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All questions of July 2024 for CLAT Exam
Consider the following pairs:1. Satluj River - Originates from Beas Kund2. Ravi River - Originates from Bara Bhangal Glacier3. Yamuna River - Forms the eastern boundary of Himachal Pradesh with Uttarakhand4. Spiti River - Joins the Satluj River near KhabHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Satluj River - Originates from Beas Kund
2. Ravi River - Originates from Bara Bhangal Glacier
3. Yamuna River - Forms the eastern boundary of Himachal Pradesh with Uttarakhand
4. Spiti River - Joins the Satluj River near Khab
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
1. Satluj River - Incorrectly matched. The Satluj River originates from Rakas Lake in Tibet, not from Beas Kund.
2. Ravi River - Correctly matched. The Ravi River originates from the Bara Bhangal Glacier in the Himalayas.
3. Yamuna River - Correctly matched. The Yamuna River forms the eastern boundary of Himachal Pradesh with Uttarakhand.
4. Spiti River - Correctly matched. The Spiti River joins the Satluj River near Khab.
Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Private Approach: Governments enforce MUL implementation requirements.
2. Exact Unlearning: This method completely eradicates the influence of specific data points from the model.
3. Public Approach: Data fiduciaries voluntarily adopt MUL algorithms.
4. Approximate Unlearning: Minimizes the impact of specific data on model predictions.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- a)Only one pair
- b)Only three pairs
- c)Only two pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Private Approach: Governments enforce MUL implementation requirements.
2. Exact Unlearning: This method completely eradicates the influence of specific data points from the model.
3. Public Approach: Data fiduciaries voluntarily adopt MUL algorithms.
4. Approximate Unlearning: Minimizes the impact of specific data on model predictions.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only three pairs
c)
Only two pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Valor Academy answered |
1. Private Approach: Governments enforce MUL implementation requirements. This pair is incorrectly matched. The private approach involves data fiduciaries voluntarily adopting MUL algorithms.
2. Exact Unlearning: This method completely eradicates the influence of specific data points from the model. This pair is correctly matched. Exact Unlearning indeed refers to completely removing the influence of specific data points.
3. Public Approach: Data fiduciaries voluntarily adopt MUL algorithms. This pair is incorrectly matched. The public approach involves governments enforcing MUL implementation requirements.
4. Approximate Unlearning: Minimizes the impact of specific data on model predictions. This pair is correctly matched. Approximate Unlearning focuses on minimizing the data's impact rather than entirely removing it.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Denisovans are an extinct species of hominid closely related to modern humans, discovered in 2010.
Statement-II:
Salazar Pit Viper, scientifically known as Trimeresurus salazar, was first identified in Arunachal Pradesh in 2019.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- c)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Denisovans are an extinct species of hominid closely related to modern humans, discovered in 2010.
Denisovans are an extinct species of hominid closely related to modern humans, discovered in 2010.
Statement-II:
Salazar Pit Viper, scientifically known as Trimeresurus salazar, was first identified in Arunachal Pradesh in 2019.
Salazar Pit Viper, scientifically known as Trimeresurus salazar, was first identified in Arunachal Pradesh in 2019.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
c)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Statement-I is accurate. Denisovans, indeed, are an extinct species of hominid closely related to modern humans, first identified in 2010 from remains found in a Siberian cave. On the other hand, Statement-II is inaccurate. The Salazar Pit Viper, Trimeresurus salazar, was not first identified in Arunachal Pradesh in 2019; rather, it was first identified in Assam's Kaziranga National Park. Hence, Statement-II is incorrect in this context.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at Badami.Statement-II:
The cave painting discovered in the limestone cave of Leang Karampuang on Sulawesi Island, Indonesia, dates back at least 51,200 years.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at Badami.
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at Badami.
Statement-II:
The cave painting discovered in the limestone cave of Leang Karampuang on Sulawesi Island, Indonesia, dates back at least 51,200 years.
The cave painting discovered in the limestone cave of Leang Karampuang on Sulawesi Island, Indonesia, dates back at least 51,200 years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Valor Academy answered |
Statement-I refers to the painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani being famous at Badami, which is accurate. Statement-II discusses the cave painting in Leang Karampuang, dating back 51,200 years, on Sulawesi Island, Indonesia, which is also true. The connection between the two statements is that both address ancient art forms, with Statement-II providing historical context while Statement-I focuses on a specific renowned painting. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II indeed explains the historical significance behind Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs:1. Rule 261 - Lok Sabha2. Rule 380 - Rajya Sabha3. Rule 381 - Lok Sabha4. Article 105 - Privileges and freedom of speech in ParliamentHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Rule 261 - Lok Sabha
2. Rule 380 - Rajya Sabha
3. Rule 381 - Lok Sabha
4. Article 105 - Privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Mahi Gupta answered |
Correctly Matched Pairs Explanation:
Rule 261 - Lok Sabha:
- Rule 261 is related to the Lok Sabha. This rule specifically pertains to the "Decision on questions as to disqualifications of members."
Rule 380 - Rajya Sabha:
- Rule 380 is indeed related to the Rajya Sabha. This rule deals with "Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)."
Rule 381 - Lok Sabha:
- Rule 381 is also correctly matched with Lok Sabha. This rule focuses on the "Voting in the House."
Article 105 - Privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament:
- Article 105 of the Indian Constitution indeed pertains to the privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament. This article grants certain privileges to MPs, including freedom of speech in Parliament.
Therefore, out of the given pairs, two pairs are correctly matched - Rule 380 with Rajya Sabha and Article 105 with Privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament.
Rule 261 - Lok Sabha:
- Rule 261 is related to the Lok Sabha. This rule specifically pertains to the "Decision on questions as to disqualifications of members."
Rule 380 - Rajya Sabha:
- Rule 380 is indeed related to the Rajya Sabha. This rule deals with "Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)."
Rule 381 - Lok Sabha:
- Rule 381 is also correctly matched with Lok Sabha. This rule focuses on the "Voting in the House."
Article 105 - Privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament:
- Article 105 of the Indian Constitution indeed pertains to the privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament. This article grants certain privileges to MPs, including freedom of speech in Parliament.
Therefore, out of the given pairs, two pairs are correctly matched - Rule 380 with Rajya Sabha and Article 105 with Privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to achieve a 40% reduction in particulate matter concentrations by 2026.
Statement-II:
NITI Aayog was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission founded in 1950.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect Both
- c)Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to achieve a 40% reduction in particulate matter concentrations by 2026.
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to achieve a 40% reduction in particulate matter concentrations by 2026.
Statement-II:
NITI Aayog was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission founded in 1950.
NITI Aayog was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission founded in 1950.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect Both
c)
Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Niti Mehta answered |
Explanation:
Statement-I: National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
- The statement is correct. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is a government initiative launched in January 2019 to tackle the issue of air pollution in India.
- NCAP aims to achieve a 20-30% reduction in PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations by 2024, with an ultimate target of 40% reduction by 2026.
- The program focuses on a collaborative and participatory approach involving all stakeholders to improve air quality in the country.
Statement-II: NITI Aayog
- The statement is incorrect. NITI Aayog, which stands for National Institution for Transforming India, was established on 1 January 2015, but it did not replace the Planning Commission.
- The Planning Commission was founded in 1950 and was replaced by NITI Aayog as a premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
- NITI Aayog serves as a platform for cooperative federalism, providing strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Statement-I: National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
- The statement is correct. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is a government initiative launched in January 2019 to tackle the issue of air pollution in India.
- NCAP aims to achieve a 20-30% reduction in PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations by 2024, with an ultimate target of 40% reduction by 2026.
- The program focuses on a collaborative and participatory approach involving all stakeholders to improve air quality in the country.
Statement-II: NITI Aayog
- The statement is incorrect. NITI Aayog, which stands for National Institution for Transforming India, was established on 1 January 2015, but it did not replace the Planning Commission.
- The Planning Commission was founded in 1950 and was replaced by NITI Aayog as a premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
- NITI Aayog serves as a platform for cooperative federalism, providing strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Mackenzie River is currently facing unprecedented low water levels due to intense heat and minimal precipitation.Statement-II:
The Mackenzie River originates from the Beaufort Sea and terminates at Great Slave Lake.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Mackenzie River is currently facing unprecedented low water levels due to intense heat and minimal precipitation.
The Mackenzie River is currently facing unprecedented low water levels due to intense heat and minimal precipitation.
Statement-II:
The Mackenzie River originates from the Beaufort Sea and terminates at Great Slave Lake.
The Mackenzie River originates from the Beaufort Sea and terminates at Great Slave Lake.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Amrita Bose answered |
Analysis of Statement-I
- Statement-I claims that the Mackenzie River is experiencing unprecedented low water levels due to intense heat and minimal precipitation.
- Recent climate patterns in the region have indeed led to lower water levels, exacerbated by heatwaves and reduced rainfall.
- Hence, Statement-I is correct.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Statement-II asserts that the Mackenzie River originates from the Beaufort Sea and terminates at Great Slave Lake.
- This statement is incorrect. The Mackenzie River actually originates from Great Slave Lake and flows into the Beaufort Sea.
- Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect.
Conclusion
- Since Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect, the correct answer is option 'C': Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
- This indicates a misunderstanding in Statement-II regarding the river's origin and termination points.
Key Takeaway
- The Mackenzie River's water levels are significantly impacted by climate conditions, while its geographical details in Statement-II are inaccurately represented. This analysis clarifies the relationship between the statements and their correctness.
- Statement-I claims that the Mackenzie River is experiencing unprecedented low water levels due to intense heat and minimal precipitation.
- Recent climate patterns in the region have indeed led to lower water levels, exacerbated by heatwaves and reduced rainfall.
- Hence, Statement-I is correct.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Statement-II asserts that the Mackenzie River originates from the Beaufort Sea and terminates at Great Slave Lake.
- This statement is incorrect. The Mackenzie River actually originates from Great Slave Lake and flows into the Beaufort Sea.
- Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect.
Conclusion
- Since Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect, the correct answer is option 'C': Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
- This indicates a misunderstanding in Statement-II regarding the river's origin and termination points.
Key Takeaway
- The Mackenzie River's water levels are significantly impacted by climate conditions, while its geographical details in Statement-II are inaccurately represented. This analysis clarifies the relationship between the statements and their correctness.
Consider the following statements:1. The PLI Scheme for White Goods aims to increase domestic value addition in the white goods sector from 15-20% to 75-80%.2. Kaziranga National Park is located on the southern banks of the Ganga River.3. The PLI Scheme for White Goods is set to be implemented over a period of 10 years.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The PLI Scheme for White Goods aims to increase domestic value addition in the white goods sector from 15-20% to 75-80%.
2. Kaziranga National Park is located on the southern banks of the Ganga River.
3. The PLI Scheme for White Goods is set to be implemented over a period of 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Rithika Iyer answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1:
- The PLI Scheme for White Goods does aim to increase domestic value addition in the white goods sector from 15-20% to 75-80%. This is in line with the government's objective of boosting domestic manufacturing and reducing dependency on imports in this sector.
Statement 2:
- Kaziranga National Park is actually located in the state of Assam, not on the southern banks of the Ganga River. It is famous for its population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 1:
- The PLI Scheme for White Goods does aim to increase domestic value addition in the white goods sector from 15-20% to 75-80%. This is in line with the government's objective of boosting domestic manufacturing and reducing dependency on imports in this sector.
Statement 2:
- Kaziranga National Park is actually located in the state of Assam, not on the southern banks of the Ganga River. It is famous for its population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nova Explosion:1. It is an event where a star explodes as it interacts with another star.2. It destroys both interacting stars immediately in this explosion.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Nova Explosion:
1. It is an event where a star explodes as it interacts with another star.
2. It destroys both interacting stars immediately in this explosion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Valor Academy answered |
Global professionals and amateur astronomers waiting for an once-in-a-lifetime nova explosion which will occur in September, 3,000 light-years from the Earth.
- It is the dramatic instance of a star exploding as it interacts with another, nearby star.
- It’s a one of many, repeated moments during the long, slow, death of two neighboring stars in the same system.
- Astronomers are waiting for the fiery explosion of T Coronae Borealis, also dubbed the “Blaze Star” and known to astronomers as “T CrB”.
- For T CrB, this nova event happens roughly every 80 years — it’s a like Halley’s Comet event every 76 years — so, astronomers call T CrB a “recurrent” nova.
- They believe T CrB’s prior eruptions were observed as long ago as December 1787 and even in October 1217 AD.
- When T CrB erupts, its luminosity will increase dramatically, making it visible to the naked eye for several days.
- Process
- The system contains two stars — a white dwarf and a red giant.
- The white dwarf is an incredibly dense remnant of a once larger star. It’s about the size of planet Earth but with the same mass as our sun.
- Its neighbor, the red giant, is in its final years of existence and is slowly being stripped of hydrogen by the gravitational pull of the denser white dwarf.
- This star “cannibalism” causes a tremendous buildup of pressure and heat, which eventually triggers a huge thermonuclear explosion.
- The explosion doesn’t completely destroy the stars, however, and so this event repeats over time. It can carry on for hundreds of thousands of years.
- Different nova events have different cycles, ranging from a few years to hundreds of thousands of years.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
What impact does higher temperature at high altitudes have on aircraft operations, particularly in places like Leh?- a)Increase in lift generation
- b)Decrease in engine thrust
- c)Shortening of runway length
- d)Enhancement of braking functionality
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What impact does higher temperature at high altitudes have on aircraft operations, particularly in places like Leh?
a)
Increase in lift generation
b)
Decrease in engine thrust
c)
Shortening of runway length
d)
Enhancement of braking functionality
|
Tarun Datta answered |
Impact of Higher Temperature at High Altitudes on Aircraft Operations
Increased temperatures at high altitudes, such as in places like Leh, can have various impacts on aircraft operations. One significant effect is a decrease in engine thrust, which is explained below:
Decrease in Engine Thrust
- As altitude increases, the air density decreases due to lower atmospheric pressure.
- With lower air density, the engine receives less oxygen per unit volume of air.
- The reduced oxygen intake affects the combustion process in the engine, leading to a decrease in engine performance.
- Consequently, the engine produces less thrust, resulting in reduced power output.
- This decrease in engine thrust can affect the aircraft's climb performance, acceleration, and overall efficiency.
In summary, the higher temperatures at high altitudes like Leh can lead to a decrease in engine thrust, impacting various aspects of aircraft operations. Pilots and aviation professionals need to consider these factors when operating in such challenging environments to ensure safe and efficient flights.
Increased temperatures at high altitudes, such as in places like Leh, can have various impacts on aircraft operations. One significant effect is a decrease in engine thrust, which is explained below:
Decrease in Engine Thrust
- As altitude increases, the air density decreases due to lower atmospheric pressure.
- With lower air density, the engine receives less oxygen per unit volume of air.
- The reduced oxygen intake affects the combustion process in the engine, leading to a decrease in engine performance.
- Consequently, the engine produces less thrust, resulting in reduced power output.
- This decrease in engine thrust can affect the aircraft's climb performance, acceleration, and overall efficiency.
In summary, the higher temperatures at high altitudes like Leh can lead to a decrease in engine thrust, impacting various aspects of aircraft operations. Pilots and aviation professionals need to consider these factors when operating in such challenging environments to ensure safe and efficient flights.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Golan Heights was captured by Israel during the Six-Day War in 1967 from Syria and has since been a point of contention between the two nations.
Statement-II:
Russia and Belarus were banned from the 2024 Paris Olympics due to the ongoing war in Ukraine and geopolitical tensions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- c)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
- d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Golan Heights was captured by Israel during the Six-Day War in 1967 from Syria and has since been a point of contention between the two nations.
The Golan Heights was captured by Israel during the Six-Day War in 1967 from Syria and has since been a point of contention between the two nations.
Statement-II:
Russia and Belarus were banned from the 2024 Paris Olympics due to the ongoing war in Ukraine and geopolitical tensions.
Russia and Belarus were banned from the 2024 Paris Olympics due to the ongoing war in Ukraine and geopolitical tensions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
c)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
d)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
Statement-I inaccurately suggests that the conflict between Israel and Hezbollah is linked to the Golan Heights, which is not the case. The conflict between Israel and Hezbollah primarily revolves around issues related to support for Palestinians, historical hostilities, and military capabilities. On the other hand, Statement-II correctly highlights the reason behind the ban of Russian and Belarusian athletes from the 2024 Paris Olympics, attributing it to the ongoing war in Ukraine and geopolitical tensions.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Geological Survey of India (GSI) discovered lithium inferred resources of 5.9 million tonnes in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district, marking a significant milestone.Statement-II:
The GSI identified another reserve of lithium in Degana, Rajasthan's Nagaur district, larger than the one in Jammu and Kashmir, potentially meeting 80% of India's lithium demand.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Geological Survey of India (GSI) discovered lithium inferred resources of 5.9 million tonnes in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district, marking a significant milestone.
The Geological Survey of India (GSI) discovered lithium inferred resources of 5.9 million tonnes in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district, marking a significant milestone.
Statement-II:
The GSI identified another reserve of lithium in Degana, Rajasthan's Nagaur district, larger than the one in Jammu and Kashmir, potentially meeting 80% of India's lithium demand.
The GSI identified another reserve of lithium in Degana, Rajasthan's Nagaur district, larger than the one in Jammu and Kashmir, potentially meeting 80% of India's lithium demand.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Mayank Joshi answered |
Analysis of Statements
When evaluating the two statements provided, it is essential to understand the context and significance of each.
Statement-I: Discovery in Jammu and Kashmir
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) indeed discovered lithium inferred resources of 5.9 million tonnes in Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir.
- This marks a significant milestone for India, as lithium is critical for battery production, particularly for electric vehicles and renewable energy storage.
Statement-II: Discovery in Rajasthan
- GSI also identified another lithium reserve in Degana, Nagaur district, Rajasthan.
- This reserve is reported to be larger than the one in Jammu and Kashmir and has the potential to meet about 80% of India's lithium demand.
- This statement emphasizes the importance of Rajasthan's discovery in addressing India's growing energy needs.
Correctness of Statements
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are factual and correct.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. Instead, it provides additional information about another significant lithium discovery that complements the first.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- This illustrates India's progress in lithium resource identification, crucial for enhancing energy independence and supporting the transition to sustainable energy.
When evaluating the two statements provided, it is essential to understand the context and significance of each.
Statement-I: Discovery in Jammu and Kashmir
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) indeed discovered lithium inferred resources of 5.9 million tonnes in Reasi district, Jammu and Kashmir.
- This marks a significant milestone for India, as lithium is critical for battery production, particularly for electric vehicles and renewable energy storage.
Statement-II: Discovery in Rajasthan
- GSI also identified another lithium reserve in Degana, Nagaur district, Rajasthan.
- This reserve is reported to be larger than the one in Jammu and Kashmir and has the potential to meet about 80% of India's lithium demand.
- This statement emphasizes the importance of Rajasthan's discovery in addressing India's growing energy needs.
Correctness of Statements
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are factual and correct.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. Instead, it provides additional information about another significant lithium discovery that complements the first.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- This illustrates India's progress in lithium resource identification, crucial for enhancing energy independence and supporting the transition to sustainable energy.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The E-Upahaar Portal is an initiative aimed at auctioning gift items presented to the President and former Presidents of India for noble causes.
Statement-II:
The Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre focuses on disaster risk reduction and climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- c)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The E-Upahaar Portal is an initiative aimed at auctioning gift items presented to the President and former Presidents of India for noble causes.
The E-Upahaar Portal is an initiative aimed at auctioning gift items presented to the President and former Presidents of India for noble causes.
Statement-II:
The Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre focuses on disaster risk reduction and climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region.
The Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre focuses on disaster risk reduction and climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
c)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Nidhi Deshpande answered |
Explanation:
Statement-I:
- The E-Upahaar Portal is an initiative aimed at auctioning gift items presented to the President and former Presidents of India for noble causes. This statement is correct as the E-Upahaar Portal is indeed established for this purpose.
Statement-II:
- The Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre focuses on disaster risk reduction and climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region. This statement is also correct as the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre is a renowned organization that works towards disaster risk reduction and climate resilience in the mentioned regions.
Therefore, option 'C' is the correct answer as both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not provide an explanation for Statement-I.
Statement-I:
- The E-Upahaar Portal is an initiative aimed at auctioning gift items presented to the President and former Presidents of India for noble causes. This statement is correct as the E-Upahaar Portal is indeed established for this purpose.
Statement-II:
- The Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre focuses on disaster risk reduction and climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region. This statement is also correct as the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre is a renowned organization that works towards disaster risk reduction and climate resilience in the mentioned regions.
Therefore, option 'C' is the correct answer as both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not provide an explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The government's expenditure on infrastructure as a share of the total budget remains steady at 13.9% in the financial year 2024-25.
Statement-II:
The Ministry of Roads, Transport, and Highways has received an allocation of ₹2.78 lakh crore for the financial year 2024-25.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- c)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The government's expenditure on infrastructure as a share of the total budget remains steady at 13.9% in the financial year 2024-25.
The government's expenditure on infrastructure as a share of the total budget remains steady at 13.9% in the financial year 2024-25.
Statement-II:
The Ministry of Roads, Transport, and Highways has received an allocation of ₹2.78 lakh crore for the financial year 2024-25.
The Ministry of Roads, Transport, and Highways has received an allocation of ₹2.78 lakh crore for the financial year 2024-25.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
c)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
Statement-I correctly mentions that the government's expenditure on infrastructure stands at 13.9% of the total budget for the fiscal year 2024-25, as per the given information. However, Statement-II is incorrect as the Ministry of Roads, Transport, and Highways has been allocated ₹2.78 lakh crore for the financial year 2024-25, not ₹2.55 lakh crore as stated in the statement. Hence, while Statement-I is accurate, Statement-II is inaccurate based on the provided details.
What could be a potential outcome of a Labour election win on the India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?- a)Increased tariffs on goods
- b)Enhanced market access for both countries
- c)Stagnation in economic growth
- d)Decreased political cooperation between India and the UK
Correct answer is option 'OPTIONB'. Can you explain this answer?
What could be a potential outcome of a Labour election win on the India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?
a)
Increased tariffs on goods
b)
Enhanced market access for both countries
c)
Stagnation in economic growth
d)
Decreased political cooperation between India and the UK
OPTIONB
'. Can you explain this answer?
|
Innovative Classes answered |
A Labour election win in the UK could have implications for the India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA), potentially leading to enhanced market access for industries in both countries. This could particularly benefit India's IT and services sectors seeking expanded opportunities in the UK market. Political relations could also see a positive impact as economic ties strengthen, potentially fostering closer cooperation between India and the UK on international platforms.
Consider the following statements:1. The Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973, governs coal mining eligibility in India.2. Illegal coal mining in India is primarily a federal law and order issue.3. Factors contributing to illegal coal mining include high demand for power and inadequate monitoring in remote regions.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973, governs coal mining eligibility in India.
2. Illegal coal mining in India is primarily a federal law and order issue.
3. Factors contributing to illegal coal mining include high demand for power and inadequate monitoring in remote regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Gitanjali Roy answered |
The correct answer is option 'C': 1 and 3 Only.
Explanation:
1. The Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973:
The Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 is the primary legislation governing coal mining eligibility in India. This Act nationalized coal mines and vested the control of coal mining operations in the Central Government. It sets the framework for the regulation and management of coal mining activities in the country.
2. Illegal coal mining as a federal law and order issue:
Illegal coal mining in India is primarily a state law and order issue rather than a federal one. The enforcement of laws related to illegal mining falls under the jurisdiction of state governments. States are responsible for taking action against illegal coal mining operations within their boundaries.
3. Factors contributing to illegal coal mining:
Factors contributing to illegal coal mining in India include high demand for power and inadequate monitoring in remote regions. The growing demand for energy has led to an increase in coal mining activities, both legal and illegal. In remote areas where monitoring and enforcement are challenging, illegal mining operations often go unchecked.
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as it highlights the legal framework governing coal mining in India. Statement 3 is also correct as it identifies key factors contributing to the issue of illegal coal mining in the country. However, statement 2 is not entirely accurate as illegal coal mining is primarily a state law and order issue, not a federal one.
Explanation:
1. The Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973:
The Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 is the primary legislation governing coal mining eligibility in India. This Act nationalized coal mines and vested the control of coal mining operations in the Central Government. It sets the framework for the regulation and management of coal mining activities in the country.
2. Illegal coal mining as a federal law and order issue:
Illegal coal mining in India is primarily a state law and order issue rather than a federal one. The enforcement of laws related to illegal mining falls under the jurisdiction of state governments. States are responsible for taking action against illegal coal mining operations within their boundaries.
3. Factors contributing to illegal coal mining:
Factors contributing to illegal coal mining in India include high demand for power and inadequate monitoring in remote regions. The growing demand for energy has led to an increase in coal mining activities, both legal and illegal. In remote areas where monitoring and enforcement are challenging, illegal mining operations often go unchecked.
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as it highlights the legal framework governing coal mining in India. Statement 3 is also correct as it identifies key factors contributing to the issue of illegal coal mining in the country. However, statement 2 is not entirely accurate as illegal coal mining is primarily a state law and order issue, not a federal one.
What is the primary purpose of the DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number) system introduced by the Department of Posts in India?- a)To create a National Addressing Grid for simplified address solutions
- b)To enhance the efficiency of postal deliveries
- c)To establish a new postal service in India
- d)To digitize traditional postal services
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number) system introduced by the Department of Posts in India?
a)
To create a National Addressing Grid for simplified address solutions
b)
To enhance the efficiency of postal deliveries
c)
To establish a new postal service in India
d)
To digitize traditional postal services
|
K.L Institute answered |
The primary goal of the DIGIPIN system is to establish a geo-coded addressing system throughout India, creating a National Addressing Grid to simplify address solutions for the seamless delivery of public and private services to citizens. By assigning unique codes to locations, DIGIPIN enhances address accuracy and accessibility, supporting India's digital transformation of postal services.
Note: The DIGIPIN system, a collaboration between the Department of Posts and IIT Hyderabad, aims to revolutionize address systems in India, facilitating more efficient and precise postal services.
What is the primary objective of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) project in India?- a)Enhancing the export potential of Indian defense technology
- b)Developing a sixth-generation fighter jet for the Indian Air Force
- c)Elevating India's status among nations with indigenous fifth-generation aircraft
- d)Establishing a joint military venture with international defense majors
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) project in India?
a)
Enhancing the export potential of Indian defense technology
b)
Developing a sixth-generation fighter jet for the Indian Air Force
c)
Elevating India's status among nations with indigenous fifth-generation aircraft
d)
Establishing a joint military venture with international defense majors
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
The main goal of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) project in India is to position the country among nations with their own fifth-generation aircraft. This initiative marks a significant step in indigenous defense technology, distinct from the 4.5-generation Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas. By developing the AMCA, India aims to enhance its defense capabilities and strategic positioning in the global military landscape.
Consider the following statements regarding India-Austria bilateral relations:1. India and Austria established diplomatic relations in 1979.2. The trade volume between India and Austria has been declining in recent years.3. India and Austria collaborate in various international organizations such as the United Nations.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding India-Austria bilateral relations:
1. India and Austria established diplomatic relations in 1979.
2. The trade volume between India and Austria has been declining in recent years.
3. India and Austria collaborate in various international organizations such as the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Valor Academy answered |
- Statement 1 is incorrect because India and Austria established diplomatic relations in 1949, not 1979.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the trade volume between India and Austria has been growing steadily, not declining.
- Statement 3 is correct as both countries collaborate in various international organizations such as the United Nations, focusing on issues like climate change, sustainable development, and global peace.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 3 Only.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
GAINS 2024 aims to address challenges in shipyards and promote technology development through startups nurtured in the country.
Statement-II:
The ADITI Scheme (2024) targets the development of approximately 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies within the proposed timeframe.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
GAINS 2024 aims to address challenges in shipyards and promote technology development through startups nurtured in the country.
Statement-II:
The ADITI Scheme (2024) targets the development of approximately 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies within the proposed timeframe.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
GAINS 2024 aims to address challenges in shipyards and promote technology development through startups nurtured in the country.
Statement-II:
The ADITI Scheme (2024) targets the development of approximately 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies within the proposed timeframe.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Statement-I correctly describes the objective of the GAINS 2024 scheme, which aims to address challenges in shipyards and promote technology development through startups nurtured in the country. On the other hand, Statement-II incorrectly associates the ADITI Scheme with targeting the development of deep-tech critical and strategic technologies. The ADITI Scheme actually focuses on enhancing technology development in shipyards, not on specific deep-tech technologies. This disconnect makes Statement-II incorrect, leading to the correct answer being option C.
According to the news, what was the key argument made by the State of West Bengal in their lawsuit against the Union Government regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?- a)Violation of state government's rights
- b)Misuse of investigative powers
- c)Constitutional overreach by the Union Government
- d)Lack of accountability in CBI operations
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
According to the news, what was the key argument made by the State of West Bengal in their lawsuit against the Union Government regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?
a)
Violation of state government's rights
b)
Misuse of investigative powers
c)
Constitutional overreach by the Union Government
d)
Lack of accountability in CBI operations
|
T.S Academy answered |
The State of West Bengal in their lawsuit against the Union Government primarily argued about "constitutional overreach" by the Union Government in deploying the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) without obtaining prior consent. This case highlights the ongoing debate about the balance of power between the central and state governments and the issue of federal principles as enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
What triggered the significant outage in Microsoft's cloud services on July 19, impacting various sectors globally?- a)A cybersecurity attack on Microsoft's servers
- b)A configuration change in part of Microsoft's Azure backend workloads
- c)A hardware failure in Microsoft's data centers
- d)A software update issued by Microsoft
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What triggered the significant outage in Microsoft's cloud services on July 19, impacting various sectors globally?
a)
A cybersecurity attack on Microsoft's servers
b)
A configuration change in part of Microsoft's Azure backend workloads
c)
A hardware failure in Microsoft's data centers
d)
A software update issued by Microsoft
|
Divey Sethi answered |
The significant outage in Microsoft's cloud services on July 19 was triggered by a configuration change in part of Microsoft's Azure backend workloads. This change led to connectivity failures affecting Microsoft 365 services, causing disruptions across various industries worldwide. Such incidents highlight the critical importance of maintaining robust and carefully managed cloud infrastructure to prevent widespread service interruptions.
Consider the following statements:1. Higher temperatures at high altitudes cause air to be less dense, leading to reduced lift for aircraft.2. Aircraft wings generate lift due to the faster airspeed over the top surface compared to the bottom surface, as explained by Bernoulli's principle.3. Higher temperatures increase the density of air, which in turn enhances the engine performance of aircraft.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Higher temperatures at high altitudes cause air to be less dense, leading to reduced lift for aircraft.
2. Aircraft wings generate lift due to the faster airspeed over the top surface compared to the bottom surface, as explained by Bernoulli's principle.
3. Higher temperatures increase the density of air, which in turn enhances the engine performance of aircraft.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
1. Higher temperatures at high altitudes cause air to be less dense, leading to reduced lift for aircraft: This statement is correct. Higher temperatures cause the air to expand, reducing its density. As a result, there are fewer air molecules beneath the aircraft's wings, which reduces the lift generated.
2. Aircraft wings generate lift due to the faster airspeed over the top surface compared to the bottom surface, as explained by Bernoulli's principle: This statement is also correct. Bernoulli's principle states that within a horizontal flow of fluid, points of higher fluid speed will have less pressure than points of slower fluid speed. This principle explains why the air pressure above the wing is lower than below, creating lift.
3. Higher temperatures increase the density of air, which in turn enhances the engine performance of aircraft: This statement is incorrect. Higher temperatures actually decrease the density of air, which adversely affects engine performance by reducing the amount of oxygen available for combustion, thereby decreasing thrust.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The right to shelter is not explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution.Statement-II:
The Supreme Court has consistently upheld the right to shelter as a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The right to shelter is not explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution.
The right to shelter is not explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution.
Statement-II:
The Supreme Court has consistently upheld the right to shelter as a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Supreme Court has consistently upheld the right to shelter as a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
Statement-I suggests that the right to shelter is not explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution, which is correct. The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the right to shelter as a Fundamental Right.
Statement-II correctly points out that the Supreme Court has consistently upheld the right to shelter as a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution. Judicial pronouncements, such as Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation and Chameli Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh, have recognized the right to shelter as an integral part of the right to life guaranteed by Article 21.
Therefore, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II logically explains Statement-I, making option (a) the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The gig economy primarily consists of long-term employment opportunities provided by large corporations.
Statement-II:
Gig workers in India predominantly earn higher incomes compared to traditional full-time employees.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
- d)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The gig economy primarily consists of long-term employment opportunities provided by large corporations.
The gig economy primarily consists of long-term employment opportunities provided by large corporations.
Statement-II:
Gig workers in India predominantly earn higher incomes compared to traditional full-time employees.
Gig workers in India predominantly earn higher incomes compared to traditional full-time employees.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
d)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
|
BT Educators answered |
Statement-I accurately defines the gig economy as a free market system where organizations hire or contract workers for a short span of time, differing from traditional long-term employment. This aligns with the characteristics of gig work mentioned in the provided source material. However, Statement-II is incorrect as gig workers, especially in India, often face challenges such as low wages and lack of benefits, indicating that they may not necessarily earn higher incomes compared to traditional full-time employees.
Consider the following statements regarding the Tell Umm Amer Heritage site and UNESCO:1. Tell Umm Amer Heritage site is situated in the Nuseirat Municipality, approximately 10 km south of Gaza city.2. The Monastery of Saint Hilarion at Tell Umm Amer was established in the fourth century CE by Hilarion the Great.3. UNESCO was established in 1945 with the headquarters located in Geneva, Switzerland.- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Tell Umm Amer Heritage site and UNESCO:
1. Tell Umm Amer Heritage site is situated in the Nuseirat Municipality, approximately 10 km south of Gaza city.
2. The Monastery of Saint Hilarion at Tell Umm Amer was established in the fourth century CE by Hilarion the Great.
3. UNESCO was established in 1945 with the headquarters located in Geneva, Switzerland.
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Statement 1: Correct. Tell Umm Amer Heritage site is indeed located on the sandy shores of the Nuseirat Municipality, about 10 km south of Gaza city.
- Statement 2: Correct. The Monastery of Saint Hilarion at Tell Umm Amer was indeed established in the fourth century CE by Hilarion the Great.
- Statement 3: Incorrect. UNESCO was established in 1946, not 1945, and its headquarters are in Paris, France, not Geneva, Switzerland.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 only.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
India is projected to have a population of 1.7 billion by 2064, which will then stabilize at 1.53 billion by 2100.
Statement-II:
There is a significant correlation between levels of education and unmet needs for family planning among married women in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'OPTIONA'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India is projected to have a population of 1.7 billion by 2064, which will then stabilize at 1.53 billion by 2100.
Statement-II:
There is a significant correlation between levels of education and unmet needs for family planning among married women in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
India is projected to have a population of 1.7 billion by 2064, which will then stabilize at 1.53 billion by 2100.
Statement-II:
There is a significant correlation between levels of education and unmet needs for family planning among married women in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Akshara Basak answered |
Statement Analysis:
Statement-I:
India is projected to have a population of 1.7 billion by 2064, which will then stabilize at 1.53 billion by 2100.
Statement-II:
There is a significant correlation between levels of education and unmet needs for family planning among married women in India.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
Option A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
- Statement-I provides a projection of India's population growth, indicating an increase to 1.7 billion by 2064, followed by stabilization at 1.53 billion by 2100. This is based on demographic trends and studies.
- Statement-II highlights the correlation between education levels and unmet family planning needs among married women in India. This correlation suggests that higher education levels may lead to better family planning practices.
- The two statements are not directly related, but both are factually correct. The education levels mentioned in Statement-II could potentially impact the population growth projections mentioned in Statement-I, as education often influences family planning decisions. Hence, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides insight into how education levels can affect population trends.
Statement-I:
India is projected to have a population of 1.7 billion by 2064, which will then stabilize at 1.53 billion by 2100.
Statement-II:
There is a significant correlation between levels of education and unmet needs for family planning among married women in India.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
Option A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
- Statement-I provides a projection of India's population growth, indicating an increase to 1.7 billion by 2064, followed by stabilization at 1.53 billion by 2100. This is based on demographic trends and studies.
- Statement-II highlights the correlation between education levels and unmet family planning needs among married women in India. This correlation suggests that higher education levels may lead to better family planning practices.
- The two statements are not directly related, but both are factually correct. The education levels mentioned in Statement-II could potentially impact the population growth projections mentioned in Statement-I, as education often influences family planning decisions. Hence, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides insight into how education levels can affect population trends.
What framework did the Reserve Bank of India announce for the period 2024-27 to facilitate currency swaps with neighbouring countries?- a)SAARC
- b)ASEAN
- c)NAFTA
- d)EU
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What framework did the Reserve Bank of India announce for the period 2024-27 to facilitate currency swaps with neighbouring countries?
a)
SAARC
b)
ASEAN
c)
NAFTA
d)
EU
|
|
Shambavi garg answered |
SAARC Framework for Currency Swaps
The Reserve Bank of India announced a SAARC framework for the period 2024-27 to facilitate currency swaps with neighboring countries. This initiative aims to strengthen financial cooperation and promote economic stability among SAARC member nations.
Benefits of SAARC Currency Swaps
- Enhanced liquidity management: The framework will enable member countries to access each other's currencies during times of need, improving liquidity management.
- Trade facilitation: Currency swaps can help facilitate smoother trade transactions by reducing exchange rate risks and transaction costs.
- Economic stability: By promoting regional financial integration, the SAARC framework can contribute to greater economic stability in the region.
Facilitating Regional Cooperation
The SAARC framework for currency swaps underscores the importance of regional cooperation in promoting economic growth and stability. It reflects the commitment of SAARC member nations to work together towards common goals and objectives.
Promoting Financial Inclusion
Currency swaps can also help promote financial inclusion by providing greater access to financial resources for businesses and individuals in SAARC countries. This can lead to increased investment, job creation, and overall economic development in the region.
In conclusion, the SAARC framework for currency swaps announced by the Reserve Bank of India is a significant step towards enhancing financial cooperation and promoting economic stability among neighboring countries. It highlights the importance of regional collaboration in achieving common economic objectives and fostering greater financial integration in the SAARC region.
The Reserve Bank of India announced a SAARC framework for the period 2024-27 to facilitate currency swaps with neighboring countries. This initiative aims to strengthen financial cooperation and promote economic stability among SAARC member nations.
Benefits of SAARC Currency Swaps
- Enhanced liquidity management: The framework will enable member countries to access each other's currencies during times of need, improving liquidity management.
- Trade facilitation: Currency swaps can help facilitate smoother trade transactions by reducing exchange rate risks and transaction costs.
- Economic stability: By promoting regional financial integration, the SAARC framework can contribute to greater economic stability in the region.
Facilitating Regional Cooperation
The SAARC framework for currency swaps underscores the importance of regional cooperation in promoting economic growth and stability. It reflects the commitment of SAARC member nations to work together towards common goals and objectives.
Promoting Financial Inclusion
Currency swaps can also help promote financial inclusion by providing greater access to financial resources for businesses and individuals in SAARC countries. This can lead to increased investment, job creation, and overall economic development in the region.
In conclusion, the SAARC framework for currency swaps announced by the Reserve Bank of India is a significant step towards enhancing financial cooperation and promoting economic stability among neighboring countries. It highlights the importance of regional collaboration in achieving common economic objectives and fostering greater financial integration in the SAARC region.
When is National Statistics Day celebrated annually in India?- a)June 28
- b)June 30
- c)June 29
- d)July 1
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
When is National Statistics Day celebrated annually in India?
a)
June 28
b)
June 30
c)
June 29
d)
July 1
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
National Statistics Day is celebrated in India every year on June 29th to honour the birth anniversary of Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, a pioneer in statistics and economics. The day emphasizes the importance of accurate data in shaping socio-economic policies and decision-making processes. In 2024, the theme is “Use of data for decision-making,” highlighting the critical role statistics play in informed governance and development planning.
Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN):
1. The Digital Bharat Nidhi is a reformation of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) which was established in 2003.
2. Funds collected under the Digital Bharat Nidhi will be directly credited to the Digital Bharat Nidhi without passing through the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Digital Bharat Nidhi aims to promote access to telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas, and support research and development in telecommunication technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 3 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN):
1. The Digital Bharat Nidhi is a reformation of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) which was established in 2003.
2. Funds collected under the Digital Bharat Nidhi will be directly credited to the Digital Bharat Nidhi without passing through the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Digital Bharat Nidhi aims to promote access to telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas, and support research and development in telecommunication technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Digital Bharat Nidhi is a reformation of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) which was established in 2003.
2. Funds collected under the Digital Bharat Nidhi will be directly credited to the Digital Bharat Nidhi without passing through the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Digital Bharat Nidhi aims to promote access to telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas, and support research and development in telecommunication technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 3 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Anjali Khanna answered |
Understanding Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN)
The Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) represents a significant shift in India's approach to enhancing telecommunications in underserved areas. Let's examine the statements regarding DBN:
Statement 1: Reformation of USOF
- The Digital Bharat Nidhi is indeed a reformation of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) established in 2003.
- This indicates a continuity of purpose, aiming to bridge the digital divide.
Statement 2: Funding Procedure
- Funds collected under the DBN will be directly credited to it without passing through the Consolidated Fund of India.
- This statement is incorrect as funds typically go through the Consolidated Fund before allocation, reflecting standard governmental financial procedures.
Statement 3: Aims and Objectives
- The DBN aims to promote access to telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas.
- It also supports research and development in telecommunication technologies, indicating its comprehensive focus on enhancing connectivity and innovation.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, only Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Thus, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that 1 and 3 are correct.
- This highlights the DBN’s role in fostering equitable access to telecommunications while reforming existing frameworks to better serve the population.
The Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) represents a significant shift in India's approach to enhancing telecommunications in underserved areas. Let's examine the statements regarding DBN:
Statement 1: Reformation of USOF
- The Digital Bharat Nidhi is indeed a reformation of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) established in 2003.
- This indicates a continuity of purpose, aiming to bridge the digital divide.
Statement 2: Funding Procedure
- Funds collected under the DBN will be directly credited to it without passing through the Consolidated Fund of India.
- This statement is incorrect as funds typically go through the Consolidated Fund before allocation, reflecting standard governmental financial procedures.
Statement 3: Aims and Objectives
- The DBN aims to promote access to telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas.
- It also supports research and development in telecommunication technologies, indicating its comprehensive focus on enhancing connectivity and innovation.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, only Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Thus, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that 1 and 3 are correct.
- This highlights the DBN’s role in fostering equitable access to telecommunications while reforming existing frameworks to better serve the population.
Consider the following statements:1. The allocation for the Department of Health and Family Welfare in the Budget 2024 has increased by ₹1,500 crore.2. The allocation for the POSHAN Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 is ₹12,467 crore, which is higher than the actual expenditure in 2022-23.3. The allocation for the Saksham Anganwadi Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 has increased, but there has been no increase in the salaries for Anganwadi workers.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 3 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The allocation for the Department of Health and Family Welfare in the Budget 2024 has increased by ₹1,500 crore.
2. The allocation for the POSHAN Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 is ₹12,467 crore, which is higher than the actual expenditure in 2022-23.
3. The allocation for the Saksham Anganwadi Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 has increased, but there has been no increase in the salaries for Anganwadi workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 3 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Tanishq Sengupta answered |
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1:
- The allocation for the Department of Health and Family Welfare in the Budget 2024 has increased by ₹1,500 crore.
Statement 2:
- The allocation for the POSHAN Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 is ₹12,467 crore, which is higher than the actual expenditure in 2022-23.
Statement 3:
- The allocation for the Saksham Anganwadi Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 has increased, but there has been no increase in the salaries for Anganwadi workers.
Analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct as it mentions an increase in the allocation for the Department of Health and Family Welfare in the Budget 2024.
- Statement 2 is correct as it states that the allocation for the POSHAN Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 is higher than the actual expenditure in 2022-23.
- Statement 3 is correct as it highlights an increase in the allocation for the Saksham Anganwadi Scheme without a corresponding increase in the salaries for Anganwadi workers.
Correct Answer:
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 1 and 3 Only.
Statement 1:
- The allocation for the Department of Health and Family Welfare in the Budget 2024 has increased by ₹1,500 crore.
Statement 2:
- The allocation for the POSHAN Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 is ₹12,467 crore, which is higher than the actual expenditure in 2022-23.
Statement 3:
- The allocation for the Saksham Anganwadi Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 has increased, but there has been no increase in the salaries for Anganwadi workers.
Analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct as it mentions an increase in the allocation for the Department of Health and Family Welfare in the Budget 2024.
- Statement 2 is correct as it states that the allocation for the POSHAN Scheme in the Budget 2024-25 is higher than the actual expenditure in 2022-23.
- Statement 3 is correct as it highlights an increase in the allocation for the Saksham Anganwadi Scheme without a corresponding increase in the salaries for Anganwadi workers.
Correct Answer:
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 1 and 3 Only.
What is the purpose of Article 361 of the Indian Constitution?- a)To grant immunity to the President of India
- b)To provide immunity to the Governor of a State
- c)To ensure judicial review of actions by high office holders
- d)To establish guidelines for criminal prosecutions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the purpose of Article 361 of the Indian Constitution?
a)
To grant immunity to the President of India
b)
To provide immunity to the Governor of a State
c)
To ensure judicial review of actions by high office holders
d)
To establish guidelines for criminal prosecutions
|
Shounak Malik answered |
Article 361 of the Indian Constitution
Purpose:
- The purpose of Article 361 of the Indian Constitution is to provide immunity to the Governor of a State.
Immunity to the Governor:
- Article 361 grants immunity to the Governor from being sued or prosecuted in any court during their term of office.
- This immunity is provided to ensure that the Governor can perform their duties without fear of legal repercussions.
Scope of Immunity:
- The immunity under Article 361 extends to acts done in the exercise of the Governor's powers and duties.
- It covers both official acts and personal acts, as long as they are connected to the Governor's office.
Limits to Immunity:
- The immunity under Article 361 is not absolute, as it does not protect the Governor from impeachment by the state legislature.
- It also does not shield the Governor from prosecution after they have ceased to hold office.
Significance:
- The immunity provided under Article 361 helps maintain the independence and impartiality of the Governor's office.
- It ensures that the Governor can discharge their constitutional duties without being unduly influenced by the threat of legal action.
In conclusion, Article 361 of the Indian Constitution plays a crucial role in safeguarding the functioning of the Governor of a State by providing them with immunity from legal proceedings during their term in office.
Purpose:
- The purpose of Article 361 of the Indian Constitution is to provide immunity to the Governor of a State.
Immunity to the Governor:
- Article 361 grants immunity to the Governor from being sued or prosecuted in any court during their term of office.
- This immunity is provided to ensure that the Governor can perform their duties without fear of legal repercussions.
Scope of Immunity:
- The immunity under Article 361 extends to acts done in the exercise of the Governor's powers and duties.
- It covers both official acts and personal acts, as long as they are connected to the Governor's office.
Limits to Immunity:
- The immunity under Article 361 is not absolute, as it does not protect the Governor from impeachment by the state legislature.
- It also does not shield the Governor from prosecution after they have ceased to hold office.
Significance:
- The immunity provided under Article 361 helps maintain the independence and impartiality of the Governor's office.
- It ensures that the Governor can discharge their constitutional duties without being unduly influenced by the threat of legal action.
In conclusion, Article 361 of the Indian Constitution plays a crucial role in safeguarding the functioning of the Governor of a State by providing them with immunity from legal proceedings during their term in office.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Bhil tribe is primarily divided into two groups: central and eastern or Rajput Bhils.Statement-II:
The Bhil tribe primarily resides in the southern regions of India.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Bhil tribe is primarily divided into two groups: central and eastern or Rajput Bhils.
The Bhil tribe is primarily divided into two groups: central and eastern or Rajput Bhils.
Statement-II:
The Bhil tribe primarily resides in the southern regions of India.
The Bhil tribe primarily resides in the southern regions of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Innovative Classes answered |
Statement-I correctly highlights the division within the Bhil tribe into central and eastern or Rajput Bhils. This division is known within the Bhil community. However, Statement-II is incorrect as the Bhil tribe primarily resides in the western regions of India, such as Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Rajasthan, with some presence in northeastern Tripura. The statement about the southern region is inaccurate in regard to the Bhil tribe's primary settlements.
Consider the following pairs regarding the plenums of the Chinese Communist Party:1. 1st Plenum: Focuses on long-term economic reforms2. 3rd Plenum: Centers on party ideology3. 5th Plenum: Associated with deliberations for the country's five-year development plans4. 6th Plenum: Typically focuses on power transitions between Central CommitteesHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the plenums of the Chinese Communist Party:
1. 1st Plenum: Focuses on long-term economic reforms
2. 3rd Plenum: Centers on party ideology
3. 5th Plenum: Associated with deliberations for the country's five-year development plans
4. 6th Plenum: Typically focuses on power transitions between Central Committees
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Megha Sarkar answered |
Analysis of the pairs regarding the plenums of the Chinese Communist Party:
1st Plenum: Focuses on long-term economic reforms
The 1st Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party typically focuses on setting the agenda for long-term economic reforms. This plenum is crucial in outlining the economic policies and goals that the party aims to achieve over an extended period.
3rd Plenum: Centers on party ideology
The 3rd Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party is known for its emphasis on party ideology. During this plenum, discussions and decisions are made regarding the core beliefs, principles, and values that guide the party's actions and policies.
5th Plenum: Associated with deliberations for the country's five-year development plans
The 5th Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party is closely linked to the country's five-year development plans. This plenum focuses on evaluating the progress made towards achieving the goals set in the previous plans and developing strategies for the upcoming five-year period.
6th Plenum: Typically focuses on power transitions between Central Committees
The 6th Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party is usually dedicated to discussions on power transitions between Central Committees. During this plenum, the party may address leadership changes, appointments, and other organizational matters related to the Central Committees.
Therefore, upon analyzing the pairs given, it is evident that only the first pair regarding the 1st Plenum focusing on long-term economic reforms is correctly matched. The other pairs do not accurately reflect the typical focus or agenda of the respective plenums of the Chinese Communist Party.
1st Plenum: Focuses on long-term economic reforms
The 1st Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party typically focuses on setting the agenda for long-term economic reforms. This plenum is crucial in outlining the economic policies and goals that the party aims to achieve over an extended period.
3rd Plenum: Centers on party ideology
The 3rd Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party is known for its emphasis on party ideology. During this plenum, discussions and decisions are made regarding the core beliefs, principles, and values that guide the party's actions and policies.
5th Plenum: Associated with deliberations for the country's five-year development plans
The 5th Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party is closely linked to the country's five-year development plans. This plenum focuses on evaluating the progress made towards achieving the goals set in the previous plans and developing strategies for the upcoming five-year period.
6th Plenum: Typically focuses on power transitions between Central Committees
The 6th Plenum of the Chinese Communist Party is usually dedicated to discussions on power transitions between Central Committees. During this plenum, the party may address leadership changes, appointments, and other organizational matters related to the Central Committees.
Therefore, upon analyzing the pairs given, it is evident that only the first pair regarding the 1st Plenum focusing on long-term economic reforms is correctly matched. The other pairs do not accurately reflect the typical focus or agenda of the respective plenums of the Chinese Communist Party.
What is the primary historical significance of the collaboration between ISRO and NASA for the Axiom-4 mission?- a)Marks a milestone in India's technological advancements
- b)Demonstrates India's progress in satellite technology
- c)Shows increasing cooperation in space exploration between ISRO and NASA
- d)Highlights India's achievements in Mars exploration
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary historical significance of the collaboration between ISRO and NASA for the Axiom-4 mission?
a)
Marks a milestone in India's technological advancements
b)
Demonstrates India's progress in satellite technology
c)
Shows increasing cooperation in space exploration between ISRO and NASA
d)
Highlights India's achievements in Mars exploration
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
The collaboration between ISRO and NASA for the Axiom-4 mission primarily signifies the growing cooperation in space exploration between the two organizations. This partnership highlights the shared goals and mutual benefits of international collaboration in the realm of space exploration and underscores India's commitment to advancing its capabilities in space technology through strategic partnerships.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The strange matter phase, known as a time crystal, was created by firing lasers at rubidium atoms until they ballooned into an excited form.
Statement-II:
CHAPEA stands for Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- c)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The strange matter phase, known as a time crystal, was created by firing lasers at rubidium atoms until they ballooned into an excited form.
Statement-II:
CHAPEA stands for Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog.
The strange matter phase, known as a time crystal, was created by firing lasers at rubidium atoms until they ballooned into an excited form.
Statement-II:
CHAPEA stands for Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
c)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Upasana Mehta answered |
Explanation:
Statement-I: Physicists have created an 'Impossible' Time Crystal by Blasting Atoms Into Balloons
- This statement is incorrect. Time crystals are hypothetical structures that have movement that repeats periodically, just like spatial crystals do in space. However, creating a time crystal by blasting atoms into balloons is not a scientifically recognized method.
Statement-II: CHAPEA stands for Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog
- This statement is correct. CHAPEA is indeed an abbreviation for Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog. It is a research facility that helps NASA study the effects of isolation, confinement, and remote conditions on human health and performance.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
- Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Statement-I: Physicists have created an 'Impossible' Time Crystal by Blasting Atoms Into Balloons
- This statement is incorrect. Time crystals are hypothetical structures that have movement that repeats periodically, just like spatial crystals do in space. However, creating a time crystal by blasting atoms into balloons is not a scientifically recognized method.
Statement-II: CHAPEA stands for Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog
- This statement is correct. CHAPEA is indeed an abbreviation for Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog. It is a research facility that helps NASA study the effects of isolation, confinement, and remote conditions on human health and performance.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
- Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
What is the primary aim of India's efforts to enhance bilateral trade with Russia and the initiatives to internationalize the rupee?- a)To reduce India's dependence on the US dollar
- b)To increase India's oil imports
- c)To strengthen trade relations with China
- d)To achieve self-sufficiency in petroleum products
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary aim of India's efforts to enhance bilateral trade with Russia and the initiatives to internationalize the rupee?
a)
To reduce India's dependence on the US dollar
b)
To increase India's oil imports
c)
To strengthen trade relations with China
d)
To achieve self-sufficiency in petroleum products
|
Aryan Jain answered |
Primary Aim of Enhancing Bilateral Trade with Russia
India's efforts to enhance bilateral trade with Russia and internationalize the rupee are fundamentally aimed at reducing reliance on the US dollar. This strategy aligns with broader economic goals and geopolitical considerations.
Key Reasons for This Approach:
- Economic Independence: Reducing dependence on the US dollar can shield India from volatile currency fluctuations and sanctions that may arise from geopolitical tensions involving the U.S.
- Strengthening Trade Relations: By enhancing trade with Russia, India can diversify its trading partners and create a more balanced economic relationship, minimizing the risks associated with over-reliance on any single currency or country.
- Facilitating International Trade: Internationalizing the rupee allows for easier transactions in trade, especially with countries that may be looking to bypass the dollar for their trade. This can enhance India's position in global trade networks.
- Bolstering Energy Security: Given that Russia is a significant supplier of oil and gas, strengthening trade relations can ensure a stable energy supply for India, while also allowing payments in rupees, thus reducing dollar dependency.
Conclusion:
In summary, the primary aim of India's initiatives is to create a more resilient economic framework by minimizing reliance on the US dollar, thereby enhancing its sovereignty in international trade and financial transactions. This strategic move is crucial not only for economic stability but also for positioning India as a more influential player on the global stage.
India's efforts to enhance bilateral trade with Russia and internationalize the rupee are fundamentally aimed at reducing reliance on the US dollar. This strategy aligns with broader economic goals and geopolitical considerations.
Key Reasons for This Approach:
- Economic Independence: Reducing dependence on the US dollar can shield India from volatile currency fluctuations and sanctions that may arise from geopolitical tensions involving the U.S.
- Strengthening Trade Relations: By enhancing trade with Russia, India can diversify its trading partners and create a more balanced economic relationship, minimizing the risks associated with over-reliance on any single currency or country.
- Facilitating International Trade: Internationalizing the rupee allows for easier transactions in trade, especially with countries that may be looking to bypass the dollar for their trade. This can enhance India's position in global trade networks.
- Bolstering Energy Security: Given that Russia is a significant supplier of oil and gas, strengthening trade relations can ensure a stable energy supply for India, while also allowing payments in rupees, thus reducing dollar dependency.
Conclusion:
In summary, the primary aim of India's initiatives is to create a more resilient economic framework by minimizing reliance on the US dollar, thereby enhancing its sovereignty in international trade and financial transactions. This strategic move is crucial not only for economic stability but also for positioning India as a more influential player on the global stage.
Consider the following pairs:1. Lithium reserves in Jammu and Kashmir - 5.9 million tonnes2. Lithium used in rechargeable batteries - Mobile phones, laptops, digital cameras3. SEBI's measures to curb speculative trading - Intraday position limit monitoring4. Mekedatu Project - Water-sharing agreement violationHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Lithium reserves in Jammu and Kashmir - 5.9 million tonnes
2. Lithium used in rechargeable batteries - Mobile phones, laptops, digital cameras
3. SEBI's measures to curb speculative trading - Intraday position limit monitoring
4. Mekedatu Project - Water-sharing agreement violation
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Ias Masters answered |
1. Lithium reserves in Jammu and Kashmir - 5.9 million tonnes: Correctly matched. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has established Lithium inferred resources of 5.9 million tonnes in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district.
2. Lithium used in rechargeable batteries - Mobile phones, laptops, digital cameras: Correctly matched. Lithium is a critical component in rechargeable batteries used in devices like mobile phones, laptops, and digital cameras.
3. SEBI's measures to curb speculative trading - Intraday position limit monitoring: Correctly matched. SEBI has proposed measures including intraday monitoring of position limits to curb speculative trading.
4. Mekedatu Project - Water-sharing agreement violation: Incorrectly matched. Tamil Nadu contends that the Mekedatu dam project violates the final award of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, but this is an allegation and not a confirmed violation by consensus.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, while pair 4 is not.
Answer: Option B: Only two pairs
Consider the following statements:1. The Asur tribe traditionally practiced iron-smelting using indigenous techniques.2. The Asur community is recognized as one of India's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).3. The Asur tribe primarily resides in the states of Odisha and Chhattisgarh.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Asur tribe traditionally practiced iron-smelting using indigenous techniques.
2. The Asur community is recognized as one of India's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
3. The Asur tribe primarily resides in the states of Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Nandini Iyer answered |
Overview of the Asur Tribe
The Asur tribe is an indigenous community in India with unique cultural practices and traditions. Understanding their background helps clarify the correctness of the statements provided.
Statement 1: Iron-Smelted Techniques
- The Asur tribe is indeed known for their traditional iron-smelting techniques.
- They use indigenous methods that have been passed down through generations, showcasing their deep knowledge of metallurgy.
Statement 2: Recognition as PVTG
- The Asur community is recognized as one of India's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
- This classification highlights their socio-economic challenges and the need for targeted development initiatives to preserve their culture and improve their living conditions.
Statement 3: Geographic Distribution
- The Asur tribe primarily resides in the states of Jharkhand and parts of Bihar, not predominantly in Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
- While there may be small populations in neighboring states, their primary habitat is in Jharkhand.
Conclusion on the Correctness of Statements
- Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as it misrepresents the primary residence of the Asur tribe.
Final Answer
- The correct option is **B (1 and 2 only)**, reflecting the accurate information regarding the Asur tribe's iron-smelting practices and their status as a PVTG, while correcting the geographical misconception in statement 3.
The Asur tribe is an indigenous community in India with unique cultural practices and traditions. Understanding their background helps clarify the correctness of the statements provided.
Statement 1: Iron-Smelted Techniques
- The Asur tribe is indeed known for their traditional iron-smelting techniques.
- They use indigenous methods that have been passed down through generations, showcasing their deep knowledge of metallurgy.
Statement 2: Recognition as PVTG
- The Asur community is recognized as one of India's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
- This classification highlights their socio-economic challenges and the need for targeted development initiatives to preserve their culture and improve their living conditions.
Statement 3: Geographic Distribution
- The Asur tribe primarily resides in the states of Jharkhand and parts of Bihar, not predominantly in Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
- While there may be small populations in neighboring states, their primary habitat is in Jharkhand.
Conclusion on the Correctness of Statements
- Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as it misrepresents the primary residence of the Asur tribe.
Final Answer
- The correct option is **B (1 and 2 only)**, reflecting the accurate information regarding the Asur tribe's iron-smelting practices and their status as a PVTG, while correcting the geographical misconception in statement 3.
Consider the following pairs:1. Apophis - An asteroid that will pass close to Earth in 2029.2. CERT-IN - An entity under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.3. Squalus hima - A new species of deep-water dogfish shark discovered in Kerala.4. DART Mission - An initiative by ISRO to study and deflect asteroids.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Apophis - An asteroid that will pass close to Earth in 2029.
2. CERT-IN - An entity under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
3. Squalus hima - A new species of deep-water dogfish shark discovered in Kerala.
4. DART Mission - An initiative by ISRO to study and deflect asteroids.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Ishita Kulkarni answered |
Analysis of the Given Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's examine each one closely:
1. Apophis
- Apophis is indeed an asteroid that is expected to make a close approach to Earth in 2029.
- **Correct Match.**
2. CERT-IN
- CERT-IN (Computer Emergency Response Team - India) is an entity under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, responsible for cybersecurity incidents.
- **Correct Match.**
3. Squalus hima
- Squalus hima refers to a newly identified species of deep-water dogfish shark discovered off the coast of Kerala, India.
- **Correct Match.**
4. DART Mission
- The DART (Double Asteroid Redirection Test) Mission is actually initiated by NASA, not ISRO, and aims to test a method of planetary defense against asteroids.
- **Incorrect Match.**
Conclusion
- With three pairs correctly matched (1, 2, and 3) and one incorrect (4), the total number of correctly matched pairs is three.
- Therefore, the answer is option 'C': **Only three pairs.**
This analysis confirms the accuracy of the statement regarding the pairs, providing clarity on each entity's relevance and affiliation.
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's examine each one closely:
1. Apophis
- Apophis is indeed an asteroid that is expected to make a close approach to Earth in 2029.
- **Correct Match.**
2. CERT-IN
- CERT-IN (Computer Emergency Response Team - India) is an entity under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, responsible for cybersecurity incidents.
- **Correct Match.**
3. Squalus hima
- Squalus hima refers to a newly identified species of deep-water dogfish shark discovered off the coast of Kerala, India.
- **Correct Match.**
4. DART Mission
- The DART (Double Asteroid Redirection Test) Mission is actually initiated by NASA, not ISRO, and aims to test a method of planetary defense against asteroids.
- **Incorrect Match.**
Conclusion
- With three pairs correctly matched (1, 2, and 3) and one incorrect (4), the total number of correctly matched pairs is three.
- Therefore, the answer is option 'C': **Only three pairs.**
This analysis confirms the accuracy of the statement regarding the pairs, providing clarity on each entity's relevance and affiliation.
Consider the following statements about Zebra Mussels:
Statement-I:
Zebra mussels are small invaders that look like fingernails and have a flat 'D' shaped shell with black stripes on a cream background. They reproduce rapidly, disrupt food chains by consuming phytoplankton, threaten native mussels, and cluster on structures causing commercial damage.
Statement-II:
Zebra mussels are native to the Caspian and Black Seas, located south of Russia and Ukraine, and they entered the Great Lakes in the late 1980s via ship ballast water, spreading to much of eastern Canada and the United States since then.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- c)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Zebra Mussels:
Statement-I:
Zebra mussels are small invaders that look like fingernails and have a flat 'D' shaped shell with black stripes on a cream background. They reproduce rapidly, disrupt food chains by consuming phytoplankton, threaten native mussels, and cluster on structures causing commercial damage.
Zebra mussels are small invaders that look like fingernails and have a flat 'D' shaped shell with black stripes on a cream background. They reproduce rapidly, disrupt food chains by consuming phytoplankton, threaten native mussels, and cluster on structures causing commercial damage.
Statement-II:
Zebra mussels are native to the Caspian and Black Seas, located south of Russia and Ukraine, and they entered the Great Lakes in the late 1980s via ship ballast water, spreading to much of eastern Canada and the United States since then.
Zebra mussels are native to the Caspian and Black Seas, located south of Russia and Ukraine, and they entered the Great Lakes in the late 1980s via ship ballast water, spreading to much of eastern Canada and the United States since then.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
c)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Asha Tiwari answered |
Explanation:
Statement Analysis:
- Statement-I: This statement correctly describes the physical characteristics and harmful effects of zebra mussels.
- Statement-II: This statement provides information about the origin of zebra mussels and how they spread to the Great Lakes region.
Correctness of the Statements:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Explanation: While both statements provide accurate information about zebra mussels, Statement-II does not directly explain the details given in Statement-I. Statement-I focuses on the characteristics and negative impacts of zebra mussels, while Statement-II provides background information about their origin and spread.
Therefore, the correct answer is that both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Statement Analysis:
- Statement-I: This statement correctly describes the physical characteristics and harmful effects of zebra mussels.
- Statement-II: This statement provides information about the origin of zebra mussels and how they spread to the Great Lakes region.
Correctness of the Statements:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- Explanation: While both statements provide accurate information about zebra mussels, Statement-II does not directly explain the details given in Statement-I. Statement-I focuses on the characteristics and negative impacts of zebra mussels, while Statement-II provides background information about their origin and spread.
Therefore, the correct answer is that both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs:1. National Gopal Ratna Award (NGRA) - Given by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying2. Rashtriya Gokul Mission - Launched in 20163. BIMSTEC - Member countries include Bangladesh, India, and Pakistan4. National Milk Day - Celebrated on 1st NovemberHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. National Gopal Ratna Award (NGRA) - Given by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
2. Rashtriya Gokul Mission - Launched in 2016
3. BIMSTEC - Member countries include Bangladesh, India, and Pakistan
4. National Milk Day - Celebrated on 1st November
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
1. National Gopal Ratna Award (NGRA) - Given by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
- Correct. The NGRA is indeed awarded by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying under this ministry.
2. Rashtriya Gokul Mission - Launched in 2016
- Incorrect. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched in December 2014, not 2016.
3. BIMSTEC - Member countries include Bangladesh, India, and Pakistan
- Incorrect. Pakistan is not a member of BIMSTEC. The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
4. National Milk Day - Celebrated on 1st November
- Incorrect. National Milk Day is celebrated on 26th November in India.
Therefore, only the first pair is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements regarding the Vizhinjam International Seaport:1. Vizhinjam International Seaport is India's first international deepwater transshipment port with a natural depth scalable up to 20 meters.2. The port is located close to the international shipping route, enhancing its strategic importance.3. The DBFOT model used for the Vizhinjam project means the private partner is not involved in financing the project.- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Vizhinjam International Seaport:
1. Vizhinjam International Seaport is India's first international deepwater transshipment port with a natural depth scalable up to 20 meters.
2. The port is located close to the international shipping route, enhancing its strategic importance.
3. The DBFOT model used for the Vizhinjam project means the private partner is not involved in financing the project.
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Kirti Banerjee answered |
Overview of Vizhinjam International Seaport
The Vizhinjam International Seaport is a significant infrastructure project in India, designed to enhance the country's maritime capabilities. Let's evaluate the statements regarding this port to understand why option 'B' is the correct answer.
Statement 1: Deepwater Transshipment Port
- Vizhinjam International Seaport is indeed India's first international deepwater transshipment port.
- It boasts a natural depth that can reach up to 20 meters, making it suitable for accommodating large vessels.
Statement 2: Strategic Location
- The port is strategically located near international shipping routes.
- This positioning enhances its importance for global trade, facilitating efficient cargo movement.
Statement 3: DBFOT Model Misconception
- The DBFOT (Design, Build, Finance, Operate, Transfer) model does imply that the private partner is involved in financing the project.
- This statement is incorrect because the private partner does contribute to the financing, which is a critical aspect of the DBFOT model.
Conclusion
- Given the accuracy of Statements 1 and 2, and the inaccuracy of Statement 3, the correct answer is indeed option 'B': 1 and 2 Only.
- This highlights the significance of understanding project financing models in infrastructure development, as well as the strategic advantages of port locations in global shipping.
The Vizhinjam International Seaport is a significant infrastructure project in India, designed to enhance the country's maritime capabilities. Let's evaluate the statements regarding this port to understand why option 'B' is the correct answer.
Statement 1: Deepwater Transshipment Port
- Vizhinjam International Seaport is indeed India's first international deepwater transshipment port.
- It boasts a natural depth that can reach up to 20 meters, making it suitable for accommodating large vessels.
Statement 2: Strategic Location
- The port is strategically located near international shipping routes.
- This positioning enhances its importance for global trade, facilitating efficient cargo movement.
Statement 3: DBFOT Model Misconception
- The DBFOT (Design, Build, Finance, Operate, Transfer) model does imply that the private partner is involved in financing the project.
- This statement is incorrect because the private partner does contribute to the financing, which is a critical aspect of the DBFOT model.
Conclusion
- Given the accuracy of Statements 1 and 2, and the inaccuracy of Statement 3, the correct answer is indeed option 'B': 1 and 2 Only.
- This highlights the significance of understanding project financing models in infrastructure development, as well as the strategic advantages of port locations in global shipping.
What is the primary objective of the IndiaAI Mission launched by the Government of India?- a)To establish India as a global leader in space technology
- b)To promote traditional farming practices in rural areas
- c)To leverage AI for economic growth and governance enhancement
- d)To enhance India's military capabilities
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the IndiaAI Mission launched by the Government of India?
a)
To establish India as a global leader in space technology
b)
To promote traditional farming practices in rural areas
c)
To leverage AI for economic growth and governance enhancement
d)
To enhance India's military capabilities
|
|
Ankita Sarkar answered |
Objective of IndiaAI Mission:
IndiaAI Mission was launched by the Government of India with the primary objective of leveraging Artificial Intelligence (AI) for economic growth and governance enhancement.
Key Points:
- Economic Growth: The IndiaAI Mission aims to harness the power of AI technologies to drive economic growth in India. By promoting the development and adoption of AI solutions across various sectors, the mission seeks to boost productivity, innovation, and competitiveness in the Indian economy.
- Governance Enhancement: Another key objective of the IndiaAI Mission is to enhance governance through the use of AI technologies. By implementing AI-driven tools and systems, the government aims to improve service delivery, optimize resource allocation, and enhance decision-making processes in various public sector organizations.
- Skill Development: The mission also focuses on building a strong AI talent pool in India by investing in education and training programs. By equipping individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge in AI, the government aims to create a workforce that is capable of driving innovation and growth in the AI sector.
- International Collaboration: The IndiaAI Mission seeks to establish partnerships and collaborations with other countries and organizations to accelerate the development and adoption of AI technologies. By engaging with global stakeholders, the mission aims to leverage international expertise and resources to further its objectives.
In conclusion, the IndiaAI Mission launched by the Government of India aims to harness the potential of AI for driving economic growth, enhancing governance, fostering skill development, and promoting international collaboration in the field of artificial intelligence.
IndiaAI Mission was launched by the Government of India with the primary objective of leveraging Artificial Intelligence (AI) for economic growth and governance enhancement.
Key Points:
- Economic Growth: The IndiaAI Mission aims to harness the power of AI technologies to drive economic growth in India. By promoting the development and adoption of AI solutions across various sectors, the mission seeks to boost productivity, innovation, and competitiveness in the Indian economy.
- Governance Enhancement: Another key objective of the IndiaAI Mission is to enhance governance through the use of AI technologies. By implementing AI-driven tools and systems, the government aims to improve service delivery, optimize resource allocation, and enhance decision-making processes in various public sector organizations.
- Skill Development: The mission also focuses on building a strong AI talent pool in India by investing in education and training programs. By equipping individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge in AI, the government aims to create a workforce that is capable of driving innovation and growth in the AI sector.
- International Collaboration: The IndiaAI Mission seeks to establish partnerships and collaborations with other countries and organizations to accelerate the development and adoption of AI technologies. By engaging with global stakeholders, the mission aims to leverage international expertise and resources to further its objectives.
In conclusion, the IndiaAI Mission launched by the Government of India aims to harness the potential of AI for driving economic growth, enhancing governance, fostering skill development, and promoting international collaboration in the field of artificial intelligence.
Consider the following statements regarding Machine Unlearning (MUL):1. Machine Unlearning (MUL) completely eradicates the influence of specific data points from the AI model.2. MUL is only implemented through data-centric approaches like data reorganization and pruning.3. Machine Unlearning is essential for maintaining data privacy, minimizing AI bias, and adhering to regulations mandating the deletion of sensitive information.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 3 Only
- c)1 and 2 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Machine Unlearning (MUL):
1. Machine Unlearning (MUL) completely eradicates the influence of specific data points from the AI model.
2. MUL is only implemented through data-centric approaches like data reorganization and pruning.
3. Machine Unlearning is essential for maintaining data privacy, minimizing AI bias, and adhering to regulations mandating the deletion of sensitive information.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 3 Only
c)
1 and 2 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Valor Academy answered |
1. Machine Unlearning (MUL) completely eradicates the influence of specific data points from the AI model: This statement is correct. Exact unlearning methods aim to remove the influence of specific data points entirely from the model.
2. MUL is only implemented through data-centric approaches like data reorganization and pruning: This statement is incorrect. MUL can be implemented through various approaches, including model-centric approaches and prompting-based methods, not just data-centric ones.
3. Machine Unlearning is essential for maintaining data privacy, minimizing AI bias, and adhering to regulations mandating the deletion of sensitive information: This statement is correct. MUL plays a crucial role in ensuring data privacy and compliance with data protection regulations.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option B the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about State of the World’s Forests 2024 Report:i)It is published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
ii)According to the report there is a decline in deforestation rates compared to previous decades.
iii)India ranked third globally in terms of forest area gains
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only One
- b)Only Two
- c)All Three
- d)None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about State of the World’s Forests 2024 Report:
i)It is published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
ii)According to the report there is a decline in deforestation rates compared to previous decades.
iii)India ranked third globally in terms of forest area gains
How many of the statements given above are correct?
ii)According to the report there is a decline in deforestation rates compared to previous decades.
iii)India ranked third globally in terms of forest area gains
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only One
b)
Only Two
c)
All Three
d)
None of the Above
|
|
Innovative Classes answered |
State of the World’s Forests 2024 Report:
- It is published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
- It provides a comprehensive analysis of forest conditions and trends.
Highlights of the Report:
· It highlighted a decline in deforestation rates compared to previous decades, with several countries showing significant improvements.
· The data also reveals a disturbing picture of the challenges forests face due toclimate change.
· In 2020, the global forest covered approximately 4.1 billion hectares (ha), or 31 percent of the land area.
· Russia, Brazil, Canada, the United States of America, and China account for 54 percent of the global forest area, in descending order.
· Another 10 countries, including Australia, the Democratic Republic of Congo, Indonesia, Peru, and India, contribute about two-thirds of the global forest area.
· The report estimated that between 1990 and 2020, approximately 420 million ha of forest were converted to land use.
· However, deforestation rates fell from 15.8 million ha per year between 1990 and 2002 to 10.2 million ha between 2015 and 2020.
· Deforestation rates in Africa were 4.41 million ha, 2.95 million in South America, and 2.24 million in Asia.
· It also noted 10 countries recording annual gains in forest area in 2020, which include China, Australia, India, Chile, Viet Nam, Turkey, the United States of America, France, Italy, and Romania.
· India gained 2,66,000 hectares of forest annually from 2010-2020, ranking third globally in forest area gains.
· The global mangrove area was recorded to be 14.8 million ha, out of which South and Southeast Asia contributed almost 44 percent of the total global area.
· The rate of gross global mangrove loss decreased by 23 percent between the two recent decades (2000-2010 and 2010-2020), and the rate of gain in mangrove area also decreased slightly.
· Asia was the major contributor to mangrove loss and gains.
· It is estimated that about 340-370 million ha (equivalent to less than half the land area of Australia) of the earth’s land area is impacted by annual fire.
· Satellite data revealed that total fires in 2023 emitted 6,687 megatons of carbon dioxide globally, more than double the emissions contributed by the European Union by burning fossil fuels.
What is the significance of aphelion in astronomy?- a)It marks the point when a planet is closest to the Sun.
- b)It indicates the point when a planet is farthest from the Sun.
- c)It signifies the moment when a planet is at its brightest.
- d)It represents the point of equinox on a planet.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the significance of aphelion in astronomy?
a)
It marks the point when a planet is closest to the Sun.
b)
It indicates the point when a planet is farthest from the Sun.
c)
It signifies the moment when a planet is at its brightest.
d)
It represents the point of equinox on a planet.
|
|
Divey Sethi answered |
Aphelion in astronomy refers to the point in a planet's orbit where it is farthest from the Sun. This phenomenon is crucial in understanding the elliptical nature of planetary orbits and has implications for seasonal variations and planetary motion.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
India and global traders are facing severe container shortages due to the European Union's tariffs on Chinese electric vehicle imports and upcoming US tariffs.
Statement-II:
One of the reasons behind the container crunch is the near-daily attacks by Yemen's Houthi rebels in the Red Sea, leading to a reduction in traffic by 90% and forcing ships to take longer routes, thereby increasing port congestion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India and global traders are facing severe container shortages due to the European Union's tariffs on Chinese electric vehicle imports and upcoming US tariffs.
Statement-II:
One of the reasons behind the container crunch is the near-daily attacks by Yemen's Houthi rebels in the Red Sea, leading to a reduction in traffic by 90% and forcing ships to take longer routes, thereby increasing port congestion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
India and global traders are facing severe container shortages due to the European Union's tariffs on Chinese electric vehicle imports and upcoming US tariffs.
Statement-II:
One of the reasons behind the container crunch is the near-daily attacks by Yemen's Houthi rebels in the Red Sea, leading to a reduction in traffic by 90% and forcing ships to take longer routes, thereby increasing port congestion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Rahul Menon answered |
Explanation:
Statement Analysis:
Statement-I: India and global traders are facing severe container shortages due to the European Union's tariffs on Chinese electric vehicle imports and upcoming US tariffs.
Statement-II: One of the reasons behind the container crunch is the near-daily attacks by Yemen's Houthi rebels in the Red Sea, leading to a reduction in traffic by 90% and forcing ships to take longer routes, thereby increasing port congestion.
Correctness Analysis:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct as they highlight different aspects contributing to the container shortages.
- Statement-II explains Statement-I by providing additional context on the impact of the attacks by Yemen's Houthi rebels on port congestion and shipping routes.
- The European Union's tariffs on Chinese electric vehicle imports and upcoming US tariffs are contributing factors to the container shortages, while the attacks in the Red Sea further aggravate the situation by reducing traffic and increasing congestion.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' as both statements are accurate, and Statement-II offers an explanation for the container shortages mentioned in Statement-I.
Statement Analysis:
Statement-I: India and global traders are facing severe container shortages due to the European Union's tariffs on Chinese electric vehicle imports and upcoming US tariffs.
Statement-II: One of the reasons behind the container crunch is the near-daily attacks by Yemen's Houthi rebels in the Red Sea, leading to a reduction in traffic by 90% and forcing ships to take longer routes, thereby increasing port congestion.
Correctness Analysis:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct as they highlight different aspects contributing to the container shortages.
- Statement-II explains Statement-I by providing additional context on the impact of the attacks by Yemen's Houthi rebels on port congestion and shipping routes.
- The European Union's tariffs on Chinese electric vehicle imports and upcoming US tariffs are contributing factors to the container shortages, while the attacks in the Red Sea further aggravate the situation by reducing traffic and increasing congestion.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' as both statements are accurate, and Statement-II offers an explanation for the container shortages mentioned in Statement-I.
According to the IMF Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index 2024, what is India's ranking among 174 economies globally for AI readiness?- a)31
- b)72
- c)92
- d)113
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
According to the IMF Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index 2024, what is India's ranking among 174 economies globally for AI readiness?
a)
31
b)
72
c)
92
d)
113
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
India ranks 72nd in the IMF's Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index 2024, which evaluates 174 economies worldwide based on their readiness for artificial intelligence adoption and development. The index highlights Singapore, Denmark, and the United States as top performers in advanced economies (AEs), while India is categorized as an emerging market (EM) with a readiness score of 0.49.
Which country lifted the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 by defeating South Africa in the final?- a)New Zealand
- b)Australia
- c)India
- d)England
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which country lifted the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 by defeating South Africa in the final?
a)
New Zealand
b)
Australia
c)
India
d)
England
|
Riddhi singhania answered |
India
India lifted the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 by defeating South Africa in the final. Let's delve into the key aspects of this remarkable victory:
Exceptional Performance:
- The Indian cricket team put up an exceptional performance throughout the tournament, showcasing their skills and determination.
- They defeated strong teams like Australia, England, and Pakistan on their way to the final.
Final Match:
- In the final match against South Africa, India displayed great teamwork and resilience.
- The players showed remarkable batting, bowling, and fielding skills to outplay their opponents.
Player Contributions:
- Key players like Virat Kohli, Rohit Sharma, Jasprit Bumrah, and Rishabh Pant made significant contributions in crucial moments of the tournament.
- Their performances were instrumental in India's success in the ICC T20 World Cup 2024.
Celebrations:
- The victory sparked celebrations across the country, with fans rejoicing in the streets, social media abuzz with congratulatory messages, and the players being hailed as heroes.
Historic Win:
- India's triumph in the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 marked a historic moment in the country's cricketing history.
- It was a testament to the team's hard work, dedication, and talent.
In conclusion, India's victory in the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 was a result of their exceptional performance, player contributions, and teamwork. The win brought joy to millions of fans and solidified India's position as a cricketing powerhouse.
India lifted the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 by defeating South Africa in the final. Let's delve into the key aspects of this remarkable victory:
Exceptional Performance:
- The Indian cricket team put up an exceptional performance throughout the tournament, showcasing their skills and determination.
- They defeated strong teams like Australia, England, and Pakistan on their way to the final.
Final Match:
- In the final match against South Africa, India displayed great teamwork and resilience.
- The players showed remarkable batting, bowling, and fielding skills to outplay their opponents.
Player Contributions:
- Key players like Virat Kohli, Rohit Sharma, Jasprit Bumrah, and Rishabh Pant made significant contributions in crucial moments of the tournament.
- Their performances were instrumental in India's success in the ICC T20 World Cup 2024.
Celebrations:
- The victory sparked celebrations across the country, with fans rejoicing in the streets, social media abuzz with congratulatory messages, and the players being hailed as heroes.
Historic Win:
- India's triumph in the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 marked a historic moment in the country's cricketing history.
- It was a testament to the team's hard work, dedication, and talent.
In conclusion, India's victory in the ICC T20 World Cup 2024 was a result of their exceptional performance, player contributions, and teamwork. The win brought joy to millions of fans and solidified India's position as a cricketing powerhouse.
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