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Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act, 1947:
1. It created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with no right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
2. It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills.
1. It created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with no right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
2. It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act, 1...
Provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947:
- The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the British rule in India and declare India as an independent and sovereign state from August 5, 1947.
- It provisioned for partition of India and Pakistan as two independent dominions with right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
- It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two nations to frame and adopt any constitution of their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British Parliament including the Independence Act itself.
- It abolished the office of Secretary of State for India and transferred his powers to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth Affairs.
- It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills or ask for reservation of certain bills for his approval.
- It designated the Governor-General of India and provincial governors as constitutional (nominal) heads of the states.
- It dropped the title of Emperor of India from the royal titles of the King of England.
Most Upvoted Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act, 1...
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Background: The Indian Independence Act was passed by the British Parliament on July 18, 1947, and received Royal Assent on July 18, 1947. The Act came into effect on August 15, 1947, and led to the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan.
Statement 1: It created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with no right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
Explanation: The Indian Independence Act created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan. India became a secular democratic republic, while Pakistan was created as an Islamic state. The Act granted full independence to both the dominions, but they remained part of the British Commonwealth. However, the Act did not deprive either of the dominions of their right to secede from the Commonwealth. This right was given to both the dominions by the Statute of Westminster, 1931.
Therefore, the statement "It created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with no right to secede from the British Commonwealth" is incorrect.
Statement 2: It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills.
Explanation: The Indian Independence Act did not deprive the British Monarch of his right to veto bills. However, the Act did provide for the Governor-General of each dominion to give or withhold his assent to bills passed by the legislature. This effectively gave the Governor-General the power to veto bills, but the power was not absolute. The Governor-General could only use his veto power in certain circumstances, such as when a bill was unconstitutional or when it conflicted with the interests of the British Commonwealth.
Therefore, the statement "It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills" is incorrect.
Conclusion: Both statements are incorrect. The Indian Independence Act did not deprive the dominions of their right to secede from the Commonwealth, and it did not deprive the British Monarch of his right to veto bills.
Background: The Indian Independence Act was passed by the British Parliament on July 18, 1947, and received Royal Assent on July 18, 1947. The Act came into effect on August 15, 1947, and led to the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan.
Statement 1: It created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with no right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
Explanation: The Indian Independence Act created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan. India became a secular democratic republic, while Pakistan was created as an Islamic state. The Act granted full independence to both the dominions, but they remained part of the British Commonwealth. However, the Act did not deprive either of the dominions of their right to secede from the Commonwealth. This right was given to both the dominions by the Statute of Westminster, 1931.
Therefore, the statement "It created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with no right to secede from the British Commonwealth" is incorrect.
Statement 2: It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills.
Explanation: The Indian Independence Act did not deprive the British Monarch of his right to veto bills. However, the Act did provide for the Governor-General of each dominion to give or withhold his assent to bills passed by the legislature. This effectively gave the Governor-General the power to veto bills, but the power was not absolute. The Governor-General could only use his veto power in certain circumstances, such as when a bill was unconstitutional or when it conflicted with the interests of the British Commonwealth.
Therefore, the statement "It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills" is incorrect.
Conclusion: Both statements are incorrect. The Indian Independence Act did not deprive the dominions of their right to secede from the Commonwealth, and it did not deprive the British Monarch of his right to veto bills.
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Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act, 1947:1.It created two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with no right to secede from the British Commonwealth.2.It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto bills.Which of the above statements is/are correct?a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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