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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ‘e-RUPI’ ?
1. It is a type of virtual currency launched by the Government of India.
2. It can be used for delivering services under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
3. The private sector can leverage it as part of their Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) programmes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
  • e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless method for digital payment. It is a Quick Response (QR) code or SMS string-based e-voucher, which is delivered to the mobile of the users.
    • The users will be able to redeem the voucher without needing a card, digital payments app, or internet banking access, at the service provider.
    • It connects the sponsors of the services with the beneficiaries and service providers in a digital mode without any physical interface.
    • The mechanism also ensures that the payment to the service provider is made only after the transaction is completed.
    • The system is pre-paid in nature and hence, assures timely payment to the service provider without the involvement of any intermediary.
  • In effect, e-RUPI is still backed by the existing Indian rupee as the underlying asset and specificity of its purpose makes it different to a virtual currency and puts it closer to a voucher-based payment system. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • It is expected to ensure a leak-proof delivery of welfare services and can also be used for delivering services under schemes meant for providing drugs and nutritional support under Mother and Child welfare schemes, drugs & diagnostics under schemes like Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, fertiliser subsidies etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Even the private sector can leverage these digital vouchers as part of their employee welfare and Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) programmes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country.
2. The free movement of people can be restricted to protect the interests of the general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Freedom to Move Freely Throughout the Territory of India:
    • Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • This right is protected against only state action and not private individuals.
    • Moreover, it is available only to the citizens and to shareholders of a company but not to foreigners or legal persons like companies or corporations, etc.
    • The freedom of movement has two dimensions, viz, internal (right to move inside the country) and external (right to move out of the country and right to come back to the country).
      • Article 19 protects only the first dimension.
      • The second dimension is dealt by Article 21 (Right to life and personal liberty).
    • Restrictions on this freedom can only be imposed on two grounds which are mentioned in the Article 19(5) of the constitution itself, namely, the interests of the general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribe. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the 127th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2021, consider the following statements:
1. The Bill seeks to restore the power of State governments to identify OBCs that are socially and educationally backward.
2. The Supreme Court in its order on Maratha reservation, upheld the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act and empowered only the Centre to identify OBCs that are socially and educationally backward.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
The Lok Sabha passed the 127th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2021, which seeks to restore the states’ power to make their own OBC lists.
  • The Bill seeks to restore the power of State governments to identify OBCs that are socially and educationally backward after a Supreme Court order in May 2021 empowered only the Centre to do so.
  • The amendment was thought necessary because the SC, in its order on Maratha reservation, upheld the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
  • It inserted Articles 338B and 342 A (with two clauses) after Article 342, which said the President of India, in consultation with the Governors, would specify socially and educationally backward classes, taking away the powers of State governments to do so.
  • The bill should be considered as the 105th Constitution Amendment bill after being renumbered.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) system, consider the following statements:
1. GeM is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal.
2. It is mandatory for Ministries and the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) to procure goods and services from GeM.
3. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for the maintenance of GeM.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
  • GeM is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Central and State Government Departments/Organizations/Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The procurement of goods and services by Ministries and the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) is mandatory for goods and services available on GeM. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It also provides the tools of e-bidding and reverse e-auction to facilitate the government users to achieve the best value for their money.
  • It was launched in 2016 to bring transparency and efficiency to the government buying process.
  • The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for the maintenance of GeM. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Asian Development Bank (ADB).
1. It is modeled closely on the World Bank, and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions.
2. The bank admits the members of only the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific.
3. It aims at reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth, environmentally sustainable growth, and regional integration.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    3 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Asian Development Bank (ADB)
It is a regional development bank.
  • established on 19 December 1966.
  • headquartered — Manila, Philippines.
  • official United Nations Observer.
The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East or ECAFE) and non-regional developed countries.
It is modeled closely on the World Bank, and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions.
  • As of 31 December 2019, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).
Roles and functions:
Dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth, environmentally sustainable growth, and regional integration.
  • This is carried out through investments – in the form of loans, grants and information sharing – in infrastructure, health care services, financial and public administration systems, helping nations prepare for the impact of climate change or better manage their natural resources, as well as other areas.

Consider the following statements regarding e-RUPI.
1. e-RUPI is India’s first digital currency.
2. It has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless digital payment medium, which will be delivered to mobile phones of beneficiaries in form of an SMS-string or a QR code.
This will essentially be like a prepaid gift-voucher that will be redeemable at specific accepting centres without any credit or debit card, a mobile app or internet banking. e-RUPI will connect the sponsors of the services with the beneficiaries and service providers in a digital manner without any physical interface.
The platform, which has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the National Health Authority, will be a person-specific and purpose-specific payments system.
According to the government, e-RUPI is expected to ensure a leak-proof delivery of welfare services. It can also be used for delivering services under schemes meant for providing drugs and nutritional support under Mother and Child welfare schemes, TB eradication programmes, drugs & diagnostics under schemes like Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, fertiliser subsidies etc. The government also said that even the private sector can leverage these digital vouchers as part of their employee welfare and corporate social responsibility programmes.

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
2. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • The 7th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 1956 inserted Article 350-B.
    • It provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities appointed by the President of India.
  • It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
  • Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Astronauts have to wear special protective space suits filled with air when they go to the moon or outer space. This is because of
1. Lack of air pressure in these regions
2. Very cold temperature in these regions
3. Dangerous radiation in these regions
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    2, 3
  • c)
    1, 2, 3
  • d)
    1 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
On the moon there is almost no air and hence no air pressure. If they did not wear these space suits, the counter pressure exerted by the body of the astronauts would make the blood vessels burst. The astronauts would bleed.
Astronauts must wear spacesuits whenever they leave a spacecraft and are exposed to the environment of space. In space, there is no air to breath and no air pressure. Space is extremely cold and filled with dangerous radiation. Without protection, an astronaut would quickly die in space. Spacesuits are specially designed to protect astronauts from the cold, radiation and low pressure in space. They also provide air to breathe. Wearing a spacesuit allows an astronaut to survive and work in space.

Consider the following statements regarding 5G Technology.
1. 5G or fifth generation is the latest upgrade in the long-term evolution (LTE) mobile broadband networks.
2. 5G works only in high frequency spectrum.
3. 5G is set to be as much as 100 times faster than 4G.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
5G or fifth generation is the latest upgrade in the long-term evolution (LTE) mobile broadband networks. 5G mainly works in 3 bands, namely low, mid and high frequency spectrum — all of which have their own uses as well as limitations.
With speeds of up to 100 gigabits per second, 5G is set to be as much as 100 times faster than 4G.

Consider the following statements regarding Kesaria Buddha stupa.
1. Kesaria Buddha stupa is located in Champaran district of Bihar.
2. It is regarded as one of the smallest Buddhist stupas in the world.
3. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has declared it a protected monument of national importance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
The world-famous Kesaria Buddha stupa in east Champaran district of Bihar is waterlogged following floods in some parts of the district after heavy rainfall in the catchment areas of river Gandak in neighbouring Nepal.
The stupa, located about 110 km from the State capital Patna, has a circumference of almost 400 feet and stands at a height of about 104 feet. The first construction of the nationally protected stupa is dated to the 3rd century BCE.
It is regarded as the largest Buddhist stupa in the world.
The original Kesaria stupa is said to date back to the time of emperor Ashoka (circa 250 BCE) as the remains of an Ashokan pillar was discovered there.
The ASI has declared it a protected monument of national importance.
The local call the stupa “devalaya” meaning “house of gods”.
However, a larger part of the stupa is yet to be developed as it remains under thick vegetation.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measures the growth in core sector industries.
2. The IIP is compiled by the National Statistical Office.
3. Renewable energy sector is one of the industries in the core sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Verma answered
  • In the calculation of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), the data of the following 8 sectors is measured. Eight core sectors comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The eight-core sector industries that are measured under IIP, in decreasing order of their weightage:
    • Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.
    • Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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With reference to the retrospective tax law, consider the following statements:
1. The new Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill aims to nullify the relevant retrospective tax clauses that were introduced in 2012 to bring past indirect transfer of Indian assets under the ambit of taxation.
2. As per the proposed changes, any tax demand made on transactions that took place before May 2012 shall be dropped, and any taxes already collected shall be repaid with interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
The Government of India took the first step towards doing away with the contentious retrospective tax law of 2012, which was used to raise large tax demands on foreign investors such as Vodafone and Cairn Energy, and blamed for vitiating India’s investment climate.
  • Union Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister introduced the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill in the Lok Sabha on Thursday to nullify the relevant retrospective tax clauses that were introduced in 2012 to bring past indirect transfer of Indian assets under the ambit of taxation.
  • As per the proposed changes, any tax demand made on transactions that took place before May 2012 shall be dropped, and any taxes already collected shall be repaid, albeit without interest.
  • To be eligible, the concerned taxpayers would have to drop all pending cases against the government and promise not to make any demands for damages or costs.
  • Former Finance Minister, the late Pranab Mukherjee, had introduced the retrospective taxation power after the Supreme Court held that Vodafone could not be taxed for a 2007 transaction involving its purchase of a 67% stake in Hutchison Whampoa for $11 billion.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the ‘net zero’ carbon targets, consider the following statements:
1. Net-zero, which is also referred to as carbon-neutrality, does not mean that a country would bring down its emissions to zero.
2. One way by which carbon can be absorbed is by creating carbon sinks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lalit Yadav answered
Independent charitable organisation Oxfam has said that ‘net zero’ carbon targets that many countries have announced may be a “dangerous distraction” from the priority of cutting carbon emissions.
  • "Land-hungry ‘net zero’ schemes could force an 80 per cent rise in global food prices and more hunger while allowing rich nations and corporates to continue “dirty business-as-usual,” Oxfam has said in a new report titled “Tightening the Net”.
  • The report says that if the challenge of change is tackled only by way of planting more trees, then about 1.6 billion hectares of new forests would be required to remove the world’s excess carbon emissions by the year 2050.
  • Net-zero, which is also referred to as carbon-neutrality, does not mean that a country would bring down its emissions to zero.
  • That would be gross-zero, which means reaching a state where there are no emissions at all, a scenario hard to comprehend.
  • Therefore, net-zero is a state in which a country’s emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere.
  • One way by which carbon can be absorbed is by creating carbon sinks.
  • In 2019, the New Zealand government passed the Zero Carbon Act, which committed the country to zero carbon emissions by 2050 or sooner, as part of the country’s attempts to meet its Paris climate accord commitments.
  • In the same year, the UK’s parliament passed legislation requiring the government to reduce the UK’s net emissions of greenhouse gases by 100 per cent relative to 1990 levels by the year 2050.
  • More recently, US president Joe Biden announced that the country will cut its greenhouse gas emissions by at least 50 per cent below 2005 levels by 2030.
  • Further, John Kerry, who is US’s climate envoy and considered one of the chief architects of the Paris Climate agreement, launched a bipartisan organisation called World War Zero in 2019 to bring together unlikely allies on climate change and with the goal of reaching net-zero carbon emissions in the country by 2050.
  • The European Union too, has a similar plan, called “Fit for 55”, the European Commission has asked all of its 27 member countries to cut emissions by 55 per cent below 1990 levels by 2030.
  • Last year, China also announced that it would become net-zero by the year 2060 and that it would not allow its emissions to peak beyond what they are in 2030.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR).
1. The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) denotes the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in the gross domestic product (GDP).
2. The higher the ICOR, the higher will be the productivity of capital.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
The Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR) is the ratio of investment to growth which is equal to the reciprocal of the marginal product of capital. The higher the ICOR, the lower the productivity of capital or the marginal efficiency of capital. The ICOR can be thought of as a measure of the inefficiency with which capital is used.

Consider the following statements.
1. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a fully owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. Depositors having less than Rs 5 lakh in their bank account have no legal recourse to recover funds in case a bank collapse.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shivam Verma answered
DICGC and Legal Recourse for Depositors

DICGC
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides insurance cover to depositors in case of bank failure. It was established in 1978 under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961.

Legal Recourse for Depositors
Depositors having less than Rs 5 lakh in their bank account are insured by DICGC. In case of bank failure, they are entitled to receive an insurance cover of up to Rs 5 lakh per depositor, per bank. However, it is incorrect to say that they have no legal recourse to recover funds in case of bank collapse.

Correct Statement
The correct statement would be that depositors having less than Rs 5 lakh in their bank account have limited legal recourse to recover funds in case of bank collapse. They can approach the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) or file a suit in a civil court to recover their dues. However, it is important to note that the process of recovering funds through legal channels can be time-consuming and may not guarantee a full recovery.

Conclusion
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect. Depositors having less than Rs 5 lakh in their bank account are insured by DICGC, and they have limited legal recourse to recover funds in case of bank collapse.

Consider the following statements regarding Zoonotic diseases.
1. Zoonotic diseases are mainly infectious diseases that are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animals and humans.
2. Zoonotic pathogens may be bacterial, viral or parasitic, or may involve unconventional agents.
3. Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection caused by the bacteria of the genus Brucella.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
A zoonosis is an infectious disease that has jumped from a non-human animal to humans. Zoonotic pathogens may be bacterial, viral or parasitic, or may involve unconventional agents and can spread to humans through direct contact or through food, water or the environment.
Various studies indicate that more than two-thirds of existing and emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic.
  • The transboundary impact of viral outbreaks in recent years such as the Nipah virus, Ebola, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) and Avian Influenza.
Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection caused by the bacteria of the genus Brucella.

With reference to the MK Bhan Fellowship-Young Researcher Fellowship Programme, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative if NITI Aayog.
2. It was established with an aim to encourage young bright researchers below 35 years of age to continue their research in the country after Ph.D. in any branch of Life Sciences/ Biotechnology/allied areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
The Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, announced the results of the First MK Bhan Fellowship-Young Researcher Fellowship Programme (MKB-YRFP), which was instituted to honour eminent scientist and Former Secretary of the DBT.
  • The Department established the MK Bhan Fellowship-Young Researcher Fellowship Programme (MKB-YRFP) with an aim to encourage young bright researchers below 35 years of age to continue their research in the country after Ph.D. in any branch of Life Sciences/ Biotechnology/allied areas.
  • The scheme offers an independent research grant for three years to the young Post-Doctoral Fellows to enable them to emerge as future leaders and take up cutting edge research focused on issues of national relevance.
  • This Fellowship, entails a monthly emolument of Rs 75,000.
MK Bhan
  • Maharaj Kishan Bhan (1947 – 2020) was an Indian pediatrician and clinical scientist.
  • He was known for developing Rota Viral Vaccine in collaboration with Bharat Biotech International.
  • He was positioned as Secretary, Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, until 2012.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. He formed the Praja Socialist Party.
2. He is associated with the Bhoodan Yajna Movement.
3. He gave the call for Total Revolution.
The above statements most appropriately describe which of the following Indian political leaders.
  • a)
    Vinoba Bhave
  • b)
    Jayaprakash Narayan
  • c)
    Lokamanya Tilak
  • d)
    M N Roy
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
Jayaprakash Narayan: Post-Independence Role
  • In 1952, he formed the Praja Socialist Party (PSP).
  • In 1954, he devoted his life exclusively to the Bhoodan Yajna Movement of Vinoba Bhave, which demanded land redistribution to the landless.
  • In 1959 he argued for a “reconstruction of Indian polity” by means of a four-tier hierarchy of village, district, state, and union councils (Chaukhamba Raj).
  • Total Revolution: Against Indira Gandhi Regime as she was found guilty of violating electoral laws by the Allahabad High Court. He advocated a program of social transformation which he termed ‘Sampoorna Kranti' (total revolution) in 1974 against corruption in public.
    • Total Revolution has seven component revolu­tions, namely- political, social, economic, cultural, ideological or intellectual, educational and spiritual.
  • Hence, option B is correct.
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A corporate may raise capital in the primary market through
1. Initial public offer
2. Rights issue
3. Private placement
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
A corporate may raise capital in the primary market by way of an initial public offer, rights issue or private placement.
An Initial Public Offer (IPO) is the selling of securities to the public in the primary market. 
A rights issue is an invitation to existing shareholders to purchase additional new shares in the company. This type of issue gives existing shareholders securities called rights.
A private placement is a sale of stock shares or bonds to pre-selected investors and institutions rather than on the open market. It is an alternative to an initial public offering (IPO) for a company seeking to raise capital for expansion.

Consider the following statements regarding Cloudbursts.
1. Cloudbursts are very long-duration, intense rainfall events over a small area.
2. During the cloudburst, usually the relative humidity and cloud cover will be at the maximum level with low temperature and slow winds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
Cloudbursts are short-duration, intense rainfall events over a small area. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), it is a weather phenomenon with unexpected precipitation exceeding 100mm/h over a geographical region of approximately 20-30 square km.
A study published last year studied the meteorological factors behind the cloudburst over the Kedarnath region. They analysed atmospheric pressure, atmospheric temperature, rainfall, cloud water content, cloud fraction, cloud particle radius, cloud mixing ratio, total cloud cover, wind speed, wind direction, and relative humidity during the cloudburst, before as well as after the cloudburst. The results showed that during the cloudburst, the relative humidity and cloud cover was at the maximum level with low temperature and slow winds. 
Several studies have shown that climate change will increase the frequency and intensity of cloudbursts in many cities across the globe. As temperatures increase the atmosphere can hold more and more moisture and this moisture comes down as a short very intense rainfall for a short duration probably half an hour or one hour resulting in flash floods in the mountainous areas and urban floods in the cities.

Consider the following statements.
1. In India, the Constitution gives the government the right to levy taxes on individuals and organisations.
2. In India, any tax being charged has to be backed by a law passed by the Parliament and state assemblies.
3. As per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Union and the States have concurrent power of taxation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
In India, the Constitution gives the government the right to levy taxes on individuals and organisations, but makes it clear that no one has the right to levy or charge taxes except by the authority of law. Any tax being charged has to be backed by a law passed by the legislature or Parliament.
Taxes in India come under a three-tier system based on the Central, State and local governments, and the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution puts separate heads of taxation under the Union and State list. There is no separate head under the Concurrent list, meaning Union and the States have no concurrent power of taxation.

Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made nanoscale crystals that can transport electrons. Potential applications of quantum dots include
1. Solar Cells
2. LEDs
3. Single-electron transistors
4. Medical Imaging
5. Cell Biology Research
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3, 5
  • b)
    1, 3, 4, 5
  • c)
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  • d)
    2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
Quantum dots (QDs) are semiconductor particles a few nanometres in size, having optical and electronic properties that differ from larger particles due to quantum mechanics.
When the quantum dots are illuminated by UV light, an electron in the quantum dot can be excited to a state of higher energy.
Potential applications of quantum dots include single-electron transistors, solar cells, LEDs, lasers, single-photon sources, second-harmonic generation, quantum computing, cell biology research, and medical imaging. Their small size allows for some QDs to be suspended in solution, which may lead to use in inkjet printing and spin-coating. They have been used in Langmuir-Blodgett thin-films. These processing techniques result in less expensive and less time-consuming methods of semiconductor fabrication.

With reference to the Maharaja Ranjit Singh, consider the following statements:
1. He proclaimed himself maharaja of the Punjab in 1801, and proceeded to rule with religious tolerance for communities other than Sikhs.
2. He built Lahore fort.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
A nine-foot-tall bronze equestrian statue of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the founder of the Sikh Empire, was vandalised in Lahore Fort.
  • Maharaja Ranjit Singh (1780-1839) seized Lahore in 1799 after he was invited to rule the city by its Hindu, Muslim, and Sikh elite.
  • Lahore, once among the biggest and most developed of the cities of Punjab, was in a shambles at the time — the dying Mughal Empire was no longer able to extend it patronage and protection, it was battered by repeated assaults from bands of Afghan raiders, and weakened by infighting among some Sikh groups.
  • Residents of Lahore complained of being forced to pay exorbitant taxes.
  • Ranjit Singh brought peace and security to Lahore and revived its economic and cultural glory. He proclaimed himself maharaja of the Punjab in 1801, and proceeded to rule with religious tolerance for communities other than Sikhs.
  • He carried out repairs to the Lahore fort — which was built by Emperor Akbar at the site of an older mud-brick structure and was subsequently beautified and expanded by Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb — and built a wall around it, and used a part of the fort as his residential quarters.
  • As the founder of a mighty empire that sprawled over a large part of northwestern India, the Maharaja is identified by many with the identity of Punjab.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to Major Dhyan Chand, consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India awarded him Padma Bhushan in 1956.
2. His birthday, 29 August, is celebrated as National Sports Day in India every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
India's highest sporting honour Khel Ratna Award, which was named after former prime minister Rajiv Gandhi, was rechristened in the honour of hockey wizard Dhyan Chand following the admirable performance of both men's and women's hockey teams in the Tokyo Olympics.
  • Major Dhyan Chand (29 August 1905 – 3 December 1979) was an Indian field hockey player widely regarded as one of the greatest in the history of the sport.
  • He was known for his extraordinary goal-scoring feats, in addition to earning three Olympic gold medals, in 1928, 1932 and 1936.
  • Popularly known as The Wizard or The Magician of hockey for his superb ball control, Chand played internationally from 1926 to 1949; he scored 570 goals in 185 matches according to his autobiography, Goal.
  • The Government of India awarded him Padma Bhushan in 1956.
  • His birthday, 29 August, is celebrated as National Sports Day in India every year.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

Pneumoconiosis, sometimes seen in news is related to
  • a)
    High blood glucose levels
  • b)
    Black lung disease
  • c)
    Tuberculosis
  • d)
    High levels of fat in the blood
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Atharva Chawla answered
Pneumoconiosis is a lung disease that is often seen in the news, particularly in relation to workers in certain industries such as coal mining, construction, and manufacturing. The correct answer is option 'B': Black lung disease.

Here is a detailed explanation of why option 'B' is the correct answer:

1. What is Pneumoconiosis?
- Pneumoconiosis is a group of lung diseases caused by inhaling certain types of dust particles.
- When these dust particles accumulate in the lungs, they can cause inflammation, scarring, and damage to the lung tissue.

2. Black Lung Disease:
- Black lung disease, also known as coal workers' pneumoconiosis (CWP), is a specific type of pneumoconiosis.
- It is caused by the inhalation of coal dust particles, which are released during mining operations.
- Over time, the accumulated coal dust causes inflammation and scarring in the lungs, leading to respiratory symptoms and decreased lung function.

3. Risk Factors:
- Workers in coal mines are at the highest risk of developing black lung disease due to constant exposure to coal dust.
- The risk increases with the duration and intensity of exposure.
- Other occupations that involve exposure to dust particles, such as construction and manufacturing, can also increase the risk of developing pneumoconiosis.

4. Symptoms and Complications:
- Symptoms of pneumoconiosis may include coughing, shortness of breath, chest pain, and chronic respiratory infections.
- In advanced stages, it can lead to severe respiratory impairment, respiratory failure, and even death.
- The condition can also increase the risk of other lung diseases such as chronic bronchitis and tuberculosis.

5. Prevention and Control:
- Preventive measures include implementing proper dust control measures in workplaces, such as ventilation systems and personal protective equipment.
- Regular health check-ups and screenings for workers in high-risk occupations are essential to detect early signs of pneumoconiosis.
- Improved occupational safety regulations and strict enforcement can help reduce the incidence of these diseases.

In conclusion, pneumoconiosis, specifically black lung disease, is a lung disease caused by the inhalation of coal dust particles. It primarily affects workers in coal mines and can lead to severe respiratory symptoms and complications.

Consider the following statements regarding NISAR mission.
1. NISAR mission is a collaboration between NASA and ISRO.
2. It uses synthetic aperture radars (SAR) to monitor the entire Earth.
3. It aims to measure the Earth’s changing ecosystems and dynamic surfaces to provide information about biomass, natural hazards, sea-level rise and groundwater.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    2, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
NISAR mission, a first-of-its-kind collaboration between NASA and ISRO for a joint earth-observation satellite. NISAR, which will use two synthetic aperture radars (SAR) to monitor the entire Earth in a 12-day cycle, is the most important mission as yet involving the GSLV Mk-II rocket.
NISAR mission aims to measure the Earth’s changing ecosystems and dynamic surfaces to provide information about biomass, natural hazards, sea-level rise and groundwater. It will help researchers and user agencies to systematically map the surface of the earth. ISRO wants to use it for a variety of purposes including agricultural mapping, and monitoring of glaciers in the Himalayas, landslide-prone areas and changes in the coastline.
As part of the collaboration, NASA will provide one of the synthetic aperture radars (L-band) while the other (S-band) will come from ISRO. NASA will also provide communication and control systems while the launch and related services would be the responsibility of ISRO.
As of now, NISAR is scheduled for launch in early 2023 from the Sriharikota facility.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Doha talks is the first-ever meeting between the Taliban and the Afghan government.
2. It was in the Doha talks where the US administration promised to withdraw all the American troops from Afghanistan by May 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • Recently, the Taliban has seized Kabul, the capital city of Afghanistan, raising questions over the US and NATO(North Atlantic Treaty Organization) trained Afghan Forces.
    • The Taliban have proclaimed that there will be no witch hunt, that it will respect a transitional process, and that it will work for a future Islamic system that is acceptable to all.
  • Peace Talks between Taliban, Afghanistan and USA:
    • Murree Talks:
      • In 2015 the US had sent a representative to the first-ever meeting between the Taliban and the Afghan government that was hosted by Pakistan in Murree in 2015. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
        • However, the Murree talks did not progress.
    • Doha Talks:
      • In 2020, before the Doha Talks started, the Taliban had maintained that they would hold direct talks only with the US, and not with the Kabul government, which they did not recognise.
      • In the agreement, the US administration promised that it would withdraw all American troops from Afghanistan by 1st May, 2021. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
        • The deadline has been pushed to 11th September 2021.
        • This provided the Taliban a sense of victory and demoralised the Afghan troops.
      • The Taliban promised to reduce violence, join intra-Afghan peace talks and cut all ties with foreign terrorist groups.

With reference to the United Nations World Geospatial Information Congress (UNWGIC), consider the following statements:
1. The first UNWGIC was organized by China in October 2018.
2. India will organize the event as a part of the "Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
The Global Geospatial Information Community was sensitized about the second United Nations World Geospatial Information Congress (UNWGIC) to be organized by India in October 2022.
  • The United Nation Committee of Experts on Global Geospatial Information Management (UN-GGIM) organizes the United Nations World Geospatial Information Congress (UNWGIC) every four years with the objectives of enhancing international collaboration among the Member States and relevant stakeholders in Geospatial information management and capacities.
  • The first UNWGIC was organized by China in October 2018.
  • The UNGGIM has entrusted the responsibility of organizing the second UNWGIC to India during October 2022. India will organize the event as a part of the "Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (Celebration of 75 years of Indian Independence)".
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Plastic-mixed Handmade Paper, consider the following statements:
1. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has recently secured Patent registration for its innovative Plastic-mixed Handmade Paper developed to reduce plastic menace from nature.
2. The technology developed by KVIC uses both high & low density waste polythene that not only adds extra strength to the paper but also reduces the cost by up to 34%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has secured Patent registration for its innovative Plastic-mixed Handmade Paper developed to reduce plastic menace from nature.
  • The patent certificate was issued to KVIC’s Kumarappa National Handmade Paper Institute (KNHPI), Jaipur, on 2nd August 2021, by the Controller of Patent, Intellectual Property of India.
  • The plastic-mixed handmade paper was developed under Project REPLAN (REducing PLAstic from Nature).
  • This is the first of its kind project in India, where plastic waste is de-structured, degraded, diluted and used with paper pulp while making handmade paper and thus reduces plastic waste from nature.
  • The invention is aligned with the Prime Minister’s call for fighting the menace of single-use plastic.
  • The technology developed by KVIC uses both high & low density waste polythene that not only adds extra strength to the paper but also reduces the cost by up to 34%. The product is recyclable and eco-friendly.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

What was the profession of Subhadra Kumari Chauhan who was paid tribute by dedicating a creative doodle to her by Google?
  • a)
    Poet
  • b)
    Classical Dancer
  • c)
    Classical Singer
  • d)
    None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
Google honoured Subhadra Kumari Chauhan on her 117th birthday by donating a creative doodle to her. She was an Indian activist, freedom fighter, and poet. About Subhadra Kumari Chauhan: Google doodle was illustrated by Prabha Mallya who is a New Zealand-based guest artist. Doodle signified Chauhan dressed in a saree, sitting & holding a pen with a number of notes. Doodle also features Jhansi Ki Rani and a few freedom fighters. Google also described Chauhan as a ‘trailblazing writer and freedom fighter who gained national prominence when literature was dominated by men.

Consider the following statements regarding Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
1. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an intergovernmental economic organisation, whose members are high-income economies with a very high Human Development Index (HDI).
2. The OECD is an official United Nations observer.
3. The OECD have the power to enforce its decisions on its members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Verma answered
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an intergovernmental economic organization that was founded in 1961. It consists of 38 member countries, which are predominantly high-income economies with a very high Human Development Index (HDI). The primary objective of the OECD is to promote economic growth, improve living standards, and provide a platform for governments to discuss and collaborate on policy issues.

Statement 1: Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an intergovernmental economic organisation, whose members are high-income economies with a very high Human Development Index (HDI).

This statement is correct. The OECD consists of member countries that are considered to be high-income economies with a very high HDI. These countries are typically developed nations with advanced economies and a high level of human development.

Statement 2: The OECD is an official United Nations observer.

This statement is incorrect. While the OECD works closely with the United Nations (UN) and maintains a cooperative relationship, it is not an official UN observer. However, the OECD and the UN collaborate on various global issues and often align their work to achieve common goals.

Statement 3: The OECD has the power to enforce its decisions on its members.

This statement is incorrect. The OECD does not have the power to enforce its decisions on its member countries. It operates on the basis of consensus and mutual agreement among its members. The organization provides a platform for countries to discuss and share best practices, but it does not have the authority to impose binding decisions on its members.

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the OECD consists of high-income economies with a very high HDI. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the OECD is not an official UN observer. Statement 3 is also incorrect as the OECD does not have the power to enforce its decisions on its members. Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements:
1. The state of Odisha accounts for the largest number of tribal population in India.
2. The central tribal belt extending from Rajasthan to West Bengal comprises the maximum concentration of indigenous population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lalit Yadav answered
  • India hosts around 104 million (that is almost 8.6% of the country’s population).
  • Though there are 705 ethnic groups that have been formally identified, out of which around 75 are Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
    • The Gond comprise the largest tribal group of India.
    • The largest number of tribal communities (62) are found in Odisha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The central tribal belt which comprises the Northeastern states of India (including the region ranging from Rajasthan to West Bengal) boasts of the maximum concentration of indigenous population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Amnesty International.
1. Amnesty International is a United Nations backed organisation focused on human rights.
2. The organisation was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for its “campaign against torture”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
Amnesty International is a non-governmental organisation focused on human rights.
  • The stated objective of the organisation is “to conduct research and generate action to prevent and end grave abuses of human rights, and to demand justice for those whose rights have been violated.”
  • The organisation was awarded the 1977 Nobel Peace Prize for its “campaign against torture,” and the United Nations Prize in the Field of Human Rights in 1978.
  • In the field of international human rights organisations, Amnesty has the second longest history, after the International Federation for Human Rights and broadest name recognition.

Consider the following statements regarding Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA).
1. It helps developing countries meet part of the costs involved in international arbitration.
2. The decisions or awards of the PCA are not binding on the parties.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
  • Established in 1899.
  • Headquartered at the Hague in Netherlands.
  • It has Financial Assistance Fund which aims at helping developing countries meet part of the costs involved in international arbitration or other means of dispute settlement offered by the PCA.
  • All decisions, called “awards” are binding on all the parties in the dispute and have to be carried out without delay.
Functions and jurisdiction:
It provides services of arbitral tribunal to resolve disputes that arise out of international agreements between member states, international organizations or private parties.
  • The cases span a range of legal issues involving territorial and maritime boundaries, sovereignty, human rights, international investment, and international and regional trade.
The organization is not a United Nations agency, but the PCA is an official United Nations Observer.

International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) commits its parties to respect which of the following?
1. Freedom of religion
2. Electoral rights
3. Rights to due process and a fair trial
4. Freedom of speech
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3
  • b)
    2, 3, 4
  • c)
    1, 3, 4
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Iq Funda answered
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
  1. It is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
  2. Monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee.
  3. The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial.
  4. The ICCPR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
  5. It became effective in 1976.

Consider the following statements regarding Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.
1. The Act recognises domestic abuse as a punishable offence.
2. The Act provides a definition of “domestic violence” for the first time in Indian law.
3. It is both a civil and criminal law, meant for protection orders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    1, 2
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajiv Reddy answered
What is Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005?
It is an act to provide for more effective protection of the rights of Women guaranteed under the Constitution who are victims of violence of any kind occurring within the family and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • It is the first significant attempt in India to recognise domestic abuse as a punishable offence, to extend its provisions to those in live-in relationships, and to provide for emergency relief for the victims, in addition to legal recourse.
  • The Act provides a definition of “domestic violence” for the first time in Indian law, with this definition being broad and including not only physical violence, but also other forms of violence such as emotional/verbal, sexual, and economic abuse.
  • It is a civil law meant primarily for protection orders, rather than criminal enforcement.

With reference to the Hindustan-228 aircraft, consider the following statements:
1. It is built on the existing frame of the German Dornier 228 defence transport aircraft used by the defence forces.
2. It was developed by DRDO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nikita Singh answered
On August 15, the public sector aircraft manufacturing company Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) carried out a successful ground run and low speed taxi trials of a commercial aircraft – Hindustan-228 – for ‘Type Certification’ by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). The type certification by the DGCA will enable HAL to get an international certification for the aircraft.
  • The 19-seater Hindustan-228 or the Do-228 is the first major attempt in India to develop a small civil transport aircraft after the 14-seater Saras aircraft development program at the National Aeronautics Laboratory was shelved in 2009 on account of multiple problems in its development.
  • The Hindustan-228 aircraft is built on the existing frame of the German Dornier 228 defence transport aircraft used by the defence forces.
  • Despite producing aircrafts like the Hindustan Trainer-2 and its variant – the Hindustan Propulsion Trainer 32 (HPT-32) – for the Indian Air Force six decades ago, and more recently the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) for the IAF, the Indian aviation sector has not produced any civil transport aircraft.
  • Small civilian aircrafts are considered to be an essential element of the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) scheme that the central government is attempting to put in place for regional connectivity.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Which of the following statements best describes the TAPAS initiative:
  • a)
    It is an initiative for young and aspiring minds to provide them an integrated platform and portal for online courses.
  • b)
    It aims to provide high quality educational channels through DTH across the length and breadth of the country on a 24X7 basis.
  • c)
    It is a Massive Open Online Course (MOOC) platform which offers various courses in the field of social defence for the capacity building of stakeholders.
  • d)
    It aims to use artificial intelligence to make learning more personalized and customized as per the requirements of the learner.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Varun Singh answered

Overview of TAPAS Initiative:

The TAPAS initiative is a Massive Open Online Course (MOOC) platform that offers various courses in the field of social defence for the capacity building of stakeholders.

Key Points:
- The initiative focuses on providing online courses related to social defence, which includes areas such as child protection, women's safety, elderly care, drug abuse prevention, and more.
- It aims to reach a wide audience and make these courses accessible to stakeholders across the country.
- The platform utilizes technology to offer interactive and engaging courses that help learners acquire essential skills and knowledge in the field of social defence.
- TAPAS initiative aims to enhance the capacity of stakeholders, including government officials, social workers, law enforcement agencies, and community members, to effectively address social issues and contribute to social welfare.

Overall, the TAPAS initiative plays a crucial role in promoting learning and capacity building in the field of social defence through online courses, making education more accessible and impactful for stakeholders.

Consider the following statements regarding International Finance Corporation (IFC).
1. It was established as the private sector arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
2. It offers investment, advisory, and asset management services to encourage private sector development in developing countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

International Finance Corporation (IFC)

Statement 1: It was established as the private sector arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
Statement 2: It offers investment, advisory, and asset management services to encourage private sector development in developing countries.

The correct answer is Option B: 2 only because Statement 1 is incorrect.

Explanation:

About International Finance Corporation (IFC):
The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is an international financial institution that is a member of the World Bank Group. It was established in 1956 and is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.

Statement 1: It was established as the private sector arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
This statement is incorrect. The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is not the private sector arm of the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The IMF and the IFC are two separate entities. While the IMF focuses on macroeconomic stability and provides financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments problems, the IFC's main objective is to promote private sector investment in developing countries.

Statement 2: It offers investment, advisory, and asset management services to encourage private sector development in developing countries.
This statement is correct. The primary objective of the International Finance Corporation (IFC) is to promote private sector development in developing countries. It achieves this by offering a range of services including investment, advisory, and asset management services. The IFC provides financing to private sector companies in developing countries, supports infrastructure projects, and provides advisory services to help businesses improve their operations and governance practices.

The IFC also plays a crucial role in mobilizing private capital for development by partnering with commercial banks, institutional investors, and other private sector entities. It focuses on sectors such as agribusiness, manufacturing, financial services, infrastructure, and renewable energy, among others.

In conclusion, the correct answer is Option B: 2 only as Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), consider the following statements:
1. It is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services.
2. It allows the account holders to withdraw money in the form of a short-term loan.
3. There has been a continuous increase in the percentage of operative accounts under PMJDY.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Its main objective is ensuring access to various financial services to the excluded sections i.e. weaker sections & low income groups at an affordable cost and using the technology for the same.
  • It allows the Jan Dhan account holders to withdraw money upto ?10,000 (OverDraft Facility) in the form of a short-term loan. This limit was earlier ?5,000 but the government doubled the amount last year. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The number of accounts under the PMJDY rose to 43.04 crore in August 2021 from 17.9 crore in August 2015.
  • There has been a continuous increase in the percentage of operative accounts which is an indication that more and more of these accounts are being used by customers on a regular basis. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) consists of which of the following initiatives to enhance energy efficiency in energy intensive industries?
1. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme
2. Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE)
3. Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Union Minister for Power informed Rajya Sabha about the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE).
NMEEE consists of four initiatives to enhance energy efficiency in energy intensive industries which are as follows:
  1. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme aims at reducing Specific Energy Consumption (SEC) i.e. energy use per unit of production for Designated Consumers (DCs) in energy intensive sectors, with an associated market mechanism to enhance the cost effectiveness through certification of excess energy saving which can be traded.
  2. Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE) aims for accelerating the shift to energy efficient appliances in designated sectors through incentives and innovative business models.
    • Bachat Lamp Yojna (BLY): The programme was developed for replacement of inefficient bulbs with Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs).
    • Super-Efficient Equipment Program (SEEP): This programme was designed for market transformation of super-efficient appliances by providing financial stimulus innovatively at critical point/s of interventions.
  3. Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP) was launched to provide a platform to interact with Financial Institutions (FIs) and project developers for implementation of energy efficiency projects.
  4. Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Development (FEEED) was designed for development of fiscal instruments to promote energy efficiency.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Which of the following services generally use encryption to secure data transmission?
1. Payment gateways
2. Messaging services
3. Wireless intercom systems
4. Bank automatic teller machines
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3
  • b)
    1, 3, 4
  • c)
    2, 3, 4
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Encryption is the process of encoding messages or information in such a way that only authorized parties can read it.
All messaging services like WhatsApp, Viber, Google Chat, Yahoo messenger use encrypted services. Banks (payment gateways) and e-commerce sites also use encryption to protect financial and private data including passwords.
Encryption is also used to protect data in transit, for example data being transferred via networks (e.g. the Internet, e-commerce), mobile telephones, wireless microphones, wireless intercom systems, Bluetooth devices and bank automatic teller machines.

With reference to slender lorises (Loris), consider the following statements:
1. They are native to India and Sri Lanka.
2. It is believed that they have medicinal properties and they are captured and sold for it.
3. It is listed as critically endangered in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
  • The slender lorises (Loris) are a genus of loris native to India and Sri Lanka. Hence, statement1 is correct.
  • Slender lorises spend most of their life in trees, traveling along the tops of branches with slow and precise movements.
  • They generally feed on insects, reptiles, plant shoots, and fruit.
  • They are found in tropical rainforests, scrub forests, semi-deciduous forests, and swamps.
  • There are two species of Slender Loris, the only members of the genus ‘Loris’:
    • Red Slender Loris (Loris tardigradus)
    • Grey Slender Loris (Loris lydekkerianus).
  • It is believed that they have medicinal properties and they are captured and sold. Since there is great demand for keeping these animals as pets, they are illegally smuggled. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Habitat loss, electrocution of live wires and road accidents are other threats that have caused its populations to dwindle.
  • Protection Status:
    • IUCN: Endangered,
    • Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule I
    • CITES: Appendix II
    • Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. The National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. Under the NMEO-OP scheme oil palm farmers will be provided financial assistance and will get remuneration under a price and viability formula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
  • National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) is a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme. It is proposed to have an additional 6.5 lakh hectares for palm oil by 2025-26. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It will involve raising the area under oil palm cultivation to 10 lakh hectares by 2025-26 and 16.7 lakh hectares by 2029-30.
  • Oil palm farmers will be provided financial assistance and will get remuneration under a price and viability formula. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The Viability Formula is a Minimum Support Price-type mechanism and the government will fix this at 14.3% of Crude Palm Oil (CPO) price.
  • It will eventually go up to 15.3%.
  • Another focus area of the scheme is to substantially increase the support of inputs/interventions.
    • Special assistance will be given to replant old gardens for their rejuvenation.

With reference to the Census in India, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Ain-e-Akbari’ included comprehensive data pertaining to population, industry, wealth and many other characteristics.
2. The first census of India was conducted during the reign of Governor-General Lord Mayo.
3. The census in India is conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
  • In India, a census is conducted every decade and Census 2021 will be the 16th national census of the country.
    • Census will be conducted by the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • The earliest literature ‘Rig Veda’ reveals that some kind of population count was maintained during 800-600 BC.
  • During the regime of Mughal king Akbar, the administrative report ‘Ain-e-Akbari’ included comprehensive data pertaining to population, industry, wealth and many other characteristics. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The first Census was conducted in India in 1872 (although non-synchronously in different parts) during the reign of Governor-General Lord Mayo. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The newly established office of the registrar general and census commissioner launched and completed the first Census of India in 1881.

Consider the following statements regarding Bound rates or Bound Tariffs.
1. Bound rate is the maximum rate of duty (tariff) that can be imposed by the importing country on an imported commodity.
2. Bound rate agreed for any commodity at WTO is same for all the members of WTO.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vt Sir - Kota answered
Bound rate is the maximum rate of duty (tariff) that can be imposed by the importing country on an imported commodity. Here, each country commits itself to a ceiling on customs duties (tariff) on a certain number of products.
These rates vary from country to country and commodity to commodity. But no country can raise duties above the bound rate it has committed, and the rate of customs duty actually applied may be lower than the bound rate.

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