All questions of January 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements.
  1. Sound travels faster in air than in water.
  2. Marine animals are known to use sound to navigate, find food and protect themselves.
  3. Dolphins use echolocation in order to locate food and other objects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Das answered
Sound in Air and Water

Sound in Air:
- Sound travels through air in the form of pressure waves.
- The speed of sound in air is approximately 343 meters per second at a temperature of 20°C.

Sound in Water:
- Sound travels through water more efficiently than through air because water molecules are closer together than air molecules.
- The speed of sound in water is approximately 1,484 meters per second.

Marine Animals and Sound

Marine Animals:
- Many marine animals use sound to navigate, communicate, find food, and protect themselves.
- Some examples of marine animals that use sound include whales, dolphins, porpoises, seals, and sea lions.

Echolocation:
- Echolocation is a technique used by some marine animals, such as dolphins, to locate objects in their environment.
- Dolphins emit high-frequency clicks that bounce off objects and return to the dolphin as echoes.
- By interpreting the echoes, the dolphin can determine the size, shape, distance, and location of the object.

Correct Answer: c) 2, 3

- The statement "Sound travels faster in air than in water" is incorrect. Sound travels faster in water than in air.
- The statements "Marine animals are known to use sound to navigate, find food and protect themselves" and "Dolphins use echolocation in order to locate food and other objects" are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Landraces.
  1. Landraces refer to naturally occurring variants of commonly cultivated crops.
  2. These are improved variants of commercially grown crops, which are developed by selective breeding or through genetic engineering.
  3. kalbhat, a scented rice is an example of landrace variant.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Landraces refer to naturally occurring variants of commonly cultivated crops. These are as opposed to commercially grown crops, which are developed by selective breeding (hybrids) or through genetic engineering to express a certain trait over others. 
  • Biodiversity allows a natural mechanism for crops to develop traits to face challenging situations. However, given the large-scale human interference in crop selection, that ability is now lost in most commercially crops
  • Naturally occurring landraces have a large pool of still untapped genetic material, which can provide solutions. Genetic diversity is nature’s survival mechanism. The wider the gene pool, the more the chance of developing a trait that can help in surviving extreme climate events.
  • kalbhat, a unique landrace of scented rice. Over the years, this variant had almost vanished from cultivators’ fields as hybrid variants became popular. It has better climate resilience than popularly grown rice and can withstand flood or drought better.

Consider the following statements regarding Census and Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC).
  1. The Census is a statutory exercise and all data collected will be published in the local areas for public scrutiny.
  2. All the personal information given in the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) is open for use by Government departments to grant and/or restrict benefits to households.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Avi Mehra answered
Census and Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC)

Introduction:
Census and Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) are two different exercises carried out by the Indian government to collect data related to population and its socio-economic conditions. In this question, we need to identify the correct statements regarding these exercises.

Statement 1: The Census is a statutory exercise and all data collected will be published in the local areas for public scrutiny.

Explanation:
The Census is a statutory exercise conducted every ten years under the Census Act, 1948. The primary objective of the Census is to collect data related to the population, its demographic characteristics, and housing conditions. The Census data is used for various purposes such as planning, policy formulation, and allocation of resources. The Census data is collected by enumerators who visit every household and record the necessary information. The Census data is confidential and is not open for public scrutiny. However, some statistical information is released for public use.

Statement 2: All the personal information given in the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) is open for use by Government departments to grant and/or restrict benefits to households.

Explanation:
The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) is a comprehensive exercise conducted to collect data related to the socio-economic conditions of households. The SECC data is used to identify households that are eligible for various government schemes and programs. The SECC data is collected by visiting every household and recording the necessary information. The SECC data is confidential and is not open for public scrutiny. Only authorized government officials have access to this data. The SECC data is used to grant or restrict benefits to households based on their socio-economic status.

Conclusion:
From the above explanation, we can conclude that statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' – 1 only.

Consider the following statements.
  1. PMGDISHA aim to provide digital literacy in rural India.
  2. FutureSkills PRIME is a jointly conceived programme by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and NITI Aayog.
  3. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for E-Government Development Index (EGDI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Mishra answered
Digital Literacy and E-Government Development in India

Statement 1: PMGDISHA aim to provide digital literacy in rural India.

PMGDISHA (Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan) is a scheme launched by the Government of India in 2017 with the aim of providing digital literacy to the rural population of the country. The scheme aims to make 6 crore rural households digitally literate by March 2019. The programme is being implemented by the Common Service Centres (CSCs) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The scheme is being implemented in a phased manner, with a target of covering 25 lakh candidates in the first phase. The scheme aims to empower the rural population by imparting basic digital literacy skills, such as how to operate a computer or a smartphone, how to access the internet, how to send and receive emails, how to use digital payment methods, and how to access government services online.

Statement 2: FutureSkills PRIME is a jointly conceived programme by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and NITI Aayog.

FutureSkills PRIME is a programme launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in collaboration with the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog), with the aim of upskilling Indian youth in emerging technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), Blockchain, Cloud Computing, and the Internet of Things (IoT). The programme aims to train 10 million Indian youth in the next three years in these technologies, which are expected to have a significant impact on the future of work. The programme is being implemented in collaboration with industry partners, such as Accenture, IBM, Microsoft, and Amazon Web Services, who will provide training content and resources. The programme aims to create a pool of skilled professionals who will be able to meet the demands of the rapidly evolving job market.

Statement 3: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for E-Government Development Index (EGDI).

The E-Government Development Index (EGDI) is a measure of the capacity of national governments to use information and communication technologies (ICTs) to deliver public services to their citizens. The index is computed by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA) and is published in the United Nations E-Government Survey. The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry in India for the development and implementation of e-government initiatives. The ministry is responsible for the implementation of various e-governance projects, such as Aadhaar, Digital India, and e-Kranti, which aim to improve the delivery of public services to citizens through the use of ICTs. MeitY is also responsible for the development and implementation of various policies and programmes related to the digital economy, cybersecurity, and data protection.

Conclusion

Hence, the correct answer is option B, which states that PMGDISHA aims to provide digital literacy in rural India, and FutureSkills PRIME is a jointly conceived programme by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and NITI Aayog. The third statement is incorrect as MeitY is the nodal ministry for the implementation of e-government initiatives in India, but the computation of the E-Government Development Index is done by the United Nations

Consider the following statements.
  1. January 9 was selected to celebrate Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas, as it was the date when Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915.
  2. Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is given as part of Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas, which is the highest honour conferred to a Non-Resident Indian, Person of Indian Origin; or an organisation or institution established and run by them.
  3. The President of India acts as a chairman for the jury-cum-awards committee of Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

  • The 17th edition of the Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas (PBD) was commemorated on January 9.
  • January 9 was selected as it was the date when Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915. 
  • An award called The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is given out as part of the programme. According to the official website, “It is the highest honour conferred on a Non-Resident Indian, Person of Indian Origin; or an organisation or institution established and run by them.”
  • The award is to commemorate the contribution of the Indian diaspora to create a better understanding of India abroad, support India’s causes and work for the welfare of the local Indian community.
  • “A jury-cum-awards committee, with (the) Vice President as the chairman and External Affairs Minister as the vice-chair and other distinguished members from various walks of life considered the nominations…and unanimously selected the awardees.

Consider the following statements regarding Black Sea.
  1. The Black Sea is a marginal mediterranean sea of the Atlantic Ocean lying between Europe and Asia.
  2. Danube, Dnieper and Colorado River drains into the Black Sea.
  3. Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine borders Black Sea.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The Black Sea is a marginal mediterranean sea of the Atlantic Ocean lying between Europe and Asia, east of the Balkans, south of the East European Plain, west of the Caucasus, and north of Anatolia. It is bounded by Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine. The Black Sea is supplied by major rivers, principally the Danube, Dnieper, and Don. 
The Colorado River is a major river in the Southwestern United States and northern Mexico. 

Consider the following statements regarding Lok Adalat.
  1. The system of Lok Adalat is based onGandhian principles.
  2. The institution of Lok Adalat has non statutory status.
  3. The cases which are pending in a court or which are at pre-litigation stage are settled in an amicable manner.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • The word ‘Lok Adalat’ means ‘People’s Court’. This system is based on Gandhian principles. It is one of the components of ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) system.
  • The Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which are at pre-litigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an amicable manner.
  • The first Lok Adalat camp in the post-independence era was organised in Gujarat in 1982.
  • The institution of Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
  • A Lok Adalat shall have jurisdiction to determine and to arrive at a compromise or settlement between the parties to a dispute in respect of:
    • any case pending before any court; or
    • any matter which is falling within the jurisdiction of any court and is not brought before such court.

Consider the following statements.
  1. There is disparity between the retirement ages of High Court and Supreme Court judges in India.
  2. The President of India appoints every judge of the Supreme Court, including the Chief Justice of India.
  3. The Constitution of India mandates that the senior most judge of the Supreme Court should be the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    3 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
  • There is disparity between the retirement ages of High Court and Supreme Court judges; High Court judges now retire at 62 and Supreme Court judges at 65.
  • It is generally assumed that the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court should be the Chief Justice of India, but we may pause to consider whether this is what the law mandates, and whether it is wholly wise. As to the first, the Constitution mandates no such thing. Article 124 merely states that the President will appoint every judge of the Supreme Court, and this includes the Chief Justice, and each of these judges shall hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Tamil Nadu government recently launched Nilgiri Tahr conservation project, an initiative for the conservation of the Nilgiri Tahr.
  2. There are multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam literature.
  3. Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered species, endemic to western ghats.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Athul Chauhan answered
Introduction:
The given statements are related to the Nilgiri Tahr, a species found in the Western Ghats of India. Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness.

Statement 1: The Tamil Nadu government recently launched Nilgiri Tahr conservation project.
This statement is correct. The Tamil Nadu government has indeed launched the Nilgiri Tahr conservation project. The project aims to protect and conserve the Nilgiri Tahr, which is an endangered species endemic to the Western Ghats.

Statement 2: There are multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam literature.
This statement is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr is mentioned in Tamil Sangam literature, which is a collection of ancient Tamil literature that dates back to the 3rd century BCE to the 4th century CE. These references highlight the cultural and historical significance of the Nilgiri Tahr in the region.

Statement 3: Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered species, endemic to the Western Ghats.
This statement is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr is indeed an endangered species that is endemic to the Western Ghats. Endemic species are those that are found exclusively in a particular geographic region and are not naturally found anywhere else in the world. The Nilgiri Tahr is primarily found in the Nilgiri Hills of the Western Ghats, which stretch across the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka.

Conclusion:
All three statements are correct. The Tamil Nadu government has launched a conservation project for the Nilgiri Tahr, and the species has multiple references in Tamil Sangam literature. Additionally, the Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered species that is endemic to the Western Ghats.

Brent Crude is often used as a benchmark for the prices of crude oils. It is found in parts of the North Sea off the coast of 
  • a)
    British Isles island in Ireland 
  • b)
    United Kingdom and Norway 
  • c)
    Finland and Sweden 
  • d)
    Biscay near France
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Reddy answered
Introduction:
Brent Crude is a type of crude oil that is widely used as a benchmark for pricing other crude oils. It is named after the Brent oilfield, which is located in the North Sea. The Brent oilfield is situated in a specific region, and this region determines the countries that can claim ownership of the oilfield.

Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B', which states that Brent Crude is found in parts of the North Sea off the coast of the United Kingdom and Norway. Here's a detailed explanation of why this answer is correct:

1. Brent oilfield: The Brent oilfield is one of the largest oilfields in the North Sea. It was discovered in 1971 and has been a significant source of oil production since then. The oilfield is located in the region between the United Kingdom and Norway.

2. Ownership: The North Sea is divided into different sectors, and each sector is owned by a specific country or group of countries. The Brent oilfield is located in the United Kingdom sector and partially extends into the Norwegian sector. Therefore, both the United Kingdom and Norway can claim ownership of the oilfield.

3. Oil production: The Brent oilfield produces Brent Crude oil, which is a light sweet crude oil. It is known for its low sulfur content and high API gravity, making it easier to refine into various petroleum products. The oil production from the Brent oilfield is an essential component of the global oil market.

4. Benchmark pricing: Brent Crude is widely used as a benchmark for pricing other crude oils. The pricing of Brent Crude is based on the supply and demand dynamics in the North Sea region. It serves as a reference point for traders, refiners, and other market participants to determine the value of other crude oils.

5. Importance: The use of Brent Crude as a benchmark is due to its significant production volume, high quality, and geographical proximity to major refining centers in Europe. Its pricing affects the cost of gasoline, diesel, and other petroleum products worldwide.

Conclusion:
Brent Crude is primarily found in parts of the North Sea off the coast of the United Kingdom and Norway. The Brent oilfield, located in this region, is a vital source of oil production and serves as a benchmark for pricing other crude oils. Its low sulfur content and high API gravity make it a preferred choice for refineries worldwide.

Golden Globe Awards, recently seen in news is related to 
  • a)
    Journalism and literature 
  • b)
    Creative arts 
  • c)
    Film and television 
  • d)
    Establishment of human rights
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Rane answered
Golden Globe Awards is an annual awards ceremony that honors outstanding achievements in film and television industry. It is one of the most prestigious awards in the entertainment industry, considered as a precursor to the Academy Awards. The awards are presented by the Hollywood Foreign Press Association (HFPA) and are usually held in January.

Established in 1944, the Golden Globe Awards recognize excellence in various categories including Best Motion Picture, Best Director, Best Actor and Actress in a Motion Picture, Best Television Series, Best Performance by an Actor/Actress in a Television Series, and many more.

The awards ceremony is broadcasted globally and is attended by some of the most prominent figures in the entertainment industry. The awards are known for their glitz and glamour, as well as for promoting and recognizing new talent.

In recent years, the Golden Globe Awards have also been in the news for controversies surrounding the lack of diversity in the HFPA and their voting process. However, the awards continue to be highly regarded and celebrated by the film and television industry.

Consider the following statements regarding Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA).
  1. Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutorybody of Ministry of Women & Child Development.
  2. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993.
  3. CARA does not deal with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.

Consider the following statements regarding Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
  1. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) have the property of long-range environmental transport (LRET).
  2. Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer and diseases of immune system.
  3. As we move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to decrease so that animals at the top of the food chain tend to have the low concentrations of these chemicals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer, damage to central & peripheral nervous systems, diseases of immune system, reproductive disorders and interference with normal infant and child development.
Uniqueness of POPs:
  • POPs are lipophilic, which means that they accumulate in the fatty tissue of living animals and human beings.
  • In fatty tissue, the concentrations can become magnified by up to 70 000 times higher than the background levels.
As you move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to increase so that animals at the top of the food chain such as fish, predatory birds, mammals, and humans tend to have the greatest concentrations of these chemicals.

Consider the following statements regarding Swami Vivekananda.
  1. Swami Vivekananda was an exponent of vedantic philosophy.
  2. He rejected the external rituals of religion.
  3. He spelt out the pathways of attaining moksha from worldly pleasure and attachment.
  4. He founded the Ramakrishna Mission.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    3, 4 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
  • Swami Vivekananda believed that there is only one Self in the universe. There is only one Existence. He saw the entire universe as a manifestation of the absolute One.
  • Spiritual primacy is the central theme of Vivekananda’s teachings, through which human beings can succeed in every sphere of their lives. Nevertheless, he urges people, especially the youth, to never let go of reason. Instead, he premises his philosophy, ideas and life work on the premise of reason. The three instruments of knowledge that he propounded are instincts, reason, and inspiration.
  • He was an exponent of vedantic humanism. He did not propagate a world-negating concept of spirituality, rather he said that each and every chore of your life should be done with divinity. He articulated that external rituals of religion are of secondary importance but the spiritual essence of a religion should be preserved and accepted.
  • Karma Yoga, Bhakti Yoga, Raja Yoga and Jnana Yoga: Swami Vivekananda talked about the four pathways of attaining moksha from worldly pleasure and attachment in his books.

Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar (1892) was published by
  • a)
    Suniti Choudhury 
  • b)
    Pritilata Waddedar 
  • c)
    Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay 
  • d)
    Savitribai Phule
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Publication of Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar by Savitribai Phule

Background:
- Savitribai Phule was a prominent social reformer and poet from Maharashtra, India.
- She is considered to be the first female teacher of India and played a crucial role in promoting women's education and empowerment.
- Savitribai Phule and her husband Jyotirao Phule founded the first school for girls in Pune in 1848.

Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar:
- Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar is a collection of 52 poems written by Savitribai Phule.
- The poems in this collection reflect her strong beliefs in social equality, women's rights, and the abolition of caste discrimination.
- Savitribai Phule used her poetry as a medium to challenge the prevailing social norms and advocate for the upliftment of marginalized sections of society.

Publication:
- Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar was published in 1892.
- The publication of this collection was a significant milestone in the literary and social reform movements in Maharashtra.
- It showcased Savitribai Phule's poetic talent and her commitment to social justice.
- The poems in the collection resonated with the struggles and aspirations of the oppressed and marginalized communities during that time.
- The publication of Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar helped in spreading the ideas of social equality and women's empowerment.

Significance:
- Savitribai Phule's poetry, including Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar, played a crucial role in inspiring and mobilizing people to fight against social injustices.
- Her writings became a source of inspiration for future generations of social reformers and activists.
- The publication of Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar marked a significant contribution to Marathi literature and paved the way for the inclusion of women's voices in the literary canon.

In conclusion, Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar was published by Savitribai Phule, a pioneering social reformer and poet. This collection of poems reflects her commitment to social justice and women's empowerment. The publication of this collection in 1892 was a significant milestone in the literary and social reform movements in Maharashtra. Savitribai Phule's poetry continues to inspire and resonate with people fighting against social injustices.

Consider the following statements regarding Gangasagar Mela.
  1. Gangasagar Mela is a religious event celebrated in West Bengal.
  2. Pilgrims visit Sagar Island and take a dip at the confluence of the Ganga and the Bay of Bengal on the occasion of ‘Makar Sankranti’.
  3. Like Kumbh Mela, it has been accorded national status.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    1 and 3 only 
  • c)
    2 and 3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • CHIEF MINISTER of West Bengal reiterated her demand that the Centre should accord national status for the annual Gangasagar Mela.
  • Lakhs of Hindu pilgrims visit Sagar Island from different parts of the country and to take a holy dip at the confluence of the sacred Ganga and the Bay of Bengal on the occasion of ‘Makar Sankranti’.

Why are Bacteriophages seen as a possible therapy against multi-drug-resistant strains of many bacteria?
  1. These are ubiquitous viruses found wherever bacteria exist and can kill bacteria.
  2. They do not contain any RNA or DNA and thus cannot be infected by bacteria.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Bacteriophages, also known as phages, are viruses that infect and kill bacteria. They have been recognized as a possible therapy against multi-drug-resistant strains of bacteria due to several reasons:

1. Specificity: Bacteriophages are highly specific in their host range, meaning they can infect and kill specific types of bacteria while leaving other bacteria and human cells unharmed. This specificity allows for targeted treatment, minimizing the disruption of the normal microbiota.

2. Versatility: Bacteriophages have a wide range of host specificities, and there are thousands of different phages that have been identified. This allows for the possibility of finding a phage that can effectively target and kill a specific multi-drug-resistant strain of bacteria.

3. Natural occurrence: Bacteriophages are ubiquitous in nature and can be found wherever bacteria exist, including in environments such as soil, water, and the human body. They have co-evolved with bacteria for billions of years and have played a role in shaping bacterial populations. Therefore, they have already been naturally selecting for their ability to kill bacteria, including antibiotic-resistant strains.

4. Self-replication: Bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within their bacterial host, leading to the production of multiple phages that can further infect and kill other bacteria. This property allows for the amplification of the phage population within the infected site, potentially leading to a more effective treatment.

5. Adaptability: Bacteria have the ability to develop resistance to antibiotics, but phages can evolve and adapt to overcome bacterial resistance mechanisms. This is because phages have a rapid replication cycle and high mutation rates, allowing them to quickly evolve new strategies to infect and kill bacteria.

6. Lack of cross-resistance: Bacteria that have developed resistance to multiple antibiotics may still be susceptible to phages. This is because phages use different mechanisms to kill bacteria compared to antibiotics, and therefore bacterial resistance to antibiotics does not necessarily confer resistance to phages.

In conclusion, bacteriophages are seen as a potential therapy against multi-drug-resistant strains of bacteria due to their specificity, versatility, natural occurrence, self-replication, adaptability, and lack of cross-resistance. Further research and development in phage therapy may help address the growing threat of antibiotic resistance and provide alternative treatment options for bacterial infections.

Consider the following statements.
  1. As trees grow older, certain parts of it become dead wood, which is eventually decomposed by microbes and insects like termites.
  2. Termites release carbon from dead wood in the form of carbon dioxide and methane.
  3. As temperature rises, the decomposition activity of the termites reduces accordingly.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallavi Rane answered
Explanation:

1. Trees and Dead Wood:
- As trees grow older, certain parts of them become dead wood.
- Dead wood is eventually decomposed by microbes and insects like termites.

2. Termites and Carbon Release:
- Termites release carbon from dead wood in the form of carbon dioxide and methane.

3. Temperature and Termites:
- As temperature rises, the decomposition activity of termites reduces accordingly.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2. Termites play a crucial role in the decomposition of dead wood, releasing carbon in the form of carbon dioxide and methane. However, their activity decreases as temperatures rise, impacting the rate of decomposition.

Consider the following statements.
  1. India is the largest producer of coal in the world.
  2. Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh account for almost 70% of the total known coal reserves in India.
  3. According to the present rules, coal mines in a state can be allocated to different state for its extraction and use.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Kumar answered
  • Coal deposits are primarily found in eastern and south-central India. Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh accounted for almost 70% of the total known coal reserves in India.
  • India is the world’s second largest coal producer.
  • Coal mines in a state can be allocated to different state for its extraction and use.

In India, Microcredit is delivered through which of the following channels?
  1. Microfinance institutions (MFIs) registered as NBFCs
  2. Non-banking financial companies (NBFCs)
  3. Scheduled commercial banks including small finance banks (SFBs).
  4. Cooperative banks
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vijay Kumar answered
Microfinance is a form of financial service which provides small loans and other financial services to poor and low-income households. 
Microcredit is delivered through a variety of institutional channels viz., (i) scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) (including small finance banks (SFBs) and regional rural banks (RRBs)) lending both directly as well as through business correspondents (BCs) and self-help groups (SHGs), (ii) cooperative banks, (iii) non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), and (iv) microfinance institutions (MFIs) registered as NBFCs as well as in other forms.

Consider the following statements regarding FATF Grey List.
  1. Countries considered as safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list.
  2. The inclusion into grey list serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
  3. For such countries listed on grey list, FATF tell other members to carry out due-diligence measures vis-a-vis the listed country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Countries considered as safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list.
  • While the words ‘grey’ and ‘black’ list do not exist in the official FATF lexicon, they designate countries that need to work on complying with FATF directives and those who are non-compliant, respectively.
  • At the end of every plenary meeting, FATF comes out with two lists of countries.
  • The grey countries are designated as “jurisdictions under increased monitoring”, working with the FATF to counter criminal financial activities. For such countries, the watchdog does not tell other members to carry out due-diligence measures vis-a-vis the listed country but does tell them to consider the risks such countries possess.

Consider the following statements regarding the principle of collective responsibility.
  1. Under the principle of Collective responsibility, individual members of the government are held accountable for the actions and decisions of government as a whole.
  2. The principle of collective responsibility is present under article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which states that Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
  3. The principle of Collective responsibility is the basic structure of the Constitution of India.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
  • The principle of collective responsibility is the basic principle of parliamentary form of government. The essence of parliamentary system of government is its responsibility to the legislature.
  • Under the principle of Collective responsibility, individual members of the government are held accountable for the actions and decisions of government as a whole.
  • The principle of collective responsibility is present under article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the special provisions of this principle. Article 75(3) provides that the council of ministers shall be put together accountable to the Lok Sabha.

Consider the following statements regarding Niger River.
  1. The Niger River is the second-longest river in Africa after the Nile river.
  2. The River is named after the country Niger because the entire river flows through it.
  3. Its source is in the Guinea Highlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Niger River is the main river of West Africa, extending about 4,180 km (2,600 mi). Its drainage basin is 2,117,700 km2 in area. Its source is in the Guinea Highlands. It runs in a crescent shape through Mali, Niger, on the border with Benin and then through Nigeria, discharging through a massive delta, known as the Niger Delta, into the Gulf of Guinea in the Atlantic Ocean. The Niger is the third-longest river in Africa, exceeded by the Nile and the Congo River. Its main tributary is the Benue River.

Consider the following statements regarding Green Bonds.
  1. Green bonds can be issued by any sovereign entity, inter-governmental groups or corporates.
  2. In India, the Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change(MoEFCC).
  3. In India, the proceeds raised from Sovereign Green Bonds can be used to finance or refinance expenditure for various green projects, including in renewable energy, clean transportation, climate change adaptation, pollution and prevention control and green buildings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Das answered
Green Bonds
Statement 1: Green bonds can be issued by any sovereign entity, inter-governmental groups or corporates.

Statement 2: In India, the Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

Statement 3: In India, the proceeds raised from Sovereign Green Bonds can be used to finance or refinance expenditure for various green projects, including in renewable energy, clean transportation, climate change adaptation, pollution and prevention control and green buildings.

Explanation:
Green bonds are a type of bond that is specifically issued to finance or refinance projects that have environmental benefits. These projects can include initiatives related to renewable energy, energy efficiency, pollution prevention, sustainable agriculture, and climate change adaptation, among others.

Statement 1: Green bonds can be issued by any sovereign entity, inter-governmental groups or corporates.
This statement is correct. Green bonds can be issued by any sovereign entity, such as governments, inter-governmental groups like the World Bank, or corporates.

Statement 2: In India, the Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
This statement is incorrect. In India, the Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

Statement 3: In India, the proceeds raised from Sovereign Green Bonds can be used to finance or refinance expenditure for various green projects, including in renewable energy, clean transportation, climate change adaptation, pollution and prevention control and green buildings.
This statement is correct. In India, the proceeds raised from Sovereign Green Bonds can indeed be used to finance or refinance expenditure for various green projects, including those related to renewable energy, clean transportation, climate change adaptation, pollution and prevention control, and green buildings.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis, we can conclude that statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct option is (b) 1, 3.

Consider the following statements regarding Mahadayi river.
  1. Mahadayi originates from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary.
  2. Kalasa and Banduri are the tributaries of the Mahadayi river.
  3. The river flows in the states of Karnataka, Goa and Maharashtra.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Rao answered
  • Mahadayi originates inside the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka and flows into the Arabian Sea in Goa.
  • The river flows in the states of Karnataka, Goa and Maharashtra.
  • Kalasa and Banduri are the two tributaries of the Mahadayi river.

Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), recently seen in news is managed by 
  • a)
    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) 
  • b)
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 
  • c)
    Union Ministry of Finance 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • The Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) is managed by the IEPF Authority, which was set up in 2016 under the provisions of Section 125 of the Companies Act, 2013. The Authority is entrusted with the responsibility of administration of the IEPF, which, besides promoting awareness among investors, makes refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits and debentures and so on to rightful claimants.
  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has been appointed the nodal industry for online gaming in India; for e-sports, the nodal agency is the Department of Sports, under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.
  2. Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Mishra answered
1. Justice G. Rohini Commission was appointed by the Government of India to examine the issue of reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) in higher education institutions.

2. The commission submitted its report in 2019, recommending the introduction of reservation for EWS in higher education institutions.

3. The recommendations of the Justice G. Rohini Commission were implemented by the Government of India through the introduction of the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.

4. The reservation for EWS in higher education institutions is separate from the existing reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes.

5. The reservation for EWS is applicable to both government and private higher education institutions in India.

6. The reservation for EWS is based on the criteria of income and not on social backwardness.

7. The reservation for EWS in higher education institutions has been criticized for diluting the existing reservation benefits for marginalized communities.

8. The reservation for EWS in higher education institutions has been widely hailed as a progressive step towards ensuring equality of opportunity.

9. The reservation for EWS in higher education institutions has led to an increase in the number of seats available for admission, thus providing more opportunities for students.

10. The reservation for EWS in higher education institutions has faced legal challenges, with some arguing that it violates the principle of equality enshrined in the Constitution.

11. The reservation for EWS in higher education institutions is applicable only to undergraduate courses and not to postgraduate or doctoral programs.

12. The reservation for EWS in higher education institutions is a temporary measure and will be reviewed after a certain period of time.

Please select True or False for each statement.

Consider the following statements regarding Collective Investment Scheme.
  1. A Collective Investment Scheme is an investment scheme where various individuals come together and pool their money in order to invest their whole fund collection in a particular asset.
  2. They are regulated by Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  3. Mutual funds are an example for Collective Investment Scheme in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ayush Kulkarni answered
Collective Investment Scheme

Statement 1: A Collective Investment Scheme is an investment scheme where various individuals come together and pool their money in order to invest their whole fund collection in a particular asset.

This statement is correct. A Collective Investment Scheme (CIS) is a type of investment scheme where investors pool their money together and invest in a diversified portfolio of assets. The scheme is managed by a professional fund manager who invests the pooled money in accordance with the scheme's investment objectives.

Statement 2: They are regulated by Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

This statement is also correct. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority for Collective Investment Schemes in India. SEBI regulates and supervises the functioning of CIS to ensure investor protection and transparency.

Statement 3: Mutual funds are an example of Collective Investment Scheme in India.

This statement is also correct. Mutual funds are a popular example of Collective Investment Schemes in India. In mutual funds, investors pool their money together to invest in a diversified portfolio of securities such as stocks, bonds, and other financial assets.

Conclusion:

All three statements are correct. A Collective Investment Scheme is an investment scheme where various individuals come together and pool their money in order to invest in a particular asset. They are regulated by Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI), and mutual funds are an example of Collective Investment Scheme in India.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) normally pays the dividend to the Central Government from the surplus income it earns on investments and valuation changes on its dollar holdings and the fees it gets from printing currency.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has developed an Economic Capital Framework (ECF) for determining the allocation of funds to its capital reserves so that any risk contingency can be met.
  3. The RBI cannot bank on the Contingency Fund in case of any emergency requirement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 2.

Explanation:
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) normally pays the dividend to the Central Government from the surplus income it earns on investments and valuation changes on its dollar holdings and the fees it gets from printing currency.
- This statement is correct. The RBI earns income from various sources such as investments, valuation changes on its foreign currency holdings, and fees from printing currency. It pays a dividend to the Central Government from the surplus income it generates.

2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has developed an Economic Capital Framework (ECF) for determining the allocation of funds to its capital reserves so that any risk contingency can be met.
- This statement is correct. The RBI has developed an Economic Capital Framework (ECF) which helps in determining the allocation of funds to its capital reserves. This framework ensures that the RBI maintains adequate capital reserves to meet any risk contingency that may arise.

3. The RBI cannot bank on the Contingency Fund in case of any emergency requirement.
- This statement is incorrect. The RBI can indeed bank on the Contingency Fund in case of any emergency requirement. The Contingency Fund is a fund set up by the RBI to meet any unforeseen financial exigencies or systemic risks. It acts as a buffer to ensure financial stability and provide liquidity support when needed.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Liquified natural gas(LNG).
  1. LNG is a natural gasreduced to a liquid state (liquefaction) through intense heating.
  2. It is constituted almost wholly of methane.
  3. One of the main drawbacks of LNG is that it cannot be easily transported around the world by ships.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Chawla answered
Statement Analysis

LNG Production Process:
- The statement that LNG is a natural gas reduced to a liquid state through liquefaction is correct. Natural gas is cooled to around -162 degrees Celsius, at which point it becomes a clear, colorless, non-toxic liquid.

Composition of LNG:
- The statement that LNG is constituted almost wholly of methane is correct. Methane makes up a significant portion of LNG, typically around 90-95%, with small amounts of other hydrocarbons present.

Transportation of LNG:
- The statement that LNG cannot be easily transported around the world by ships is incorrect. LNG is commonly transported globally via specially designed LNG carriers. These ships are equipped with advanced insulation and safety measures to ensure the safe transport of LNG over long distances.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that statement 2 is correct.

The Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu case is related to 
  • a)
    Right to Constitutional remedies 
  • b)
    Parliamentary committees 
  • c)
    Anti-defection law 
  • d)
    Basic Structure doctrine
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhay Malik answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Anti-defection law.

Explanation:

The Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu case is a significant case related to the Anti-defection law in India. This law was introduced to prevent political defections by the Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs).

Background:
In 1985, the Tenth Schedule was added to the Indian Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act, which is commonly known as the Anti-defection law. This law aimed to curb the frequent and unethical practice of elected representatives switching parties for personal gains, thereby destabilizing the government.

Key Points of the Case:

1. Disqualification of Defectors: The Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu case was a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India in 1992. In this case, the Supreme Court interpreted the provisions of the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution and laid down guidelines for the disqualification of defectors.

2. Speaker's Role: One of the main issues addressed in this case was the role of the Speaker in deciding disqualification cases. The Supreme Court held that the decision of the Speaker or Chairman of the House in matters of disqualification under the Anti-defection law is subject to judicial review. The court stated that the Speaker's decision can be challenged on the grounds of mala fide, perversity, and violation of natural justice.

3. Finality of Speaker's Decision: The judgment also established that the decision of the Speaker or Chairman of the House is final and binding until it is set aside by a court of law. This means that if the Speaker disqualifies a member, that member cannot continue to be a legislator unless the court overturns the Speaker's decision.

4. Role of the Governor: Additionally, the case clarified the role of the Governor in giving consent for the prosecution of a legislator under the Anti-defection law. The court held that the Governor's decision is not amenable to judicial review.

Significance:

The Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu case played a crucial role in defining the scope and interpretation of the Anti-defection law. It provided clarity on the powers and limitations of the Speaker in deciding disqualification cases. The judgment aimed to strike a balance between the autonomy of the legislature and the need for judicious review of defection cases to uphold the democratic principles and the integrity of institutions.

In conclusion, the Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu case is related to the Anti-defection law. It addressed various aspects of the law, including the role of the Speaker, judicial review of the Speaker's decision, and the finality of the Speaker's decision until it is set aside by a court of law. This case has been instrumental in shaping the implementation and understanding of the Anti-defection law in India.

Consider the following statements regarding Vampire bats.
  1. Vampire bats are the only mammals which feed solely on blood.
  2. They mainly inhabit the warmer regions of Indian Sub-continent.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vampire bats are small, nocturnal mammals that are found in Central and South America. They are known for their unique feeding habits, as they are the only mammals that feed solely on blood. Here are some details regarding the statements mentioned in the question:

1. Vampire bats are the only mammals which feed solely on blood.
This statement is correct. Vampire bats have a specialized diet that consists of the blood of other animals. They use their razor-sharp teeth to make tiny incisions in the skin of their prey and then lap up the blood with their tongues. This feeding behavior is called hematophagy, and it is unique to vampire bats among all mammals. Other animals that feed on blood, such as leeches and mosquitoes, are not mammals.

2. They mainly inhabit the warmer regions of Indian Sub-continent.
This statement is incorrect. Vampire bats are not found in the Indian subcontinent. They are native to the Americas and are found in Central and South America, from Mexico to Brazil, Chile, and Argentina. They prefer warm, tropical climates and are typically found in areas with dense vegetation, such as rainforests.

In conclusion, the correct answer to the question is option 'A' (1 only), as only the first statement regarding vampire bats feeding solely on blood is correct. The second statement, which suggests that vampire bats inhabit the warmer regions of the Indian subcontinent, is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Public Account of India.
  1. Public Account of India accounts for those transactions where the Union government acts as a banker.
  2. Expenditures from Public Account of India does not require the approval of the parliament.
  3. State provident funds and small savings deposits are outside the preview of Public Account of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2 only 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Datta answered
Public Account of India

The Public Account of India is one of the three parts of the Consolidated Fund of India, the other two being the Contingency Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of India. It is an account where the Union government acts as a banker and keeps the funds that do not belong to it, but are entrusted to it by others. Here are the statements regarding the Public Account of India and their correctness:

Statement 1: Public Account of India accounts for those transactions where the Union government acts as a banker.
This statement is correct. The Public Account of India includes transactions where the government acts as a banker, such as providing banking services to various entities, organizations, and individuals. It includes deposits and withdrawals made by these entities.

Statement 2: Expenditures from Public Account of India does not require the approval of the parliament.
This statement is incorrect. Expenditures from the Public Account of India do require the approval of the parliament. The funds in the Public Account are held by the government on behalf of various entities, and the government can only utilize these funds for the purposes for which they were deposited. Any expenditure from the Public Account needs to be authorized by the parliament through the approval of the annual budget or through separate legislation.

Statement 3: State provident funds and small savings deposits are outside the preview of Public Account of India.
This statement is correct. State provident funds and small savings deposits are not part of the Public Account of India. They are managed separately and have their own accounts and mechanisms for handling transactions. State provident funds are managed by the respective state governments and small savings deposits, such as those made in post office savings accounts, are managed by the Department of Posts.

Therefore, the correct statements are:
a) 1, 3

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, introduced the provisions relating to Exclusive Marketing Rights (EMRs).
  2. The TRIPS Agreement sets out the minimum standards of intellectual property protection to be provided by each Member.
  3. Preventing known substance from being patented as an invention unless it enhances the efficacy of the substance repetitively is known as preventing “evergreening” of patents.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Indian Patents Act, 1970:
  • It replaced the Indian Patents and Designs Act 1911.
  • The Act was amended by the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, wherein product patent was extended to all fields of technology including food, drugs, chemicals and microorganisms.
  • After the amendment, the provisions relating to Exclusive Marketing Rights (EMRs) have been repealed, and a provision for enabling grant of compulsory license has been introduced.
  • The provisions relating to pre-grant and post-grant opposition have also been introduced.
Article 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act prevents the mere discovery of any new property or new use for a known substance from being patented as an invention unless it enhances the efficacy of the substance repetitively. This prevents what is known as “evergreening” of patents.
In respect of each of the main areas of intellectual property covered by the TRIPS Agreement, the Agreement sets out the minimum standards of protection to be provided by each Member. 

Consider the following statements regarding Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN) code.
  1. It is a multipurpose international product nomenclature developed by the World Trade Organization (WTO).
  2. It was developed with the vision of facilitating the classification of goods all over the World in a systematic manner.
  3. In India, HSN codes apply to Customs and GST.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranavi Nair answered
Explanation:

The Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN) code is a multipurpose international product nomenclature developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO), not the World Trade Organization (WTO). It was developed with the vision of facilitating the classification of goods all over the world in a systematic manner. In India, HSN codes apply to Customs and GST.

Statement 1: It is a multipurpose international product nomenclature developed by the World Trade Organization (WTO).
This statement is incorrect. The HSN code is not developed by the World Trade Organization (WTO), but by the World Customs Organization (WCO). The WCO is an intergovernmental organization that deals with customs matters and facilitates international trade.

Statement 2: It was developed with the vision of facilitating the classification of goods all over the world in a systematic manner.
This statement is correct. The HSN code was developed with the vision of creating a standardized system for classifying goods internationally. It provides a systematic and uniform method for the identification and classification of products, which helps in facilitating international trade and customs procedures.

Statement 3: In India, HSN codes apply to Customs and GST.
This statement is correct. In India, HSN codes are used for both Customs and Goods and Services Tax (GST) purposes. HSN codes are used to classify goods for customs clearance, import-export documentation, and determining the rate of GST applicable to a particular product.

Therefore, the correct statements are:
- Statement 2: It was developed with the vision of facilitating the classification of goods all over the world in a systematic manner.
- Statement 3: In India, HSN codes apply to Customs and GST.

Hence, the correct option is B) 2, 3.

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) had approved for the procurement of next-generation Corvettes for the Indian Navy. Corvettes can be categorised into which of the following?
  1. Missile boats
  2. Anti-submarine ships
  3. Fast attack naval vessels
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Kumar answered
Next-Generation Corvettes for Indian Navy

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) has approved the procurement of next-generation Corvettes for the Indian Navy. Corvettes are small, fast, and maneuverable warships that typically have a length of fewer than 100 meters. They are designed for a variety of roles, including coastal patrol, anti-submarine warfare, and missile defense.

Types of Corvettes

Corvettes can be categorized into the following types:

1. Missile Boats - These are small, fast boats equipped with anti-ship missiles. They are designed to operate close to the shore and can be used for coastal defense.

2. Anti-Submarine Ships - These are larger corvettes designed to detect and engage enemy submarines. They are equipped with sonar systems, torpedoes, and anti-submarine rockets.

3. Fast Attack Naval Vessels - These are high-speed corvettes that can be used for a variety of roles, including coastal patrol, interception of enemy vessels, and support of special forces operations.

Conclusion

The next-generation corvettes for the Indian Navy will likely be designed to perform multiple roles, including anti-submarine warfare, anti-aircraft defense, and coastal patrol. The acquisition of these corvettes will enhance the Indian Navy's capabilities and help to secure India's maritime borders.

Consider the following statements regarding National Pension Scheme (NPS).
  1. The Scheme is regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  2. Only Indian citizens are eligible under NPS.
  3. The shift to NPS was undertaken due to concerns over the coverage, sustainability, and scalability of the old pension framework.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Saha answered
National Pension Scheme (NPS)

Correct Statements:

- The shift to NPS was undertaken due to concerns over the coverage, sustainability, and scalability of the old pension framework.
- Only Indian citizens are eligible under NPS.

Incorrect Statement:

- The Scheme is regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Explanation:

National Pension Scheme (NPS) is a voluntary, defined contribution retirement savings scheme. It was launched by the Government of India in 2004. The scheme is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), which was established by the Government of India in August 2003.

The shift to NPS was undertaken due to concerns over the coverage, sustainability, and scalability of the old pension framework. The old pension framework covered only a small section of the population, mainly government employees. Moreover, the old pension framework was financially unsustainable and lacked scalability. The introduction of NPS aimed to provide a pension system that was accessible to all citizens and sustainable in the long term.

Only Indian citizens are eligible under NPS. The scheme is open to all citizens of India, including Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) between the ages of 18 and 65. However, Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) and Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) are not eligible to join NPS.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme aims to 
  • a)
    Sustainable placements for the rural poor youth 
  • b)
    Improve watershed management practices to help farmers become more resilient to climate change 
  • c)
    Develop Rurban clusters across rural areas in India 
  • d)
    Enhance infrastructure in villages along India's Northern border
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Athul Chauhan answered
The correct answer is option 'D', which states that the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme aims to enhance infrastructure in villages along India's Northern border. Let us understand the details and significance of this scheme.

About the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme
The Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India. It focuses on the development of infrastructure in villages along India's Northern border. The scheme aims to improve the living conditions and overall well-being of the people residing in these border villages.

Objective of the scheme
The main objective of the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme is to strengthen the infrastructure in border villages to enhance their connectivity and security. By developing robust infrastructure, the scheme aims to ensure the safety and security of the people living in these areas and facilitate their socio-economic development.

Key features of the scheme
1. Infrastructure development: The scheme focuses on improving various aspects of infrastructure in the border villages, including roads, bridges, electrification, water supply, healthcare facilities, schools, and communication networks. This aims to provide better connectivity and accessibility to the residents.

2. Security enhancement: The scheme also aims to enhance the security measures in these border villages by improving the border fencing, setting up surveillance systems, establishing border outposts, and strengthening the presence of security forces. This helps in preventing infiltration and maintaining border security.

3. Socio-economic development: The Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme also works towards the socio-economic development of the border villages. It includes initiatives to promote skill development, entrepreneurship, agriculture, and tourism in these areas. This helps in creating employment opportunities and improving the livelihoods of the residents.

4. Collaboration with stakeholders: The scheme encourages collaboration with various stakeholders, including the local communities, state governments, central government agencies, and non-governmental organizations (NGOs). This ensures effective implementation and monitoring of the programme.

Significance of the scheme
The Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme holds significant importance due to the following reasons:

1. Border security: By enhancing infrastructure and security measures in the border villages, the scheme contributes to strengthening the country's overall border security.

2. Socio-economic development: The scheme focuses on the socio-economic development of the border villages, leading to improved living standards, increased employment opportunities, and reduced migration.

3. Connectivity: Development of infrastructure, such as roads, bridges, and communication networks, improves the connectivity of these border villages with the rest of the country. This facilitates better access to essential services and markets, promoting economic growth.

4. Strategic importance: The Northern border of India holds strategic importance, and the development of infrastructure in the border villages enhances the country's overall defense capabilities and surveillance.

In conclusion, the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) scheme aims to enhance infrastructure in villages along India's Northern border. By focusing on the development of various aspects of infrastructure, the scheme aims to improve connectivity, security, and overall socio-economic development in these border areas.

Consider the following statements regarding Green Status of Species.
  1. It is a new Global Standard to measure how close a species is being fully ecologically functional across its range.
  2. It was launched by UNFCCC.
  3. It measures how much the species has recovered due to conservation efforts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'B', which means statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation:
1. Green Status of Species is a new Global Standard to measure how close a species is being fully ecologically functional across its range.
- The Green Status of Species is a new framework that aims to assess the recovery and conservation status of species. It measures the extent to which a species has achieved full ecological functionality across its entire range.
- This standard takes into account various factors such as population size, habitat quality, and connectivity, among others, to determine the green status of a species.
- The goal of this framework is to provide a comprehensive and standardized measure of species recovery and conservation efforts, allowing for better monitoring and evaluation of conservation initiatives.

3. Green Status of Species measures how much the species has recovered due to conservation efforts.
- The Green Status of Species is designed to measure the progress and effectiveness of conservation efforts for a particular species.
- It assesses the extent to which a species has recovered and improved its ecological functionality as a result of conservation actions and initiatives.
- By measuring the green status of a species, conservationists and policymakers can evaluate the success of conservation programs and identify areas where additional efforts are needed to ensure the full recovery of the species.

2. It was launched by UNFCCC.
- This statement is incorrect. The Green Status of Species framework has not been launched by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
- The Green Status of Species is a new global standard, but its specific origins and launch are not attributed to the UNFCCC.
- However, it is important to note that the UNFCCC is an international environmental treaty that focuses on addressing climate change issues, and it may have its own initiatives related to biodiversity conservation.

In conclusion, the correct statements are 1 and 3. The Green Status of Species is a new global standard to measure the ecological functionality and recovery of species across their range, and it assesses the progress made through conservation efforts.

Consider the following statements regarding Board for Financial Supervision.
  1. The Reserve Bank of India performs the supervisory function under the guidance of the Board for Financial Supervision (BFS).
  2. It undertakes supervision of Scheduled Commercial and Co-operative Banks, Small Finance Banks and Payments Banks.
  3. The Board is chaired by the Deputy Governor of RBI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
  • The Reserve Bank of India performs the supervisory function under the guidance of the Board for Financial Supervision (BFS). The Board was constituted in November 1994 as a committee of the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India under the Reserve Bank of India (Board for Financial Supervision) Regulations, 1994.
  • The primary objective of BFS is to undertake consolidated supervision of the financial sector comprising Scheduled Commercial and Co-operative Banks, All India Financial Institutions, Local Area Banks, Small Finance Banks, Payments Banks, Credit Information Companies, Non-Banking Finance Companies and Primary Dealers.
  • The Board is constituted by co-opting four Directors from the Central Board as Members and is chaired by the Governor. The Deputy Governors of the Reserve Bank are ex-officio members. One Deputy Governor, traditionally, the Deputy Governor in charge of supervision, is nominated as the Vice-Chairman of the Board.

Consider the following statements.
  1. In both the Houses of Parliament, elected members enjoy the right to seek information from various ministries and departments in the form of starred questions and unstarred questions.
  2. The admissibility of questions in Rajya Sabha is governed by Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States.
  3. The questions in both the Houses of Parliament cannot be disallowed and is usually passed on to the next session of the Parliament if it cannot be taken up in the ongoing session.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
  • In both Houses, elected members enjoy the right to seek information from various ministries and departments in the form of starred questions, unstarred questions, short notice questions and questions to private members.
  • The admissibility of questions in Rajya Sabha is governed by Rules 47-50 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States.
  • In Lok Sabha, the questions are examined for admissibility under Rules 41-44 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
  • In both Houses, the first hour of every sitting is usually devoted to asking and answering of questions, and this is referred to as the ‘Question Hour’.
  • The Rajya Sabha Chairman or the Lok Sabha Speaker has the authority to decide whether a question or a part is or is not admissible under the norms of the House, and disallow any question or a part. Once disallowed, it is often difficult for members to challenge the decision.

Consider the following statements regarding Currency Swap Agreement.
  1. A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies.
  2. Currency swap agreements between countries help in reducing its reliance on the International Monetary Fund.
  3. Currency swap agreement will help a country tide over its foreign exchange crisis.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Currency Swap Agreement is a financial agreement between two parties, usually countries, to exchange a specified amount of one currency for another currency at a pre-determined exchange rate. It is a type of derivative contract that allows both parties to access foreign currency funds without actually having to borrow or lend in that currency.

Statement 1: A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies.

This statement is correct. In a currency swap agreement, two parties agree to exchange a specified amount of one currency for an equivalent amount of another currency. The exchange takes place at a pre-determined exchange rate.

Statement 2: Currency swap agreements between countries help in reducing its reliance on the International Monetary Fund.

This statement is correct. Currency swap agreements between countries can help reduce their reliance on the International Monetary Fund (IMF) for financial assistance during times of crisis. By entering into currency swap agreements, countries can access foreign currency liquidity from their swap partner, which can help stabilize their foreign exchange reserves and mitigate the need for IMF intervention.

Statement 3: Currency swap agreement will help a country tide over its foreign exchange crisis.

This statement is correct. Currency swap agreements can be particularly beneficial for countries facing foreign exchange crises. During a crisis, a country may experience a shortage of foreign currency reserves, making it difficult to meet its external obligations. By entering into a currency swap agreement, the country can access foreign currency liquidity from its swap partner, helping it meet its immediate foreign exchange needs and tide over the crisis.

Therefore, all three statements are correct. Currency swap agreements facilitate the exchange of currencies between parties, reduce reliance on the IMF, and help countries overcome foreign exchange crises.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Glaciers are the largest source of freshwater in the Himalayan ecosystem.
  2. A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is caused by the failure of a dam containing a glacial lake.
  3. There is considerable shrinking of glacial lakes across the Himalayas, in recent decade.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • Glaciers are the largest source of freshwater outside of the polar regions. Glaciers and snow melt in the Himalayan ecosystem are the source of water for several rivers across the subcontinent, and are responsible for maintaining the perennial supply of water in the river systems like the Indus, Ganges, and Brahmaputra to over a billion people.
  • Some models predict that an increase in global temperatures by 2°C from 1850 by 2070 would result in 45% of the medium and large glaciers (10 sq km or more) disappearing completely. Nearly 70% smaller glaciers are likely to melt away. Shrinking glaciers have led to the formation of a large number of glacial lakes all across the Himalayas. Many of these high-altitude lakes are potentially dangerous, because of their potential to cause flash floods in the event of a breach.
  • A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a type of outburst flood caused by the failure of a dam containing a glacial lake. 

The matters that can be dealt by Lok Adalat are
  1. Labour disputes
  2. All Criminal cases
  3. Land Acquisition cases
  4. Matrimonial disputes
  5. Pension cases
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3, 4 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4, 5 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4, 5 
  • d)
    2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The various matters such as Matri-monial/Family Disputes, Criminal (Compoundable Offences) cases, Land Acquisition cases, Labour disputes, Workmen’s compensation cases, Bank Recovery cases, Pension cases etc.

Which of the following statements best describes the term Fiscal profligacy? 
  • a)
    Removing fiscal barriers and discrepancies between the tax systems of the various countries 
  • b)
    Income tax exemption for new industries 
  • c)
    The act of spending money in a way that is not wise 
  • d)
    Official estimate of costs or revenues for proposed legislation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Fiscal Profligacy
Fiscal profligacy refers to the act of spending money in a way that is not wise or responsible. It typically involves excessive government spending, leading to budget deficits and increasing national debt levels.

Explanation
- Irresponsible Spending: Fiscal profligacy occurs when government officials allocate funds in a reckless manner without considering the long-term implications on the economy.
- Increased Debt: This behavior can lead to budget deficits, where government spending exceeds revenues, resulting in the need to borrow money to cover the shortfall. This, in turn, increases the national debt burden.
- Impact on Economy: Fiscal profligacy can have detrimental effects on the economy, such as inflation, reduced investor confidence, and potential financial crises.
- Opposite of Fiscal Prudence: Fiscal profligacy is the opposite of fiscal prudence, which involves responsible budgeting and spending practices to ensure financial stability and sustainability.
In conclusion, fiscal profligacy is a term used to describe irresponsible and excessive government spending that can have negative consequences on the economy and overall fiscal health. It is essential for governments to practice fiscal prudence to avoid falling into the trap of fiscal profligacy.

Consider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
  1. The scheme guarantees “the right to work”.
  2. One must be Citizen of India to seek MGNREGA benefits.
  3. The Gram Sabha is the principal forum for wage seekers to raise their voices and make demands.
  4. At the time of application, the Job seeker must have completed 21 years of age.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Chavan answered
100 days of employment per household in a financial year.
The scheme aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
The scheme is applicable to all rural households in India, except those living in urban areas and those households whose members have regular government jobs.
The scheme provides employment opportunities in various sectors such as agriculture, construction, water conservation, and rural infrastructure development.
The scheme guarantees a minimum wage for the work done, which is fixed by the central government and varies from state to state.
The scheme also provides for unemployment allowances to be paid to eligible households if they are not provided employment within 15 days of making their demand.
The scheme is implemented and monitored by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, and the state governments are responsible for its effective implementation at the grassroots level.
The scheme has been successful in providing employment opportunities to millions of rural households and has contributed to poverty alleviation and rural development in India.

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