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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam
Recently in the news, "Authorised Economic Operators Programme" is related to?- a)Cryptocurrency
- b)Base Erosion and Profit Shifting
- c)Supply Chain and Global Trade
- d)Money Laundering
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Recently in the news, "Authorised Economic Operators Programme" is related to?
a)
Cryptocurrency
b)
Base Erosion and Profit Shifting
c)
Supply Chain and Global Trade
d)
Money Laundering
|
Alok Verma answered |
- The Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC) has inaugurated the online filing of Authorised Economic Operators (AEO) applications. AEO is a programme (2007) under the aegis of the World Customs Organization (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards to secure and facilitate global trade.
- It aims to enhance international supply chain security and facilitate the movement of goods. Under this, an entity engaged in international trade is approved by WCO as compliant with supply chain security standards and granted AEO status. Hence, C is the correct option.
The ‘Nord Stream 2 Pipeline (NS2P)’ recently seen in the news connects which of the following two countries?- a)Germany-Russia
- b)U.S-Mexico
- c)Germany-France
- d)Denmark-Sweden
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The ‘Nord Stream 2 Pipeline (NS2P)’ recently seen in the news connects which of the following two countries?
a)
Germany-Russia
b)
U.S-Mexico
c)
Germany-France
d)
Denmark-Sweden
|
Neha Verma answered |
- Recently, the US has approved the Germany-Russia Nord Stream 2 Pipeline (NS2P) project - which significantly increases Europe’s energy dependence on Russia.
- The US had previously imposed sanctions to prevent the completion of this gas pipeline between Russia and Germany. Hence, option A is correct.
- This is a 1,200-km pipeline that runs from Ust-Luga in Russia to Greifswald in Germany through the Baltic Sea. It will carry 55 billion cubic metres of gas per year.
Nord stream 1 system is already completed and together with NS2P, it will supply 110 billion cubic metre of gas a year to Germany.
Consider the following statements regarding National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL).1. National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) also called as bad bank is given legal recognition by the Corporate Affairs Ministry.2. The Government of India has the maximum equity contribution to NARCL.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL).
1. National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) also called as bad bank is given legal recognition by the Corporate Affairs Ministry.
2. The Government of India has the maximum equity contribution to NARCL.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
The much-awaited bad bank — National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) — has been incorporated, with the Corporate Affairs Ministry giving legal recognition.
The capital structure will have a component of both equity and debt. Public sector banks led by Canara Bank (which is likely to have 12 per cent stake) are expected to hold controlling stake in NARCL.
The other banks that are expected to pump in capital include State Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, Bank of India and IDBI Bank.
The government will not have any direct equity contribution to NARCL.
Consider the following statements regarding E-commerce sector in India1. Marketplace model is where goods sold on the portal is owned or controlled by the ecommerce company.2. Inventory-based model is where the e-commerce firm simply acts as a platform that connects buyers and sellers.3. 100% FDI is allowed in e-commerce companies in marketplace model.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1, 2
- b)3 only
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding E-commerce sector in India
1. Marketplace model is where goods sold on the portal is owned or controlled by the ecommerce company.
2. Inventory-based model is where the e-commerce firm simply acts as a platform that connects buyers and sellers.
3. 100% FDI is allowed in e-commerce companies in marketplace model.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1, 2
b)
3 only
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
Vikram Verma answered |
E-commerce companies can operate under two different models in India.
- The first is the marketplace model where the e-commerce firm simply acts as a platform that connects buyers and sellers. In order to increase the participation of foreign players in the e-commerce field, the Government has increased the limit of foreign direct investment (FDI) in the e-commerce marketplace model for up to 100%.
- The second model is inventory-based where the inventory of goods sold on the portal is owned or controlled by the e-commerce company. FDI is not allowed under this model.
With reference to the Loon balloons, consider the following statements:1. The Loon balloons were effectively cell towers the size of a tennis court.2. They floated 60,000 to 75,000 feet (18,000- 23,000 meters), above the Earth, well above commercial jetliner routes.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Loon balloons, consider the following statements:
1. The Loon balloons were effectively cell towers the size of a tennis court.
2. They floated 60,000 to 75,000 feet (18,000- 23,000 meters), above the Earth, well above commercial jetliner routes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
Florida’s Republican governor, Ron DeSantis, called this week on the administration of President Joe Biden to greenlight a plan to transmit the Internet to people in Cuba via high-altitude balloons when their government has blocked access.
- For years, Alphabet — the parent company of Google — worked to perfect an Internet-balloon division service called Loon. It shut down that project in January, saying it wasn’t commercially viable.
- Prior to the shutdown, Loon balloons had been providing service in mountainous areas in Kenya through a partnership with a local telecom, Telkom Kenya.
- The service also helped provide wireless communications in Puerto Rico in the aftermath of Hurricane Maria, which destroyed the island’s mobile network.
- Loon partnered with AT&T to make service available.
- The Loon balloons were effectively cell towers the size of a tennis court.
- They floated 60,000 to 75,000 feet (18,000- 23,000 meters), above the Earth, well above commercial jetliner routes.
- Made of the commonplace plastic polyethylene, the balloons used solar panels for electricity and could deliver service to smartphones in partnership with a local telecom.
- Each balloon could serve thousands of people.
- But they had to be replaced every five months or so because of the harsh conditions in the stratosphere.
- And the balloons could be difficult to control.
- Hence both statements are correct.
With reference to the Technology Innovation Platforms, consider the following statements:1. This will facilitate the development of the key ‘mother’ manufacturing technologies' indigenously through ‘Grand Challenges’ on the Platforms.2. The six technology platforms have been developed by IIT Bombay.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Technology Innovation Platforms, consider the following statements:
1. This will facilitate the development of the key ‘mother’ manufacturing technologies' indigenously through ‘Grand Challenges’ on the Platforms.
2. The six technology platforms have been developed by IIT Bombay.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Priyanka Panchal answered |
A
National Chartered Accountant Day in India is celebrated on:- a)July 1
- b)June 20
- c)June 29
- d)July 5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
National Chartered Accountant Day in India is celebrated on:
a)
July 1
b)
June 20
c)
June 29
d)
July 5
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
Prime Minister Modi greeted Chartered Accountants on Chartered Accountants' Day.
- July 1 is celebrated as National Chartered Accountant Day in India. The day is observed in order to celebrate the formation of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) on July 1st, 1949.
- The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is the national professional accounting body of India.
- It was established on 1 July 1949 as a statutory body under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 to regulate the profession of Chartered Accountancy in India.
- ICAI is the only licensing cum regulating body of the financial audit and accountancy profession in India. It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Financial Reporting Authority
- Only a member of ICAI can be appointed as statutory auditor of a company under the Companies Act, 2013.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Dholavira, consider the following statements:1. It is the second site of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the tag.2. Cascading series of water reservoirs is one of the unique features of the Dholavira site.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Dholavira, consider the following statements:
1. It is the second site of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the tag.
2. Cascading series of water reservoirs is one of the unique features of the Dholavira site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Alok Verma answered |
Dholavira, the archaeological site of a Harappan-era city, received the UNESCO world heritage site tag.
- While Dholavira became the fourth site from Gujarat and 40th from India to make the list, it is the first site of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the tag.
- The IVC acropolis is located on a hillock near present-day Dholavira village in Kutch district, from which it gets its name.
Distinct features
- After Mohen-jo-Daro, Ganweriwala and Harappa in Pakistan and Rakhigarhi in Haryana of India, Dholavira is the fifth largest metropolis of IVC.
- The site has a fortified citadel, a middle town and a lower town with walls made of sandstone or limestone instead of mud bricks in many other Harappan sites.
- Some of the unique features of the Dholavira site are a cascading series of water reservoirs, outer fortification, two multi-purpose grounds — one of which was used for festivities and as a marketplace — nine gates with unique designs, and funerary architecture featuring tumulus — hemispherical structures like the Buddhist Stupas.
- While unlike graves at other IVC sites, no mortal remains of humans have been discovered at Dholavira.
- Remains of a copper smelter indicate of Harappans, who lived in Dholavira, knew metallurgy.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:1. The International Labour Organisation (ILO) is the only tripartite United Nation (UN) agency.2. The ILO became an affiliated agency of the United Nations (UN) by the Treaty of Versailles.3. The International Labour Conference is organized by ILO every year.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 only
- c)3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The International Labour Organisation (ILO) is the only tripartite United Nation (UN) agency.
2. The ILO became an affiliated agency of the United Nations (UN) by the Treaty of Versailles.
3. The International Labour Conference is organized by ILO every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
- International Labour Organisation (ILO) is the only tripartite United Nation (UN) agency. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 member States (India is a member), to set labour standards, develop policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
- ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.
- ILO was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- It became the first affiliated specialized agency of the UN in 1946.
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- The Indian Labour Conference (ILC) also known as the ‘labour parliament’ of the country formed on the lines of International Labour Conference is the apex level tripartite (Government, Employers and Workers) consultative committee in the Ministry of Labour & Employment.
- International Labour Conference also known as International Parliament of Labour is a conference organized by ILO every year. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:1. The Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by Robert Clive in 1798.2. The first Subsidiary Treaty was signed with the Nawab of Avadh.3. The British controlled the defence and foreign relations of the protected ally under Subsidiary Treaty.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by Robert Clive in 1798.
2. The first Subsidiary Treaty was signed with the Nawab of Avadh.
3. The British controlled the defence and foreign relations of the protected ally under Subsidiary Treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
- In 1798, Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley in India, the ruler of the allying Indian state was compelled to pay a subsidy for the maintenance of British army in return for getting protection from the British against their enemies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Those native princes or rulers who would enter into the Subsidiary Alliance were not free to declare war against any other power or enter into negotiations without the consent of the British.
- The Subsidiary Alliance was a policy of non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state, but this was a promise seldom kept by the British.
- The payment of the arbitrarily-fixed and artificially-bloated subsidy invariably disrupted the economy of the state and impoverished its people.
- On the other hand, the British could now maintain a large army at the cost of the Indian states.
- They controlled the defence and foreign relations of the protected ally, and had a powerful force stationed at the very heart of his lands. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Lord Wellesley signed his first Subsidiary Treaty with the Nizam of Hyderabad in 1798.
- The Nawab of Avadh was forced to sign a Subsidiary Treaty in 1801. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Peshwa Baji Rao II (Maratha) signed the Subsidiary Treaty at Bassein in 1802.
Consider the following statements regarding Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) project.1. ONDC project was announced by the Ministry of Finance to address the issue of digital monopolies on e-commerce platforms.2. It will allow sellers to be discoverable across multiple e-commerce platforms for a wider reach to customers instead of available to customers on only one particular e-commerce platform.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) project.
1. ONDC project was announced by the Ministry of Finance to address the issue of digital monopolies on e-commerce platforms.
2. It will allow sellers to be discoverable across multiple e-commerce platforms for a wider reach to customers instead of available to customers on only one particular e-commerce platform.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Antriksh Kumar answered |
Hindi language me hota questions
Who among the following served as a President of the Indian National Congress in 1897 at the meeting held at Amravati?- a)Dadabhai Naoroji
- b)Surendranath Banerjee
- c)Gopal Krishna Gokhale
- d)Chettur Sankaran Nair
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Who among the following served as a President of the Indian National Congress in 1897 at the meeting held at Amravati?
a)
Dadabhai Naoroji
b)
Surendranath Banerjee
c)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
d)
Chettur Sankaran Nair
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
Filmmaker Karan Johar recently announced his decision to produce the biopic of Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair.
- Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair (1857 – 1934) was an acclaimed lawyer and judge in the Madras High Court. He wrote Gandhi and Anarchy (1922).
- He served as a President of the Indian National Congress in 1897 at the meeting held at Amravati.
- In 1902 Lord Curzon appointed him a member of the Raleigh University Commission. In 1904 he was appointed as Companion of the Indian Empire by the King-Emperor and in 1912 he was knighted. In 1915 he became part of the Viceroy’s Council, put in charge of the education portfolio.
- Nair was known for being a passionate advocate for social reforms. In Budasna v Fatima (1914), he passed a radical judgement when he ruled that those who converted to Hinduism cannot be treated as outcastes.
- But what really stood out in his long glorious career is a courtroom battle he fought against the Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab, Michael O’Dwyer.
- Nair had accused O’Dwyer in his book, ‘Gandhi and anarchy’ for being responsible for the atrocities at the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. Consequently, he was fighting against an Englishman, in an English court that was presided over by an English jury.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is not a function of RBI?
- a)Banker to government
- b)Regulation of foreign exchange
- c)Printing of Currency
- d)Collection and publication of data
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not a function of RBI?
a)
Banker to government
b)
Regulation of foreign exchange
c)
Printing of Currency
d)
Collection and publication of data
|
Rahul Singh answered |
Introduction:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking institution of India and is responsible for maintaining monetary stability, regulating the financial system, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the payment system. It was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The RBI performs various functions to fulfill its objectives.
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'D' - None of the above. This means that all the options given are functions of the RBI. Let's discuss each function in detail:
1. Banker to Government:
The RBI acts as a banker, agent, and advisor to the Government of India and the state governments. It manages the government's banking transactions, holds their cash balances, and provides short-term loans to meet any temporary mismatches in their receipts and payments. The RBI also manages the issue of government securities and acts as a custodian of the government's cash, gold, and foreign exchange reserves.
2. Regulation of Foreign Exchange:
The RBI is responsible for the regulation and supervision of the foreign exchange market in India. It formulates and implements policies to maintain the stability of the exchange rate and the balance of payments. The RBI controls the movement of capital in and out of the country, manages the foreign exchange reserves, and ensures compliance with foreign exchange laws and regulations.
3. Collection and Publication of Data:
The RBI collects, compiles, and publishes various economic and financial data. It collects data on money supply, interest rates, inflation, foreign exchange reserves, balance of payments, etc. This data is used for policy formulation, research, and analysis by the RBI, government, and other stakeholders. The RBI also publishes reports and bulletins on various aspects of the Indian economy.
Conclusion:
The Reserve Bank of India performs a wide range of functions to maintain monetary stability, regulate the financial system, and ensure the smooth functioning of the payment system in India. It acts as a banker to the government, regulates foreign exchange, and collects and publishes economic and financial data. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - None of the above.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking institution of India and is responsible for maintaining monetary stability, regulating the financial system, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the payment system. It was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The RBI performs various functions to fulfill its objectives.
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'D' - None of the above. This means that all the options given are functions of the RBI. Let's discuss each function in detail:
1. Banker to Government:
The RBI acts as a banker, agent, and advisor to the Government of India and the state governments. It manages the government's banking transactions, holds their cash balances, and provides short-term loans to meet any temporary mismatches in their receipts and payments. The RBI also manages the issue of government securities and acts as a custodian of the government's cash, gold, and foreign exchange reserves.
2. Regulation of Foreign Exchange:
The RBI is responsible for the regulation and supervision of the foreign exchange market in India. It formulates and implements policies to maintain the stability of the exchange rate and the balance of payments. The RBI controls the movement of capital in and out of the country, manages the foreign exchange reserves, and ensures compliance with foreign exchange laws and regulations.
3. Collection and Publication of Data:
The RBI collects, compiles, and publishes various economic and financial data. It collects data on money supply, interest rates, inflation, foreign exchange reserves, balance of payments, etc. This data is used for policy formulation, research, and analysis by the RBI, government, and other stakeholders. The RBI also publishes reports and bulletins on various aspects of the Indian economy.
Conclusion:
The Reserve Bank of India performs a wide range of functions to maintain monetary stability, regulate the financial system, and ensure the smooth functioning of the payment system in India. It acts as a banker to the government, regulates foreign exchange, and collects and publishes economic and financial data. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - None of the above.
With reference to the Micro ATMs, consider the following statements:1. They are card swipe machines through which banks can remotely connect to their core banking system.2. They are similar to point of sale (PoS) terminals and are a doorstep mobile banking arrangement cum-mobile ATM device.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Micro ATMs, consider the following statements:
1. They are card swipe machines through which banks can remotely connect to their core banking system.
2. They are similar to point of sale (PoS) terminals and are a doorstep mobile banking arrangement cum-mobile ATM device.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Yashvi Mukherjee answered |
Explanation:
1. Micro ATMs Overview:
- Micro ATMs are card swipe machines that allow banks to remotely connect to their core banking system.
- These devices enable basic banking services like cash withdrawal, deposit, funds transfer, and balance inquiry in remote areas.
2. Comparison with PoS Terminals:
- Micro ATMs are indeed similar to point of sale (PoS) terminals in terms of functionality.
- They serve as a doorstep mobile banking arrangement cum-mobile ATM device, providing banking services at the customers' convenience.
Conclusion:
- Both statements are correct as Micro ATMs serve as a vital link between customers in remote areas and the banking system.
- These devices play a crucial role in financial inclusion and ensuring access to banking services for all sections of society.
Consider the following statements.1. The productivity of the Oceans increases when the carbon emission from the atmosphere are sunk by it.2. The ocean warming increases the frequency of tropical cyclone winds and rainfall.Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The productivity of the Oceans increases when the carbon emission from the atmosphere are sunk by it.
2. The ocean warming increases the frequency of tropical cyclone winds and rainfall.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
Due to greenhouse gas emissions, global warming is already 1°C higher than the pre-industrial levels. There is vast evidence that this has serious consequences for ecosystems and human being. The IPCC’s special report on Oceans and Cryosphere (published in 2019) reveals that the ocean is 0.8 degrees warmer than the pre-industrial age. It is more acidic, and less productive because of the carbon emission that was sunk by the oceans.
The impact of ocean warming would be an increase in the frequency of tropical cyclone winds and rainfall, as well as an increase in extreme waves, all of which would be accompanied by a rise in relative sea level.
Consider the following statements about Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. It can be increased to curb deflation or low inflation.
2. RBI pays interest on CRR to the scheduled banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. It can be increased to curb deflation or low inflation.
2. RBI pays interest on CRR to the scheduled banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It can be increased to curb deflation or low inflation.
2. RBI pays interest on CRR to the scheduled banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Aditya Kumar answered |
CRR is decreased to curb deflation. Decreasing CRR will increase money supply and push the economy towards inflationary tendency.No interest is paid on CRR
With reference to the 15th Finance Commission Report, consider the following statements:1. The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21.2. States should increase spending on health to more than 8% of their budget by 2022.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the 15th Finance Commission Report, consider the following statements:
1. The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21.
2. States should increase spending on health to more than 8% of their budget by 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Garima Choudhary answered |
Introduction:
The 15th Finance Commission Report is a significant document that provides recommendations for the distribution of finances between the central government and the state governments in India. It covers a specific period and suggests various measures to enhance fiscal stability and development across the country.
Statement 1: The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21.
Explanation:
- The 15th Finance Commission Report recommends setting the share of states in the central taxes at 41% for the period 2021-26, which is the same as the previous period of 2020-21.
- This means that the state governments will continue to receive 41% of the total central taxes collected by the central government during the specified period.
- This recommendation ensures a steady flow of funds to the states, allowing them to meet their developmental and administrative expenses effectively.
Statement 2: States should increase spending on health to more than 8% of their budget by 2022.
Explanation:
- The 15th Finance Commission Report does recommend that states should increase their spending on health.
- However, it does not provide a specific target of 8% of their budget by 2022.
- The report emphasizes the importance of prioritizing healthcare expenditure and suggests that states should allocate adequate funds to strengthen their healthcare systems and infrastructure.
- While the report acknowledges the significance of healthcare spending, it does not set a specific percentage or deadline for states to achieve.
Conclusion:
Based on the above explanations, it can be concluded that statement 1 is correct, as the share of states in central taxes for the 2021-26 period is indeed recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21. However, statement 2 is incorrect, as the 15th Finance Commission Report does not mention a specific target of 8% of the budget for healthcare spending by 2022. Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.
The 15th Finance Commission Report is a significant document that provides recommendations for the distribution of finances between the central government and the state governments in India. It covers a specific period and suggests various measures to enhance fiscal stability and development across the country.
Statement 1: The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21.
Explanation:
- The 15th Finance Commission Report recommends setting the share of states in the central taxes at 41% for the period 2021-26, which is the same as the previous period of 2020-21.
- This means that the state governments will continue to receive 41% of the total central taxes collected by the central government during the specified period.
- This recommendation ensures a steady flow of funds to the states, allowing them to meet their developmental and administrative expenses effectively.
Statement 2: States should increase spending on health to more than 8% of their budget by 2022.
Explanation:
- The 15th Finance Commission Report does recommend that states should increase their spending on health.
- However, it does not provide a specific target of 8% of their budget by 2022.
- The report emphasizes the importance of prioritizing healthcare expenditure and suggests that states should allocate adequate funds to strengthen their healthcare systems and infrastructure.
- While the report acknowledges the significance of healthcare spending, it does not set a specific percentage or deadline for states to achieve.
Conclusion:
Based on the above explanations, it can be concluded that statement 1 is correct, as the share of states in central taxes for the 2021-26 period is indeed recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21. However, statement 2 is incorrect, as the 15th Finance Commission Report does not mention a specific target of 8% of the budget for healthcare spending by 2022. Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.
Consider the following statements:1. Jharkhand has the highest number of severely acute malnourished children in 2020.2. The National Family Health Survey-5 suggested the decrease in malnutrition among children in 2019-20 from 2015-16.3. The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG-2) aims to end all forms of hunger and malnutrition by 2030.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)2 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Jharkhand has the highest number of severely acute malnourished children in 2020.
2. The National Family Health Survey-5 suggested the decrease in malnutrition among children in 2019-20 from 2015-16.
3. The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG-2) aims to end all forms of hunger and malnutrition by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Lalit Yadav answered |
- The World Health Organisation (WHO) defines ‘severe acute malnutrition’ (SAM) by very low weight-for-height or a mid-upper arm circumference less than 115 mm, or by the presence of nutritional oedema.
- An estimated 9,27,606 ‘severely acute malnourished’ children from six months to six years were identified across the country till November 2020.
- States with SAM Children:
- The most in Uttar Pradesh (3,98,359) followed by Bihar (2,79,427).
- Maharashtra (70,665) > Gujarat (45,749) > Chhattisgarh (37,249) > Odisha (15,595) > Tamil Nadu (12,489) > Jharkhand (12,059) > Andhra Pradesh (11,201) > Telangana (9,045) > Assam (7,218) > Karnataka (6,899) > Kerala (6,188) > Rajasthan (5,732).
- Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG 2: Zero hunger) aims to end all forms of hunger and malnutrition by 2030, making sure all people – especially children – have access to sufficient and nutritious food all year round. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- National Family Health Survey-4 (NFHS-4), 2015-16 suggests that prevalence of severe acute malnutrition among children was at 7.4%.
- The National Family Health Survey (NFHS)-5 suggests that malnutrition increased among children in 2019-20 from 2015-16 in 22 states and UTs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Stunted: Around 13 states and UTs out of the 22 surveyed recorded a rise in percentage of children under five years who are stunted in comparison to 2015-16.
- Wasted: 12 states and UTs recorded a rise in the percentage of children under five years who are wasted.
- Severely wasted and underweight: 16 states and UTs recorded a rise in the percentage of children under five years who are severely wasted and underweight in 2019-20.
In which of the following judgements Supreme Court had struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000?- a)Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India
- b)Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
- c)Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug vs. Union of India
- d)Shreya Singhal Vs. Union of India
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following judgements Supreme Court had struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
a)
Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India
b)
Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
c)
Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug vs. Union of India
d)
Shreya Singhal Vs. Union of India
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has requested States and Union Territories (UTs)to direct all police stations under their jurisdiction not to register cases under the repealed Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- It has also asked the States and UTs to sensitize law enforcement agencies for the compliance of the order issued by the Supreme Court on 24.03.2015.
- The MHA has also requested that if any case has been booked in States and UTs under section 66A of the IT Act, 2000, such cases should be immediately withdrawn.
- The Supreme Court in its judgment on 24.03.2015 in the matter of Shreya Singhal Vs. Union of India, had struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- This made Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 null and void with effect from the date of the order, therefore 24.03.2015 and hence no action could be taken under this section.
- Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following companies is providing technology to construct the Kudankulam plant in Tamil Nadu?- a)Yandex
- b)Rosatom
- c)Rostec
- d)Rusnano
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following companies is providing technology to construct the Kudankulam plant in Tamil Nadu?
a)
Yandex
b)
Rosatom
c)
Rostec
d)
Rusnano
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
Rosatom (a Russian company) is providing technology to construct the Kudankulam plant in Tamil Nadu. This development is a significant step in bilateral relations between Russia and India. This plant has 6 units each having a 1,000 MWe generation capacity. It will be India’s 1st light water reactor. Why in the News? On June 29, 2021, Russia started the construction of a fifth nuclear power unit at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu.
With reference to the Article 311, consider the following statements:1. Article 311 of the Constitution deals with ‘Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State’.2. Under Article 311(2), no civil servant can be “dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges’’.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Article 311, consider the following statements:
1. Article 311 of the Constitution deals with ‘Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State’.
2. Under Article 311(2), no civil servant can be “dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges’’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Gauri Menon answered |
The dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of civil servants.
2. Article 311 provides certain safeguards to civil servants in terms of their tenure and service conditions.
3. Article 311 applies to both central and state government employees.
4. Article 311 prohibits the dismissal or removal of civil servants without an inquiry and an opportunity to defend themselves.
5. Article 311 does not apply to members of the armed forces.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
2. Article 311 provides certain safeguards to civil servants in terms of their tenure and service conditions.
3. Article 311 applies to both central and state government employees.
4. Article 311 prohibits the dismissal or removal of civil servants without an inquiry and an opportunity to defend themselves.
5. Article 311 does not apply to members of the armed forces.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Which of the following countries has been declared malaria-free by WHO in 2021?- a)El Salvador
- b)China
- c)Both A & B
- d)None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following countries has been declared malaria-free by WHO in 2021?
a)
El Salvador
b)
China
c)
Both A & B
d)
None of the Above
|
|
Bijoy Kumar answered |
None of the above.
As of 2021, neither El Salvador nor China has been declared malaria-free by the World Health Organization (WHO).
As of 2021, neither El Salvador nor China has been declared malaria-free by the World Health Organization (WHO).
Consider the following statements:1. Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) are a part of National Agricultural Research System (NARS).2. The Krishi Vigyan Kendra scheme is 100% financed by the Government of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) are a part of National Agricultural Research System (NARS).
2. The Krishi Vigyan Kendra scheme is 100% financed by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Ashish Shah answered |
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) are a part of National Agricultural Research System (NARS). The Krishi Vigyan Kendra scheme is 100% financed by the Government of India. Both of these statements are correct.
Explanation:
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) are agricultural extension centers established by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. These centers serve as knowledge and resource centers in the field of agriculture and allied sectors. They aim to provide scientific and technological information and support to farmers, rural youth, and other stakeholders in order to enhance agricultural productivity and improve the livelihoods of farmers.
One of the key objectives of KVKs is to bridge the gap between research and extension activities in agriculture. They act as a link between the scientists, researchers, and farmers, facilitating the transfer of technologies and knowledge from the research institutions to the farmers at the grassroots level. KVKs conduct various training programs, demonstrations, exhibitions, and workshops to disseminate the latest agricultural technologies and practices to farmers.
KVKs also undertake on-farm testing of technologies, front-line demonstrations of new crop varieties, and provide advisory services to farmers. They actively engage with farmers and provide them with technical guidance and support in various aspects of agricultural production, including crop cultivation, livestock management, agricultural machinery, post-harvest management, and marketing of agricultural produce.
The Krishi Vigyan Kendra scheme is completely financed by the Government of India. The funding for the establishment and functioning of KVKs is provided by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), which is a premier research organization in the field of agriculture. The ICAR allocates funds to each KVK for various activities such as infrastructure development, human resource development, and implementation of extension programs.
In conclusion, Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) are an integral part of the National Agricultural Research System (NARS) and play a crucial role in disseminating agricultural knowledge and technologies to farmers. The KVK scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
Explanation:
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) are agricultural extension centers established by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. These centers serve as knowledge and resource centers in the field of agriculture and allied sectors. They aim to provide scientific and technological information and support to farmers, rural youth, and other stakeholders in order to enhance agricultural productivity and improve the livelihoods of farmers.
One of the key objectives of KVKs is to bridge the gap between research and extension activities in agriculture. They act as a link between the scientists, researchers, and farmers, facilitating the transfer of technologies and knowledge from the research institutions to the farmers at the grassroots level. KVKs conduct various training programs, demonstrations, exhibitions, and workshops to disseminate the latest agricultural technologies and practices to farmers.
KVKs also undertake on-farm testing of technologies, front-line demonstrations of new crop varieties, and provide advisory services to farmers. They actively engage with farmers and provide them with technical guidance and support in various aspects of agricultural production, including crop cultivation, livestock management, agricultural machinery, post-harvest management, and marketing of agricultural produce.
The Krishi Vigyan Kendra scheme is completely financed by the Government of India. The funding for the establishment and functioning of KVKs is provided by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), which is a premier research organization in the field of agriculture. The ICAR allocates funds to each KVK for various activities such as infrastructure development, human resource development, and implementation of extension programs.
In conclusion, Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) are an integral part of the National Agricultural Research System (NARS) and play a crucial role in disseminating agricultural knowledge and technologies to farmers. The KVK scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
Consider the following statements:1. Akash missile is India’s first indigenously produced medium range Surface to Air missile.2. The Akash missile is supported by the indigenously developed radar called 'INDRA'.3. Akash Missile (Akash-NG) is a new variant having air-to-air missile capabilities.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Akash missile is India’s first indigenously produced medium range Surface to Air missile.
2. The Akash missile is supported by the indigenously developed radar called 'INDRA'.
3. Akash Missile (Akash-NG) is a new variant having air-to-air missile capabilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
- Akash Missile is India’s first indigenously produced medium range Surface to Air missile that can engage multiple targets from multiple directions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The missile is unique in the way that it can be launched from mobile platforms like battle tanks or wheeled trucks. It has nearly 90% kill probability.
- The missile is supported by the indigenously developed radar called 'Rajendra'. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The missile is reportedly cheaper and more accurate than US’ Patriot missiles due to its solid-fuel technology and high-tech radars.
- It can engage targets at a speed 2.5 times more than the speed of sound and can detect and destroy targets flying at low, medium and high altitudes.
- The Akash missile system has been designed and developed as part of India’s 30-year-old Integrated Guided-Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
- Akash Missile (Akash-NG) is a surface-to-air Missile. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
- It is a new variant of the Akash missile that can strike targets at a distance of around 60 km and fly at a speed of up to Mach 2.5.
- Once deployed, the Akash-NG weapon system will prove to be a force multiplier for the air defence capability of the Indian Air Force.
- It is developed by Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL), Hyderabad in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories.
- It is being produced by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL).
Consider the following statements:1. An Aurora is a display of light in the sky only seen in the Northern Hemisphere of Earth.2. Auroras are caused when charged particles ejected from the Sun’s surface enter the Earth’s atmosphere.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. An Aurora is a display of light in the sky only seen in the Northern Hemisphere of Earth.
2. Auroras are caused when charged particles ejected from the Sun’s surface enter the Earth’s atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vinod Mehta answered |
- An Aurora is a display of light in the sky predominantly seen in the high latitude regions (Arctic and Antarctic). It is also known as a Polar light.
- They commonly occur at high northern and southern latitudes, less frequent at mid-latitudes, and seldom seen near the equator. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- While usually a milky greenish color, auroras can also show red, blue, violet, pink, and white. These colors appear in a variety of continuously changing shapes.
- Auroras are not just something that happens on Earth. If a planet has an atmosphere and magnetic field, they probably have auroras.
- Auroras are caused when charged particles ejected from the Sun’s surface - called the solar wind - enter the Earth’s atmosphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The typical aurora is caused by collisions between charged particles from space with the oxygen and nitrogen in Earth’s upper atmosphere.
- The electrons - which come from the Earth’s magnetosphere, the region of space controlled by Earth’s magnetic field - transfer their energy to the oxygen and nitrogen atoms and molecules, making them “excited”.
- When a large number of electrons come from the magnetosphere to bombard the atmosphere, the oxygen and nitrogen can emit enough light for the eye to detect, giving us beautiful auroral displays.
- In the northern part of our globe, the polar lights are called aurora borealis or Northern Lights, and are seen from the US (Alaska), Canada, Iceland, Greenland, Norway, Sweden and Finland.
- In the south, they are called aurora australis or southern lights, and are visible from high latitudes in Antarctica, Chile, Argentina, New Zealand and Australia.
Consider the following statements.1. Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere, some of which is directed towards the Earth’s surface.2. It is generated in giant moisture-bearing clouds, whose base typically lies above 10 to 12 km from the Earth’s surface.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere, some of which is directed towards the Earth’s surface.
2. It is generated in giant moisture-bearing clouds, whose base typically lies above 10 to 12 km from the Earth’s surface.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Mira Sharma answered |
Lightning is a very rapid — and massive — discharge of electricity in the atmosphere, some of which is directed towards the Earth’s surface. These discharges are generated in giant moisture-bearing clouds that are 10-12 km tall. The base of these clouds typically lies within 1-2 km of the Earth’s surface, while their top is 12-13 km away. Temperatures towards the top of these clouds are in the range of minus 35 to minus 45 degrees Celsius.
With reference to the Kickboxing, consider the following statements:1. The Ministry of Youth affairs & Sports has recently decided to grant recognition to WAKO India Kickboxing Federation as National Sports Federation (NSF) for promotion and development of the Kickboxing sport in India.2. WAKO India Kickboxing Federation is affiliated to World Association of Kickboxing Organizations (WAKO), which is the International Federation for the sport of Kickboxing.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Kickboxing, consider the following statements:
1. The Ministry of Youth affairs & Sports has recently decided to grant recognition to WAKO India Kickboxing Federation as National Sports Federation (NSF) for promotion and development of the Kickboxing sport in India.
2. WAKO India Kickboxing Federation is affiliated to World Association of Kickboxing Organizations (WAKO), which is the International Federation for the sport of Kickboxing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Zara Khan answered |
The Ministry of Youth affairs & Sports has decided to grant recognition to WAKO India Kickboxing Federation as National Sports Federation (NSF) for promotion and development of the Kickboxing sport in India.
- WAKO India Kickboxing Federation is affiliated to World Association of Kickboxing Organizations (WAKO), which is the International Federation for the sport of Kickboxing.
- International Olympic Committee (IOC) Executive Board at its meeting on 10th June 2021 has approved the recommendation for WAKO to become fully recognized member of the Olympic family of sport.
- WAKO have been provisionally recognized member of the IOC Since 30 November 2018.
- The full recognition of WAKO will be finally decided by the IOC Session in Tokyo in July 2021.
- To be fully included and accepted in the Olympic movement is important for the recognition and development of the sport of kickboxing.
- It is expected that with government recognition of WAKO India Kickboxing Federation as NSF, the sport of kickboxing will develop at a faster pace in the country.
Hence both statements are correct.
Global Peace Index (GPI), recently seen in news, is released by:- a)World Economic Forum
- b)World Bank
- c)Amnesty International
- d)Institute for Economics & Peace (IEP)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Global Peace Index (GPI), recently seen in news, is released by:
a)
World Economic Forum
b)
World Bank
c)
Amnesty International
d)
Institute for Economics & Peace (IEP)
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
The 15th edition of the Global Peace Index (GPI) was released which ranks 163 independent states and territories according to their level of peacefulness. Global Peace Index (GPI) is a report produced by the Institute for Economics & Peace (IEP).
- The GPI covers 99.7 per cent of the world’s population, using 23 qualitative and quantitative indicators and measures the state of peace across three domains:
- the level of Societal Safety and Security,
- the extent of Ongoing Domestic and International Conflict, and
- the degree of Militarisation.
Findings
- India ranked 135/163 with an improvement of 2 ranks.
- Iceland remains the most peaceful country in the world, a position it has held since 2008.
- Afghanistan is the least peaceful country in the world for the fourth consecutive year, followed by Yemen, Syria, South Sudan, and Iraq.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Haiti is located in the archipelago of- a)Mediterranean Sea
- b)Black Sea
- c)Caribbean Sea
- d)Red Sea
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Haiti is located in the archipelago of
a)
Mediterranean Sea
b)
Black Sea
c)
Caribbean Sea
d)
Red Sea
|
Suyash Unni answered |
Haiti is located in the Caribbean Sea.
Explanation:
Haiti is a country situated on the western part of the island of Hispaniola, which is the second-largest island in the Caribbean Sea. The island of Hispaniola is shared by two countries, Haiti and the Dominican Republic.
The Caribbean Sea is a large body of water located in the western Atlantic Ocean, surrounded by the Caribbean archipelago. It is known for its beautiful tropical islands, warm climate, and stunning marine life. The Caribbean Sea is home to numerous countries and territories, including Haiti.
- Location of Haiti:
Haiti is positioned in the northern part of the Caribbean Sea, sharing the island of Hispaniola with the Dominican Republic. It is bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the north and the Caribbean Sea to the south.
- Archipelago in the Caribbean Sea:
An archipelago refers to a group or chain of islands. The Caribbean Sea is dotted with many islands, forming an archipelago. Haiti is part of this archipelago, along with other countries such as Cuba, Jamaica, Puerto Rico, and the Bahamas.
- Importance of the Caribbean Sea:
The Caribbean Sea is a significant region due to its strategic location, rich biodiversity, and economic importance. It is a popular tourist destination, attracting millions of visitors each year who come to enjoy its pristine beaches, vibrant coral reefs, and diverse cultures.
- Haiti's geographical features:
Apart from its coastal location in the Caribbean Sea, Haiti is characterized by mountainous terrain, with the Massif du Nord and the Chaîne de la Selle being the two major mountain ranges. The country also has several rivers and lakes, including Lake Azuéi and Lake Péligre.
In conclusion, Haiti is located in the archipelago of the Caribbean Sea, which is renowned for its stunning islands, warm waters, and vibrant culture.
Explanation:
Haiti is a country situated on the western part of the island of Hispaniola, which is the second-largest island in the Caribbean Sea. The island of Hispaniola is shared by two countries, Haiti and the Dominican Republic.
The Caribbean Sea is a large body of water located in the western Atlantic Ocean, surrounded by the Caribbean archipelago. It is known for its beautiful tropical islands, warm climate, and stunning marine life. The Caribbean Sea is home to numerous countries and territories, including Haiti.
- Location of Haiti:
Haiti is positioned in the northern part of the Caribbean Sea, sharing the island of Hispaniola with the Dominican Republic. It is bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the north and the Caribbean Sea to the south.
- Archipelago in the Caribbean Sea:
An archipelago refers to a group or chain of islands. The Caribbean Sea is dotted with many islands, forming an archipelago. Haiti is part of this archipelago, along with other countries such as Cuba, Jamaica, Puerto Rico, and the Bahamas.
- Importance of the Caribbean Sea:
The Caribbean Sea is a significant region due to its strategic location, rich biodiversity, and economic importance. It is a popular tourist destination, attracting millions of visitors each year who come to enjoy its pristine beaches, vibrant coral reefs, and diverse cultures.
- Haiti's geographical features:
Apart from its coastal location in the Caribbean Sea, Haiti is characterized by mountainous terrain, with the Massif du Nord and the Chaîne de la Selle being the two major mountain ranges. The country also has several rivers and lakes, including Lake Azuéi and Lake Péligre.
In conclusion, Haiti is located in the archipelago of the Caribbean Sea, which is renowned for its stunning islands, warm waters, and vibrant culture.
With reference to the right-to-repair movement, consider the following statements:1. Recently US President signed an executive order calling on the Federal Trade Commission to curb restrictions imposed by manufacturers that limit consumers’ ability to repair their gadgets on their own terms.2. The UK recently introduced right-to-repair rules that should make it much easier to buy and repair daily-use gadgets such as TVs and washing machines.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the right-to-repair movement, consider the following statements:
1. Recently US President signed an executive order calling on the Federal Trade Commission to curb restrictions imposed by manufacturers that limit consumers’ ability to repair their gadgets on their own terms.
2. The UK recently introduced right-to-repair rules that should make it much easier to buy and repair daily-use gadgets such as TVs and washing machines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vinod Mehta answered |
In recent years, countries around the world have been attempting to pass effective ‘right to repair’ laws.
- US President Joe Biden signed an executive order calling on the Federal Trade Commission to curb restrictions imposed by manufacturers that limit consumers’ ability to repair their gadgets on their own terms.
- The UK, too, introduced right-to-repair rules that should make it much easier to buy and repair daily-use gadgets such as TVs and washing machines.
- Activists and organisations around the world have been advocating for the right of consumers to be able to repair their own electronics and other products as part of the ‘right to repair’ movement.
- The movement traces its roots back to the very dawn of the computer era in the 1950s.
- The goal of the movement is to get companies to make spare parts, tools and information on how to repair devices available to customers and repair shops to increase the lifespan of products and to keep them from ending up in landfills.
- They argue that these electronic manufacturers are encouraging a culture of ‘planned obsolescence’ — which means that devices are designed specifically to last a limited amount of time and to be replaced. This, they claim, leads to immense pressure on the environment and wasted natural resources.
- Large tech companies, including Apple, Microsoft, Amazon and Tesla, have been lobbying against the right to repair.
- Their argument is that opening up their intellectual property to third party repair services or amateur repairers could lead to exploitation and impact the safety and security of their devices.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Alternate wetting and drying (AWD) technique.1. Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) is a water-saving technologythat farmers can apply to reduce their irrigation water consumption in rice fields.2. The number of days of non-flooded soil between irrigations cannot be more than 2 to 3 days.3. One disadvantage of AWD technique is that the yield is reduced substantially compared to traditional methods of rice cultivation.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1 only
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Alternate wetting and drying (AWD) technique.
1. Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) is a water-saving technologythat farmers can apply to reduce their irrigation water consumption in rice fields.
2. The number of days of non-flooded soil between irrigations cannot be more than 2 to 3 days.
3. One disadvantage of AWD technique is that the yield is reduced substantially compared to traditional methods of rice cultivation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1 only
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
Suresh Khanna answered |
Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) is a water-saving technology that farmers can apply to reduce their irrigation water consumption in rice fields without decreasing its yield.
In AWD, irrigation water is applied a few days after the disappearance of the ponded water.
Hence, the field gets alternately flooded and non-flooded. The number of days of non-flooded soil between irrigations can vary from 1 to more than 10 days depending on the number of factors such as soil type, weather, and crop growth stage.
With reference to Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following statements:1. It is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations (UN)2. India is not a member but has an observer status in OIC.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following statements:
1. It is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations (UN)
2. India is not a member but has an observer status in OIC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Suresh Khanna answered |
- Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations (UN) with a membership of 57 states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavors to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.
- India is neither a member nor an observer of the OIC. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperative societies in India.1. Cooperatives are enterprises which are owned, controlled and run by its members.2. The cooperative societies emerged only after Independence in India.3. In India, majority of the cooperative societies are governed by laws in their respective states.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperative societies in India.
1. Cooperatives are enterprises which are owned, controlled and run by its members.
2. The cooperative societies emerged only after Independence in India.
3. In India, majority of the cooperative societies are governed by laws in their respective states.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Vinod Mehta answered |
The government announced the formation of a separate Union Ministry of Cooperation, a subject that till date was looked after by the Ministry of Agriculture. Ministry of Cooperation will provide a separate administrative legal and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement in the country.
By definition, cooperatives are organisations formed at the grassroots level by people to harness the power of collective bargaining towards a common goal.
The history of cooperative societies dates back to the pre-Independence era, in response to the agrarian distress and overall indebtedness.
In agriculture, cooperative dairies, sugar mills, spinning mills etc are formed with the pooled resources of farmers who wish to process their produce. In banking and finance, cooperative institutions are spread across rural and urban areas. There are also cooperative marketing societies in rural areas and cooperative housing societies in urban areas.
Amul is a successful example of a dairy cooperative society.
Agriculture and cooperation are in the state list, which means state governments can govern them. A majority of the cooperative societies are governed by laws in their respective states.
Consider the following statements regarding reorganisation of states:1. Haryana was separated from Punjab by the State Reorganisation commission,1953.2. Presidential reference is required before tabling any bill for state reorganisation in Parliament.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding reorganisation of states:
1. Haryana was separated from Punjab by the State Reorganisation commission,1953.
2. Presidential reference is required before tabling any bill for state reorganisation in Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vikram Verma answered |
- Indian constitution empowers the Union government to create new states out of existing states or two merge one state with another. This process is called reorganisation of the states.
- The basis of reorganisation could be linguistic, religious, ethnic or administrative.
- With the passage of the Punjab Reorganization Act 1966, Haryana was separated from Punjab in 1966 to become the 17th state of India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- However, it was done in accordance with the earlier recommendations of the States Reorganization Commission.
- Article 3 provides the following procedure:
- Presidential reference is sent to the State Assembly.
- After presidential reference, a resolution is tabled and passed in the Assembly. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The Assembly has to pass a Bill creating the new State/States.
- A separate Bill has to be ratified by Parliament.
With reference to the Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PIRP), consider the following statements:1. A pre-pack envisages the resolution of the debt of a distressed company through a direct agreement between secured creditors and the existing owners or outside investors, instead of a public bidding process.2. Under the pre-pack system, financial creditors will agree to terms with the promoters or a potential investor, and seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PIRP), consider the following statements:
1. A pre-pack envisages the resolution of the debt of a distressed company through a direct agreement between secured creditors and the existing owners or outside investors, instead of a public bidding process.
2. Under the pre-pack system, financial creditors will agree to terms with the promoters or a potential investor, and seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Rhea Reddy answered |
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2021, passed by Lok Sabha has proposed ‘pre-packs’ or Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PIRP) as an insolvency resolution mechanism for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
- A pre-pack envisages the resolution of the debt of a distressed company through a direct agreement between secured creditors and the existing owners or outside investors, instead of a public bidding process.
- Under the pre-pack system, financial creditors will agree to terms with the promoters or a potential investor, and seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
- The approval of at least 66 per cent of financial creditors that are unrelated to the corporate debtor would be required before a resolution plan is submitted to the NCLT.
- The NCLTs will be required to either accept or reject an application for a pre-pack insolvency proceeding before considering a petition for a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP).
How are pre-packs better than CIRP?
- One of the key criticisms of the CIRP has been the time it takes for resolution. The pre-pack in contrast, is limited to a maximum of 120 days with only 90 days available to stakeholders to bring a resolution plan for approval before the NCLT.
- Another key difference between pre-packs and CIRP is that the existing management retains control in the case of pre-packs; in the case of CIRP, a resolution professional takes control of the debtor as a representative of financial creditors. This ensures minimal disruption of operations relative to a CIRP.
Hence both statements are correct.
In which one of the following States Periyar Tiger Reserve (PTR) is located?- a)Arunachal Pradesh
- b)Odisha
- c)Karnataka
- d)Kerala
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In which one of the following States Periyar Tiger Reserve (PTR) is located?
a)
Arunachal Pradesh
b)
Odisha
c)
Karnataka
d)
Kerala
|
|
Vikram Verma answered |
The recent attempt of Periyar Tiger Reserve (PTR) to reintroduce into the wild an abandoned nine-month-old cub named Mangala after rearing it in ‘captivity’ for two years has once again brought the controversial concept of ‘re-wilding’ of abandoned or injured animals under the lens.
- As per the Standard Operating Procedures/Guidelines laid down by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under Section 38(O) of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, there are three ways to deal with orphaned or abandoned tiger cubs.
- The first is to make an effort to reunite the abandoned cubs with their mother.
- Second, if a reunion of the cub with its mother is not possible, then shift the cub to a suitable zoo.
- Third, reintroduction of the cub into the wild after a certain time when it appears that the cub is capable of surviving in the wild independently. This is what is known as ‘re-wilding’.
- NTCA stresses that the tiger cub should be reared in an in situ enclosure for a minimum of two years, and during this time, each cub should have a successful record of at least 50 ‘kills’.
Periyar National Park also known as Periyar Tiger Reserve is located in the Western Ghats of Kerala.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Sardar Patel National Unity Award 2021, consider the following statements:1. The Award seeks to recognize notable and inspiring contributions to promote the cause of national unity and integrity and to reinforce the value of a strong and united India.2. Only individuals would be eligible for the Award.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Sardar Patel National Unity Award 2021, consider the following statements:
1. The Award seeks to recognize notable and inspiring contributions to promote the cause of national unity and integrity and to reinforce the value of a strong and united India.
2. Only individuals would be eligible for the Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
The online nominations/recommendations process for the Sardar Patel National Unity Award is on and the last date for nominations/recommendations is 15th August 2021.
- The Government of India has instituted the highest civilian award in the field of contribution to the unity and integrity of India, in the name of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
- The Award seeks to recognize notable and inspiring contributions to promote the cause of national unity and integrity and to reinforce the value of a strong and united India.
- Any citizen of India without distinction of religion, race, caste, gender, place of birth, age or occupation, and any institution/organization would be eligible for the Award.
- Any Indian national or institution or organization based in India may nominate an individual or institution or organization for consideration for this Award.
- Individuals/institutions/organizationsmay also nominate themselves. State Governments, Union Territory Administrations and Ministries of the Government of India may also send nominations for the award.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Arun Jaitley National Institute of Financial Management (AJNIFM), consider the following statements:1. The Arun Jaitley National Institute of Financial Management (AJNIFM) and Microsoft recently signed a MoU for a strategic partnership to build an AI and emerging technologies Centre of Excellence at AJNIFM.2. AJNIFM was set up in 1993 as a registered society under Ministry of Finance, Government of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Arun Jaitley National Institute of Financial Management (AJNIFM), consider the following statements:
1. The Arun Jaitley National Institute of Financial Management (AJNIFM) and Microsoft recently signed a MoU for a strategic partnership to build an AI and emerging technologies Centre of Excellence at AJNIFM.
2. AJNIFM was set up in 1993 as a registered society under Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Atp Classes answered |
The Arun Jaitley National Institute of Financial Management (AJNIFM) and Microsoft signed a MoU for a strategic partnership to build an AI and emerging technologies Centre of Excellence at AJNIFM.
- The collaboration seeks to explore the role of cloud, AI and emerging technologies for transforming and shaping the future of public finance management in India.
- The Arun Jaitley National Institute of Financial Management (AJNIFM) is a Centre of Excellence specialising in capacity building of professionals in the fields of Public Policy, Financial Management and other governance issues for promoting highest standards of professional competence and practice.
- AJNIFM was set up in 1993 as a registered society under Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
- Hence both statements are correct.
With reference to the expert committee on Longevity Finance, consider the following statements:1. They are mandated to recommend approach towards development of Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC and provide road map for the same.2. International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has been established as a unified regulator to develop and regulate financial products, financial services, and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the expert committee on Longevity Finance, consider the following statements:
1. They are mandated to recommend approach towards development of Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC and provide road map for the same.
2. International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has been established as a unified regulator to develop and regulate financial products, financial services, and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Madhurima Khanna answered |
Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC
The expert committee on Longevity Finance is mandated to recommend an approach towards the development of a Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC (International Financial Services Centre) and provide a road map for the same. This hub aims to promote and develop financial products and services related to longevity risk management and insurance.
Establishment of IFSCA
The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has been established as a unified regulator to develop and regulate financial products, financial services, and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in India.
The IFSCA was established in April 2020 under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019. It has been granted powers and functions similar to those of other financial regulators in India, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
The IFSCA is responsible for regulating and promoting financial activities in the IFSCs, which are designated areas that provide world-class financial services to residents and non-residents. The main IFSC in India is the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT) located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The GIFT IFSC aims to become a global financial hub by providing a conducive environment for financial services, including banking, insurance, capital markets, and asset management.
Significance of Longevity Finance Hub
The establishment of a Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC is significant for several reasons:
1. Addressing Longevity Risk: Longevity risk refers to the risk associated with individuals living longer than expected, leading to increased costs and financial burdens. The hub will focus on developing innovative financial products and services that can help individuals and institutions manage and mitigate longevity risks.
2. Attracting Investments: The hub will attract investments from domestic and international players in the field of longevity finance. This will not only contribute to the growth of the financial sector but also stimulate economic development in the region.
3. Expertise and Knowledge Exchange: The hub will serve as a platform for experts, researchers, and practitioners to exchange knowledge and best practices in the field of longevity finance. This will foster innovation and promote the development of cutting-edge solutions to address longevity-related challenges.
4. International Collaboration: The hub will facilitate collaboration with global institutions and organizations working in the field of longevity finance. This will enhance India's position as a global player in the financial services sector and promote international cooperation in addressing longevity-related issues.
In conclusion, the expert committee on Longevity Finance is mandated to recommend the development of a Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC. The establishment of this hub, under the regulatory framework of the IFSCA, holds significant potential in addressing longevity risks, attracting investments, fostering expertise exchange, and promoting international collaboration in the field of longevity finance. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The expert committee on Longevity Finance is mandated to recommend an approach towards the development of a Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC (International Financial Services Centre) and provide a road map for the same. This hub aims to promote and develop financial products and services related to longevity risk management and insurance.
Establishment of IFSCA
The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has been established as a unified regulator to develop and regulate financial products, financial services, and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in India.
The IFSCA was established in April 2020 under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019. It has been granted powers and functions similar to those of other financial regulators in India, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
The IFSCA is responsible for regulating and promoting financial activities in the IFSCs, which are designated areas that provide world-class financial services to residents and non-residents. The main IFSC in India is the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT) located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The GIFT IFSC aims to become a global financial hub by providing a conducive environment for financial services, including banking, insurance, capital markets, and asset management.
Significance of Longevity Finance Hub
The establishment of a Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC is significant for several reasons:
1. Addressing Longevity Risk: Longevity risk refers to the risk associated with individuals living longer than expected, leading to increased costs and financial burdens. The hub will focus on developing innovative financial products and services that can help individuals and institutions manage and mitigate longevity risks.
2. Attracting Investments: The hub will attract investments from domestic and international players in the field of longevity finance. This will not only contribute to the growth of the financial sector but also stimulate economic development in the region.
3. Expertise and Knowledge Exchange: The hub will serve as a platform for experts, researchers, and practitioners to exchange knowledge and best practices in the field of longevity finance. This will foster innovation and promote the development of cutting-edge solutions to address longevity-related challenges.
4. International Collaboration: The hub will facilitate collaboration with global institutions and organizations working in the field of longevity finance. This will enhance India's position as a global player in the financial services sector and promote international cooperation in addressing longevity-related issues.
In conclusion, the expert committee on Longevity Finance is mandated to recommend the development of a Longevity Finance Hub in GIFT IFSC. The establishment of this hub, under the regulatory framework of the IFSCA, holds significant potential in addressing longevity risks, attracting investments, fostering expertise exchange, and promoting international collaboration in the field of longevity finance. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
DB Shekatkar committee, often mentioned in news, is related to:- a)Defence Reforms
- b)Reducing malnutrition among girls
- c)Banking system reforms
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
DB Shekatkar committee, often mentioned in news, is related to:
a)
Defence Reforms
b)
Reducing malnutrition among girls
c)
Banking system reforms
d)
None of the above
|
|
Anshika Singh answered |
The correct answer is option 'A': Defence Reforms.
The Shekatkar Committee, also known as the 'Committee of Experts for Enhancing Combat Capability and Rebalancing Defence Expenditure', was appointed by the Indian government in 2016 to recommend measures for enhancing the combat capability of the armed forces and optimizing the defense expenditure.
Here is a detailed explanation of the Shekatkar Committee and its focus on defense reforms:
1. Establishment of the Shekatkar Committee:
- In December 2015, the Indian government constituted a committee under the chairmanship of Lt. Gen. D.B. Shekatkar (Retd.) to suggest measures for enhancing the combat potential of the armed forces and to rebalance defense expenditure.
- The committee comprised of military personnel, defense experts, and bureaucrats.
2. Objectives of the Shekatkar Committee:
- The committee aimed to recommend measures to enhance the operational capability of the armed forces while optimizing the defense budget.
- It focused on identifying areas of overlap and duplication in the armed forces and suggested ways to improve efficiency and cost-effectiveness.
- The committee also aimed at recommending measures to enhance the combat capability of the armed forces through jointness, integration, and modernization.
3. Recommendations and Reforms:
- The Shekatkar Committee made several recommendations to transform and modernize the Indian armed forces.
- It suggested the optimization of defense expenditure by reducing manpower through the restructuring of various organizations, including the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- The committee recommended the redeployment of manpower to operational duties and the outsourcing of non-core activities to civilian agencies.
- It also proposed the closure of military farms and army postal establishments in peace locations.
- The committee suggested measures for jointness among the three services, such as common logistics support, training, and procurement to eliminate duplication and reduce costs.
- It also recommended the integration of various branches of the armed forces, including the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) and the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO).
- The committee advocated for the creation of joint theater commands to enhance the operational efficiency of the armed forces.
- Other recommendations included the optimization of defense land and infrastructure, the promotion of indigenization and self-reliance in defense production, and the introduction of reforms in the procurement process.
4. Implementation and Impact:
- The government accepted several recommendations of the Shekatkar Committee and initiated their implementation.
- The implementation of these reforms has led to significant cost savings, enhanced operational efficiency, and the optimization of defense expenditure.
- The Shekatkar Committee's recommendations have also contributed to the modernization and transformation of the Indian armed forces, making them more capable and resilient.
In conclusion, the Shekatkar Committee is related to defense reforms and was established to enhance the combat capability of the armed forces and optimize defense expenditure. Its recommendations have played a crucial role in transforming and modernizing the Indian defense sector.
The Shekatkar Committee, also known as the 'Committee of Experts for Enhancing Combat Capability and Rebalancing Defence Expenditure', was appointed by the Indian government in 2016 to recommend measures for enhancing the combat capability of the armed forces and optimizing the defense expenditure.
Here is a detailed explanation of the Shekatkar Committee and its focus on defense reforms:
1. Establishment of the Shekatkar Committee:
- In December 2015, the Indian government constituted a committee under the chairmanship of Lt. Gen. D.B. Shekatkar (Retd.) to suggest measures for enhancing the combat potential of the armed forces and to rebalance defense expenditure.
- The committee comprised of military personnel, defense experts, and bureaucrats.
2. Objectives of the Shekatkar Committee:
- The committee aimed to recommend measures to enhance the operational capability of the armed forces while optimizing the defense budget.
- It focused on identifying areas of overlap and duplication in the armed forces and suggested ways to improve efficiency and cost-effectiveness.
- The committee also aimed at recommending measures to enhance the combat capability of the armed forces through jointness, integration, and modernization.
3. Recommendations and Reforms:
- The Shekatkar Committee made several recommendations to transform and modernize the Indian armed forces.
- It suggested the optimization of defense expenditure by reducing manpower through the restructuring of various organizations, including the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- The committee recommended the redeployment of manpower to operational duties and the outsourcing of non-core activities to civilian agencies.
- It also proposed the closure of military farms and army postal establishments in peace locations.
- The committee suggested measures for jointness among the three services, such as common logistics support, training, and procurement to eliminate duplication and reduce costs.
- It also recommended the integration of various branches of the armed forces, including the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) and the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO).
- The committee advocated for the creation of joint theater commands to enhance the operational efficiency of the armed forces.
- Other recommendations included the optimization of defense land and infrastructure, the promotion of indigenization and self-reliance in defense production, and the introduction of reforms in the procurement process.
4. Implementation and Impact:
- The government accepted several recommendations of the Shekatkar Committee and initiated their implementation.
- The implementation of these reforms has led to significant cost savings, enhanced operational efficiency, and the optimization of defense expenditure.
- The Shekatkar Committee's recommendations have also contributed to the modernization and transformation of the Indian armed forces, making them more capable and resilient.
In conclusion, the Shekatkar Committee is related to defense reforms and was established to enhance the combat capability of the armed forces and optimize defense expenditure. Its recommendations have played a crucial role in transforming and modernizing the Indian defense sector.
Which of the following are the functions of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)?1. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad.2. Increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.3. Ensuring disaster resilience and addressing terrorism.Select the correct answer code:- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are the functions of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)?
1. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad.
2. Increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.
3. Ensuring disaster resilience and addressing terrorism.
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Zara Khan answered |
It is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.
Aim: to create greater prosperity for the people of the region by promoting balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative and secure growth and by accelerating regional economic integration.
Functions:
- APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad.
- Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.
- The forum adapts to allow members to deal with important new challenges to the region’s economic well-being. This includes ensuring disaster resilience, planning for pandemics, and addressing terrorism.
Consider the following statements:1. The Western Indian Ocean (WIO) connects North America and Europe with Asia.2. The MASE programme is launched to strengthen the maritime security capacity of the WIO region.3. The Indian Ocean Commission is a part of the MASE Programme.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Western Indian Ocean (WIO) connects North America and Europe with Asia.
2. The MASE programme is launched to strengthen the maritime security capacity of the WIO region.
3. The Indian Ocean Commission is a part of the MASE Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
- The Western Indian Ocean (WIO) is where the Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea meet.
- It connects North America, Europe and Asia, and as such is of global strategic importance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Western Indian Ocean (WIO) region comprises 10 countries: Somalia, Kenya, Tanzania, Mozambique, South Africa, Comoros, Madagascar, Seychelles, Mauritius, and the French overseas territory of Réunion.
- Its rich natural resource profile has pushed global players to view the region with increasing interest in recent years.
- The Maritime Security (MASE) Programme was adopted in 2010 in Mauritius, and is jointly run by the European Union (EU) and the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).
- The programme’s primary objective is to strengthen the maritime security capacity of Eastern and Southern Africa and the WIO region in order to implement the Regional Strategy and Action Plan against Piracy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Indian Ocean Commission (IOC) is a part of the MASE Programme. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
EnVision mission is an orbital mission to Venus being developed by- a)National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
- b)European Space Agency (ESA)
- c)Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
- d)Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
EnVision mission is an orbital mission to Venus being developed by
a)
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
b)
European Space Agency (ESA)
c)
Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
d)
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
|
Vandana Vandana answered |
B
Which of the following states/UT recently ended the 149-year-old practice of ‘darbar move’?- a)Himachal Pradesh
- b)Jammu and Kashmir
- c)Uttrakhand
- d)Andaman and Nicobar
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following states/UT recently ended the 149-year-old practice of ‘darbar move’?
a)
Himachal Pradesh
b)
Jammu and Kashmir
c)
Uttrakhand
d)
Andaman and Nicobar
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
Recently, the Government of Jammu & Kashmir ended the 149-year-old practice of ‘darbar move’. Darbar Move: It is the name given to the bi-annual shift of the secretariat and all other government offices of Jammu and Kashmir from one capital city to another. In 1872, the tradition was started during Dogra rule by Maharaja Ranbir Singh.
With reference to the Guru Gobind Singh, consider the following statements:1. He was the tenth and last of Sikh gurus in human form.2. He transformed the Sikh religion into what it is at present with the institution of the Khalsa solidarity.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Guru Gobind Singh, consider the following statements:
1. He was the tenth and last of Sikh gurus in human form.
2. He transformed the Sikh religion into what it is at present with the institution of the Khalsa solidarity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has received the first copy of the book, ‘The Ramayana of Shri Guru Gobind Singh Ji’ penned by Late Mrs. Baljit Kaur Tulsi Ji, who is the mother of noted lawyer Shri KTS Tulsi Ji.
- PM Modi had made a mention of Shri Guru Gobind Ji's Gobind Ramayan during his address at the Bhoomi Poojan of the Ram Janmbhoomi on August 5, 2020.
- However, the statement was criticized by many and it was said that the Sikh guru never wrote anything as such, with some even staging protests.
- The book has now been published by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA).
- Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth and last of Sikh gurus in human form.
- He was enthroned at the 'Guru Gaddi' at the age of 9 after his father Guru Tej Bahadur Ji, the 9th Guru.
- A spiritual master, warrior, poet, and philosopher, Guru Gobind Singh was born in 1666 in Patna.
- He transformed the Sikh religion into what it is at present with the institution of the Khalsa solidarity. Sahib Ji completed the sacred scripture, the Guru Granth Sahib Ji, in the final form that he ordained as the next and perpetual Guru of the Sikhs.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Sargasso Sea.1. The Sargasso Sea is located entirely within the Pacific Ocean.2. It is the only sea without a land boundary.3. It is bounded by four ocean currents forming an ocean gyre.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)2, 3
- b)3 only
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Sargasso Sea.
1. The Sargasso Sea is located entirely within the Pacific Ocean.
2. It is the only sea without a land boundary.
3. It is bounded by four ocean currents forming an ocean gyre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
2, 3
b)
3 only
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Mira Sharma answered |
The Sargasso Sea, located entirely within the Atlantic Ocean, is the only sea without a land boundary. It is bounded by four ocean currents forming an ocean gyre.
It is distinguished from other parts of the Atlantic Ocean by its characteristic brown Sargassum seaweed and often calm blue water.
The sea is bounded on the west by the Gulf Stream, on the north by the North Atlantic Current, on the east by the Canary Current, and on the south by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current, the four together forming a clockwise-circulating system of ocean currents termed the North Atlantic Gyre.
Consider the following statements regarding Zoonotic Diseases.1. Zoonotic diseases have impacted humankind since the beginning of its association with animals.2. Out of all the human disease-causing pathogens identified so far, only around 10% are of animal origin.3. Increased incidences of zoonotic diseases in recent times are a direct consequence of Large-scale deforestation and encroachment of pristine natural ecosystems.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)3 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Zoonotic Diseases.
1. Zoonotic diseases have impacted humankind since the beginning of its association with animals.
2. Out of all the human disease-causing pathogens identified so far, only around 10% are of animal origin.
3. Increased incidences of zoonotic diseases in recent times are a direct consequence of Large-scale deforestation and encroachment of pristine natural ecosystems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
3 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
Zoonotic diseases, impact humankind since the beginning of its association with animals. They are also the most numerous ones. Out of all the human disease-causing pathogens identified so far, over 60% are of animal origin. These include the causative agents for several well-known human and livestock diseases such as Tuberculosis, Brucellosis, Anthrax, Leptospirosis, and Rabies.
Though the natural genetic changes that make these pathogens more infectious and lethal are outside our control, several field observations and scientific investigations have established that the increased incidences of zoonotic diseases in recent times are a direct consequence of the ongoing abuse of nature.
Our irresponsible actions such as large scale deforestation and encroachment of pristine natural ecosystems; reckless land-use changes either to enhance agriculture and livestock productions, or to provide land for infrastructure and industrial developments; and unsustainable consumption, coupled with unregulated trade of wildlife and their derivatives, often via a long and unhygienic supply chain, provide the enabling conditions for such disease spillovers.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)’:1. Russia, China and Kazakhstan are the founding members of SCO.2. Pakistan and India are the permanent members of SCO.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)’:
1. Russia, China and Kazakhstan are the founding members of SCO.
2. Pakistan and India are the permanent members of SCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Akanksha Joshi answered |
Founding Members of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
- Statement 1 is correct. Russia, China, and Kazakhstan are indeed the founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). The organization was established in 2001 by these three countries.
Permanent Members of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Pakistan and India are not permanent members of the SCO. They are, however, currently observers in the organization. The SCO has 8 member states, including China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, and Pakistan. India and Pakistan became full members in 2017.
Therefore, the correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
- Statement 1 is correct. Russia, China, and Kazakhstan are indeed the founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). The organization was established in 2001 by these three countries.
Permanent Members of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Pakistan and India are not permanent members of the SCO. They are, however, currently observers in the organization. The SCO has 8 member states, including China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, and Pakistan. India and Pakistan became full members in 2017.
Therefore, the correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Agni Prime’ Missile.1. It is a canisterised missile with range capability more than 5,000 kms.2. It is nuclear-capable ballistic missile.3. It is an advanced version of Agni-1 missile along with high level of accuracy.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)3 only
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Agni Prime’ Missile.
1. It is a canisterised missile with range capability more than 5,000 kms.
2. It is nuclear-capable ballistic missile.
3. It is an advanced version of Agni-1 missile along with high level of accuracy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
3 only
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
Agni P is a new generation advanced variant of Agni class of missiles. It is a canisterised missile with range capability between 1,000 and 2,000 kms
India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight-tested a new generation nuclear-capable ballistic missile Agni P also known as ‘Agni Prime’ from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam island off the coast of Odisha. The missile followed textbook trajectory, meeting all mission objectives with the high level of accuracy.
It can hit targets up to a range of 2000 kms, and is very short and light in comparison with other missiles in this class.
Consider the following statements regarding Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).1. SSLV is a small-lift launch vehicle being developed by ISRO and marketed by New Space India Limited (NSIL).2. It has the payload capacity of 500 kg.3. It can launch satellites only to Low-earth orbit.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)2, 3
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).
1. SSLV is a small-lift launch vehicle being developed by ISRO and marketed by New Space India Limited (NSIL).
2. It has the payload capacity of 500 kg.
3. It can launch satellites only to Low-earth orbit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
2, 3
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Suresh Khanna answered |
The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (or SSLV) is a small-lift launch vehicle being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) with payload capacity to deliver 500 kg (1,100 lb) to low Earth orbit (500 km (310 mi)) or 300 kg (660 lb) to Sun-synchronous orbit (500 km (310 mi)) for launching small satellites.
The first space launch from Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV), built by ISRO and marketed by the state-owned New Space India Limited (NSIL), is yet to happen. It is expected by end of 2021.
Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis 2021 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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