranche’ often seen in relation to this.
Option C is correct: Reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its purposes.

“The Human Cost of Disasters 2000-2019” report was in the news recently, it is released by which of the following organisation?
  • a)
    United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR)
  • b)
    National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
  • c)
    United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
In News- International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction is observed on 13th October every year.
Option A is correct: In a new report “The Human Cost of Disasters 2000-2019”, the United Nations pointed out that climate change is largely to blame for a near doubling of natural disasters in the past 20 years. The report is published by the United Nat ions Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR). The report did not touch on biological hazards and disease-related disasters like the coronavirus pandemic. The UNDRR was established in 1999 as a dedicated secretariat to facilitate the implementation of the International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (ISDR). It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

Where is Head Quater of the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) located?
  • a)
    Washington
  • b)
    Brussels
  • c)
    Geneva
  • d)
    New York
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) was established in 2006. It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It aimed at promoting and protecting human rights around the globe, as well as investigating alleged human rights violations. The UNHRC has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis from 5 groups. To become a member, a country must receive the votes of at least 96 of the 191 states of the UN General Assembly (an absolute majority). The Resolution 60/251, created the council, members are elected directly by secret ballot by the majority of the UN General Assembly. Membership has to be equally distributed geographically. Five regional groups for membership: Africa, AsiaPacific, Latin America and the Caribbean, Western Europe and Eastern Europe.

With respect to Artemis Accords, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It outlines the principles of future exploration of the Moon and beyond.
2. India is a founding member in the space coalition under Artemis Accords.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
Eight countries named in NASA's 'Artemis Accords' that aims to send humans back to Moon in 2024. It outlines the principles of future exploration of the Moon and beyond. It has emphasized the need for international partnerships in building up a sustainable presence on the Moon. The treaty paves the way for its founding members, Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, United Arab Emirates, Britain and the United States, to participate in NASA's Artemis program. It also aims to return humans to Earth's nearest neighbour, Moon.
India is not a founding member.

The ‘Nazca lines’ is in the news recent ly, it is located in
  • a)
    Brazil
  • b)
    Bolivia
  • c)
    Peru
  • d)
    Chile
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
In News- Recently, a giant cat geoglyph was discovered on a hill at the famous Nazca Lines site in Peru.
Option C is correct: Peru’s famous Nazca Lines grabbed the spotlight on social media recently after the discovery of a hit herto unknown massive carving –– that of a resting cat on the slope of a steep hill. The Nazca Lines are a group of very large geoglyphs made in the soil of the Nazca Desert in southern Peru. They were created between 500 BCE and 500 CE by people making depressions or shallow incisions in the desert floor, removing pebbles and leaving differently coloured dirt exposed. The Lines were declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1994.

Eriocaulon parvicephalum and Eriocaulon karaavalense were in the news recently, they are:
  • a)
    Newly discovered bacterias
  • b)
    Ancient sites discovered in Iran
  • c)
    Newly discovered species of Arthropod
  • d)
    Species of wetland plant
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
In News- Two new species of wetland plant discovered from the Western Ghats.
Option D is correct: Scientists from Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) have discovered two new species of pipeworts, a type of wetland plant, from areas along the Western Ghats in Maharashtra and Karnataka

With reference to the Nandankanan Zoological Park, consider the following statements:
1. It is the first zoo in India to become a member of the World Associat ion of Zoos & Aquariums (WAZA).
2. It is recognized as a leading zoo for the breeding of the Indian pangolin and white tiger.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sleepy Classes answered
In News- The Nandankanan Zoological Park (NZP) which suffered a huge loss following its closure due to the COVID-19 pandemic, has revived its innovative ‘Adopt-An-Animal’ programme. The ‘Adopt-An-Animal’ programme has been revived to mobilise resources for animals.
Both the statements are correct: Nandankanan Zoological Park is located in Odisha. It is the first zoo in India to become a member of the World Association of Zoos & Aquariums (WAZA). It is recognized as a leading zoo for the breeding of the Indian pangolin and white tiger.

Consider the following statements:
1. Electoral Bonds are the financial instruments for making donations to political parties.
2. Under the Electoral Bond scheme, Political parties are legally bound to submit their income tax returns
3. The sale of electoral bonds is carried out from the selected branches of Public Sector Banks across the country.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
In News- The government of India approved the 14th tranche of electoral bonds which will be open for sale between 19 to 28th of October.
Statement 1 is correct: The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill (2017) and government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018 to boost transparency in political funding.
It is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties. It is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India and the citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice.
Statement 2 is not correct: Polit ical parties are legally bound to submit their income tax returns annually under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961. But the finance bill sought to exempt electoral bonds from the IT Act. Statement 3 is not correct: As of now, these bonds are issued by the authorised branches of the State Bank of India (SBI) and are valid for 15 days from the date of the purchase.

With reference to the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project, consider the following statements
1. It is a multi-purpose project constructed on the Kaveri River.
2. It was originally called the Pranahita-Chevella project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Option B is correct: The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigat ion Project is a mult i-purpose irrigat ion project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally District, Telangana, India. The 3 main purposes of this project are irrigation, transport, and power. The project starts at the confluence point of Pranahita River and Godavari River. It was originally called Dr. B R Ambedkar Pranahita Chevella Sujala Sravanthi Project in erstwhile Andhra Pradesh, it was redesigned, extended and renamed as Kaleshwaram project in Telangana in 2014.

‘Poverty and Shared Prosperit y Report: Reversals of Fortune’ is released by which of the following organisations?
  • a)
    UNICEF
  • b)
    United Nations Economic and Social Council
  • c)
    World Bank
  • d)
    IMF
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akhand Singh answered
The World Bank in its biennial Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report mentions that Covid-19 can add around 27-40 million new poor in Sub-Saharan Africa and around 49-57 million in South Asia region.

The “new poor” will:

Be more urban poor.

Be more engaged in informal services and manufacturing and less in agriculture.

Live in congested urban settings and work in the sectors most affected by lockdowns and mobility restrictions.

Key Points

Extreme Poverty Projection: The COVID-19 pandemic is estimated to push an additional 88 million to 115 million people into extreme poverty this year, with the total rising to as many as 150 million by 2021, depending on the severity of the economic contraction.

Percentage of Population: The pandemic and global recession may cause over 1.4% of the world’s population to fall into extreme poverty.

Extreme poverty: It is defined as living on less than $1.90 a day. The World Bank measures poverty lines of $3.20 and $5.50, and also a multidimensional spectrum that includes access to education and basic infrastructure.

Increase in Rate of Poverty: Global extreme poverty rate is projected to rise by around 1.3% to 9.2% in 2020. If the pandemic would not have been there, the poverty rate was expected to drop to 7.9% in 2020.

Regions of Incidence: Many of the newly poor individuals will be from countries that already have high poverty rates (Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia).

Around 82% of the total poor will be in middle income countries (MICs).

Flood Prone Areas: About 132 million of the global poor live in high flood risk regions. The focus on flooding in this report primarily reflects the fact that floods are one of the most common and severe hazards, especially in lower-income countries.

Reverse of Progress Made: Current increasing poverty is reversal of the achievements made in two-and-a-half decades (1990-2015).

Extreme poverty rate declined by 26%. It dropped to 10% from nearly 36%.

During 2012-2017, the growth was inclusive and the incomes of the poorest 40% of the population grew.

The average global shared prosperity was 2.3% during the period.

Diminished Shared Prosperity: Average global shared prosperity is estimated to stagnate or even contract over 2019-2021 due to the reduced growth in average incomes.

Shared prosperity is defined as the growth in the income of the poorest 40% of a country’s population.

Reason: Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by Covid-19.

It is exacerbating the impact of conflict and climate change, which were already slowing down poverty reduction.

Proposed Strategy

The World Bank recommends for a complementary two-track approach which involves short as well as long term strategy:

Short-run:

Without policy actions, the Covid-19 crisis may lead to an increase in income inequality, resulting in a world that is less inclusive.

Countries need to prepare for a different economy post-Covid, by allowing capital, labour, skills, and innovation to move into new businesses and sectors.

Long-run:

Continuing to focus on foundational development problems, including conflict and climate change as the key areas.

Poverty in India

Poverty estimation in India is carried out by NITI Aayog’s task force through the calculation of poverty line based on the data captured by the National Sample Survey Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI).

Poverty line estimation in India is based on the consumption expenditure and not on the income levels.

Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2020:

India lifted as many as 270 million people out of multidimensional poverty between 2005-06 and 2015-16.

Impact of Covid-19: Covid-19 is having a profound impact on the development landscape.

The study finds that on average, poverty levels will be set back 3 to 10 years due to Covid-19.

Sustainable Development Goals: The index emphasises on measuring and monitoring progress under the goals to reach ‘zero poverty by 2030-Goal 1’ of the SDGs.

Recent Measures Taken:

The government enhanced its social safety programs including direct benefit transfers such as cash transfers under PM Kisan scheme, more liberal financing under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 like advance disbursement, direct cash grants to construction workers and release of free and subsidized food grains under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana to about 800 million people to ensure food for all.

The Government announced a special economic package of Rs 20 lakh crore (equivalent to 10% of India’s GDP) under Atma Nirbhar Bharat Scheme with the aim of making the country independent against the tough competition in the global supply chain and to help in empowering the poor, labourers, migrants who have been adversely affected by Covid.

Way Forward

The challenge of poverty is enormous especially in the background of Covid-19. The need is to collaborate at both Global and Regional levels.

Collaboration in the form of sharing information on disease and cure.

Developmental and poverty eradication aid by the international financial organizations is of real meaning here.

At national level, respective governments must ensure both short and long-run strategies proposed by the World Bank apart from existing efforts of national governments.

Source: DTE

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