UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2025: Indian Polity | Indian Polity for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Ans: (a)
Only Statement III is correct: The minimum age for a Lokpal Chairperson or Member is 45 years.
Clarifications:

• Statement I is incorrect: Lokpal’s jurisdiction covers Indian public servants, but not those posted abroad.
• Statement II is incorrect: The Chairperson can be a former judge or eminent person with 25+ years of expertise, not necessarily the CJI.
• Statement IV is incorrect: Lokpal can investigate a sitting PM, but with restrictions in sensitive areas.

Ans: (a)
Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is constitutionally established. The others are created through statutory or executive measures.
I. Inter-State Council – Correct
Constituted under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution to promote coordination between the Centre and States.
II. National Security Council – Incorrect
Set up in 1998 via an executive order, not enshrined in the Constitution.
III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect
Formed under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, making them statutory but not constitutional bodies.

Ans: (c)
An Ordinance is a temporary law enacted by the President (under Article 123) or Governor (under Article 213) when the legislature is not in session. It carries the same legal weight as a regular law but is subject to constitutional constraints.

Statement I: Correct
An Ordinance can amend any Central Act, similar to a law passed by Parliament, provided it complies with constitutional provisions.

Statement II: Incorrect
Ordinances cannot violate Fundamental Rights, as per Article 13(2) of the Constitution. Any provision that does so is void.

Statement III: Correct
Ordinances can be applied retrospectively, meaning they may take effect from a prior date.

Ans: (d)
The Indian Constitution grants legal immunities and privileges to ensure the independent functioning of constitutional offices and legislative bodies.
Statement I: Correct
Under Article 361(1), the Governor is not accountable to any court for actions performed in their official capacity.
Statement II: Correct
Article 361(2) prohibits the initiation or continuation of criminal proceedings against a Governor during their term of office.
Statement III: Correct
Article 194(2) provides immunity to State Legislators for statements made or votes cast in the State Legislature or its committees.

Ans: (d)
Neither of the statements regarding the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is correct.
Statement I: Incorrect
The authority to decide on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule lies with the Speaker or Chairman of the respective House, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers.
Statement II: Incorrect
The term ‘political party’ is explicitly referenced in the Tenth Schedule, which governs the disqualification of members on grounds of defection.

Ans: (d)
Regarding the regulation of minerals under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act):
Statement I: Incorrect
The regulation of minor minerals primarily falls under the jurisdiction of State Governments, as per the MMDR Act, 1957. States are empowered to frame rules for granting extraction concessions for minor minerals.
Statement II: Correct
The Central Government has the authority to designate and notify which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act, 1957.
Thus, Statement I is incorrect, while Statement II is correct.

Ans: (c)
Statement I: Correct
Under Article 94 of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha remains in office even after the House is dissolved, continuing until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted House to ensure continuity.
Statement II: Incorrect
There is no constitutional requirement for the Speaker to resign from their political party. Resigning from the party is a convention, not a mandate, to maintain impartiality in their role.
Statement III: Correct
As per Article 94, the Speaker can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of the members of the Lok Sabha, with a minimum of 14 days' prior notice.
Thus, Statements I and III are correct, while Statement II is incorrect.

Ans: (c)
Each of the following pairs accurately links a constitutional provision to its respective part in the Constitution of India.
Statement I: Directive Principles of State Policy – Correct
Article 50, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State to ensure judicial independence.
Statement II: Fundamental Duties – Correct
Article 51A(f), part of the Fundamental Duties, requires citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of India's composite culture.
Statement III: Fundamental Rights – Correct
Article 24, within the Fundamental Rights, prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in hazardous occupations, such as factories or mines, to safeguard their well-being.
Thus, all three pairs are correctly matched with their respective constitutional provisions.

Ans: (b)
The following evaluates the accuracy of mappings between investigative bodies, their functions, and their parent ministries or departments.
Row I: Incorrect
The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) implements the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs as incorrectly stated.
Row II: Correct
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is responsible for enforcing the Customs Act, 1962, and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
Row III: Correct
The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management supports big data analytics for tax enforcement and operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
Thus, Rows II and III are correctly mapped, while Row I is incorrect due to the wrong attribution of the parent ministry.

Ans: (d)
Statement I: Incorrect
The Constitution of India does not mandate the establishment of intermediate-level Panchayats (Panchayat Samitis) in all states. States with a population below 20 lakh are exempt from creating this tier, as per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment. This allows smaller states flexibility in their Panchayati Raj structure.
Statement II: Incorrect
The minimum age for eligibility to become a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, as specified under the Panchayati Raj Acts of various states, aligning with the Representation of the People Act. The claim of a 30-year minimum age is inaccurate.
Statement III: Incorrect
The State Finance Commission is appointed by the Governor of the state, not the Chief Minister, as per Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution. The Governor is responsible for constituting the commission to review the financial position of Panchayats and make recommendations.

Ans: (a)
The Constitution grants the Governor discretionary powers in specific situations, such as reserving a state bill for the President’s consideration under Article 200 or appointing a Chief Minister in a hung assembly. These discretionary actions are final, as per Article 163(2). However, the President cannot independently intervene in state legislation without the Governor’s involvement, as only the Governor has the authority to reserve a bill for the President under Article 200.
Evaluation:

• Statement I: Correct – The Governor can exercise discretion in cases like reserving bills or appointing a Chief Minister in a hung assembly, and Article 163(2) upholds the finality of such decisions.
• Statement II: Incorrect – The President cannot unilaterally reserve a state bill for consideration; this power lies solely with the Governor under Article 200.

Ans: (a)
Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, amendments that affect the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. This includes changes to the Union List in the Seventh Schedule, as it alters the federal balance of power, and modifications to the extent of a state’s executive power, which impacts the distribution of authority between the Centre and States. However, amendments concerning the conditions of the Governor’s office do not require state ratification.
Evaluation:

• Statement I: Correct – Amending the Union List in the Seventh Schedule affects the federal structure, necessitating ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
• Statement II: Correct – Changes to the extent of a state’s executive power impact the Centre-State power distribution, requiring state ratification.
• Statement III: Incorrect – Alterations to the conditions of the Governor’s office do not affect the federal structure and thus do not require state ratification.

Ans: (d)
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it remains under the administration of the State Government, but the Governor is granted special powers to promote tribal welfare.
Evaluation:

• Statement I: Incorrect – The State Government retains its executive powers in Scheduled Areas, and there is no provision for a local body to assume full administrative control.
• Statement II: Incorrect – The Union Government cannot take over the complete administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even with the Governor’s recommendation.

Ans: (a)
Statement I is correct because the President's pardoning power, while significant, is not absolute and can be subject to judicial review on limited grounds, such as if the decision is made with mala fide intent (bad faith) or is arbitrary.
Statement II is incorrect because the President is not strictly bound to act solely on the advice of the Council of Ministers when exercising the pardoning power. The President can exercise this power with some discretion, as it is a constitutional prerogative under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution, and not entirely dependent on the Council's advice.

Thus, only Statement I is correct.