UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2022: Indian Polity | Indian Polity for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Ans: (c)
Statistics on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in India is an annual publication of the Labour Bureau which is an attached office under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Labour Bureau:

• Labour Bureau, an attached office under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, was set up on 1st October 1946.
• Labour Bureau collects and publishes statistics and related information on wages, earnings, productivity, absenteeism, labour turnover, industrial relations, working and living conditions and evaluation of working of various labour enactments etc. Besides important economic indicators like Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial, Agricultural and Rural Labourers; wage rate indices and data on industrial relations, socio-economic conditions in the organised and unorganised sector of industry etc are also released by the office.

Ans: (a)
Coal Controller Organisation: Office of Coal Controller (earlier Coal Commissioner), established in 1916, is one of the oldest offices in Indian Coal sector. Main aim behind setting up this office was to have Government control to adequately meet the coal requirement during First World War.
Functions of Coal Controller’s Organisation are listed as below:

• Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal. To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.
• Assessment and collection of excise duty levied on all raw coal raised and dispatched. Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of Central and State Government, national and international organization. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The Coal Controller’s Organisation monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite Blocks and their associated end-use projects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It does not ensure that coal mining company deliver the coal to end user in prescribed time. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Ans: (a)
Land Governance under the fifth Schedule area: Governor can make regulations with regard to the:

• Prohibition and restriction of transfer of land from and between Scheduled Tribes – almost every State in the country, and certainly all States with Scheduled Areas, have enacted legislations relating to prevention/prohibition of land transfer in Scheduled Areas by tribals to non- tribals, and in some cases, even the transfer of land between tribals inter-se is restricted. Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Regulation of allotment of land to tribals in Scheduled Areas. 
• Regulation of moneylending in Scheduled Areas to tribals.

Ans: (d)
India Sanitation Coalition:

• India Sanitation Coalition was formed under the aegis of FICCI.
• The vision of the Coalition is to enable and support an ecosystem for sustainable sanitation through a partnership mode. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

National Institute of Urban Affairs:

• Established in 1976, the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development.
• As a hub for the generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast urbanizing India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future.
• In 1976, NIUA was appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban development plans. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, alongside other government and civil sectors, to identify key areas of research, and address the lacunae in urban policy and planning. NIUA is associated with MoHUA but not the apex body of MoHUA. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Ans: (d)

• Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It comes under the Ministry of Commerce. Hence, statement 2 is not correct
• The Board is constituted of 31 members (including Chairman) drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, tea traders, tea brokers, consumers, and representatives of Governments from the principal tea producing states, and trade unions. The Board is reconstituted every three years.
• Foreign Offices: Currently Tea Board has two overseas offices located at Dubai, and Moscow. All these foreign offices of the Board are designed to undertake the various promotional measures to boost up export of Indian tea. These offices also act as a liaison office for interaction between importers of Indian tea of the respective regions as well as Indian Exporters. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Its headquarters is situated in Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Ans: (b)

• The 1963 Bill prepared by the Satyapal Committee was reviewed by a Joint Committee of Parliament (1969-70) (Bhargava Committee). Based on which the Contempt of Court Act, 1971 was enacted. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Article 129 of the Constitution empowered the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of self. Article 215 gave the respective power to the High Courts. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• According to the Contempt of Court Act, 1971, contempt refers to the offence of showing disrespect to the dignity or authority of a court. The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution. However, Article 129 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of self. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The power to punish for contempt is a constitutional power vested in the Supreme Court which cannot be curtailed or abolished even by a legislative act. Article 142(2) states that "subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament in this behalf" the Supreme Court shall have full power to make any order on the punishment of contempt. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Ans: (b)

• Government law officers, legal firms and patent jurists are recognized as advocates, while corporate lawyers are outside the recognition of advocates. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under Section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates legal practice and legal education in India. Its members are elected from amongst lawyers in India and thus represent the Indian Bar. It sets standards of professional conduct, etiquette and exercises disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar.
• It also sets standards for legal education and provides recognition to universities whose law degrees will serve as qualifications for students to enroll as advocates at the undergraduate level. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Ans: (b)

• The Constitution Amendment Bill can be reinstated by a minister or a private member and for this the prior approval of the President is not necessary. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The President is bound to assent to the bill. They can neither keep the bill with themselves nor send it to the Parliament for reconsideration. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is mandatory to pass the Constitution Amendment Bill separately in each house. In case of disagreement between the two houses, there is no provision to pass the bill in the joint sitting of both the houses. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Ans: (b)

• There are three categories of ministers in the Council of Ministers - Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers. The difference between them is- their hierarchy, their salary and political importance. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The total number of members of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision has been included by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2003. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Ans: (b)

• It is the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha to pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, all the ministers, including the ministers of the Rajya Sabha, have to resign. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The resolution of the proclamation of emergency will be required to be passed by a majority of the total number of members of each House of Parliament and 2/3 majority of the members present and voting. A Declaration of National Emergency is placed before each House of Parliament and if it is not approved within a month, it does not remain in force, but once approved, it can remain in operation for six months. As a result, the Proclamation of Emergency is ratified by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It is not the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The impeachment motion of the President should be passed by a special majority (two- thirds) in the original house. The motion is then sent to the other house for consideration. The second house acts as an inspector. A Select Committee has been constituted to investigate the allegations against the President. Impeachment of the President of India comes under both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It is not the exclusive power of Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Ans: (b)

• A public representative can be disqualified under the Anti-Defection Act if:
  • An elected member voluntarily gives up the membership of a political party. An independent elected member joins a political party.
  • A member votes against the party in the House. 
  • A member abstains from voting.
  • After the expiry of six months, a nominated member joins a political party.
• Therefore, any nominated MLA can join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House but not after six months. Hence statement 1 is not correct. As per the law, the Speaker of the House has the power to decide the disqualification of the members.
• If any complaint is received regarding the party of the Speaker of the House, any other member elected by the House has the right to take a decision in this regard. Therefore, this law does not prescribe any time period within which the presiding officer has to decide the defection case. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Ans: (d)

• According to the Constitution, only the Attorney General can take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which s/he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the solicitor general of India and additional solicitor general of India. They assist the Attorney General in carrying out official duties. The Constitution does not mention the solicitor general and additional solicitor general. Hence statement 1 not correct.
• The procedure and grounds for removal of the Attorney General are not mentioned in the Constitution. He holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time). Therefore, the Attorney General of India does not resign on the resignation of the government. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Ans: (c)

• Mandamus is issued to direct a public authority to do its duty. Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a court. It cannot be issued to compel an authority to do something against a statutory provision. Therefore, no mandate will be issued against any private organisation unless it has been entrusted with any public work. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Mandamus is issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Supreme Court or High Court issues this writ to prevent illegal usurpation of public office by any person. Through this writ, the court examines the validity of a person's claim to public office. This writ empowers any person other than the aggrieved person to seek redress. Therefore, any public-prone person can be a petitioner to move the court to obtain a writ of right. Hence option 3 is correct.

Ans: (b) 

• Ayushman Bharat is a flagship scheme of the country, which was launched as per the recommendation of National Health Policy 2017 to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC). Under Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, citizens will be able to get their Ayushman Bharat health account number, which can be linked to their digital health records.
• Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE). Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
• Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission will have a national footprint and will enable seamless portability across the country through a Health ID – Personal Health Identifier, with supporting blocks, including adoption of Health Information Standards will play a pivotal role in national portability. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Ans: (a)

• According to the rules of procedure and conduct of business in the Lok Sabha, “The election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as may be decided by the Speaker. As per convention, the post of Deputy Speaker is given to the opposition party in India. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Till the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually elected from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, it has been a general consensus that the post of Speaker is given to the ruling party/coalition and the post of Deputy Speaker is given to the main opposition party. Hence option 2 is correct.
• He is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India, the rules of procedure and conduct of business of the Lok Sabha and parliamentary matters inside the House. In matters of interpretation of these provisions, it often gives decisions which are respected by the members and which are binding in nature. That is, his decision is final. Article 95 provides for the power of the Vice-Chairman or other person to perform the duties of the office of the Speaker or to act as the Speaker. Therefore, while presiding over the sitting of the House by the Deputy Speaker, his power is exactly the same as that of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and no appeal can lie against his decisions. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members. After the election of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected. Hence option 4 is not correct.