All Exams >
UPSC >
Weekly Tests for UPSC Preparation >
All Questions
All questions of July Week 2 for UPSC CSE Exam
There are 7 members in a family whose average age is 25 years. Ram who is 12 years old is the second youngest in the family. Find the average age of the family in years just before Ram was born?
- a)15.167
- b)18.2
- c)13
- d)Cannot be determined
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
There are 7 members in a family whose average age is 25 years. Ram who is 12 years old is the second youngest in the family. Find the average age of the family in years just before Ram was born?
a)
15.167
b)
18.2
c)
13
d)
Cannot be determined
|
Rajeev Kumar answered |
In order to find the average age of the family before Ram was born, we need to know the age of the youngest member of the family.
Since, we do not know the age of the youngest member, we can not calculate the total age of the family before Ram was born.
Hence, we can not calculate the answer with the given conditions.
Since, we do not know the age of the youngest member, we can not calculate the total age of the family before Ram was born.
Hence, we can not calculate the answer with the given conditions.
Thus, D is the right choice.
Can you explain the answer of this question below:The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, How many of them may be greater than zero , at the most?
- A:1
- B:20
- C:0
- D:19
The answer is D.
|
Ishita Das answered |
Average of 20 numbers = 0.
Sum of 20 numbers (0 x 20) = 0.It is quite possible that 19 of these numbers may be positive and if their sum is a then 20th number is (-a).
Can you explain the answer of this question below: A car owner buys diesel at Rs.7.50, Rs. 8 and Rs. 8.50 per litre for three successive years. What approximately is the average cost per litre of diesel if he spends Rs. 4000 each year?
- A:Rs. 8
- B:Rs. 7.98
- C:Rs. 6.2
- D:Rs. 8.1
The answer is B.
|
Ishani Rane answered |
Average cost per litre of petrol = Total amount / Total quantity of petrol
Re. 4000 is spent each year, so total amount spent = 3 * Rs. 4000 = Rs. 12,000
Total quantity of petrol consumed in 3 years = (4000/7.50) + (4000/8) + (4000/8.50) litres
= 533.3 + 500 + 470.6 = 1505
Average cost = Total amount / Total quantity
= 12000/1504 = 7.98
To find quickly, you can take cube root of (7.50 * 8 * 8.50), and it will be slightly less than 8.
The correct option is B.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding article 27?
1. It prohibits the state from favouring one religion over the another
2. The taxes can't be used for the promotion or maintenance of any one religion.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
- a) 1 Only
- b) 2 Only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding article 27?
1. It prohibits the state from favouring one religion over the another
2. The taxes can't be used for the promotion or maintenance of any one religion.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of them
|
Anshika Sharma answered |
Both of the given statements are correct regarding Article 27 of the Indian Constitution.
Article 27 of the Constitution of India states that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
Thus, the second statement is correct. Additionally, Article 27 also prohibits the State from favoring any particular religion or religious denomination by law or by financial aid, making the first statement also correct.
Which of the following elements apply to the Indian Constitution?
1. Absence of arbitrary power
2. Equality before law
3. Constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law
4. Constitution is the source of the individual rights
Choose from the following options.
- a)1 and 2 Only
- b)1, 2 and 4 Only
- c)1, 2 and 3 Only
- d)All of them
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following elements apply to the Indian Constitution?
1. Absence of arbitrary power
2. Equality before law
3. Constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law
4. Constitution is the source of the individual rights
Choose from the following options.
a)
1 and 2 Only
b)
1, 2 and 4 Only
c)
1, 2 and 3 Only
d)
All of them
|
|
Nisha Menon answered |
-
Absence of arbitrary power:
- As previously noted, the Indian Constitution ensures the absence of arbitrary power through a system of checks and balances and the rule of law.
-
Equality before law:
- Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws, confirming this principle applies to the Indian Constitution.
-
Constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law:
- This statement suggests that the Constitution itself emerged from the judicial enforcement and definition of individual rights. This interpretation is somewhat problematic in the context of the Indian Constitution because the Constitution was drafted and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It is a foundational document that outlines the rights of individuals, but it is not a result of pre-existing rights defined by courts. Instead, it establishes these rights.
-
Constitution is the source of the individual rights:
- This is correct for the Indian Constitution, as it provides a comprehensive list of fundamental rights and mechanisms for their protection.
Given this, the statement that the "Constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law" does not accurately describe the Indian Constitution. The Indian Constitution itself is the source and origin of individual rights, rather than a product of pre-existing judicially enforced rights.
Correct Elements:
- Absence of arbitrary power
- Equality before law
- Constitution is the source of the individual rights
Therefore, the correct option remains:
2. 1, 2 and 4 Only
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court ruled that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article 368 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights?
- a)Kesavananda Bharti Case
- b)Maneka Gandhi Case
- c)Minerva Mills Case
- d)none of 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court ruled that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article 368 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights?
a)
Kesavananda Bharti Case
b)
Maneka Gandhi Case
c)
Minerva Mills Case
d)
none of 3
|
Amit Sharma answered |
Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharti case (1973) marked a significant event in the Indian constitutional history, as the Supreme Court ruled that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article 368 of the Constitution of India. The Court held that these amendments could be declared void if they were inconsistent with or violated the Fundamental Rights. This judgment established the doctrine of the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution, which means that Parliament cannot alter the basic features of the Constitution through amendments.
A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. What is the average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday?
- a)290
- b)304
- c)285
- d)270
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
290
b)
304
c)
285
d)
270
|
|
Ishani Rane answered |
Since the month begins with a Sunday, to there will be five Sundays in the month.
Required average = [510 x 5 + 240 x 25] 30
= 8550/30
= 285
Practice Quiz or MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with solution are available for Practice, which would help you prepare for "Average" under Quantitative Aptitude. You can practice these practice quizzes as per your speed and improvise the topic. The same topic is covered under various competitive examinations like - CAT, GMAT, Bank PO, SSC and other competitive examinations. Q. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?- a)6.25
- b)5.5
- c)7.4
- d)5
Correct answer is 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Practice Quiz or MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with solution are available for Practice, which would help you prepare for "Average" under Quantitative Aptitude. You can practice these practice quizzes as per your speed and improvise the topic. The same topic is covered under various competitive examinations like - CAT, GMAT, Bank PO, SSC and other competitive examinations.
Q. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
a)
6.25
b)
5.5
c)
7.4
d)
5
|
|
Ishani Rane answered |
For the 1st 10 overs the score will be 10*3.2=32so the remaining score is 282-32=250remaining overs = 40so the run rate 250/40=6.25ans is 6.25
The average number of runs scored by Virat Kohli in four matches is 48. In the fifth match, Kohli scores some runs such that his average now becomes 60. In the 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than his fifth innings and now the average of his last five innings becomes 78. How many runs did he score in his first innings? (He does not remain not out in any of the innings)- a)30
- b)50
- c)70
- d)90
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The average number of runs scored by Virat Kohli in four matches is 48. In the fifth match, Kohli scores some runs such that his average now becomes 60. In the 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than his fifth innings and now the average of his last five innings becomes 78. How many runs did he score in his first innings? (He does not remain not out in any of the innings)
a)
30
b)
50
c)
70
d)
90
|
Quantronics answered |
Runs scored by Kohli in first 4 innings = 48*4 = 192
Average of 5 innings is 60, so total runs scored after 5 innings = 60*5 = 300
Hence runs scored by Kohli in fifth inning = 300 – 192 = 108
It is given that in 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than this, so he must score 120 in the sixth inning. Hence total runs scored in 6 innings = 300+120 = 420
Now average of last five innings is 78, so runs scored in last innings = 390
Hence runs scored in first inning = 420 – 390 = 30.
Average of 5 innings is 60, so total runs scored after 5 innings = 60*5 = 300
Hence runs scored by Kohli in fifth inning = 300 – 192 = 108
It is given that in 6th innings he scores 12 runs more than this, so he must score 120 in the sixth inning. Hence total runs scored in 6 innings = 300+120 = 420
Now average of last five innings is 78, so runs scored in last innings = 390
Hence runs scored in first inning = 420 – 390 = 30.
Consider the following statements:
1. White Label ATMs are owned and operated by the bank
2. Green Label ATMs are used for agricultural transactions
3. Brown Label ATMs are owned and operated by a non-banking entity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c) 3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. White Label ATMs are owned and operated by the bank
2. Green Label ATMs are used for agricultural transactions
3. Brown Label ATMs are owned and operated by a non-banking entity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. White Label ATMs are owned and operated by the bank
2. Green Label ATMs are used for agricultural transactions
3. Brown Label ATMs are owned and operated by a non-banking entity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
|
Lekshmi Basak answered |
-On Site ATM - ATMs Inside the Bank
-Off site ATM - ATM outside the bank premises but is located at other places, such as shopping centres, airports, railways station and petrol stations.
-White Label ATM - ATM Provided by NBFC (Non Banking Financial Company)
-Green Label ATM - ATM Provided for Agricultural Transaction
-Orange Label ATM - ATM Provided for Share Transactions
-Yellow Label ATM - ATM provided for E-commerce
-Pink Label ATM - ATM for women banking
-Brown Label ATM - ATM are those Automated Teller Machines where hardware and the lease of the ATM machine is owned by a service provider but cash management and connectivity to banking networks is provided by a sponsor bank .
The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The monthly income of P is:
- a)3500
- b)4000
- c)4050
- d)5000
Correct answer is 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
3500
b)
4000
c)
4050
d)
5000
|
Arya Roy answered |
Let monthly income of A = a
monthly income of B = b
monthly income of C = c
a + b = 2 * 5050 .... (Equation 1)
b + c = 2 * 6250 .... (Equation 2)
a + c = 2 * 5200 .... (Equation 3)
(Equation 1) + (Equation 3) - (Equation 2)
= a + b + a + c - (b + c) = (2 * 5050) + (2 * 5200) - (2 * 6250)
= 2a = 2(5050 + 5200 - 6250)
= a = 4000
i.e., Monthly income of A = 4000
The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is one year less than the average age of the whole team. Find out the average age of the team.
- a)23 years
- b)20 years
- c)24 years
- d)21 years
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
23 years
b)
20 years
c)
24 years
d)
21 years
|
Pallabi Deshpande answered |
Number of members in the team = 11
Let the average age of of the team = x
=> Sum of the ages of all the 11 members of the team / 11 = x
=> Sum of the ages of all the 11 members of the team = 11 x
Age of the captain = 26
Age of the wicket keeper = 26 + 3 = 29
Sum of the ages of 9 members of the team excluding captain and wicket keeper
= 11x − 26 − 29 =11x − 55
Average age of 9 members of the team excluding captain and wicket keeper
= 11x−55 / 9
Given that
11x−55 / 9 =(x−1)
⇒11x−55=9(x−1)
⇒11x−55=9x−9
⇒2x=46
⇒x = 46/2 = 23 years
Which of the following areas were conquered by Chandragupta Maurya?
I. Ganges Valley
II. North-Western India
III. Central India upto Narmada
IV. Deccan V. Kalinga- a)I, II, III
- b)II, III, IV
- c)III, IV,
- d)I, IV
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following areas were conquered by Chandragupta Maurya?
I. Ganges Valley
II. North-Western India
III. Central India upto Narmada
IV. Deccan V. Kalinga
I. Ganges Valley
II. North-Western India
III. Central India upto Narmada
IV. Deccan V. Kalinga
a)
I, II, III
b)
II, III, IV
c)
III, IV,
d)
I, IV
|
Muskaan Dey answered |
Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Maurya Empire, which was one of the largest empires in ancient India. He conquered several regions and expanded his empire to a vast extent. The areas conquered by Chandragupta Maurya are discussed below.
I. Ganges Valley:
Chandragupta Maurya conquered the Ganges Valley region, which was one of the most fertile and prosperous areas in ancient India. The Ganges Valley region comprised of modern-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
II. North-Western India:
Chandragupta Maurya also conquered the North-Western region of India, which included modern-day Punjab, Haryana, and parts of Pakistan. This region was strategically important as it was the gateway to Central Asia and Afghanistan.
III. Central India upto Narmada:
Chandragupta Maurya extended his empire to Central India, up to the Narmada River. This region included modern-day Madhya Pradesh and parts of Maharashtra.
IV. Deccan:
Chandragupta Maurya also conquered the Deccan region, which included modern-day Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. This region was rich in minerals and was an important source of revenue for the Maurya Empire.
V. Kalinga:
Chandragupta Maurya also conquered the Kalinga region, which included modern-day Odisha. This region was known for its maritime trade and was an important source of revenue for the Maurya Empire.
In conclusion, Chandragupta Maurya conquered a vast empire that extended from the Ganges Valley in the North to the Deccan in the South and from North-Western India to Central India. The Maurya Empire was a significant political and economic power in ancient India and played a crucial role in shaping the country's history.
I. Ganges Valley:
Chandragupta Maurya conquered the Ganges Valley region, which was one of the most fertile and prosperous areas in ancient India. The Ganges Valley region comprised of modern-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
II. North-Western India:
Chandragupta Maurya also conquered the North-Western region of India, which included modern-day Punjab, Haryana, and parts of Pakistan. This region was strategically important as it was the gateway to Central Asia and Afghanistan.
III. Central India upto Narmada:
Chandragupta Maurya extended his empire to Central India, up to the Narmada River. This region included modern-day Madhya Pradesh and parts of Maharashtra.
IV. Deccan:
Chandragupta Maurya also conquered the Deccan region, which included modern-day Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. This region was rich in minerals and was an important source of revenue for the Maurya Empire.
V. Kalinga:
Chandragupta Maurya also conquered the Kalinga region, which included modern-day Odisha. This region was known for its maritime trade and was an important source of revenue for the Maurya Empire.
In conclusion, Chandragupta Maurya conquered a vast empire that extended from the Ganges Valley in the North to the Deccan in the South and from North-Western India to Central India. The Maurya Empire was a significant political and economic power in ancient India and played a crucial role in shaping the country's history.
The average weight of a class of 10 students is increased by 2 kg when one student of 30kg left and another student joined. After a few months, this new student left and another student joined whose weight was 10 less than the student who left now. What is the difference between the final and initial averages?
- a)11
- b)1
- c)111
- d)121
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The average weight of a class of 10 students is increased by 2 kg when one student of 30kg left and another student joined. After a few months, this new student left and another student joined whose weight was 10 less than the student who left now. What is the difference between the final and initial averages?
a)
11
b)
1
c)
111
d)
121
|
|
Rajeev Kumar answered |
Change in total weight of 10 students = difference in weight of the student who joined and the student
=> weigth of first student who left = 30 + (10×2) = 50
weight of the student who joined last = 50 – 10 = 40...
Thus change in average weight = (40 – 30)/10 = 1...
Thus change in average weight = (40 – 30)/10 = 1...
Nitrogen is a major constituent of the atmosphere comprising about 79% of the atmospheric gases. Consider the following about it: 1. It is an essential constituent of organic compounds such as amino acids and protein.2. The principal source of free nitrogen is the action of soil microorganisms and associated plant roots on atmospheric nitrogen.Which of the above is/are correct? - a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Nitrogen is a major constituent of the atmosphere comprising about 79% of the atmospheric gases. Consider the following about it:
1. It is an essential constituent of organic compounds such as amino acids and protein.
2. The principal source of free nitrogen is the action of soil microorganisms and associated plant roots on atmospheric nitrogen.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of the above
|
|
Kavita Shah answered |
- The organic compounds are the amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins, vitamins and pigments.
- Generally, nitrogen is usable only after it is fixed. 90% of fixed nitrogen is biological.
Only a few types of organisms like certain species of soil bacteria and blue-green algae are capable of utilising it directly in its gaseous form.
Which one among the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?- a) Right to equality
- b) Right to freedom
- c) Right to citizenship
- d) Right against exploitation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one among the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
a)
Right to equality
b)
Right to freedom
c)
Right to citizenship
d)
Right against exploitation
|
|
Rahul Choudhury answered |
According to Indian constitution there are six fundamental rights of Indian citizens which are right to equality, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, right to freedom, right to constitutional remedies, and right against exploitation. Right to citizenship is not a fundamental right.
The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, How many of them may be greater than zero , at the most?
- a)1
- b)20
- c)0
- d)19
Correct answer is 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
1
b)
20
c)
0
d)
19
|
Priyanka Datta answered |
Average of 20 numbers = 0.
Sum of 20 numbers (0 x 20) = 0.It is quite possible that 19 of these numbers may be positive and if their sum is a then 20th number is (-a).
Consider the following statements about Quo Warranto.
1. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution.
2. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Quo Warranto.
1. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution.
2. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of them
|
|
Amit Kumar answered |
The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Regarding climate, consider the following statements: 1. The sea exerts a moderating influence on climate: As the distance from the sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This condition is known as continentality.2. Ocean currents along with onshore winds affect the climate of the coastal areas.3. The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place. Thus it influences the temperature and rainfall pattern.Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) 3 only
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Regarding climate, consider the following statements:
1. The sea exerts a moderating influence on climate: As the distance from the sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This condition is known as continentality.
2. Ocean currents along with onshore winds affect the climate of the coastal areas.
3. The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place. Thus it influences the temperature and rainfall pattern.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
None of the above
|
|
Pooja Shah answered |
All statements are correct; hence answer is (d). There are six major controls of the climate of any place. They are latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system, distance from the sea (continentality), ocean currents and relief features.
The establishment of payment banks is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of payment banks
2. Payment banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards
3. Payment banks cannot undertake lending activities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The establishment of payment banks is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of payment banks
2. Payment banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards
3. Payment banks cannot undertake lending activities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of payment banks
2. Payment banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards
3. Payment banks cannot undertake lending activities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Anshul Thakur answered |
Payment banks eg paytm
A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?
- a)4800
- b)4991
- c)5004
- d)5000
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
4800
b)
4991
c)
5004
d)
5000
|
|
Pallabi Deshpande answered |
Total sale for 5 months = Rs. (6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562) = Rs. 34009.
Required sale = Rs. [ (6500 x 6) - 34009 ]
= Rs.(39000 - 34009)
= Rs.4991.
The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member is 10 years, what was the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member?- a)12.50
- b)15.25
- c)21.25
- d)18.75
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member is 10 years, what was the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member?
a)
12.50
b)
15.25
c)
21.25
d)
18.75
|
|
Rajeev Kumar answered |
At present the total age of the family = 5 × 20 =100
The total age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member,
= 100 - 10 - (10 × 4)
= 50
Therefore, average age of the family at the time of birth of the youngest member,
= 50/4 =12.5
The total age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member,
= 100 - 10 - (10 × 4)
= 50
Therefore, average age of the family at the time of birth of the youngest member,
= 50/4 =12.5
Practice Quiz or MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with solution are available for Practice, which would help you prepare for "Average" under Quantitative Aptitude. You can practice these practice quizzes as per your speed and improvise the topic. The same topic is covered under various competitive examinations like - CAT, GMAT, Bank PO, SSC and other competitive examinations. Q. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?- a)6.25
- b)5.5
- c)7.4
- d)5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Practice Quiz or MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with solution are available for Practice, which would help you prepare for "Average" under Quantitative Aptitude. You can practice these practice quizzes as per your speed and improvise the topic. The same topic is covered under various competitive examinations like - CAT, GMAT, Bank PO, SSC and other competitive examinations.
Q. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
a)
6.25
b)
5.5
c)
7.4
d)
5
|
|
Arya Roy answered |
Runs scored in the first 10 overs = 10 * 3.2 = 32
Total runs = 282
Remaining runs to be scored = 282 - 32 = 250
Remaining overs = 40
Run rate needed =250/40 = 6.25
The Island Protection Zone (IPZ) Notification 2011 was established to govern development activities in island territories, separate from the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification.- a)True.
- b)False.
- c)Partially True.
- d)Not Applicable.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The Island Protection Zone (IPZ) Notification 2011 was established to govern development activities in island territories, separate from the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification.
a)
True.
b)
False.
c)
Partially True.
d)
Not Applicable.
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
This statement is true. The Island Protection Zone (IPZ) Notification 2011 was specifically established to address the unique environmental and developmental challenges of island territories, distinct from the mainland coastal areas governed by the CRZ Notification.
Which of the following is not a feature of the CRZ Notification, 2018?- a)Streamlining of CRZ clearances.
- b)De-freezing of Floor Space Index (FSI) in CRZ-II areas.
- c)Establishment of a hazard line for coastal areas.
- d)Mandatory creation of marine parks in all CRZ-IV areas.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not a feature of the CRZ Notification, 2018?
a)
Streamlining of CRZ clearances.
b)
De-freezing of Floor Space Index (FSI) in CRZ-II areas.
c)
Establishment of a hazard line for coastal areas.
d)
Mandatory creation of marine parks in all CRZ-IV areas.
|
Sameer Nambiar answered |
The correct answer is option 'D' - Mandatory creation of marine parks in all CRZ-IV areas. This is not a feature of the CRZ Notification, 2018.
The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2018 was introduced by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in January 2019. It aimed to streamline the coastal regulation process and provide a framework for sustainable development and conservation of coastal areas.
Let's discuss the features of the CRZ Notification, 2018 to understand why option 'D' is the correct answer:
1. Streamlining of CRZ clearances:
- The notification aimed to simplify and streamline the process of obtaining clearances for various activities in the coastal areas.
- The classification of CRZ areas was rationalized into four categories (CRZ-I, CRZ-II, CRZ-III, and CRZ-IV) based on their ecological sensitivity and development needs.
2. De-freezing of Floor Space Index (FSI) in CRZ-II areas:
- The CRZ Notification, 2018 allowed the state and Union Territory governments to formulate their own policies for construction activities in CRZ-II areas.
- The earlier restriction on the FSI was removed, giving more flexibility to the local authorities to decide on the permissible FSI.
3. Establishment of a hazard line for coastal areas:
- The notification introduced the concept of a hazard line, which is a line demarcating the area likely to be affected by coastal hazards such as sea-level rise, storms, and erosion.
- It aimed to regulate development activities and prevent construction in areas prone to hazards, ensuring the safety of coastal communities.
4. Mandatory creation of marine parks in all CRZ-IV areas:
- This statement is not a feature of the CRZ Notification, 2018.
- CRZ-IV areas are designated as the areas that are undeveloped or lightly developed, and they have been excluded from the purview of the CRZ Notification, 2018.
- The notification does not mandate the creation of marine parks in CRZ-IV areas.
In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'D' - Mandatory creation of marine parks in all CRZ-IV areas. This is not a feature of the CRZ Notification, 2018. The notification focuses on streamlining clearances, de-freezing FSI in CRZ-II areas, and establishing a hazard line for coastal areas.
The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2018 was introduced by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in January 2019. It aimed to streamline the coastal regulation process and provide a framework for sustainable development and conservation of coastal areas.
Let's discuss the features of the CRZ Notification, 2018 to understand why option 'D' is the correct answer:
1. Streamlining of CRZ clearances:
- The notification aimed to simplify and streamline the process of obtaining clearances for various activities in the coastal areas.
- The classification of CRZ areas was rationalized into four categories (CRZ-I, CRZ-II, CRZ-III, and CRZ-IV) based on their ecological sensitivity and development needs.
2. De-freezing of Floor Space Index (FSI) in CRZ-II areas:
- The CRZ Notification, 2018 allowed the state and Union Territory governments to formulate their own policies for construction activities in CRZ-II areas.
- The earlier restriction on the FSI was removed, giving more flexibility to the local authorities to decide on the permissible FSI.
3. Establishment of a hazard line for coastal areas:
- The notification introduced the concept of a hazard line, which is a line demarcating the area likely to be affected by coastal hazards such as sea-level rise, storms, and erosion.
- It aimed to regulate development activities and prevent construction in areas prone to hazards, ensuring the safety of coastal communities.
4. Mandatory creation of marine parks in all CRZ-IV areas:
- This statement is not a feature of the CRZ Notification, 2018.
- CRZ-IV areas are designated as the areas that are undeveloped or lightly developed, and they have been excluded from the purview of the CRZ Notification, 2018.
- The notification does not mandate the creation of marine parks in CRZ-IV areas.
In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'D' - Mandatory creation of marine parks in all CRZ-IV areas. This is not a feature of the CRZ Notification, 2018. The notification focuses on streamlining clearances, de-freezing FSI in CRZ-II areas, and establishing a hazard line for coastal areas.
Consider the following statements.1. The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law2. The expression ‘martial law' means the military rule and it has been defined in the ConstitutionWhich of these statements is/are correct?- a) 1 Only
- b) 2 Only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) None of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law
2. The expression ‘martial law' means the military rule and it has been defined in the Constitution
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of them
|
Deepa Iyer answered |
The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. However, the expression ‘martial law' has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It means “military rule'. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules and regulations framed outside the ordinary law. It thus implies the suspension of ordinary law and the government by military tribunals. It is different from military law that applies to the armed forces.
What property of certain elements allows them to exist in two or more different forms?- a)Polymorphism
- b)Allotropy
- c)Isomerism
- d)Homogeneity
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Polymorphism
b)
Allotropy
c)
Isomerism
d)
Homogeneity
|
|
Nisha Menon answered |
Allotropy is the property of certain elements to exist in two or more different forms. These different forms of an element are called allotropes. Each allotrope of an element has distinct physical and chemical properties. The phenomenon of allotropy occurs due to variations in the arrangement of atoms or molecules in the solid state.
Allotropy is commonly observed in many elements, including carbon, oxygen, sulfur, and phosphorus. These elements can exist in different allotropes under different conditions of temperature and pressure. Some examples of allotropes are diamond and graphite for carbon, and oxygen and ozone for oxygen.
**1. Carbon:**
- Diamond: In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement. This gives diamond its exceptional hardness and high thermal conductivity.
- Graphite: In graphite, carbon atoms are arranged in layers of hexagonal rings that are stacked on top of each other. The layers are held together by weak van der Waals forces, allowing them to slide past each other easily. This gives graphite its slippery and lubricating properties.
**2. Oxygen:**
- Oxygen: In its most stable form, oxygen exists as a diatomic molecule (O2), where two oxygen atoms are bonded together. This is the form of oxygen present in our atmosphere and is essential for supporting life.
- Ozone: Ozone (O3) is another allotrope of oxygen. It is formed when oxygen molecules are exposed to ultraviolet (UV) radiation or electrical discharges. Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent and is found in the Earth's ozone layer, where it protects us from harmful UV rays.
**3. Sulfur:**
- Rhombic Sulfur: Rhombic sulfur is the most stable form of sulfur at room temperature and pressure. It consists of S8 rings arranged in a puckered crystal lattice. Rhombic sulfur is yellow in color and has a crystalline structure.
- Monoclinic Sulfur: Monoclinic sulfur is formed when rhombic sulfur is heated above 96°C. It has a different crystal structure and appears as long, needle-like crystals. Monoclinic sulfur is a red solid and is less stable than rhombic sulfur.
**4. Phosphorus:**
- White Phosphorus: White phosphorus is a waxy, translucent solid that glows in the dark. It consists of P4 tetrahedra arranged in a cubic crystal lattice. White phosphorus is highly reactive and ignites spontaneously in air.
- Red Phosphorus: Red phosphorus is formed by heating white phosphorus in the absence of air. It has a different crystal structure and appears as a dark red powder. Red phosphorus is much less reactive than white phosphorus and is used in safety matches and flame retardants.
In conclusion, allotropy is the property of certain elements to exist in two or more different forms with distinct physical and chemical properties. This property allows elements to exhibit a wide range of behaviors and applications in various fields.
Allotropy is commonly observed in many elements, including carbon, oxygen, sulfur, and phosphorus. These elements can exist in different allotropes under different conditions of temperature and pressure. Some examples of allotropes are diamond and graphite for carbon, and oxygen and ozone for oxygen.
**1. Carbon:**
- Diamond: In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement. This gives diamond its exceptional hardness and high thermal conductivity.
- Graphite: In graphite, carbon atoms are arranged in layers of hexagonal rings that are stacked on top of each other. The layers are held together by weak van der Waals forces, allowing them to slide past each other easily. This gives graphite its slippery and lubricating properties.
**2. Oxygen:**
- Oxygen: In its most stable form, oxygen exists as a diatomic molecule (O2), where two oxygen atoms are bonded together. This is the form of oxygen present in our atmosphere and is essential for supporting life.
- Ozone: Ozone (O3) is another allotrope of oxygen. It is formed when oxygen molecules are exposed to ultraviolet (UV) radiation or electrical discharges. Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent and is found in the Earth's ozone layer, where it protects us from harmful UV rays.
**3. Sulfur:**
- Rhombic Sulfur: Rhombic sulfur is the most stable form of sulfur at room temperature and pressure. It consists of S8 rings arranged in a puckered crystal lattice. Rhombic sulfur is yellow in color and has a crystalline structure.
- Monoclinic Sulfur: Monoclinic sulfur is formed when rhombic sulfur is heated above 96°C. It has a different crystal structure and appears as long, needle-like crystals. Monoclinic sulfur is a red solid and is less stable than rhombic sulfur.
**4. Phosphorus:**
- White Phosphorus: White phosphorus is a waxy, translucent solid that glows in the dark. It consists of P4 tetrahedra arranged in a cubic crystal lattice. White phosphorus is highly reactive and ignites spontaneously in air.
- Red Phosphorus: Red phosphorus is formed by heating white phosphorus in the absence of air. It has a different crystal structure and appears as a dark red powder. Red phosphorus is much less reactive than white phosphorus and is used in safety matches and flame retardants.
In conclusion, allotropy is the property of certain elements to exist in two or more different forms with distinct physical and chemical properties. This property allows elements to exhibit a wide range of behaviors and applications in various fields.
Out of the total solar insolation that reaches the Earth’s surface, most is used by plants for
- a)Respiration
- b)Photosynthesis
- c)Storage
- d)Movement of minerals and fluids
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Out of the total solar insolation that reaches the Earth’s surface, most is used by plants for
a)
Respiration
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
Storage
d)
Movement of minerals and fluids
|
|
Amit Kumar answered |
Only a very small fraction (0.1%) is fixed in photosynthesis. More than half is used for plant respiration and the remaining part is temporarily stored or is shifted to other portions of the plant. This energy captured from the Sun further reduces when we pass to higher trophic levels.
Statement 1: The Coastal Ocean Monitoring and Prediction System (COMAPS) was implemented for pollution monitoring in coastal waters since 1991.
Statement 2: The primary focus of COMAPS is on industrial development and maritime navigation.- a)Both statements are true.
- b)Both statements are false.
- c)Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
- d)Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Statement 1: The Coastal Ocean Monitoring and Prediction System (COMAPS) was implemented for pollution monitoring in coastal waters since 1991.
Statement 2: The primary focus of COMAPS is on industrial development and maritime navigation.
Statement 2: The primary focus of COMAPS is on industrial development and maritime navigation.
a)
Both statements are true.
b)
Both statements are false.
c)
Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
d)
Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
|
|
Preethi Mehta answered |
Analysis of Statement 1
The Coastal Ocean Monitoring and Prediction System (COMAPS) was indeed established for pollution monitoring in coastal waters, starting in 1991.
- Purpose: Its primary goal is to monitor and predict pollution levels, ensuring the health of marine ecosystems.
- Significance: This initiative helps in identifying pollution sources, managing water quality, and protecting coastal environments.
Analysis of Statement 2
The second statement claims that the primary focus of COMAPS is on industrial development and maritime navigation.
- Incorrect Focus: While industrial development and navigation are important aspects of coastal management, they are not the main focus of COMAPS.
- Primary Focus: The system is primarily concerned with environmental monitoring rather than promoting industrial or navigational interests.
Conclusion
Given the evaluations of both statements:
- Statement 1 is true as it accurately reflects the purpose and implementation of COMAPS.
- Statement 2 is false as it misrepresents the primary focus of the system.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
The Coastal Ocean Monitoring and Prediction System (COMAPS) was indeed established for pollution monitoring in coastal waters, starting in 1991.
- Purpose: Its primary goal is to monitor and predict pollution levels, ensuring the health of marine ecosystems.
- Significance: This initiative helps in identifying pollution sources, managing water quality, and protecting coastal environments.
Analysis of Statement 2
The second statement claims that the primary focus of COMAPS is on industrial development and maritime navigation.
- Incorrect Focus: While industrial development and navigation are important aspects of coastal management, they are not the main focus of COMAPS.
- Primary Focus: The system is primarily concerned with environmental monitoring rather than promoting industrial or navigational interests.
Conclusion
Given the evaluations of both statements:
- Statement 1 is true as it accurately reflects the purpose and implementation of COMAPS.
- Statement 2 is false as it misrepresents the primary focus of the system.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
What is the purpose of a catalytic converter in an automobile's exhaust system?- a)To increase fuel efficiency
- b)To reduce engine noise
- c)To convert harmful emissions into harmless products
- d)To boost acceleration
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
To increase fuel efficiency
b)
To reduce engine noise
c)
To convert harmful emissions into harmless products
d)
To boost acceleration
|
Suresh Reddy answered |
A catalytic converter in an automobile's exhaust system is used to convert environmentally damaging emissions, such as carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons, into harmless products.
Consider the following statements.1. The 'Procedure established by law' gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens2. It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonableWhich of these statements are not correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The 'Procedure established by law' gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens
2. It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable
Which of these statements are not correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Suresh Reddy answered |
The American Constitution provides for 'due process of law' against that of 'procedure established by law' which is contained in the Indian Constitution.
The difference between the two is : The 'Procedure established by law' gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens.
The difference between the two is : The 'Procedure established by law' gives wide scope to the Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens.
It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable.
Our Supreme Court, while determining the constitutionally of a law, however examines only the substantive question i.e whether the law is within the powers of the authority concerned or not. It is not expected to go into the question of its reasonableness, suitability or policy implications".
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution protects the interests of minority groups by granting rights to conserve their culture, language, and script.Statement-II:
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution provides minorities with the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)c. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)d. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution protects the interests of minority groups by granting rights to conserve their culture, language, and script.
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution protects the interests of minority groups by granting rights to conserve their culture, language, and script.
Statement-II:
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution provides minorities with the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution provides minorities with the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
c. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
d. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Simran Joshi answered |
Understanding the Statements
The statements pertain to Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution, which are crucial in safeguarding the rights of minority groups.
Statement-I Analysis
- Article 29 indeed protects the interests of minority groups.
- It grants the right to conserve their culture, language, and script, ensuring that minorities can maintain their distinct identities.
Statement-II Analysis
- Article 30 provides minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
- This right is essential for minorities to promote their culture and education according to their preferences.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements are accurate in their descriptions of Articles 29 and 30.
- Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; rather, they both address different aspects of minority rights.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct choice is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- Each statement highlights distinct rights granted to minority groups, emphasizing the comprehensive protection afforded to them under the Indian Constitution.
The statements pertain to Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution, which are crucial in safeguarding the rights of minority groups.
Statement-I Analysis
- Article 29 indeed protects the interests of minority groups.
- It grants the right to conserve their culture, language, and script, ensuring that minorities can maintain their distinct identities.
Statement-II Analysis
- Article 30 provides minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
- This right is essential for minorities to promote their culture and education according to their preferences.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements are accurate in their descriptions of Articles 29 and 30.
- Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; rather, they both address different aspects of minority rights.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct choice is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- Each statement highlights distinct rights granted to minority groups, emphasizing the comprehensive protection afforded to them under the Indian Constitution.
Consider the following statements: - The Mauryan Empire introduced widespread stone masonry and remarkable art and architecture, including the Ashoka Pillar.
- Kautilya's Arthasastra suggests the use of slaves in large-scale agricultural operations began during the Maurya era.
- The Maurya Empire's downfall was accelerated by the Brahmanical reaction to Asoka's policies favoring Buddhism.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)None
- b)Only one
- c)Only two
- d)All three
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Mauryan Empire introduced widespread stone masonry and remarkable art and architecture, including the Ashoka Pillar.
- Kautilya's Arthasastra suggests the use of slaves in large-scale agricultural operations began during the Maurya era.
- The Maurya Empire's downfall was accelerated by the Brahmanical reaction to Asoka's policies favoring Buddhism.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
None
b)
Only one
c)
Only two
d)
All three
|
|
Mansi Mishra answered |
Analysis of Statements
To determine how many of the given statements about the Mauryan Empire are correct, let's analyze each one.
Statement 1: Mauryan Empire and Stone Masonry
- The Mauryan Empire indeed introduced widespread stone masonry.
- It is well-known for remarkable art and architecture, including the Ashoka Pillar, which exemplifies advanced craftsmanship and political significance.
*This statement is correct.*
Statement 2: Kautilya's Arthashastra and Slavery
- Kautilya's Arthashastra does suggest the use of slaves in various economic activities.
- While it mentions large-scale agricultural operations, the extent and nature of slavery during the Maurya era are debated among historians.
*This statement is also considered correct.*
Statement 3: Downfall of the Mauryan Empire
- The downfall of the Mauryan Empire, particularly after Ashoka's reign, is often attributed to several factors, including administrative challenges and regional rebellions.
- While Ashoka's promotion of Buddhism did create some friction with Brahmanical traditions, it is not widely accepted as the sole or primary reason for the empire’s decline.
*This statement is partially correct but lacks emphasis on the multifactorial nature of the downfall.*
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3, while containing some truth, does not accurately represent the complexity of the Mauryan Empire's decline.
Thus, only two statements are fully correct, making the correct answer option 'C' (Only two).
To determine how many of the given statements about the Mauryan Empire are correct, let's analyze each one.
Statement 1: Mauryan Empire and Stone Masonry
- The Mauryan Empire indeed introduced widespread stone masonry.
- It is well-known for remarkable art and architecture, including the Ashoka Pillar, which exemplifies advanced craftsmanship and political significance.
*This statement is correct.*
Statement 2: Kautilya's Arthashastra and Slavery
- Kautilya's Arthashastra does suggest the use of slaves in various economic activities.
- While it mentions large-scale agricultural operations, the extent and nature of slavery during the Maurya era are debated among historians.
*This statement is also considered correct.*
Statement 3: Downfall of the Mauryan Empire
- The downfall of the Mauryan Empire, particularly after Ashoka's reign, is often attributed to several factors, including administrative challenges and regional rebellions.
- While Ashoka's promotion of Buddhism did create some friction with Brahmanical traditions, it is not widely accepted as the sole or primary reason for the empire’s decline.
*This statement is partially correct but lacks emphasis on the multifactorial nature of the downfall.*
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3, while containing some truth, does not accurately represent the complexity of the Mauryan Empire's decline.
Thus, only two statements are fully correct, making the correct answer option 'C' (Only two).
Consider the following statements: 1. Aerosols in the atmosphere increase the river flow.2. Aerosols can also destroy stratospheric ozone.Which of the above statements is/are correct? - a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Aerosols in the atmosphere increase the river flow.
2. Aerosols can also destroy stratospheric ozone.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of the above
|
Vikram Kapoor answered |
- Scattering of sunlight by aerosols can reduce visibility (haze) and provide the red colour during sunrises and sunsets. The Earth’s atmosphere was drastically affected by the dispersal of volcanic aerosols.
- Air pollution can lead to an increase in the water flowing through rivers. Pollutants known as aerosols reduce the amount of sunlight reaching the Earth’s atmosphere.
- This reduces evaporation, thus increasing river flow. During the 1980s, river flow in the central European river basin went up by 25% when aerosol levels in the region were at their peak. The study might help in dealing with water shortage, which is likely to be one of the biggest impacts of climate change.
Consider the following statements: - The Mauryan administrative system was characterized by a vast bureaucracy with significant disparities in payment among officers.
- The appointment of 27 superintendents to regulate economic activities marks the beginning of state control over the economy in ancient India.
- Spies played a crucial role in the Mauryan era, especially in financial matters and intelligence gathering.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Mauryan administrative system was characterized by a vast bureaucracy with significant disparities in payment among officers.
- The appointment of 27 superintendents to regulate economic activities marks the beginning of state control over the economy in ancient India.
- Spies played a crucial role in the Mauryan era, especially in financial matters and intelligence gathering.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Akanksha Patel answered |
- Correctness of Statements:
Statement 1: The Mauryan administrative system was characterized by a vast bureaucracy with significant disparities in payment among officers.
- This statement is correct. The Mauryan Empire had a well-organized administrative system with a large bureaucracy that included various officers with different levels of payment.
Statement 2: The appointment of 27 superintendents to regulate economic activities marks the beginning of state control over the economy in ancient India.
- This statement is correct. During the Mauryan era, the appointment of superintendents to oversee economic activities was a significant step towards state control over the economy.
Statement 3: Spies played a crucial role in the Mauryan era, especially in financial matters and intelligence gathering.
- This statement is correct. Spies were an essential part of the Mauryan administration, involved in various tasks such as gathering intelligence, monitoring financial matters, and ensuring the stability of the empire.
Therefore, all three statements given above are correct. The Mauryan administrative system did have a vast bureaucracy with payment disparities, the appointment of superintendents did mark the beginning of state control over the economy, and spies played a crucial role in the Mauryan era.
Statement 1: The Mauryan administrative system was characterized by a vast bureaucracy with significant disparities in payment among officers.
- This statement is correct. The Mauryan Empire had a well-organized administrative system with a large bureaucracy that included various officers with different levels of payment.
Statement 2: The appointment of 27 superintendents to regulate economic activities marks the beginning of state control over the economy in ancient India.
- This statement is correct. During the Mauryan era, the appointment of superintendents to oversee economic activities was a significant step towards state control over the economy.
Statement 3: Spies played a crucial role in the Mauryan era, especially in financial matters and intelligence gathering.
- This statement is correct. Spies were an essential part of the Mauryan administration, involved in various tasks such as gathering intelligence, monitoring financial matters, and ensuring the stability of the empire.
Therefore, all three statements given above are correct. The Mauryan administrative system did have a vast bureaucracy with payment disparities, the appointment of superintendents did mark the beginning of state control over the economy, and spies played a crucial role in the Mauryan era.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in 1975 with the primary objectives of providing credit to weaker sections at concessional rates and mobilizing rural savings for productive activities in rural areas.Statement-II:
Co-operative banks in India predominantly cater to the needs of agriculture, rural-based industries, and to a lesser extent, trade and industry in urban centers, operating under dual regulatory control.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in 1975 with the primary objectives of providing credit to weaker sections at concessional rates and mobilizing rural savings for productive activities in rural areas.
The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in 1975 with the primary objectives of providing credit to weaker sections at concessional rates and mobilizing rural savings for productive activities in rural areas.
Statement-II:
Co-operative banks in India predominantly cater to the needs of agriculture, rural-based industries, and to a lesser extent, trade and industry in urban centers, operating under dual regulatory control.
Co-operative banks in India predominantly cater to the needs of agriculture, rural-based industries, and to a lesser extent, trade and industry in urban centers, operating under dual regulatory control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Navya Chavan answered |
Explanation of Statements
The question evaluates two statements regarding financial institutions in India.
Statement-I: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
- Established in 1975.
- Primary objectives include:
- Providing credit to weaker sections at concessional rates.
- Mobilizing rural savings for productive activities in rural areas.
This statement is correct as it accurately describes the role and objectives of RRBs.
Statement-II: Co-operative Banks
- Predominantly cater to needs of:
- Agriculture.
- Rural-based industries.
- Lesser extent: Trade and industry in urban centers.
- Operate under dual regulatory control, which refers to oversight by both the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and state governments.
This statement is also correct. Co-operative banks indeed play a crucial role in rural financing and are regulated by multiple authorities.
Analysis of Correctness
- Both statements are true.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain the objectives or functions of Statement-I.
Thus, it accurately leads to the conclusion that:
Correct Answer: Option A
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
The question evaluates two statements regarding financial institutions in India.
Statement-I: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
- Established in 1975.
- Primary objectives include:
- Providing credit to weaker sections at concessional rates.
- Mobilizing rural savings for productive activities in rural areas.
This statement is correct as it accurately describes the role and objectives of RRBs.
Statement-II: Co-operative Banks
- Predominantly cater to needs of:
- Agriculture.
- Rural-based industries.
- Lesser extent: Trade and industry in urban centers.
- Operate under dual regulatory control, which refers to oversight by both the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and state governments.
This statement is also correct. Co-operative banks indeed play a crucial role in rural financing and are regulated by multiple authorities.
Analysis of Correctness
- Both statements are true.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain the objectives or functions of Statement-I.
Thus, it accurately leads to the conclusion that:
Correct Answer: Option A
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs:1. 90-day overdue norm - Loan considered NPA if not serviced for 90 days2. 5 / 25 Refinancing - Allows extension of loan tenure to 25 years with interest adjusted every 5 years3. SDR (Strategic Debt Restructuring) - Involves converting debt to 51% equity and selling to highest bidder4. S4A (Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets) - Involves change in company ownershipHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. 90-day overdue norm - Loan considered NPA if not serviced for 90 days
2. 5 / 25 Refinancing - Allows extension of loan tenure to 25 years with interest adjusted every 5 years
3. SDR (Strategic Debt Restructuring) - Involves converting debt to 51% equity and selling to highest bidder
4. S4A (Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets) - Involves change in company ownership
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
K.L Institute answered |
1. 90-day overdue norm - Correctly matched. Under the current policy, a loan is considered NPA if it has not been serviced for 90 days.
2. 5 / 25 Refinancing - Correctly matched. This scheme offers a larger window for revival of stressed assets by allowing the extension of the tenure of loans to 25 years with interest rates adjusted every 5 years.
3. SDR (Strategic Debt Restructuring) - Correctly matched. This scheme allows banks to convert the debt of companies into 51% equity and sell it to the highest bidder.
4. S4A (Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets) - Incorrectly matched. The S4A scheme does not involve a change in company ownership. Instead, it involves deciding how much of the stressed debt is sustainable, converting the rest into equity and preference shares.
Thus, only the first three pairs are correctly matched.
What celestial body is composed of ice and dust and develops a long tail when it approaches the sun?- a)Asteroid
- b)Meteoroid
- c)Comet
- d)Planet
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Asteroid
b)
Meteoroid
c)
Comet
d)
Planet
|
|
Naveen Kulkarni answered |
Understanding Comets
Comets are fascinating celestial bodies that differ significantly from asteroids and meteoroids. Here's a detailed explanation of why comets are composed of ice and dust and develop a long tail when they approach the sun.
Composition of Comets
- Comets are primarily made up of ice, dust, and rock.
- The core, often called the nucleus, is a solid mass of frozen gases and dust particles.
- This composition is why they are sometimes referred to as "dirty snowballs."
Behavior Near the Sun
- As a comet approaches the Sun, the immense heat causes the ice to sublimate (turn from solid to gas).
- This process releases gas and dust into space, forming a coma (a glowing envelope around the nucleus) and often a long tail.
Formation of the Tail
- The comet’s tail always points away from the Sun due to the solar wind and radiation pressure.
- This tail can stretch for millions of kilometers and is composed of gas and dust particles that have been expelled from the nucleus.
Conclusion
- In summary, comets are unique celestial bodies characterized by their icy composition and the spectacular tails they develop when they come close to the Sun.
- This distinguishes them from other bodies like asteroids, which are primarily rocky, and meteoroids, which are smaller fragments.
Thus, the correct answer to the question is option C: Comet.
Comets are fascinating celestial bodies that differ significantly from asteroids and meteoroids. Here's a detailed explanation of why comets are composed of ice and dust and develop a long tail when they approach the sun.
Composition of Comets
- Comets are primarily made up of ice, dust, and rock.
- The core, often called the nucleus, is a solid mass of frozen gases and dust particles.
- This composition is why they are sometimes referred to as "dirty snowballs."
Behavior Near the Sun
- As a comet approaches the Sun, the immense heat causes the ice to sublimate (turn from solid to gas).
- This process releases gas and dust into space, forming a coma (a glowing envelope around the nucleus) and often a long tail.
Formation of the Tail
- The comet’s tail always points away from the Sun due to the solar wind and radiation pressure.
- This tail can stretch for millions of kilometers and is composed of gas and dust particles that have been expelled from the nucleus.
Conclusion
- In summary, comets are unique celestial bodies characterized by their icy composition and the spectacular tails they develop when they come close to the Sun.
- This distinguishes them from other bodies like asteroids, which are primarily rocky, and meteoroids, which are smaller fragments.
Thus, the correct answer to the question is option C: Comet.
The thickness of the troposphere varies around the planet.The troposphere is thickest at- a) Poles
- b) Equator
- c) Subtropics
- d) Temperate regions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The thickness of the troposphere varies around the planet.
The troposphere is thickest at
a)
Poles
b)
Equator
c)
Subtropics
d)
Temperate regions
|
Zara Khan answered |
The troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles because the equator is warmer. The convection currents of air expand the thickness of the troposphere (atmosphere) at poles. Thus, the simple reason is thermal expansion of the atmosphere at the equator and thermal contraction near the poles.
The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, How many of them may be greater than zero , at the most?
- a)1
- b)20
- c)0
- d)19
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
1
b)
20
c)
0
d)
19
|
Sagar Sharma answered |
Problem:
The average of 20 numbers is zero. How many of them may be greater than zero, at the most?
Solution:
To find the maximum number of numbers that can be greater than zero, we need to understand the concept of average and the properties of numbers.
Understanding the Average:
The average of a set of numbers is found by summing all the numbers in the set and then dividing the sum by the total number of numbers.
Properties of Numbers:
1. The sum of positive numbers is always greater than zero.
2. The sum of negative numbers is always less than zero.
3. The sum of positive and negative numbers can be zero if the sum of positive numbers equals the sum of negative numbers.
Explanation:
Given that the average of 20 numbers is zero, we can conclude that the sum of these 20 numbers is also zero.
Let's assume that there are 'x' numbers greater than zero and 'y' numbers less than or equal to zero.
Since the sum of these 20 numbers is zero, we can write the equation:
(x * positive number) + (y * non-positive number) = 0
To maximize the number of numbers greater than zero, we need to minimize the number of non-positive numbers. The smallest non-positive number is zero. Therefore, we can rewrite the equation as:
(x * positive number) + (y * 0) = 0
Simplifying the equation, we get:
x * positive number = 0
In order for this equation to be true, the value of 'x' must be zero. This means that there can be zero numbers greater than zero in the set of 20 numbers.
Therefore, the maximum number of numbers that can be greater than zero is 0.
Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - 0.
The average of 20 numbers is zero. How many of them may be greater than zero, at the most?
Solution:
To find the maximum number of numbers that can be greater than zero, we need to understand the concept of average and the properties of numbers.
Understanding the Average:
The average of a set of numbers is found by summing all the numbers in the set and then dividing the sum by the total number of numbers.
Properties of Numbers:
1. The sum of positive numbers is always greater than zero.
2. The sum of negative numbers is always less than zero.
3. The sum of positive and negative numbers can be zero if the sum of positive numbers equals the sum of negative numbers.
Explanation:
Given that the average of 20 numbers is zero, we can conclude that the sum of these 20 numbers is also zero.
Let's assume that there are 'x' numbers greater than zero and 'y' numbers less than or equal to zero.
Since the sum of these 20 numbers is zero, we can write the equation:
(x * positive number) + (y * non-positive number) = 0
To maximize the number of numbers greater than zero, we need to minimize the number of non-positive numbers. The smallest non-positive number is zero. Therefore, we can rewrite the equation as:
(x * positive number) + (y * 0) = 0
Simplifying the equation, we get:
x * positive number = 0
In order for this equation to be true, the value of 'x' must be zero. This means that there can be zero numbers greater than zero in the set of 20 numbers.
Therefore, the maximum number of numbers that can be greater than zero is 0.
Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - 0.
Albedo is a critical factor in determining the warming of the atmosphere via indirect radiation. Which among the following materials is likely to have the lowest albedo?- a) Thick cloud
- b) Fresh snow in Antarctica
- c) Moist ploughed soil
- d) Mirror
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Albedo is a critical factor in determining the warming of the atmosphere via indirect radiation. Which among the following materials is likely to have the lowest albedo?
a)
Thick cloud
b)
Fresh snow in Antarctica
c)
Moist ploughed soil
d)
Mirror
|
|
Akshara Desai answered |
The concept of albedo refers to the ability of a surface to reflect sunlight back into space. The higher the albedo of a surface, the more sunlight it reflects, resulting in less absorption and less warming of the atmosphere. Conversely, a lower albedo means that a surface absorbs more sunlight, leading to more warming.
Lowest albedo: Moist ploughed soil
Moist ploughed soil is likely to have the lowest albedo among the given options. This is because soil is generally dark in color, which means that it absorbs more sunlight. Additionally, moist soil tends to be more reflective than dry soil, but still absorbs more sunlight than other materials like snow and clouds.
Other options and their albedo
- Thick cloud: Clouds have a high albedo, as they reflect a significant amount of sunlight back into space. Therefore, thick cloud is unlikely to have the lowest albedo.
- Fresh snow in Antarctica: Snow has a high albedo, as it reflects sunlight very effectively. Therefore, fresh snow in Antarctica is also unlikely to have the lowest albedo.
- Mirror: Mirrors have a very high albedo, as they reflect almost all of the sunlight that falls on them. Therefore, a mirror is also unlikely to have the lowest albedo.
Conclusion
In conclusion, moist ploughed soil is likely to have the lowest albedo among the given options. This means that it absorbs more sunlight, leading to more warming of the atmosphere. It is important to understand the concept of albedo in order to better understand the impact of different surfaces and materials on the Earth's climate.
Lowest albedo: Moist ploughed soil
Moist ploughed soil is likely to have the lowest albedo among the given options. This is because soil is generally dark in color, which means that it absorbs more sunlight. Additionally, moist soil tends to be more reflective than dry soil, but still absorbs more sunlight than other materials like snow and clouds.
Other options and their albedo
- Thick cloud: Clouds have a high albedo, as they reflect a significant amount of sunlight back into space. Therefore, thick cloud is unlikely to have the lowest albedo.
- Fresh snow in Antarctica: Snow has a high albedo, as it reflects sunlight very effectively. Therefore, fresh snow in Antarctica is also unlikely to have the lowest albedo.
- Mirror: Mirrors have a very high albedo, as they reflect almost all of the sunlight that falls on them. Therefore, a mirror is also unlikely to have the lowest albedo.
Conclusion
In conclusion, moist ploughed soil is likely to have the lowest albedo among the given options. This means that it absorbs more sunlight, leading to more warming of the atmosphere. It is important to understand the concept of albedo in order to better understand the impact of different surfaces and materials on the Earth's climate.
When sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest, it looks scattered. Why is it so?- a) Particles dispersed in the air scatter light.
- b) While travelling through the dense forest, the speed of light reduces which causes its wavelength to also reduce. Lower wavelength light scatters well.
- c) The forest trees act as obstructions causing the light to scatter.
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
When sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest, it looks scattered. Why is it so?
a)
Particles dispersed in the air scatter light.
b)
While travelling through the dense forest, the speed of light reduces which causes its wavelength to also reduce. Lower wavelength light scatters well.
c)
The forest trees act as obstructions causing the light to scatter.
d)
None of the above
|
|
Deepak Kapoor answered |
Tyndall effect can be observed when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest. In the forest, mist contains tiny droplets of water, which act as particles of colloid dispersed in the air.
Assertion (A): Coral reefs are included in Schedule 1 of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
Reason (R): This inclusion affords the highest degree of protection to coral reefs.- a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- c)A is true, but R is false.
- d)A is false, but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Assertion (A): Coral reefs are included in Schedule 1 of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
Reason (R): This inclusion affords the highest degree of protection to coral reefs.
Reason (R): This inclusion affords the highest degree of protection to coral reefs.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is true, but R is false.
d)
A is false, but R is true.
|
|
Meera Datta answered |
Understanding the Assertion and Reason
In this context, we analyze the statement regarding coral reefs and their inclusion in the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
Assertion (A): Coral reefs are included in Schedule 1 of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
- True Statement: Coral reefs are indeed included in Schedule 1 of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
- Protection Level: Schedule 1 provides the highest level of protection to species and habitats, indicating that coral reefs are recognized as critical and vulnerable ecosystems.
Reason (R): This inclusion affords the highest degree of protection to coral reefs.
- True Statement: The inclusion in Schedule 1 does afford the highest degree of protection to coral reefs.
- Explanatory Value: This reason correctly explains the significance of their inclusion, as it highlights the protective measures aimed at preserving these vital ecosystems.
Correct Answer: Option 'A'
- Both A and R are true: Coral reefs are indeed listed in Schedule 1, and this inclusion provides maximum protection.
- R is the correct explanation of A: The reason directly justifies the assertion, as the protection status is inherently linked to their listing in Schedule 1.
Conclusion
- The statement confirms both the factual accuracy of the assertion and the explanatory nature of the reason, solidifying the answer as option 'A'. This inclusion emphasizes the importance of coral reefs within the framework of wildlife protection laws in India, reflecting ecological, economic, and social significance.
In this context, we analyze the statement regarding coral reefs and their inclusion in the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
Assertion (A): Coral reefs are included in Schedule 1 of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
- True Statement: Coral reefs are indeed included in Schedule 1 of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
- Protection Level: Schedule 1 provides the highest level of protection to species and habitats, indicating that coral reefs are recognized as critical and vulnerable ecosystems.
Reason (R): This inclusion affords the highest degree of protection to coral reefs.
- True Statement: The inclusion in Schedule 1 does afford the highest degree of protection to coral reefs.
- Explanatory Value: This reason correctly explains the significance of their inclusion, as it highlights the protective measures aimed at preserving these vital ecosystems.
Correct Answer: Option 'A'
- Both A and R are true: Coral reefs are indeed listed in Schedule 1, and this inclusion provides maximum protection.
- R is the correct explanation of A: The reason directly justifies the assertion, as the protection status is inherently linked to their listing in Schedule 1.
Conclusion
- The statement confirms both the factual accuracy of the assertion and the explanatory nature of the reason, solidifying the answer as option 'A'. This inclusion emphasizes the importance of coral reefs within the framework of wildlife protection laws in India, reflecting ecological, economic, and social significance.
The 'Blue Flag' certification is an international label awarded to beaches and marinas that meet high environmental and safety standards.- a)True.
- b)False.
- c)Partially True.
- d)Not related to environmental standards.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The 'Blue Flag' certification is an international label awarded to beaches and marinas that meet high environmental and safety standards.
a)
True.
b)
False.
c)
Partially True.
d)
Not related to environmental standards.
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
This statement is true. The 'Blue Flag' certification is indeed an international label that recognizes beaches and marinas for their commitment to high environmental and safety standards, as well as sustainable development in marine and freshwater environments.
The rule of equality before the law doesn't apply on:
- a)President of India
- b)Governor of States
- c)Member of the Legislature
- d)Both (a) and (b)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The rule of equality before the law doesn't apply on:
a)
President of India
b)
Governor of States
c)
Member of the Legislature
d)
Both (a) and (b)
|
|
Amit Kumar answered |
- Article 361 is an exception to Article 14 (Right to Equality) of the Indian Constitution.
- Exceptions under Equality Before Law in the Indian Constitution
- President or Governor of the state is not answerable to the court of law for exercising their executive powers.
- No criminal proceeding against the President or Governor of state can be instituted or continued during their tenure in office.
- No civil proceeding in which there is a claim of compensation can be instituted against the President or Governor of the state except after the expiry of 2-month notice issued against them.
- No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.
Which among the following greenhouse gases has the longest lifecycle in the atmosphere? - a) Water vapour
- b) Nitrous oxide
- c) Methane
- d) Sulphur hexafluoride
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which among the following greenhouse gases has the longest lifecycle in the atmosphere?
a)
Water vapour
b)
Nitrous oxide
c)
Methane
d)
Sulphur hexafluoride
|
|
Vikram Kapoor answered |
- Water vapour is a very effective absorber of heat energy in the air, but it does not accumulate in the atmosphere in the same way as the other greenhouse gases. This is down to it having a very short atmospheric lifetime, of the order of hours to days because it is rapidly removed as rain and snow.
- Nitrous oxide is destroyed in the stratosphere and removed from the atmosphere more slowly than methane, persisting for around 114 years.
- Methane is mostly removed from the atmosphere by chemical reaction, persisting for about 12 years. Thus, although methane is a potent greenhouse gas, its effect is relatively short-lived.
- SF6 is included in the Kyoto Protocol because, molecule-for-molecule, it is a powerful greenhouse gas with a long (>1000 years) lifetime in the atmosphere. The signatory nations are thus committed to controlling the rate of its production.
The average weight of a class is 54 kg. A student, whose weight is 145 kg, joined the class and the average weight of the class now becomes a prime number less than 72. Find the total number of students in the class now.- a)7
- b)13
- c)15
- d)Cannot be determined
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The average weight of a class is 54 kg. A student, whose weight is 145 kg, joined the class and the average weight of the class now becomes a prime number less than 72. Find the total number of students in the class now.
a)
7
b)
13
c)
15
d)
Cannot be determined
|
|
Rajeev Kumar answered |
Let the original number of students in the class be N.
Total weight of the class = 54N
New total weight of the class = 54N + 145
New average weight of the class = (54N + 145)/(N+1) = (54N + 54)/(N+1) + 91/(N+1) = 54 + 91/(N+1).
Since the new average is an integer, (N+1) should be a factor of 91.
If N+1 = 7, the new average becomes 54 + 91/7 = 54 + 13 = 67
and if N+1 = 13, then the new average becomes 54 + 91/13 = 54 + 7 = 61
Both 67 and 61 are prime numbers less than 72. So, we cannot uniquely determine the number of students in the class.
Total weight of the class = 54N
New total weight of the class = 54N + 145
New average weight of the class = (54N + 145)/(N+1) = (54N + 54)/(N+1) + 91/(N+1) = 54 + 91/(N+1).
Since the new average is an integer, (N+1) should be a factor of 91.
If N+1 = 7, the new average becomes 54 + 91/7 = 54 + 13 = 67
and if N+1 = 13, then the new average becomes 54 + 91/13 = 54 + 7 = 61
Both 67 and 61 are prime numbers less than 72. So, we cannot uniquely determine the number of students in the class.
Chapter doubts & questions for July Week 2 - Weekly Tests for UPSC Preparation 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of July Week 2 - Weekly Tests for UPSC Preparation in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam.
Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.
|
© EduRev
|
Education Revolution
|
|
Signup to see your scores
go up within 7 days!
Access 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos and Tests
Takes less than 10 seconds to signup