UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims): Local Government- Panchayati Raj & Municipality | Indian Polity for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Q.1. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme(MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?    (2020-I)

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education etc.,
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer is Option (d)

• 15 percent of MPLADS funds are to be utilized for areas inhabited by SC population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by ST population. So, #2 is correct. b eliminated.
• The funds released under the Scheme are nonlapsable, i.e., the entitlement of funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility. So, #3 is wrong. Upon reading the official guidelines page 34: District Authority would inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. So, #4 is right answer therefore Answer is d.

Q.2. Consider the following statements:    (2019 - I)

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Bth 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)
This act establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds. But, in the bare act there is no mention of mandatory People's participation so, #2 is wrong. Thus answer A: only 1 correct.

Q.3. As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018:    (2019 - I)

1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)
2018-March: Indian Express: As per the the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018:

• No workman employed on fixed term employment basis shall be entitled to any notice or pay, if his services are terminated by non-renewal of contract. So, #1 is right.
• No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman. So, #2 is right. Answer C: both correct.

Q.4. Consider the following statements about particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:   (2019 - I)

1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 92 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (c)
75 tribal groups have been categorized categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands. Says Tribal Ministry website. So, #1 is right but #3 is wrong. This eliminates all options except c.

Q.5. Consider the following statements:    (2019 - I)

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a "protocol against the smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air".
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (c)
United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. So, #2 is right, this eliminates A. Upon checking the official webpages of UNTOC and UNCAC, it's evident that #3 is not related with UNTOC but UNCAC. So, #3 is wrong. So, by elimination, we are left with answer c.

Q.6. Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to    (2016-I)
(a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood
(b) release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood
(c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers
(d) release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them

Correct Answer is Option (c)
It is a campaign for eradication of inhuman practice of manual scavenging and comprehensive rehabilitation of manual scavengers in India. Ashif Shaikh is well known for his role in the campaign (Rashatriya Garima Abhiyan) through various campaigns of Jan Sahas.
Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is an NGO-led movement for manual scavengers.

Q.7. Consider the following statements:   (2016-I)

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (b)
This question can be directly solved from Disha publication’s Polity compendium, page P-121.

• The minimum age to contest Panchayat elections is 21 years.
• 2nd statement is correct.

Q.8. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following ?    (2015 - I)

1. People's participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Financial mobilization is not the fundamental objective of PRls. Even though Panchayats have the powers to collect revenue.
Political accountability refers to the responsibility or obligation of government officials (both politicians and civil servants) to act in the best interests of society or face consequences.

Q.9. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?    (2013 - I)
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector / Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Section C of the Forest Dwellerwws Act provides a transparent three step procedure for deciding on who gets rights. Firstly, the Gram Sabha makes a recommendation- i.e, who has been cultivating land for how long, which minor forest produce is collected; etc. The Gram Sabha plays this role because it is a public body where all people participate and hence is fully democratic and transparent. The Gram Sabha’s recommendation goes through two stages of screening committees- the Taluka and the District levels.

Q.10. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?     (2013 - I)
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The salient feature of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) and the modalities worked out to grant rights to tribals in the country are:

1. Legislation on Panchayats shall be in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practices of community resources;
2. Habitation or a group of habitations or a hamlet or a group of hamlets comprising a community and managing its affairs in accordance with tradiations and customs; and shall have a separate Gram Sabha.
3. Every Gram Sabha to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of people, their cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute resolution.

Q.11. Consider the following statements:   (2013 - I)
The parliamentary Committee on public accounts

1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)
At present the Public Accounts committee consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The function of the committee is

• To examine the annual audit reports of the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
• To examine the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union government and any other accounts laid before the Lok-Sabha.

Q.12. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?    (2012 - I)

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Recommendation of Gram sabha or Panchayat at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals (not for any minerals) in the sheduled areas. Therefore statement 3 is false.

Q.13. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?    (2011 - I)

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (c)
District planning committee comes under 74th Amendment not in 73rd Amendment.

Q.14. Consider the following statements:    (2011 - I)
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee:

1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Article 243ZE – Committee on Metropolitan Planning does not have a sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in metropolitan area. Metropolitan planning committee is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India.
According to the constitution of India, every Metropolitan area shall have a Metropolitan planning committee to prepare a draft development plan.

Q.15. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:   (2009)
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Duration of Panchayats is five year. Fresh election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed before the expiry of its term; or in case of dissolution fresh election is to be conducted before the expiry of a period of 6 months from the date of its dissolution.

Q.16. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?    (2009)
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi

Correct Answer is Option (b)
In 1688, the first Municipal Corporation of India was set up in Madras.

Q.17. Consider the following statements:    (2007)

1. The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labour Projects (NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2.  Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (b)
National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme was launched by the government of India in 1988 for rehabilitation of Child Labour.The scheme focuses on

• All the child labours below the age of 14 yeas, identified in the target area.
• All the adolescent labours below the age of 18 years, occupied in hazardous occupations or processes.
• Families of such children mentioned in the above points. Gurupadaswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour.

Q.18. Consider the following statements:    (2006)

1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect as equal pay for equal work for both men and women is provided under Article 39(d) in Directive Principles of the State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution. Under Article – 340 of the Indian constitution, it is obligatory for the government to promote the welfare of the other Backward classes (OBC).

Q.19. Consider the following statements:      (2005)

1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of Municipalities a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)
73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were passed by Parliament in December, 1992. Through these amendments local self-governance was introduced in rural and urban India. The Acts came into force as the constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 on April 24, 1993 and the constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 on June 1, 1993. These amendments added two new parts to the constitution, namely, 73rd Amendment added part IX titled "The Panchayats" and 74th Amendment added part IXA titled "The Municipalities". The Local bodies-'Panchayats' and 'Municipalities' came under Part IX and IXA of the Constitution after 43 years of India becoming a republic.

Q.20. Consider the following:    (2005)

1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases

For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (d)
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats. Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes / cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled / compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filling a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate.

Q.21. Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R): Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 
In the context of above two statements,  which one of the following is correct?      (2004)
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Rural sanitation is not a subject in the Concurrent List. Public Health and Sanitation comes under the State List. Personal and food hygiene have been major cause of many diseases in developing countries. It was in this context that the central Rural Sanitation Programmer (CRSP) was launched in 1986.

Q.22. With reference to Indian public finance, consider the following statements:     (2004)

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of the Parliament
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund and a Public Account under Article 266 and a Contingency Fund for each State under Article 267. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are not subject to a Vote of Parliament.

Q.23. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of:    (2004)
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource Development

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The Archaeological Survey of India, established in 1861 is a department of the Government of India attached to the Ministry of Culture. ASI is responsible for archaeological studies and the preservation of archaeological heritage of the country in accordance with the various acts of the Indian Parliament.

Q.24.  Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?    (2003)
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi-judicial body established under an Act of the Parliament.
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media person so as to have easy access to information from government sources.
(c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspaper
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Madhya Pradesh publishes largest number of newspapers in India.

Q.25. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the:     (2002)
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliament Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for informal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the Government and the manner of their implementation.

Q.26. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:    (2001)

1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 4 only

Correct Answer is Option (d)
There are 24 High Courts in India at present. Six (Bombay, Calcutta, Guwahati, Kerala, Madras and Punjab and Haryana High Court) of them have jurisdiction over more than one state. National Capital Territory of Delhi has High Court of its own.

Q.27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:    (2001)
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:    (2000)
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.29. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that:    [2000]
(a) he obtains permission from the principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the voters’ list
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Name in the voters list is the important condition.

Q.30.  In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provisions?     (1999)
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among other
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Provision given in option (d) is not included under 73rd Amendment Act 1993.

Q.31. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:   (1999)

1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India
2. It exists in each state as State Human Rights Commission
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the commission

Which of the above statements are correct?  
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Here the possible answer is (d) because Statement 2 is incorrect as it is not mandatory that each state must have a State Human Rights Commission. But statement 4 is correct as Chairperson of the National Commission on Women is also the member of NHRC.

Q.32. Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the protection of environment?    (1999)
(a) The Water (Cess) Act, 1977
(b) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(c) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(d) The Port Laws Amendment Act, 1997

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The water (cess) Act, 1977 provides for the levy and collection of a cess on water consumed by persons carrying on certain industries and by local authorities, with a view to augment the resources of the Central Board and the State Boards for the prevention and control of water pollution. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 provides for public liability insurance for the purpose of providing immediate relief to the persons affected by accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Q.33. Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in:    (1998)
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Panchayati Raj System was first introduced in Nagaur district of Rajasthan on October 2, 1959 followed by Andhra Pradesh in 1959.

Q.34. Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rdConstitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?   [1997]
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all level
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Statement given under option (c) is not mentioned in 73rd amendment act. But this norm is applied in Haryana, Rajasthan, MP, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

Q.35. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?    [1996]
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level .
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self government at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village block, district and in the state levels

Correct Answer is Option (c)
According to 73rd Amendment Act, three-tier system of Panchayats exists: Village level, District Panchayat at the district level, the intermediate Panchayat which stands between the village and District Panchayats in the States where the population is above 20 Lakhs.

Q.36. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?    (1995)
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission

Correct Answer is Option (b)
According to 73rd Amendment Act 1993, under Article 243D, not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats should be reserved for women in local bodies.

Q.37. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?     (1995)

1. To stabilize agricultural prices
2. To ensure meaningful real income level to the farmers
3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system
4. To ensure maximum price for the farmer

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The objective of the price policy underlying MSP is to bring a balanced and integrated price structure for agricultural commodities and not to ensure maximum price for the farmers.