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UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Q1: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) 
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (c) 

  • In India, power is generated from conventional (Thermal, Nuclear & Hydro) and renewable sources (Wind, Solar, Biomass etc).
    • However, Major production of Electricity is achieved through coal, a thermal power plant which is around 75% of the total power generation. Hence, statement-I is correct.
  • However, uranium enriched to the extent of at least 60% is not required for the production of electricity. Uranium enrichment is the process of increasing the concentration of uranium-235, which is the fissile isotope of uranium that can sustain a nuclear chain reaction.
    • For civilian nuclear power plants, uranium is typically enriched to about 3-5% of uranium-235, which is sufficient for light water reactors that are commonly used for electricity generation. Hence, statement-II is not correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q2: Consider the following statements:

  1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
  2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
  3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)
Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Wular Lake is the 2nd largest fresh-water lake of Asia. It is sited in the Bandipora district in Jammu and Kashmir, India. Main source of water for Wular Lake is
  • River Jhelum. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Wular Lake is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake that existed in ancient times. The premises of this lake also form a popular sunset point.
  • Kolleru, one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, (it was designated a sanctuary in October 1999) is situated between the Krishna and West Godavari districts of the state.
    • The Krishna River does not directly feed the Kolleru Lake. The Kolleru Lake is fed by two seasonal rivers, Budameru and Tammileru, which are tributaries of the Krishna River. Therefore, the Krishna River indirectly feeds the Kolleru Lake through its tributaries. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • The meandering of Gandak River did not form the Kanwar Lake, which is a freshwater oxbow lake located in Begusarai district of Bihar, India.
    • The Kanwar Lake was formed by a cut-off meander of an old channel of Burhi Gandak River. The Burhi Gandak River flows parallel to the eastern side of the Gandak River through an old channel. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct.

Q3: Consider the following pairs:

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)
Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Kamarajar Port, formerly known as Ennore Port, is the first major port in India registered as a company and is the only corporatized major port in India. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    • It was declared as the 12th major port of India in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999.
    • It is located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Tamil Nadu.
  • Mundra Port is India's largest commercial port located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. It is owned and operated by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ), which is a part of Adani Group.
    • It was established in 1998 as a private sector port and became operational in October 2001. It handles various types of cargo such as containers, bulk, break- bulk, liquid, chemicals, automobiles, etc. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Visakhapatnam Port, located on the east coast of India in Andhra Pradesh, is not the largest container port in India. It is one of the oldest and largest major ports in India, handling various types of cargo such as iron ore, coal, petroleum products, fertilisers, containers, etc.
    • The largest container port in India is Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT), located near Mumbai in Maharashtra. Hence, pair 3 is NOT correctly matched.

Q4: Consider the following trees:

  1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
  2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
  3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a) 
Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Jackfruit are evergreen, latex-producing trees of up to 25 m that are native to India and Malaysia, that have spread to Sri Lanka, China, South-east Asia and to tropical Africa. They are cultivated for the large fruits that can vary in shape and size, and for timber.
  • Mahua is a tropical deciduous fast-growing tree and home to Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra, and Bihar.
  • Teak is a tropical hardwood tree and deciduous in nature. It is native to south and southeast Asia, but is also cultivated in many other regions.
  • Teak wood is valued for its durability and water resistance, and is used for various purposes such as boat building, furniture, carving, and veneer

Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q5: Consider the following statements:

  1. India has more arable area than China.
  2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
  3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) 
Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Arable land is the land that can be used for growing crops. Arable land is an important indicator of a country’s agricultural potential and food security.
    • According to the World Population Review, India has 156.1M Hectares of arable land, which is about 47% of its total land area.
    • China has 119.5M Hectares of arable land, which is about 12% of its total land area. India has more arable land than China because it has a larger proportion of plains and river basins, which are suitable for cultivation. China has more mountainous and desert regions, which are not suitable for cultivation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The proportion of irrigated area is around 48% in India and 40-41% in China. This means that India has a higher percentage of its arable land under irrigation than China.
    • However, China has invested more in irrigation infrastructure and technology, such as dams, canals, pumps, sprinklers and drip systems, to cope with water scarcity and increase agricultural productivity. India has a large dependence on rainfall and groundwater for irrigation, which are subject to variability and depletion. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • In agriculture, productivity can be measured by the yield per unit area of land, which is the amount of crop produced per hectare or acre.
    • The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is 2.4 tonnes for rice and 3 tonnes for wheat, while in China it is 6.7 tonnes for rice and 5 tonnes for wheat. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.

Q6: Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
(a)
Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c) Naupada Swamp
(d) Rann of Kutch

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (d)
The Rann of Kutch is a large salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in Gujarat, India. The present day Kutch’s shoreline and the sand dune deposition is the result of hundreds of years of rainless years around 5,000 years ago.

  • Due to these severe climate conditions, the sea levels fell, leading to the formation of dunes along the coastline.

Q7: Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
(a) 
Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Titanium

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (d)
India is endowed with large resources of heavy minerals which occur mainly along coastal stretches of the country. Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the two chief mineral sources of titanium. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q8: Consider the following statements:

  1. Amarkantak Hills are at confluence of Vindhya and the Sahyadri Ranges
  2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
  3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)
Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The Amarkantak Hill is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Range. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
  • Biligirirangan Hills is situated in south-eastern Karnataka while the Satpura Range rises in eastern Gujarat running east through the border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh and ends in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh while Western Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q9: With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) 
The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation which in short is termed as insolation.
  • The atmosphere is largely transparent to shortwave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation.

Hence, statement (c) is correct.


Q10: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Contrary to the belief that all that vegetation, warmth, and moisture that the soil must be very rich, the soil in tropical rainforests is very poor. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose more quickly than in other climates, thus releasing and losing its nutrients rapidly.
  • The high volume of rain in tropical rainforests washes nutrients out of the soil more quickly than in other climates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • If the soil is so poor in tropical rainforests, how does such a dense array of shrubs and trees grow there? - On the ground of the rainforest, there is a thick layer of quickly decaying plants and animals. Nutrients are washed by the heavy rains almost directly from the rotting surface material into the trees without entering the soil much.

Q11: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The specific heat is the property of a substance which determines the change in the temperature of the substance (undergoing no phase change) when a given quantity of heat is absorbed (or rejected) by it.
  • Water has about four times higher heat capacity than land, i.e. it takes much more energy to increase the water temperature and the water temperature will therefore respond slower to temperature changes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • During the summer, the land (continents) heats up more quickly and to a higher temperature than the water (oceans). Therefore, the temperature difference between them is greater. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Q12: Consider the following statements:

  1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
  2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)
1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • When an earthquake occurs, two main types of vibratory waves move through the body of the earth from the point of fracture. The primary, or P, waves travel most quickly and are the first to be registered by the seismograph. Secondary, or S, waves travel more slowly. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • As S waves have a greater amplitude than P waves the two groups are easily distinguishable on the seismogram.
  • Seismic P waves are also called compressional or longitudinal waves, they compress and expand (oscillate) the ground back and forth (to and fro) in the direction of travel, like sound waves.
    • Particle motion is parallel to the direction of propagation (longitudinal). Material returns to its original shape after the wave passes.
  • The S waves in an earthquake are examples of Transverse waves.
    • In a transverse wave the particle displacement is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. The particles do not move along with the wave; they simply oscillate up and down about their individual equilibrium positions as the wave passes by. Pick a single particle and watch its motion.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.


Q13: With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :

  1. None of them uses seawater.
  2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
  3. None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?
(a)
Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE  View Answer

Ans: (d)

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSEUPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE

Once-through based

  • Mostly sea water based but few old inland plants still consume freshwater
  • Water withdrawal rate of a once-through plant can range from 70-200m3
  • Freshwater based once-through plants disallowed from 1999
  • India still has a legacy of old and polluting freshwater based once-through plants

According to above given figures it is clear that coal based thermal power plants in India use seawater. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSEHence, statement 2 is correct.

Adani Power Limited is the largest private thermal power producer in India with an installed capacity of 13,650 MW. hence, statement 3 is not correct.


The document UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography | Geography for UPSC CSE is a part of the UPSC Course Geography for UPSC CSE.
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FAQs on UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2023: Geography - Geography for UPSC CSE

1. What are some important topics to study in Geography for the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. Some important topics to study in Geography for the UPSC Prelims exam include physical geography, Indian geography, world geography, climate change, and environmental geography.
2. How can I effectively prepare for the Geography section of the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. To effectively prepare for the Geography section of the UPSC Prelims exam, it is recommended to focus on understanding concepts, practicing map-based questions, referring to NCERT textbooks, and solving previous year question papers.
3. What role does Geography play in the UPSC Civil Services exam syllabus?
Ans. Geography plays a significant role in the UPSC Civil Services exam syllabus as it covers various aspects such as physical geography, human geography, environmental geography, and geographical mapping skills.
4. Can you provide some tips for scoring well in the Geography section of the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. Some tips for scoring well in the Geography section of the UPSC Prelims exam include regular revision of concepts, practicing map-based questions, focusing on current affairs related to geography, and seeking guidance from experts or mentors.
5. Are there any specific resources or books recommended for Geography preparation for the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. Some recommended resources for Geography preparation for the UPSC Prelims exam include NCERT textbooks, GC Leong's 'Certificate Physical and Human Geography', 'Oxford School Atlas', and previous year question papers.
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