CLAT Exam  >  CLAT Questions  >  Directions: Read the following passage and an... Start Learning for Free
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.
Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.
Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.
Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.
An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]
Q. Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?
  • a)
    Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.
  • b)
    Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.
  • c)
    No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.
  • d)
    No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Most Upvoted Answer
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section...
The validity of this sale hinges on whether Ganesh's possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement was necessary. As per the Sale of Goods Act, the sale of future goods can be legally valid even if the seller does not have physical possession of the goods at the time of the agreement. Goods do not always need to exist during the agreement; they can become part of a sale later, provided the agreed-upon conditions are met. Therefore, the correct answer is that the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.
Attention CLAT Students!
To make sure you are not studying endlessly, EduRev has designed CLAT study material, with Structured Courses, Videos, & Test Series. Plus get personalized analysis, doubt solving and improvement plans to achieve a great score in CLAT.
Explore Courses for CLAT exam

Top Courses for CLAT

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Question Description
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? for CLAT 2024 is part of CLAT preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. Information about Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for CLAT 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?.
Solutions for Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? in English & in Hindi are available as part of our courses for CLAT. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for CLAT Exam by signing up for free.
Here you can find the meaning of Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? defined & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving the explanation of Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?, a detailed solution for Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? has been provided alongside types of Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? theory, EduRev gives you an ample number of questions to practice Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 specifically deals with sale and agreement to sell. It expresses that, firstly, an agreement to sell products is an agreement whereby the merchant moves or consents to move the property in merchandise to the purchaser at a cost. There might be an agreement of offer between one section proprietor and another. Secondly, an agreement to sell might be total or restrictive. Thirdly, where under an agreement to sell, the property in the merchandise is moved from the seller to the buyer, the agreement is known as a sale, yet where the exchange of the property in the products is to happen at a future time or subject to some condition from that point to be satisfied, the agreement is called an agreement to sell. Lastly, an agreement to sell turns into a sale when the time slips by or the conditions are satisfied depending upon which the property in the merchandise is to be moved.Section 4(1) defines sale as a contract, whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price or consideration. Thus, it happens in the present.Such an event of sale is fixed, conditional and binding upon both the parties. A contract of sale is made by an idea to purchase or sell merchandise at a cost and the affirmation of such an offer. The existing goods mostly form the subject of the contract of sale. However, the goods could also be owned or possessed by the seller of future goods.Title is an important condition precedent to the sale. If it is not with the seller, then the sale will not be valid unless the condition stipulated is with respect to future goods but will be only an agreement to sale. In such a condition, the seller will be liable to compensate for any loss to the buyer.An agreement to sell can be defined as the transfer of property in goods that is to take place in future time or the transfer might take place depending on the fulfillment of certain conditions. The same had been defined in Section 4(3). An agreement to sell also becomes a sale when the given time elapses or the conditions that are needed for the transfer to happen get fulfilled. Thus, an agreement to sell establishes the terms and conditions of the offer of a property by the seller to the buyer.[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sale and Agreement to Sell: An Analysis of Statutory Provisions, blog by ipleaders]Q.Ganesh did not have physical possession of the headphones at the time of the agreement when he agreed to sell them to Anmol. However, he committed to delivering them within two months. Within the specified two-month period, Ganesh received the headphones and handed them over to Anmol, who rejected the delivery, asserting that it was not a valid sale because Ganesh did not possess the headphones at the time of the agreement. Is this sale legally valid?a)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the future goods at the time of the agreement.b)Yes, the sale is valid because Ganesh had possession of the headphones at the time of the transfer.c)No, the sale is not valid because Ganesh did not have possession of the headphones when entering into the agreement.d)No, it constitutes misrepresentation as Ganesh never possessed the product he intended to sell.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? tests, examples and also practice CLAT tests.
Explore Courses for CLAT exam

Top Courses for CLAT

Explore Courses
Signup for Free!
Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days! Learn & Practice with 1000+ FREE Notes, Videos & Tests.
10M+ students study on EduRev