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All questions of July 2024 for CLAT Exam

Consider the following pairs:
1. Dhanush - 155 mm Artillery Gun
2. Tejas - Light Combat Aircraft
3. Vikrant - Submarine
4. HAL - Bharat Electronics Ltd
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
1. Dhanush - 155 mm Artillery Gun: Correct. Dhanush is an indigenously developed 155 mm artillery gun system.
2. Tejas - Light Combat Aircraft: Correct. Tejas is an indigenous Light Combat Aircraft developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
3. Vikrant - Submarine: Incorrect. INS Vikrant is an aircraft carrier, not a submarine.
4. HAL - Bharat Electronics Ltd: Incorrect. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) are separate Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs).
Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.
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Which phase of RIMPAC 2024 involved complex maritime activities?
  • a)
    Harbor phase
  • b)
    Sea phase
  • c)
    Diplomatic phase
  • d)
    Innovation phase
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nivedita gupta answered
Understanding RIMPAC 2024 Phases
RIMPAC (Rim of the Pacific Exercise) is the world's largest international maritime exercise, held biennially. The phases of RIMPAC are designed to enhance interoperability among participating nations through various activities.

Complex Maritime Activities in Sea Phase
The Sea Phase is where the most intricate maritime operations take place. This phase includes:
  • Realistic Combat Scenarios: Participants engage in various simulated combat operations, including air defense, anti-submarine warfare, and surface warfare.
  • Joint Task Force Operations: Nations operate as a cohesive unit, allowing for the testing and refining of joint tactics and procedures.
  • Amphibious Assaults: Exercises may involve landing operations that require coordination between naval and ground forces.
  • Maritime Security Operations: Activities focused on counter-piracy, counter-smuggling, and other maritime security challenges are conducted.
  • Live-Fire Exercises: These exercises facilitate the testing of weapon systems in real-time against various targets, enhancing readiness.



Importance of the Sea Phase
The Sea Phase is critical for:
  • Enhancing Interoperability: Different forces work together, improving their ability to operate in coalition environments.
  • Building Partnerships: Nations strengthen their relationships through shared experiences and operational challenges.
  • Addressing Maritime Challenges: This phase prepares participating nations to tackle real-world maritime threats collaboratively.


In summary, the Sea Phase of RIMPAC 2024 is essential for conducting complex maritime activities that enhance military readiness and international cooperation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA) 2023:
1. The DPDPA mandates that all personal data must be processed within India to enhance data security.
2. The Act requires verifiable parental consent for processing children's data.
3. The Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) is responsible for overseeing compliance and handling disputes related to data protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anirban Datta answered
1. Processing of Personal Data within India:
- The statement that the DPDPA mandates all personal data to be processed within India is incorrect. The Act does not specifically require data processing to be done within India, but it does outline strict guidelines for cross-border data transfers to ensure data security.

2. Verifiable Parental Consent for Children's Data:
- The statement that the Act requires verifiable parental consent for processing children's data is correct. The DPDPA includes provisions for obtaining parental consent before processing personal data of children to protect their privacy and ensure that their data is handled appropriately.

3. Role of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI):
- The statement that the DPBI is responsible for overseeing compliance and handling disputes related to data protection is correct. The DPBI serves as the regulatory body under the DPDPA and is tasked with monitoring and enforcing compliance with data protection laws, as well as resolving disputes related to data privacy and security.

What is a key feature of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA) 2023 that empowers individuals regarding their personal data?
  • a)
    Right to Data Privacy
  • b)
    Mandatory Data Sharing
  • c)
    Anonymous Data Processing
  • d)
    Data Export Without Consent
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nishanth Desai answered
Key Feature of DPDPA 2023: Right to Data Privacy
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDPA) 2023 introduces significant rights for individuals concerning their personal data. A standout feature is the "Right to Data Privacy," which empowers individuals to control how their personal data is collected, processed, and shared.
Empowerment of Individuals
- Individuals are granted the authority to access their personal data held by organizations.
- They can request corrections to any inaccuracies in their data.
- The law enables individuals to withdraw consent for data processing, giving them control over their personal information.
Protection Against Misuse
- The DPDPA mandates organizations to ensure data security and minimize data collection.
- Individuals have the right to be informed about how their data is used, enhancing transparency.
- There are provisions for grievance redressal, allowing individuals to report violations of their data rights.
Enhanced Privacy Measures
- Organizations are required to implement stringent data protection measures.
- The act promotes responsible data handling, reducing the risk of misuse or breaches.
- It encourages organizations to adopt privacy-by-design principles in their operations.
Conclusion
The "Right to Data Privacy" under the DPDPA 2023 fundamentally shifts the power dynamics between individuals and organizations, ensuring that personal data is treated with respect and care. This robust framework not only protects individual privacy but also fosters trust in the digital ecosystem, making it a cornerstone of modern data protection legislation.

Which of the following exercises involves India, Bangladesh, and Thailand?
  • a)
    RIMPAC
  • b)
    Malabar
  • c)
    IN-BN-THAI CORPAT
  • d)
    Sampriti
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev CLAT answered
The trilateral naval exercise "IN-BN-THAI CORPAT" involves India, Bangladesh, and Thailand, focusing on maritime cooperation in the region.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Rotary Drilling: Uses a rotating drill bit cooled by drilling mud to cut through rock formations.
2. Percussion Drilling: Utilizes hydraulic pressure to power a hammer that breaks rock and flushes out cuttings.
3. Geophysical Surveys: Employ seismic, magnetic, and gravitational methods to map subsurface structures.
4. Hydraulic Fracturing: Enhances fluid flow in rock formations using high-pressure air.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
1. Rotary Drilling: Correctly matched. Rotary drilling indeed uses a rotating drill bit attached to a drill string, cooled by drilling mud to cut through rock formations.
2. Percussion Drilling: Incorrectly matched. Percussion drilling, also known as air hammering, uses high-pressure air to power a hammer that efficiently breaks rock and flushes out cuttings, not hydraulic pressure.
3. Geophysical Surveys: Correctly matched. Geophysical surveys do employ seismic, magnetic, and gravitational methods to map subsurface structures.
4. Hydraulic Fracturing: Incorrectly matched. Hydraulic fracturing, commonly known as fracking, enhances fluid flow in rock formations using pressurized liquid, not high-pressure air.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

What is one of the techniques used in scientific deep drilling to penetrate deep into the Earth's crust?
  • a)
    Hydraulic Fracturing (Fracking)
  • b)
    Geophysical Surveys
  • c)
    Seismic Waves
  • d)
    Percussion Drilling (Air Hammering)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
In scientific deep drilling, one of the techniques employed to penetrate deep into the Earth's crust is Percussion Drilling, also known as Air Hammering. This method utilizes high-pressure air to power a hammer that efficiently breaks rock and flushes out cuttings. It is a crucial technique in the process of studying the composition, structure, and processes of the Earth's crust.

What is the primary purpose of a lighthouse in maritime navigation?
  • a)
    To serve as a historical monument
  • b)
    To guide ships and mark safe routes
  • c)
    To provide accommodation for sailors
  • d)
    To store emergency supplies
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
The primary purpose of a lighthouse in maritime navigation is to guide ships and mark safe routes, helping sailors navigate safely through hazardous coastlines, shoals, and reefs. Lighthouses emit light from lamps and lenses, aiding mariners in determining their location and navigating through challenging waters.

Consider the following statements about rogue waves:
  1. Rogue waves are predictable and can be accurately forecasted using current weather models.
  2. Rogue waves are often significantly larger than the average surrounding waves, sometimes reaching twice the height of the largest waves.
  3. Rogue waves are primarily caused by underwater earthquakes and volcanic activity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered
  • S1 is incorrect because rogue waves are not easily predictable with current weather models due to their sudden and random nature.
  • S2 is correct. Rogue waves can be significantly larger than the surrounding waves, often twice the height of the largest waves around them.
  • S3 is incorrect. While underwater earthquakes and volcanic activity can cause tsunamis, rogue waves are typically caused by different factors, such as constructive interference of wave systems, strong currents, and wind conditions.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Lithium Block in Reasi district - Clay deposits
2. Successful auction in Chhattisgarh - Hard rock lithium deposits
3. Exploration in Ladakh - Positive results leading to further exploration
4. Exploration in Manipur - Stalled due to local resistance
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Rank Holders answered
1. Lithium Block in Reasi district - Clay deposits: Correctly matched. The lithium reserves in J&K's Reasi district are primarily clay deposits.
2. Successful auction in Chhattisgarh - Hard rock lithium deposits: Correctly matched. The successful auction in Korba district, Chhattisgarh, involved hard rock lithium deposits.
3. Exploration in Ladakh - Positive results leading to further exploration: Incorrectly matched. Exploration in Ladakh's Merak block yielded disappointing results, leading to suggestions to drop exploration efforts.
4. Exploration in Manipur - Stalled due to local resistance: Correctly matched. Lithium exploration efforts in Kamjong district, Manipur, have been stalled due to local resistance.
Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, making it a total of three correctly matched pairs. 
Explanation:
- The lithium reserves in Reasi are indeed clay deposits, which have not been commercially proven yet.
- In Chhattisgarh, the auction involved hard rock lithium deposits.
- Exploration in Ladakh was not successful, contrary to what is stated in the pair.
- Local resistance has indeed stalled exploration efforts in Manipur.

Consider the following statements:
1. The India AI Mission aims to create a computing capacity of over 10,000 GPUs.
2. The initial phase of the India AI Mission involves procuring 1,000 GPUs to kickstart the project.
3. The India AI Datasets Platform provides access to personal datasets for startups and researchers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
Statement 1 is correct because the India AI Mission indeed aims to create a computing capacity of over 10,000 GPUs.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The initial phase of the India AI Mission involves procuring 300 to 500 GPUs, not 1,000 GPUs.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The India AI Datasets Platform provides access to non-personal datasets for startups and researchers, not personal datasets.
Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.

What is the main objective of the India AI Mission?
  • a)
    To establish a robust AI computing infrastructure in India
  • b)
    To enhance data quality and develop indigenous AI technologies
  • c)
    To promote ethical AI practices and attract top talent
  • d)
    To reduce dependence on expensive foreign hardware
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
The main objective of the India AI Mission is to establish a robust AI computing infrastructure in India to facilitate the development and testing of AI systems. This mission aims to create a high-end AI computing ecosystem with over 10,000 GPUs to support AI startups and research, along with other key components to foster AI innovation in the country.

What is the primary objective of the Positive Indigenisation Lists (PIL) introduced by the Ministry of Defence?
  • a)
    To increase arms imports for strategic autonomy
  • b)
    To promote foreign arms dependency
  • c)
    To boost self-reliance in the defence sector
  • d)
    To encourage competition from imports
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered
The Positive Indigenisation Lists (PIL) introduced by the Ministry of Defence aim to enhance self-reliance in the defence sector by promoting indigenous production of defence items, thus reducing import dependence. This initiative supports domestic defence industries by encouraging them to develop defence products without facing competition from imports, ultimately strengthening India's defence capabilities and fostering economic growth within the country.

Consider the following statements regarding the 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit:
1. The 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit set a new bilateral trade target of USD 100 billion by 2030.
2. President Vladimir Putin conferred the "Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle" on Prime Minister Narendra Modi for his role in promoting the strategic partnership between Russia and India.
3. The summit emphasized the development of the Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor as part of the transport and connectivity initiatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
All three statements provided are accurate reflections of the key highlights from the 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit.
1. Bilateral Trade Target: The summit indeed set a new bilateral trade target of USD 100 billion by 2030, surpassing the previous target of USD 30 billion by 2025. This increase is largely driven by India's increased imports of Russian crude at a discount after the US and Europe imposed oil sanctions on Russia.
2. Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle: President Vladimir Putin conferred Russia's highest civilian honour, the "Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle," on Prime Minister Narendra Modi. This award was given in recognition of Modi's efforts to promote the strategic partnership and friendly relations between Russia and India.
3. Transport and Connectivity: The summit placed a significant emphasis on the development of transport and connectivity initiatives, including the Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor, which is part of the broader effort to create stable and efficient transport corridors in Eurasia.
Thus, all three statements are correct, making Option D: 1, 2 and 3 the right answer.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The World Health Organization (WHO) initiated a Validation Programme to recognize countries achieving Trans Fat elimination goals.
Statement-II: The Lancet Global Health journal published a study indicating an increase in physical inactivity levels globally.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
- Statement-I is correct: The WHO initiated a Validation Programme to recognize countries achieving Trans Fat elimination goals, as mentioned in the highlights of the WHO report on Trans Fats.
- Statement-II is correct: The Lancet Global Health journal published a study indicating an increase in physical inactivity levels globally, specifically mentioning the insufficient physical activity among adults.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II provides relevant information about a related health concern, supporting and explaining Statement-I.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Traumatic Asphyxia - External compression of the thorax or upper abdomen.
2. Panic - A secondary factor contributing to stampedes.
3. High crowd density - When density approaches 2-3 persons per square meter.
4. Controlled crowd flow management - Poor regulation of pedestrian movement.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Rank Holders answered
1. Traumatic Asphyxia - External compression of the thorax or upper abdomen.
- Correct. Traumatic asphyxia is indeed caused by external compression of the thorax or upper abdomen, leading to difficulty in breathing.
2. Panic - A secondary factor contributing to stampedes.
- Incorrect. Panic is a primary trigger or amplifier of stampedes, not a secondary factor.
3. High crowd density - When density approaches 2-3 persons per square meter.
- Incorrect. High crowd density is considered a factor contributing to stampedes when the density approaches 3-4 persons per square meter, not 2-3.
4. Controlled crowd flow management - Poor regulation of pedestrian movement.
- Incorrect. The correct term should be "Poor crowd flow management," indicating failure to regulate pedestrian movement, which contributes to stampedes.
Thus, only one pair (Pair 1) is correctly matched.

What is the primary difference between a Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV) and a Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV)?
  • a)
    BEVs are more cost-effective.
  • b)
    HEVs use both an internal combustion engine and a battery-powered motor.
  • c)
    BEVs emit lower total carbon emissions.
  • d)
    HEVs can only be charged from an external source.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The primary difference between a Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV) and a Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV) lies in their power sources. BEVs are fully powered by electricity, drawing energy from a battery and charged externally. On the other hand, HEVs, also known as Strong Hybrid EVs, utilize both an internal combustion engine (typically petrol) and a battery-powered motor for propulsion. This dual powertrain setup in HEVs allows them to operate using both sources, providing a balance between traditional fossil fuel usage and electric power, making them a transitional technology in the move towards full electrification of vehicles.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Denmark - First country to receive TFA Validation Certificate
2. Lithuania - Implemented best-practice policies for TFA elimination
3. India - Ranked highest in insufficient physical activity in South Asia
4. Saudi Arabia - Part of WHO REPLACE action framework
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Denmark - First country to receive TFA Validation Certificate
- Correct. Denmark was one of the first countries to receive the TFA Validation Certificate from WHO.
2. Lithuania - Implemented best-practice policies for TFA elimination
- Correct. Lithuania is listed among the countries that have implemented best-practice policies for TFA elimination and received the TFA Validation Certificate.
3. India - Ranked highest in insufficient physical activity in South Asia
- Incorrect. South Asia ranks second highest globally in terms of insufficient physical activity among adults, following the high-income Asia Pacific region. Within South Asia, India has significant rates of insufficient physical activity but is not the highest globally.
4. Saudi Arabia - Part of WHO REPLACE action framework
- Correct. Saudi Arabia is part of the WHO REPLACE action framework and received the TFA Validation Certificate.
Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.

What was the value of the Line of Credit provided by India to Bangladesh in 2019 for military equipment purchases?
  • a)
    $100 million
  • b)
    $250 million
  • c)
    $500 million
  • d)
    $1 billion
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev CLAT answered
India provided a $500 million Line of Credit to Bangladesh in 2019 for the purchase of military equipment, strengthening defense ties between the two nations.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The concept of a shadow cabinet is primarily found in presidential democracies where the Opposition directly replaces the ruling government during times of crisis.
Statement-II: The shadow cabinet serves as a formal advisory body to the President, offering alternative policy suggestions and recommendations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
- Statement-I is incorrect because the concept of a shadow cabinet is primarily found in parliamentary democracies, not presidential democracies. In parliamentary systems, the shadow cabinet mirrors the portfolios of government ministers and is led by the Leader of the Opposition.
- Statement-II is incorrect as well because the shadow cabinet does not serve as a formal advisory body to the President in parliamentary democracies. Instead, it acts as a mechanism for the Opposition to scrutinize and challenge the actions of the ruling government across various departments and ministries.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Right to Data Protection - Individuals can access, correct, and erase personal data.
2. Data Localisation - Sensitive data must be stored and processed outside India.
3. Data Breach Notification - Organizations must notify individuals and the Board of any data breaches.
4. Parental Consent - Section 9 of the DPDP Act requires verifiable parental consent for processing children's data.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
1. Right to Data Protection - Correct. The DPDP Act 2023 empowers individuals with rights to access, correct, and erase their personal data.
2. Data Localisation - Incorrect. The DPDP Act 2023 mandates that sensitive data must be stored and processed within India, not outside India.
3. Data Breach Notification - Correct. The Act requires organizations to promptly notify individuals and the Board of any data breaches.
4. Parental Consent - Correct. Section 9 of the DPDP Act mandates verifiable parental consent for processing children's data.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Women's representation in the Indian Parliament has significantly increased over the years, reaching a level comparable to global averages.
Statement-II: India ranks among the top 10 countries globally in terms of female representation in the lower house of Parliament.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
Statement-I correctly highlights the increase in women's representation in the Indian Parliament over the years, reflecting a positive trend. However, Statement-II is incorrect as India does not rank among the top 10 countries globally in terms of female representation in the lower house of Parliament. In fact, as per the provided information, India ranks 143 among 185 countries in this aspect, lagging behind several nations with higher percentages of women representatives.

Which of the following statements about the Brahmaputra River are correct?
  1. The Brahmaputra originates from the Angsi Glacier in the Himalayas.
  2. It flows through China, Bhutan, India, and Bangladesh.
  3. The Brahmaputra is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    2 and 3 only 
  • c)
    1 and 3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • Origin: The Brahmaputra River indeed originates from the Angsi Glacier in the Himalayas.
  • Flow: The river flows through three countries: China (Tibet), India, and Bangladesh. The Brahmaputra river does not flow in Bhutan.
  • Name in Tibet: In Tibet, the river is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo.
  • Delta: The Brahmaputra merges with the Ganges River to form the Sundarbans, the world’s largest delta.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Global Soil Partnership (GSP) - World Soil Day
2. Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) - Bonn Challenge
3. Soil Health Card Scheme - Recarbonization of Agricultural Soils (RECSOIL)
4. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) - Sustainable Development Goal 15
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Global Soil Partnership (GSP) - World Soil Day: Correctly matched. The Global Soil Partnership (GSP) is indeed associated with World Soil Day, which aims to raise awareness of the importance of soil health.
2. Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) - Bonn Challenge: Incorrectly matched. Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) is a concept under the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), while the Bonn Challenge is a separate initiative focused on forest landscape restoration.
3. Soil Health Card Scheme - Recarbonization of Agricultural Soils (RECSOIL): Incorrectly matched. The Soil Health Card Scheme is an initiative by the Indian government to promote soil health, whereas Recarbonization of Agricultural Soils (RECSOIL) is a global initiative aimed at enhancing soil carbon stocks.
4. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) - Sustainable Development Goal 15: Incorrectly matched. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is an Indian government scheme to promote organic farming, not directly linked to Sustainable Development Goal 15, which focuses on life on land, including biodiversity conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems.
Thus, only the first pair is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: GM Mustard was developed in India by hybridizing the Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2' (Eastern European variety).
Statement-II: GM Mustard is classified as a Herbicide Tolerant (HT) mustard variety engineered to withstand specific herbicides, aiding in weed control and crop yield enhancement.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement-I is incorrect because GM Mustard was not developed by hybridizing the Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2'. It was developed through hybridization involving other varieties. However, Statement-II is correct as GM Mustard is indeed a Herbicide Tolerant (HT) variety designed to resist specific herbicides, aiding in weed control and enhancing crop yields.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's efforts to secure domestic lithium resources have faced challenges, with the cancellation of an auction for a lithium block in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district.
Statement-II: Lithium extraction from hard rock pegmatite deposits is a straightforward process that does not involve complex and costly processing stages.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
Statement-I accurately reflects the challenges faced by India in securing domestic lithium resources, as highlighted in the provided information. On the other hand, Statement-II is incorrect. Lithium extraction from hard rock pegmatite deposits is a complex process that involves multiple intricate and costly processing stages, contrary to the claim that it is a straightforward process. This discrepancy makes Option (c) the correct choice.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's public spending on food security and nutrition has seen significant increases in recent years.
Statement-II: India's Global Hunger Index (GHI) ranking has improved consistently over the past decade.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

S.S Career Academy answered
Statement-I mentions that India's public spending on food security and nutrition has seen significant increases in recent years, which is a correct statement based on the information provided in the text. However, Statement-II claims that India's Global Hunger Index (GHI) ranking has improved consistently over the past decade, which is incorrect as per the information provided. In reality, India's GHI ranking has been a cause for concern, indicating significant issues in food security.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Tangasseri Lighthouse, Kerala - Tallest lighthouse in Kerala
2. Mahabalipuram Lighthouse, Tamil Nadu - Built by the British in 1901
3. Kaup Beach Lighthouse, Karnataka - Constructed by the Pallava dynasty
4. Fort Aguada Lighthouse, Goa - Portuguese structure
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
1. Tangasseri Lighthouse, Kerala - Tallest lighthouse in Kerala: Correct. Tangasseri Lighthouse in Kollam is indeed the tallest lighthouse in Kerala.
2. Mahabalipuram Lighthouse, Tamil Nadu - Built by the British in 1901: Incorrect. Mahabalipuram Lighthouse was built next to an ancient lighthouse commissioned by Mahendra Pallava of the Pallava dynasty, not by the British in 1901.
3. Kaup Beach Lighthouse, Karnataka - Constructed by the Pallava dynasty: Incorrect. Kaup Beach Lighthouse was constructed by the British in 1901, not by the Pallava dynasty.
4. Fort Aguada Lighthouse, Goa - Portuguese structure: Correct. Fort Aguada Lighthouse is a well-preserved Portuguese structure.
Hence, only the pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

What is the primary purpose of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986?
  • a)
    To regulate marriage laws for Muslim women
  • b)
    To provide maintenance rights to divorced Muslim women
  • c)
    To enforce strict divorce procedures for Muslim couples
  • d)
    To establish guidelines for inheritance among Muslim families
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, was enacted to safeguard the rights of Muslim women who have been divorced by or have obtained a divorce from their husbands. It specifically addresses matters related to the protection of these rights, including provisions for maintenance and support for divorced Muslim women. This act ensures that divorced Muslim women have legal provisions for maintenance and financial support beyond the period of marriage.
This question assesses the understanding of the primary objective of the mentioned legislation and its significance in protecting the rights of divorced Muslim women in India.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Soil degradation is defined as a change in soil health status resulting in a diminished capacity of the ecosystem to provide goods and services for its beneficiaries. It involves biological, chemical, and physical decline in soil quality. Soil degradation encompasses a broad range of processes that reduce soil health and its ability to function properly within its ecosystem.
Statement-II: UNESCO states that according to the World Atlas of Desertification, 75% of soils are already degraded, directly affecting 3.2 billion people. The current trend may increase the impact to 90% by 2050.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Statement-II provides specific data and a projection regarding the extent of soil degradation according to UNESCO, while Statement-I gives a general definition of soil degradation. Statement-II supports Statement-I by exemplifying the seriousness of the issue, explaining how soil degradation affects billions of people and emphasizing the scope of the problem globally. Therefore, in this context, both statements are accurate and complement each other, making option (a) the correct choice.

Consider the following statements:
1. Traumatic asphyxia is a common cause of fatalities in stampedes due to external compression of the thorax or upper abdomen.
2. Panic and loss of cooperative behavior are primary psychological factors contributing to stampedes.
3. Proper lighting is a factor contributing to stampedes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Rank Holders answered
- Statement 1 is correct. Traumatic asphyxia is indeed one of the most common causes of fatalities in stampedes, occurring due to external compression of the thorax or upper abdomen.
- Statement 2 is correct. Panic and loss of cooperative behavior are significant psychological factors that contribute to the occurrence of stampedes.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Proper lighting is not a contributing factor to stampedes; rather, it is the lack of proper lighting that can contribute to such incidents.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following statements:
1. The World Health Organization (WHO) set a target to eliminate trans fats from the global food supply by the end of 2023.
2. Denmark, Lithuania, Poland, Saudi Arabia, and Thailand were the first countries to receive the TFA Validation Certificate from WHO.
3. By 2023, WHO's REPLACE action framework had impacted 3.7 billion people, a substantial increase from 6% coverage five years earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. The World Health Organization (WHO) set a target to eliminate trans fats from the global food supply by the end of 2023.
This statement is correct. In 2018, WHO indeed set a goal to eliminate trans fats from the global food supply by 2023, recognizing their significant health risks and contribution to heart disease.
2. Denmark, Lithuania, Poland, Saudi Arabia, and Thailand were the first countries to receive the TFA Validation Certificate from WHO.
This statement is correct. WHO initiated a Validation Programme to recognize countries that achieved TFA elimination goals, and Denmark, Lithuania, Poland, Saudi Arabia, and Thailand were the first to receive this certificate.
3. By 2023, WHO's REPLACE action framework had impacted 3.7 billion people, a substantial increase from 6% coverage five years earlier.
This statement is correct. The REPLACE action framework by WHO facilitated the adoption of best-practice policies in 53 countries by 2023, significantly impacting 3.7 billion people, up from 6% coverage five years prior.
All three statements are correct, hence the correct answer is Option D: 1, 2 and 3.

Consider the following statements regarding the use of Money Bills in legislation:
1. The classification of a bill as a money bill allows the Rajya Sabha to amend or reject the bill.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha's certification of a bill as a money bill is subject to judicial review.
3. Certain controversial amendments, such as those in the Aadhaar Act of 2016, have been passed as money bills, raising concerns about the misuse of this classification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Incorrect. The classification of a bill as a money bill limits the Rajya Sabha to only recommending changes; it does not have the power to amend or reject the bill. This is one of the significant concerns regarding the use of money bills, as it undermines the bicameral nature of the Parliament by reducing the role and influence of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Incorrect. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha's decision to certify a bill as a money bill under Article 110 is not subject to judicial review. This raises concerns about potential misuse of power, as this certification can be used to bypass the Rajya Sabha.
3. Correct. Certain amendments, such as those in the Aadhaar Act of 2016, have been passed as money bills, leading to controversy and concerns about the misuse of this classification. The classification of such amendments as money bills has been challenged, highlighting issues related to legislative accountability and transparency.
Thus, only statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. According to the UNEP Foresight Report 2024, over 90% of land is predicted to be affected by human activities by 2050.
2. The UNEP report states that global temperatures are projected to rise by 4.1-5.9°C by 2100.
3. Developed nations are responsible for most greenhouse gas emissions driving global temperature changes, as per the UNEP report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

S.S Career Academy answered
Statement 1: Correct. The UNEP Foresight Report 2024 predicts that human activities will affect over 90% of land by 2050.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The UNEP report projects that global temperatures are expected to rise by 2.1-3.9°C by 2100, not 4.1-5.9°C.
Statement 3: Correct. The report indicates that developed nations are responsible for most of the greenhouse gas emissions that are driving global temperature changes.
Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India's Deep Drill Mission aims to drill the Earth's crust to a depth of 6 km for scientific research purposes.
Statement-II: Scientific deep drilling primarily focuses on extracting fossil fuels from deep within the Earth's crust.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement-I correctly describes India's Deep Drill Mission, which is focused on drilling the Earth's crust to a depth of 6 km for scientific purposes, as mentioned in the provided information. However, Statement-II is incorrect as scientific deep drilling, as discussed in the text, is not primarily aimed at extracting fossil fuels but rather at studying the Earth's composition, structure, geological formations, and processes.

What has been a significant shift in India's maize industry in recent years?
  • a)
    Transition from using maize primarily for human consumption to being used for industrial purposes.
  • b)
    Decrease in maize production leading to a rise in imports.
  • c)
    Shift from hybrid maize cultivation to traditional varieties.
  • d)
    Increased reliance on government subsidies for maize farmers.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
In recent years, India's maize industry has witnessed a remarkable transformation with a significant shift from primarily using maize as feed to becoming a crucial component in the fuel and industrial sectors. This shift signifies a broader green revolution in maize, similar to the advancements seen in wheat and rice production. This evolution has been largely driven by private-sector innovations, marking a significant change in the maize industry's landscape.
Remember, the shift towards using maize for industrial purposes highlights the industry's adaptability and responsiveness to changing demands and opportunities in the market.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Passing contentious amendments as a Money Bill allows the government to circumvent the Rajya Sabha, undermining the bicameral nature of Parliament.
Statement-II: The classification of a bill as a money bill limits the Rajya Sabha to only recommending changes, without the power to amend or reject the bill.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement-I correctly highlights that passing contentious amendments as a Money Bill enables the government to bypass the Rajya Sabha, impacting the bicameral nature of Parliament. This is a key concern associated with the use of Money Bills.
However, Statement-II is incorrect. The classification of a bill as a Money Bill does limit the Rajya Sabha's powers, but it goes beyond just recommending changes. In reality, under Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. Therefore, the statement that the Rajya Sabha can recommend changes is inaccurate.

Consider the following statements regarding India's Deep Drill Mission:
1. The Ministry of Earth Science has initiated the process of scientific deep drilling to a depth of 6 km to study the Earth's crust.
2. The drilling process utilizes techniques such as rotary drilling, percussion drilling, hydraulic fracturing, and geophysical surveys.
3. The deep drilling mission has revealed that the Koyna region is highly stressed and susceptible to small perturbations triggering earthquakes.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
All the statements given are correct:
1. Statement 1The Ministry of Earth Science has indeed initiated the process of scientific deep drilling of the Earth’s crust to a depth of 6 km. This initiative is being supported by the Borehole Geophysics Research Laboratory (BGRL) in Karad, Maharashtra, and it has already reached a depth of 3 km.
2. Statement 2: The drilling process employs multiple techniques including rotary drilling, percussion drilling (air hammering), hydraulic fracturing (fracking), and geophysical surveys. These methods help in penetrating deep into the Earth’s crust and studying its various aspects.
3. Statement 3: One of the significant findings from the deep drilling mission is that the Koyna region is highly stressed and susceptible to small perturbations that can trigger earthquakes. This information is crucial for understanding earthquake mechanisms and managing geohazards.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option D

Consider the following statements about ASMITA project:
  1. It was initiated by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
  2. It includes a component of financial literacy to help women manage their finances better.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
  • Context: The Ministry of Education and the University Grants Commission (UGC) launched the ASMITA project to develop 22,000 books in Indian languages over the next five years.
  • This initiative, in collaboration with the Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti, aims to promote Indian languages in education.
  • The project includes three key components: ASMITA, Bahubhasha Shabdkosh, and Real-time Translation Architecture.
  • These initiatives are expected to enhance learning in Indian languages, empower students, and preserve linguistic traditions, aligning with the National Education Policy (NEP).
  • Thirteen nodal universities will lead the project, with a standard operating procedure (SOP) guiding the book-writing process.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor – Transport and Connectivity
2. Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle – Economic Cooperation
3. Ex AJEYA WARRIOR – Joint Exercise with Australia
4. Ex INDRA – Joint Exercise with Russia
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor – Transport and Connectivity- Correct. The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is a transport and connectivity initiative aimed at enhancing maritime links between India and Russia.
2. Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle – Economic Cooperation- Incorrect. The Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle is Russia's highest civilian honor given to Prime Minister Narendra Modi for promoting the strategic partnership and friendly relations between Russia and India. It falls under Diplomatic Achievements, not Economic Cooperation.
3. Ex AJEYA WARRIOR – Joint Exercise with Australia- Incorrect. Ex AJEYA WARRIOR is a joint military exercise between India and the United Kingdom, not Australia.
4. Ex INDRA – Joint Exercise with Russia- Correct. Ex INDRA is a joint military exercise conducted by India and Russia, aimed at enhancing bilateral defense cooperation.
Thus, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: India's maize production has more than tripled since 1999-2000, reaching over 35 million tonnes annually, with average per-hectare yields also rising significantly.
Statement II: Maize is the most important cereal crop in India, surpassing both rice and wheat in terms of total production.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Statement I accurately reflects the significant increase in India's maize production over the years as outlined in the text, highlighting the growth from 11.5 million tonnes to over 35 million tonnes annually since 1999-2000. However, Statement II is incorrect as maize is mentioned as the third most important cereal crop in India after rice and wheat, not the most important. The text specifies that maize accounts for around 10% of total food grain production in the country, indicating its significant but not primary status in comparison to rice and wheat.

What is the primary objective of the China Plus One strategy in global manufacturing?
  • a)
    To solely rely on China for manufacturing operations
  • b)
    To diversify manufacturing and supply chains beyond China
  • c)
    To establish manufacturing hubs only in developed countries
  • d)
    To reduce manufacturing costs in China
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The China Plus One strategy aims to diversify manufacturing and supply chains by establishing operations in countries other than China. This approach helps mitigate risks associated with over-reliance on a single country and addresses concerns related to geopolitical tensions and supply chain disruptions.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Bhutan: Rs 2,068.56 crore
2. Nepal: Rs 700 crore
3. Maldives: Rs 770.90 crore
4. Sri Lanka: Rs 245 crore
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Bhutan: Rs 2,068.56 crore - Correct. Bhutan received Rs 2,068.56 crore in aid.
2. Nepal: Rs 700 crore - Correct. Nepal was allocated Rs 700 crore.
3. Maldives: Rs 770.90 crore - Incorrect. Maldives maintained a consistent allocation of Rs 400 crore, despite a higher revised amount of Rs 770.90 crore for the previous year.
4. Sri Lanka: Rs 245 crore - Correct. Sri Lanka received Rs 245 crore.
Hence, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. GM Mustard - Developed by hybridizing Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2'
2. Barnase and Barstar Genes - Isolated from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
3. Kargil Vijay Diwas - Celebrated to honor soldiers of the 1971 war
4. National War Memorial - Inaugurated in 2019 to commemorate soldiers in various conflicts
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. GM Mustard - Correctly matched. GM Mustard was indeed developed by hybridizing the Indian mustard variety 'Varuna' and 'Early Heera-2'.
2. Barnase and Barstar Genes - Correctly matched. These genes are isolated from the soil bacterium Bacillus amyloliquefaciens.
3. Kargil Vijay Diwas - Incorrectly matched. Kargil Vijay Diwas is celebrated to honor the soldiers who fought in the Kargil War of 1999, not the 1971 war.
4. National War Memorial - Correctly matched. The National War Memorial was inaugurated in 2019 to commemorate soldiers who sacrificed their lives in various conflicts and missions.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Chapter doubts & questions for July 2024 - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2024 is part of CLAT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CLAT 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

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