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With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus. Information about With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?.

Solutions for With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? in English & in Hindi are available as part of our courses for UPSC. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free.

Here you can find the meaning of With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? defined & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving the explanation of With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?, a detailed solution for With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? has been provided alongside types of With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? theory, EduRev gives you an ample number of questions to practice With reference to the economic policies of the British in India and its impact, consider the following statements: India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The organised money market was completely under the British control. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Expalantion: The British continued to exploit India's economy. The burden of East India Company's London establishment and dividends to its shareholders was replaced after 1858, by the expenditure on the Secretary of State's India Office. The Indian debt in England which was already considerable as a result of the Company's military ventures and suppression of the mutiny was further increased, when compensation to the Company's shareholders was added to Government of India's account. Both Home charges and private remittances were channelised through Indian exports as pointed out by the nationalist economists from Dadabhai Naoroji onwards. The character of economic drain which was originally mercantilist, underwent a change and it now took the form of exploitation through free trade. In the later stage, it got linked with the structure of British Indian finance capitalism. Statement 1 is correct: In fact, India's export surplus became vital for Britains' balance of payments by the end of the nineteenth century. The British rule inhibited and curbed indigenous industry through a variety of structural constraints. The government policies actively promoted the European enterprise and discriminated against Indians. Statement 2 is not correct: The outstanding feature of the Indian money market was its dichotomy; it consisted of two fairly distinct sectors, the organized and the unorganized. These two were not entirely unconnected, but the links were rather loose. The constituents of the organized sector of the Indian money market were the Imperial Bank of India, the exchange banks, and the Indian joint-stock banks. The unorganized sector comprised the indigenous bankers, moneylenders, chit funds, nidhis, etc., etc. The co-operative credit institutions occupied a somewhat intermediate position. a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? tests, examples and also practice UPSC tests.