Q.1. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: (2025)
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer is Option (d)
The Indian Constitution grants legal immunities and privileges to ensure the independent functioning of constitutional offices and legislative bodies.
Statement I: Correct
Under Article 361(1), the Governor is not accountable to any court for actions performed in their official capacity.
Statement II: Correct
Article 361(2) prohibits the initiation or continuation of criminal proceedings against a Governor during their term of office.
Statement III: Correct
Article 194(2) provides immunity to State Legislators for statements made or votes cast in the State Legislature or its committees.
Q.2. Consider the following statements: (2025)
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Correct Answer is Option (a)
The Constitution grants the Governor discretionary powers in specific situations, such as reserving a state bill for the President’s consideration under Article 200 or appointing a Chief Minister in a hung assembly. These discretionary actions are final, as per Article 163(2). However, the President cannot independently intervene in state legislation without the Governor’s involvement, as only the Governor has the authority to reserve a bill for the President under Article 200.
Evaluation:
Q.3. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: (2025)
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer is Option (a)
Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, amendments that affect the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. This includes changes to the Union List in the Seventh Schedule, as it alters the federal balance of power, and modifications to the extent of a state’s executive power, which impacts the distribution of authority between the Centre and States. However, amendments concerning the conditions of the Governor’s office do not require state ratification.
Evaluation:
Q.4. With reference to the legislative Assembly of a state in India, consider the following Statements: (2019-I)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is Option (c)
Q.5. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019-I)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee(1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution(2000)
Correct Answer is Option (c)
Centre-State relations:
Q.6. Consider the following statements: (2018-I)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is Option (c)
Q.7. Consider the following statements: (2015-I)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is Option (d)
The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the legislative assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The chairman of the legislative council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
Q.8. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014 - I)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer is Option (b)
The governor has Constitutional discretion in cases of Reservation of bill for consideration of the President and Recommendation of the imposition of President's rule. Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are definitely right. Moreover Governor only appoints those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. So Governor doesn’t have “Discretion” in appointment of the minister. Therefore 2 is wrong.
Q.9. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2013 - I)
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
Correct Answer is Option (c)
No procedure has been laid down in the constitution of India for the removal of a governor from his/her post.
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