All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding the Khasi people:
  1. They form the largest community in the state of Meghalaya.
  2. They are divided into several clans and follows a matrilineal society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Malik answered
Khasi people are an indigenous tribe of Meghalaya, a state in northeastern India. They have their own unique culture, traditions, and language. Let's discuss the given statements regarding the Khasi people:

Statement 1: They form the largest community in the state of Meghalaya.

This statement is correct. Khasi people are the largest ethnic group in Meghalaya and they constitute around 40% of the population of the state. Other major communities in Meghalaya include Garo and Jaintia.

Statement 2: They are divided into several clans and follow a matrilineal society.

This statement is also correct. Khasi society is organized into several clans, and each clan has its own traditional occupation, customs, and beliefs. Khasi society follows a matrilineal system, where the lineage and inheritance are traced through the mother's side. Women play a significant role in Khasi society, and they have equal rights and opportunities as men.

In conclusion, both the given statements are correct. The Khasi people are the largest community in Meghalaya, and they follow a matrilineal system and are organized into several clans.

With reference to Pralay Missile, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an indigenous short-range air-to-air missile.
  2. It is developed by the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Roy answered
Explanation:

Pralay Missile is an indigenous short-range ballistic missile developed by DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation). It is a solid-fuelled missile designed for quick deployment and can hit targets within a range of 150-200 km.

Statement 1: It is an indigenous short-range air-to-air missile.

This statement is incorrect. Pralay Missile is not an air-to-air missile, but a ballistic missile. It is designed to carry conventional as well as nuclear warheads. It is meant to be used against enemy troop concentrations, airfields, and other strategic targets.

Statement 2: It is developed by the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).

This statement is correct. Pralay Missile is developed by DRDO, which is the premier research and development organization of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., statement 2 only.

On Eid, we eat a special sweet called ________
  • a)
    cake
  • b)
    gujiya
  • c)
    not of these
  • d)
    sewaiyyan
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eid is a Muslim festival celebrated across the world with great enthusiasm and joy. It marks the end of Ramadan, the holy month of fasting. On this day, Muslims wear new clothes, offer prayers at the mosque, and exchange greetings with each other. One of the important traditions of Eid is to prepare and share sweets with friends and family.Special sweet on EidThe special sweet that is prepared and relished on Eid is called Sewaiyyan. It is a delicious dessert made with vermicelli, milk, sugar, and dry fruits. Sewaiyyan has a unique flavour and aroma that is loved by everyone, especially children.Preparation of SewaiyyanThe preparation of Sewaiyyan is quite simple and easy. Here are the steps to prepare this sweet:1. Heat ghee in a pan and add vermicelli to it. Roast the vermicelli until it turns golden brown.2. Add milk to the pan and let it simmer for a few minutes.3. Add sugar and stir well. Let it cook for a few more minutes until the sugar dissolves completely.4. Add dry fruits like raisins, almonds, and cashews to the pan and mix well.5. Turn off the heat and let the Sewaiyyan cool down for a few minutes.6. Serve it warm or chilled, garnished with more dry fruits.Significance of Sewaiyyan on EidSewaiyyan is not just a delicious dessert but also has a significant cultural and religious value. It is believed that the Prophet Muhammad used to eat dates and Sewaiyyan on Eid. Therefore, Sewaiyyan has become an integral part of Eid celebrations across the world.ConclusionIn conclusion, Sewaiyyan is a special sweet that is prepared and shared on Eid. It has a unique flavour and aroma that is loved by everyone. The preparation of Sewaiyyan is quite simple and easy, and it has a significant cultural and religious value as well.

Consider the following statements regarding Market Index Providers:
  1. Their indices represent a market or a proportion of a market.
  2. They set the rules that decide what securities to include in each index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The Central Government recently put the onus of regulating the practices of market index providers on the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
About Index Provider:
  • Index providers are those institutions that formulate and manage indices. 
  • One of the important roles of the index provider is to classify and define markets, as their indices represent a market or a proportion of a market and provide a benchmark of performance for that market or sector.
  • They have the responsibility to set the rules that decide what securities to include in each index, how the index will be managed and how securities will be added or removed from that index over time.  
  • They also usually determine how stocks can be classified, e.g. is a particular stock a Healthcare or an Oil & Gas stock, or is it a Developed or Emerging market stock.  
  • An index allows investors and other stakeholders to get a snapshot of the market.
  • S&P Dow Jones, MSCI, and Bloomberg are some of the globally renowned institutions that provide indices.
  • In India, this activity is generally carried out by subsidiaries of stock exchanges. The most prominent indices in India are the Nifty50 by NSE Indices and Sensex provided by a venture of S&P Dow Jones Indices and BSE Lied. 
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFP) project:
  1. The project is built under grant assistance from the government of India.
  2. Out of the total length of the pipeline, the major portion lies in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFP) project:
The India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFP) project is a significant initiative aimed at enhancing energy cooperation between India and Bangladesh. It involves the construction of a pipeline to transport petroleum products from India to Bangladesh. Let's analyze the given statements regarding this project.

Statement 1: The project is built under grant assistance from the government of India.
This statement is correct. The India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline project is indeed built under grant assistance from the government of India. It reflects the cooperative relationship between the two countries and the support provided by India to strengthen energy security in Bangladesh.

Statement 2: Out of the total length of the pipeline, the major portion lies in India.
This statement is incorrect. The major portion of the pipeline does not lie in India. In fact, the majority of the pipeline stretches across Bangladesh. The pipeline originates from the Numaligarh Refinery in Assam, India, and extends for a distance of around 130 kilometers to reach the Bangladesh border. From there, it continues for approximately another 200 kilometers within Bangladesh to reach its destination at the Parbatipur depot.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. The India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline project is built under grant assistance from the government of India, signifying the bilateral cooperation between the two countries. However, the major portion of the pipeline lies in Bangladesh, with only a smaller section located in India.

With reference to the Ahilyabai Holkar, consider the following statements:
  1. She ruled in the Malwa region during the 18th century.
  2. The Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram was a courtier of her dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Introduction to Ahilyabai Holkar
Ahilyabai Holkar was a prominent figure in Indian history, known for her administrative skills and contributions to culture and architecture during the 18th century.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: She ruled in the Malwa region during the 18th century.
- This statement is correct. Ahilyabai Holkar reigned over the Malwa region from 1767 until her death in 1795. She was the queen of the Malwa kingdom and is celebrated for her effective governance and patronage of the arts.
- Statement 2: The Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram was a courtier of her dynasty.
- This statement is also correct. Khushali Ram was indeed a notable Sanskrit scholar who served in the court of Ahilyabai Holkar. He contributed significantly to literature and was part of the intellectual circle that flourished under her reign.
Conclusion
Both statements are accurate, making the correct answer option 'C' (Both 1 and 2).
- Ahilyabai's reign is marked not only by her political acumen but also by her efforts to promote education and culture.
- Khushali Ram's presence in her court exemplifies the intellectual environment she nurtured, fostering advancements in literature and philosophy.
This combination of effective governance and cultural patronage solidifies Ahilyabai Holkar's legacy as a significant historical figure in 18th-century India.

With reference to the National Technology Day, consider the following statements:
  1. The Technology Development Board (TDB) a statutory body of the Department of Science & Technology (DST) celebrates May 11 every year as National Technology Day.
  2. On May 11, 1998, India successfully carried out nuclear tests at Pokhran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will lay the foundation stone and dedicate to the nation multiple scientific projects worth over five thousand eight hundred crore rupees on the occasion of National Technology Day in New Delhi.
  • The Technology Development Board (TDB) a statutory body of the Department of Science & Technology (DST) celebrates May 11 every year as National Technology Day to commemorate achievements of innovations and technological excellence in the country.
  • The day has a historical perspective:
    • On May 11, 1998, India successfully carried out nuclear tests at Pokhran.
    • The first indigenous aircraft "Hansa-3" was test flown at Bangalore on this day; and
    • India also performed successful test firing of the Trishul missile on the same day.
  • Since 1999, the day is being celebrated as National Technology Day. 
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT):
  1. It was established in pursuance of a Presidential Order with the objective to evolve technical terminology in all Indian Languages. 
  2. It is functioning under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Niharika Shah answered
The correct answer is option 'A': 1 only.

Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT) was established in pursuance of a Presidential Order with the objective to evolve technical terminology in all Indian Languages. However, it is not functioning under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Let's discuss each statement in detail.

1. It was established in pursuance of a Presidential Order with the objective to evolve technical terminology in all Indian Languages.
The Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT) was indeed established in pursuance of a Presidential Order in 1961. The main objective of the CSTT is to evolve and promote scientific and technical terminology in all Indian languages. It aims to develop standardized terminologies for various fields of scientific and technical knowledge, ensuring accurate and precise communication in these domains across different languages in India. The CSTT works towards ensuring that scientific and technical information is accessible to all, regardless of language barriers.

2. It is functioning under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
This statement is incorrect. The CSTT is not functioning under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It is an autonomous organization that operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education, Department of Higher Education, Government of India. The CSTT collaborates with various linguistic experts, academicians, scientists, and technical professionals to carry out its mandate effectively.

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the CSTT was established with the objective to evolve technical terminology in all Indian languages. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the CSTT does not function under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

Consider the following statements regarding iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence):
  1. It is the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence (MoD) to achieve self-reliance and technological development in the Defence and Aerospace sector.
  2. iDEX will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) recently reached a milestone with the signing of the 250th contract, the first one under the Mission DefSpace.
About iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence):
  • It is the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence (MoD), launched in April 2018.
  • Aim: To achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia.
  • iDEX has partnered with leading incubators in the country to provide handholding, technical support and guidance to the winners of iDEX challenges.
  • iDEX will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit company as per Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013 by the two founder members, i.e. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) - HAL & BEL.
  • iDEX will function as the executive arm of DIO, carrying out all the required activities, while DIO will provide high-level policy guidance to iDEX
  • Under iDEX, financial support is provided to Start-ups/MSMEs/individual innovators and Partner Incubators through DIO.
What is Mission DefSpace?
  • It was launched by the Prime Minister during DefExpo in October 2022.
  • The goal of Mission DefSpace is to make India Atmanirbhar in defence technologies in the space domain.
  • It will encourage technology development in space for defence applications by startups and young entrepreneurs through 75 Defence Space Challenges launched across various Department for Defence Production (DDP) initiatives viz iDEX, ‘Make 1’, and ‘Make 2’.  
  • The challenges are classified into five buckets, viz. Launch System, Satellite System, Communication & Payload System, Ground System and Software System provide a holistic 3600 overview of space.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Asset Management Companies (AMCs):
  1. It invests the funds pooled from individual investors in securities.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governs and controls every AMC in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Capital markets regulator the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently proposed that asset management companies (AMCs) should set up surveillance and internal control systems for the deterrence of possible market abuse and fraudulent transactions.
About Asset Management Companies (AMCs):
  • It is a firm that invests the funds pooled from individual investors in securities with the objective of optimal return for investors in exchange for a fee.
  • AMC maintains the diversity of portfolio by investing in both high-risk and low-risk securities such as stock, debt, real- estate, shares, bonds, pension funds, etc.
  • Because they have a larger pool of resources than the individual investor could access on their own, AMCs provide investors with more diversification and investing options. 
  • AMCs are colloquially referred to as money managers or money management firms.
  • Those that offer public mutual funds or ETFs are also known as investment companies or mutual fund companies. 
  • SEBI is the Indian Capital Market Regulator which governs and controls every AMC in India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Biomass pellet, consider the following statements:
  1. It is made from organic materials such as wood, agricultural residues, and energy crops.
  2. The torrefied biomass pellets are processed at 250-350°C in the presence of oxygen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
Recently, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) revised the financial grants for biomass pellet manufacturing units.
  • These are a type of renewable fuel made from organic materials such as wood, agricultural residues, and energy crops.
  • These are produced by compressing organic materials under high pressure.
  • The compression process removes the moisture content and increases the energy density of the biomass.
  • It is mandatory in India to use biomass or agricultural residue as combustion fuel along with coal in coal-fired thermal power plants.
  • The biomass used for co-combustion in the power plants is processed and refined into pellets with a calorific value comparable to coal.
  • These are two kinds
    • Torrefied: It is processed at 250-350°C in the absence of oxygen, leading to the formation of torrefied biomass.
    • Non-torrefied: In this biomass is shredded, grinded and sent to a pellet reactor, where it is compressed into pellet form with the help of binders such as sawdust, bagasse, molasses, starch and others.
Hence only statement 1 is correct

Consider the following statements regarding Sloth Bear:
  1. More than 50% of the global Sloth Bear population is found in India.
  2. They are classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ayush Desai answered
Statement 1: More than 50% of the global Sloth Bear population is found in India.
This statement is correct. India is home to a significant population of sloth bears. According to various reports and studies, more than 50% of the global sloth bear population is found in India. The sloth bear is native to the Indian subcontinent and is primarily distributed across India, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Bhutan. The largest population of sloth bears is found in India, making it a crucial country for the conservation of this species.

Statement 2: They are classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
This statement is also correct. The sloth bear is indeed classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List. The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) is a global authority that assesses the conservation status of species. The sloth bear's population has been declining due to habitat loss, poaching, and other threats, leading to its classification as Endangered. This status highlights the urgent need for conservation efforts to protect and preserve the sloth bear population.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. India is home to more than 50% of the global sloth bear population, and the species is classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List. These facts emphasize the importance of conservation measures to safeguard the sloth bear population in India and ensure their long-term survival.

With reference to the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), consider the following statements:
  1. It is a type of free trade pact that covers negotiation only on the services.
  2. India has signed this agreement with Malaysia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
- The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a type of free trade pact that covers negotiation on various aspects of trade, including goods, services, investments, intellectual property rights, and other related issues. It is a comprehensive agreement aimed at promoting bilateral trade and economic cooperation between the participating countries.
- CEPA negotiations typically cover a wide range of sectors, including agriculture, manufacturing, services, and investments. The agreement aims to eliminate or reduce trade barriers such as tariffs, quotas, and non-tariff barriers, thereby facilitating the flow of goods and services between the participating countries.
- CEPA agreements also address issues related to intellectual property rights, competition policy, government procurement, and dispute settlement mechanisms. These agreements provide a framework for enhancing economic integration, promoting market access, and facilitating business opportunities for companies from both countries.
- CEPA agreements are usually negotiated between two or more countries and involve extensive consultations and negotiations to address the interests and concerns of all participating parties. The negotiations may take several rounds before reaching a final agreement.
- CEPA agreements have the potential to boost trade and investment between the participating countries, leading to increased economic growth, job creation, and enhanced competitiveness. They also promote economic cooperation, exchange of technical know-how, and sharing of best practices in various sectors.
- CEPA agreements are not limited to negotiation on services alone. They cover a wide range of trade-related issues, including goods, services, investments, and intellectual property rights.
India-Malaysia CEPA
- India has not signed a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with Malaysia. As of now, India has not entered into a CEPA agreement with any country.
- However, India and Malaysia have had discussions on enhancing bilateral trade and economic cooperation through various means, including the negotiation of a bilateral free trade agreement (FTA). These discussions aim to address trade barriers and promote trade and investment between the two countries.
- It is important to note that CEPA agreements are negotiated between countries and the decision to enter into such an agreement depends on multiple factors, including the economic and political interests of the participating countries.
Conclusion
- In conclusion, the given statements are incorrect. The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is not limited to negotiation on services alone, and India has not signed a CEPA agreement with Malaysia. CEPA agreements cover a wide range of trade-related issues and aim to promote bilateral trade and economic cooperation between participating countries.

With reference to the Heat index, consider the following statements:
  1. Heat index is a measure of how hot it feels when humidity is factored in along with the air temperature, and the figures were calculated using data from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
  2. It is also known as the apparent temperature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohini Desai answered
India to launch its own heat index next year to quantify heat hazard, generate impact-based heat wave alerts for specific locations.
  • Heat index is a measure of how hot it feels when humidity is factored in along with the air temperature, and the figures were calculated using data from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
  • It is also known as the apparent temperature.
  • When the body gets too hot, it begins to perspire or sweat to cool itself off.
  • If the perspiration is not able to evaporate, the body cannot regulate its temperature.
  • Evaporation is a cooling process. When perspiration is evaporated off the body, it effectively reduces the body's temperature. When the atmospheric moisture content (i.e. relative humidity) is high, the rate of evaporation from the body decreases.
  • In other words, the human body feels warmer in humid conditions. The opposite is true when the relative humidity decreases because the rate of perspiration increases.
  • The body actually feels cooler in arid conditions.
  • There is direct relationship between the air temperature and relative humidity and the heat index, meaning as the air temperature and relative humidity increase (decrease), the heat index increases (decreases).
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Kurmi community:
  1. They are a traditionally tiller caste in the lower Gangetic plain of India.
  2. They came to be known for their exceptional work ethic, superior tillage and manuring, and gender-neutral culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kurmi Community:

The Kurmi community is a traditionally tiller caste in the lower Gangetic plain of India.

Exceptional Work Ethic:

The Kurmis came to be known for their exceptional work ethic, superior tillage and manuring, and gender-neutral culture. They are known for their hard work, dedication, and a strong sense of community.

Superior Tillage and Manuring:

Kurmis have been traditionally associated with agriculture and they are known for their superior tillage and manuring techniques. They are skilled in crop cultivation and have a deep knowledge of soil and water management.

Gender-neutral Culture:

The Kurmi community also has a gender-neutral culture. Women have always played an important role in the community, and their contribution to agriculture, as well as other aspects of community life, has been recognized and respected.

Conclusion:

Thus, both the statements given in the question are correct. Kurmi community is a traditionally tiller caste in the lower Gangetic plain of India, and they are known for their exceptional work ethic, superior tillage and manuring, and gender-neutral culture.

Consider the following statements regarding the GSAT 7B satellite:
  1. It is a geostationary satellite designed indigenously by the ISRO.
  2. It will primarily fulfil the communication needs of the Indian Army. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

GSAT 7B satellite




Statement 1: It is a geostationary satellite designed indigenously by the ISRO.


Statement 2: It will primarily fulfil the communication needs of the Indian Army.




The correct answer is option 'C' - both statements 1 and 2 are correct.




Explanation:


Statement 1: It is a geostationary satellite designed indigenously by the ISRO.


The GSAT 7B satellite is indeed a geostationary satellite designed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The satellite was launched on September 29, 2018, using the GSLV Mk III launch vehicle. It is the second satellite in the GSAT-7 series and is also known as INSAT-4F.




Statement 2: It will primarily fulfil the communication needs of the Indian Army.


The primary purpose of the GSAT 7B satellite is to provide communication capabilities to the Indian Armed Forces, particularly the Indian Navy. The satellite is equipped with multiple communication transponders operating in UHF, S, C, and Ku bands. It enables secure and real-time communication between naval assets, including ships, submarines, aircraft, and ground stations. The satellite's coverage extends over the Indian Ocean region, providing enhanced communication capabilities to the Indian Navy in its maritime operations.




The GSAT 7B satellite has significantly enhanced the Indian Navy's communication capabilities, allowing for better coordination, surveillance, and intelligence gathering in the maritime domain. The indigenously designed and developed satellite has reduced the reliance on foreign satellites and has strengthened India's self-reliance in the space sector. It is a testament to the technological advancements achieved by the Indian Space Research Organisation and its contribution to the defense needs of the country.




In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The GSAT 7B satellite is an indigenously designed geostationary satellite by ISRO, and its primary purpose is to fulfil the communication needs of the Indian Army, specifically the Indian Navy.

With reference to the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols mission, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a joint mission between NASA and the European Space Agency.
  2. The main objective of this mission is to investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

False, the first statement is true, but the second statement is false. The main objective of the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols (MAIA) mission is to study the distribution, properties, and effects of aerosols in Earth's atmosphere. While this includes investigating the impact of aerosols on air quality and human health, it is not the sole focus of the mission.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Grey Hydrogen is produced via coal or lignite gasification (black or brown), or via a process called steam methane reformation.
  2. Green Hydrogen is produced using the electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways recently said that as per the National Hydrogen Mission of the country, Green Hydrogen/Ammonia bunkers and refuelling facilities will be established in all major ports by 2035.
About National Green Hydrogen Mission:
  • It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 4 January 2022.
  • Aim: To make India a Global Hub for the production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
  • The mission outcomes projected by 2030 are:
  • Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per annum with an associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country;
  • Over Rs. Eight lakh crore in total investments;
  • Creation of over Six lakh jobs;
  • Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports over Rs. One lakh crore;
  • Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions;
Types of Hydrogen based on Extraction Methods:
  • Grey Hydrogen: It is produced via coal or lignite gasification (black or brown), or via a process called steam methane reformation (SMR) of natural gas or methane (grey). These tend to be mostly carbon-intensive processes.
  • Blue Hydrogen: It is produced via natural gas or coal gasification combined with carbon capture storage (CCS) or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to reduce carbon emissions.
  • Green Hydrogen: It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. The carbon intensity ultimately depends on the carbon neutrality of the source of electricity (i.e., the more renewable energy there is in the electricity fuel mix, the "greener" the hydrogen produced).
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Fluorescence Microscopy:
  1. It views an object by studying how it re¬emits light that it has absorbed.
  2. It is used to image specific features of small specimens such as microbes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mansi Sengupta answered
Acts to light of a specific wavelength.
Fluorescent molecules absorb light of a particular wavelength and emit light at a longer wavelength.
It allows for the imaging of specific structures or molecules within a sample.
It is commonly used in biological research and medical diagnosis.
Fluorescent proteins, such as GFP, are frequently used as markers in fluorescence microscopy.

Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:
  1. Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
  2. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Deputy Speaker is an important post in the Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker is elected from amongst the members of the Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker is not a member of any party, and he or she has to remain impartial while conducting the proceedings of the House. The Deputy Speaker is responsible for conducting the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker.

Election of Deputy Speaker:

The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves. The election of the Deputy Speaker is conducted by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker is elected after the Speaker has been elected. The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority of the members of the Lok Sabha.

Fixing the Date of Election of Deputy Speaker:

The President has no role in fixing the date of the election of the Deputy Speaker. The date of the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha fixes the date of the election of the Deputy Speaker in consultation with the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition.

Conclusion:

From the above explanation, it is clear that only the first statement is correct, and the second statement is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

With reference to the Maharana Pratap, consider the following statements:
  1. Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18 June 1776 between the forces Maharana Pratap; and the Mughal emperor Akbar's forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.
  2. Chetak is the name given in traditional literature to the horse ridden by Maharana Pratap at the Battle of Haldighati.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Gupta answered
Answer:

Background:
Maharana Pratap was the Rajput ruler of Mewar, who fiercely resisted the Mughal Emperor Akbar's attempts to conquer his kingdom. The Battle of Haldighati is one of the most significant battles fought during this period. Let us evaluate the given statements to determine their correctness.

Statement 1: Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18 June 1776 between the forces of Maharana Pratap and the Mughal emperor Akbar's forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.

The given statement is incorrect. The Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18 June 1576, not 1776. It took place in the Haldighati mountain pass in present-day Rajasthan, India. Maharana Pratap's forces faced the Mughal army commanded by Man Singh I of Amber, who was a trusted general of Emperor Akbar. The battle was a part of the larger conflict between the Mughals and the Rajputs.

Statement 2: Chetak is the name given in traditional literature to the horse ridden by Maharana Pratap at the Battle of Haldighati.

The given statement is correct. Chetak is indeed the name given to the horse ridden by Maharana Pratap during the Battle of Haldighati. Chetak was a loyal and brave horse, and his role in the battle is legendary. According to popular folklore, Chetak saved Maharana Pratap's life by bravely carrying him and jumping over a ravine, despite being severely wounded. Chetak's sacrifice allowed Maharana Pratap to escape safely from the battlefield.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, out of the given statements, Statement 1 is incorrect, and Statement 2 is correct. The Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18 June 1576, not 1776, between the forces of Maharana Pratap and the Mughal army led by Man Singh I of Amber. Chetak is the name of the horse ridden by Maharana Pratap during the battle.

Consider the following statements regarding an Improvised Explosive Device (IED):
  1. It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
  2. The extent of damage caused by an IED depends on its size, construction, and placement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Five Indian Army personnel were recently killed in the Rajouri district of Jammu and Kashmir in an explosion caused by an Improvised Explosive Device (IED).
About Improvised Explosive Device (IED):
  • IED is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
  • IEDs are used by criminals, vandals, terrorists, suicide bombers, and insurgents.
  • Because they are improvised, IEDs can come in many forms, ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage and loss of life.
  • IEDs can be carried or delivered in a vehicle; carried, placed, or thrown by a persondelivered in a package; or concealed on the roadside.
  • The extent of damage caused by an IED depends on its size, construction, and placement and whether it incorporates a high explosive or propellant.
  • The term IED came into common usage during the Iraq War that began in 2003.
  • Elements of an IED:
  • It consists of a variety of components that include an initiator, switch, main charge, power source, and container.
  • IEDs may be surrounded by or packed with additional materials or “enhancements” such as nails, glass, or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of shrapnel propelled by the explosion.
  • An IED can be initiated by a variety of methods depending on the intended target.
  • Materials Used as Explosives in IEDs:
  • Many commonly available materials, such as fertilizer, gunpowder, and hydrogen peroxide, are used as explosive materials in IEDs.
  • Explosives contain fuel and an oxidizer, which provides the oxygen needed to sustain the reaction.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Loans:
  1. It provides loans of up to Rs. 1 crore to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises. 
  2. Any Indian Citizen who has a business plan for a non-farm sector income-generating activities are eligible for MUDRA loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The Central Government has recently made MUDRA loans given to joint liability group micro enterprises eligible for the Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units.
About MUDRA Loans:
  • MUDRA Loan is offered under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY).
  • PMMY was launched in 2015 with the aim to help small-scale businesses expand and attain success. 
  • Support under the scheme: It provides loans of up to 10 lacks to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises. 
  • Purpose of loan: To start a new businessenhance existing or meet working capital requirements, and for business expansion purposes
  • These loans are classified as MUDRA loans under PMMY. 
  • EligibilityAny Indian Citizen who has a business plan for a non-farm sector income-generating activities such as manufacturing, processing, trading, or service sector.
  • These loans are given by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and NBFCs. 
  • Types of loans:
  • Shishu - Covering loans up to Rs 50,000; 
  • Kishor - Covering loans above Rs 50,000 and up to Rs 5 lakh
Tarun - Covering loans above Rs 5 lakh and up to Rs 10 lakh.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojna, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  2. It is being implanted by the NITI Aayog to enhance the livelihood of the tribal people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Recently, the Union Minister of Tribal said in the Lok Sabha that 15 lakh rupees per Van Dhan Vikas Kendra (VDVK) were given under the Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojna (PMJVM) for the support of livelihood activities of tribal people in the country.
  • The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED
  • It was launched on 14th April 2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through the value addition of tribal products.
  • Implementation:
    • The scheme will be implemented through the Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal Department at the Central Level and TRIFED as Nodal Agency at the National Level.
    • At the State level, the State Nodal Agency for MFPs and the District collectors are envisaged to play a pivot role in scheme implementation at the grassroots level.
    • Locally the Kendras are proposed to be managed by a Managing Committee (an SHG) consisting of representatives of Van Dhan SHGs in the cluster.
Hence both statements are not correct.

With reference to the Powder bed fusion (L-PBF) technique, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a 3D printing method that joins powdered material points by using a laser beam.
  2. It is performed under inert gas such as argon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohini Desai answered
Recently, researchers at the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials (ARCI), have developed a novel bi-metallic joining process using a technique called laser powder bed fusion (L-PBF) or selective laser melting (SLM) technique of metal 3D printing.
  • Researchers have developed a novel bi-metallic joining process to create a bimetallic composite made from copper and steel by using the Laser powder bed fusion (L-PBF) technique.
  • Powder bed fusion (PBF) is a 3D printing method that joins powdered material point by point using an energy source, typically a laser beam or an electron beam.
  • It is one of the most common 3D printing techniques used for industrial additive manufacturing (AM).
  • PBF is possible with both metals and polymers, although not all materials are compatible.
  • Due to the combustible nature of the metal powders, LPBF is usually performed under inert gas such as argon, or under a vacuum. 
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the International Seabed Authority, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an international organization which regulates the exploration of poly-metallic nodules.
  2. Its headquarter is located in London.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

International Seabed Authority

The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization that was established in 1994 under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. It is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica and is responsible for the regulation of deep-seabed mining in international waters.

Statement Analysis

Statement 1: It is an international organization which regulates the exploration of poly-metallic nodules.

This statement is correct. The ISA is responsible for granting licenses for the exploration and exploitation of minerals in the international seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction. This includes poly-metallic nodules, which are potato-shaped mineral deposits found on the ocean floor that contain valuable metals such as copper, nickel, and cobalt.

Statement 2: Its headquarter is located in London.

This statement is incorrect. The headquarters of the ISA is located in Kingston, Jamaica. It was established in accordance with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, which was signed in Montego Bay, Jamaica in 1982.

Conclusion

Therefore, the correct answer is option A, i.e., statement 1 only. The ISA is an international organization that regulates the exploration of poly-metallic nodules and its headquarters is located in Kingston, Jamaica.

With reference to the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), consider the following statements:
  1. BRO is not included in the Order of Battle of the Armed Forces.
  2. The BRO was formed on 7 May 1960 to secure India's borders and develop infrastructure in remote areas of the north and north-east states of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Border Roads Organisation (BRO) celebrated its 64th Raising Day on May 07, 2023 at all its detachments across the country.
  • The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a road construction executive force in India that provides support to Indian Armed Forces.
  • BRO develops and maintains road networks in India's border areas and friendly neighboring countries.
  • This includes infrastructure operations in 19 states and three union territories (including Andaman and Nicobar Islands) and neighboring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, Tajikistan and Sri Lanka.
  • BRO is also tasked with maintaining this infrastructure including operations such as snow clearance. BRO is instrumental in significantly upgrading and building new India-China Border Roads.
  • Officers and personnel from the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) form the parent cadre of the BRO.
  • It is also staffed by Officers and Troops drawn from the Indian Army's Corps of Engineers on extra regimental employment (on deputation).
  • BRO is also included in the Order of Battle of the Armed Forces, ensuring their support at any time.
  • The BRO undertakes projects in India and friendly countries.
  • These projects typically include developing roads, bridges, and airfields in hostile environments shunned by private enterprises, whether due to security concerns related to hostilities, or because of environmental challenges.
  • BRO has been active during the 1962 war, the conflicts with Pakistan in 1965 and 1971, and has also been active in anti-insurgency operations in North East.
Established:
  • The BRO was formed on 7 May 1960 to secure India's borders and develop infrastructure in remote areas of the north and north-east states of the country.
  • In order to ensure coordination and expeditious execution of projects, the Government of India set up the Border Roads Development Board (BRDB) with the Prime Minister as Chairman of the Board and Defence Minister as Deputy Chairman.
Motto:
  • The organisation motto is Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam (everything is achievable through hardwork)
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Kamakhya temple, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located in the Mishmi Hills of Arunachal Pradesh.
  2. It is modelled based on the Nilachala Style of Architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Menon answered
Statement 1: It is located in the Mishmi Hills of Arunachal Pradesh.
The first statement is incorrect. The Kamakhya temple is not located in the Mishmi Hills of Arunachal Pradesh. It is actually located on the Nilachal Hill in Guwahati, Assam. The temple is situated about 8 kilometers away from the city center and is one of the most important pilgrimage sites in the region.

Statement 2: It is modelled based on the Nilachala Style of Architecture.
The second statement is correct. The Kamakhya temple is indeed modelled based on the Nilachala Style of Architecture. This architectural style is a distinctive style found in the region of Assam and is characterized by its dome-shaped roofs and intricate carvings. The temple complex consists of several smaller temples and shrines, all built in the Nilachala Style.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct. The Kamakhya temple is located in Guwahati, Assam, and is modelled based on the Nilachala Style of Architecture. Statement 1, which claims that the temple is located in the Mishmi Hills of Arunachal Pradesh, is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI):
  1. It is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
  2. The recommendations made by the TRAI are binding on the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The Telecom Regulatory Authority Of India (TRAI) recently announced to change the rules regarding fake, promotional calls and SMS to customers.
About Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI):
  • It is a regulatory body set up by the Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
  • It is the regulator of the telecommunications sector in India.
  • Composition:
  • It consists of a Chairperson and not more than two full-time members, and not more than two part-time members.
  • The chairperson and the members of TRAI are appointed by the Central Government, and the duration for which they can hold their office is three years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • Government Control over TRAI:
  • TRAI is not a completely independent telecom regulator.
  • Under section 25 of the Act, it has the power to issue directions which are binding on TRAI.
  • The TRAI is also funded by the Central Government. 
  • Functions:
  • Making recommendations on various issues;
  • General administrative and regulatory functions;
  • Fixing tariffs and rates for telecom services; and
  • Any other functions entrusted by the Central Government.
  • The recommendations made by the TRAI are not binding on the Central Government.
  • Central Government has to mandatorily ask for recommendations from TRAI with respect to the need and timing of new service providers and the terms and conditions of the licence to be granted to the service provider.
  • TRAI also has the power to notify in the official gazette the rates at which telecommunication services are being provided in and outside India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the NIPUN BHARAT, consider the following statements:
  1. It has been launched as a National Mission called “National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat)” in 2021.
  2. It is one of the components of the NEP 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Recently, Women and Child Development Minister introduced about NIPUN BHARAT in Rajysabha.
  • It has been launched as a National Mission called “National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat)” in 2021.
  • Aim: To ensure that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27.
  • A five-tier implementation mechanism will be set up at the National- State- District- Block- School level in all States and UTs, under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
  • It is one of the components of the NEP 2020.
  • Implementing agency: The Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sagar Manthan dashboard, recently seen in the news:
  1. It is the real-time performance monitoring dashboard of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
  2. It promotes real-time project tracking, risk management, resource allocation, and progress reporting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Union Minister for Ports, Shipping (MoPSW), and Waterways recently launched the Sagar Manthan dashboard.
About Sagar Manthan dashboard:
  • It is the real-time performance monitoring dashboard of MoPSW.
  • It will have all the integrated data related to the ministry and other subsidiaries.
  • The platform has been developed completely in-house under the guidance of the Secretary, MoPSW, in the span of fewer than 1.5 months.
  • Features of the dashboard:
  • Data visualization;
  • Real-time monitoring;
  • Improved communication;
  • Data-driven decision-making;
  • Increased accountability;
  • It also promotes real-time project trackingrisk management, resource allocation, and progress reporting.
  • The dashboard in the future would further be integrated with Input from the CCTV camera, Live streaming from Drones, and AI-based Algorithms.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Model Prisons Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
  1. Union Home Ministry had assigned the task of revision of the Prisons Act, 1894 to the Bureau of Police Research and Development.
  2. Some salient features of the new Model Prisons Act include provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners, and individual sentence planning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Union Home Ministry recently said that comprehensive ‘Model Prisons Act, 2023’ has been finalized.
  • The government had earlier decided to review and revise the colonial-era outdated Prison Act in tune with contemporary modern-day needs and correctional ideology.
  • The Model Prison Act, 2023 may serve as a guiding document for the States, and for adoption in their jurisdiction.
  • Union Home Ministry had assigned the task of revision of the Prisons Act, 1894 to the Bureau of Police Research and Development.
  • The Bureau prepared a draft after holding wide-ranging discussions with State Prison authorities, correctional experts, and others.
  • It has been prepared with the objective of holistically providing guidance and addressing the gaps in the existing Prisons Act.
Features:
  • Some salient features of the new Model Prisons Act include provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners, and individual sentence planning.
  • Grievance redressal, prison development board, attitudinal change towards prisoners, provision of separate accommodation for women prisoners, and transgender are some of the other features.
  • There is also a provision for use of technology in prison administration with a view to bring transparency in prison administration.
  • The new Act will focus on vocational training and skill development of prisoners and their reintegration into the society.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the INS SUMEDHA, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel.
  2. It is designed and developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
INS Sumedha which is presently deployed in the Mediterranean Sea entered Port Algiers, Algeria on 26 Mar 23 for an operational turnaround.
  • INS Sumedha is an indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel deployed for multiple roles independently and in support of Fleet Operations. 
  • It is part of the Indian Navy's Eastern Fleet based at Visakhapatnam and functions under the operational command of the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Naval Command.
  • It is the third ship of the indigenous Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel (NOPV) Project to be inducted into the Indian Navy. 
  • The ship has been designed and built by Goa Shipyard Limited.  
  • The primary role of the ship is to undertake EEZ surveillanceanti-piracy patrols, fleet support operations, provide maritime security to offshore assets and carry out escort operations for high-value assets.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS):
  1. Financial assistance to startups for prototype development and product trials will be provided under the scheme.
  2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is the nodal department for implementing the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohini Desai answered
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is undertaking a third-party assessment of the Rs 945-crore Startup India Seed Fund Scheme to see its impact on the ground.
About Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS):
  • It is a flagship scheme launched in April 2021 under the Startup India initiative.
  • AimFinancial assistance to startups for proof of conceptprototype development, product trials, market entry, and commercialization.
  • It is implemented with effect from 1st April 2021 for the period of 4 years with a corpus of Rs.945 crores.
  • Nodal Department: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
  • Funding:
  • An Experts Advisory Committee (EAC) has been created by DPIIT to execute and monitor the SISFS.
  • The EAC will select eligible incubators who will be provided grants of upto Rs 5 Crores each.
  • In turn, the selected incubators will provide startups with up to Rs 20 lakhs for validation of Proof of Concept, prototype development, and product trials to startups.
  • Eligibility criteria for Startups:
  • startup recognized by DPIIT incorporated not more than 2 years ago at the time of application.
  • The startup must have a business idea to develop a product or a service with a market fit, viable commercialization, and scope of scaling.
  • The startup should be using technology in its core product or service, or business model, or distribution model, or methodology to solve the problem being targeted.
  • Startup should not have received more than Rs 10 lakh of monetary support under any other Central or State Government scheme
  • Shareholding by Indian promoters in the startup should be at least 51% at the time of application to the incubator for the scheme.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Ethanol, consider the following statements:
  1. Ethanol is an agricultural by-product which is mainly obtained from the processing of sugar from sugarcane, but also from other sources such as rice husk or maize.
  2. In India, ethanol is mainly produced from sugarcane molasses by fermentation process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohini Desai answered
The growth of ethanol sector has been tremendous which has set a sort of example for the world, said Shri Piyush Goyal, Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Textiles and Commerce and Industry while addressing one day seminar on ‘National Seminar on Maize to Ethanol’ organized by Department of Food and Public Distribution here recently.
  • Ethanol is an agricultural by-product which is mainly obtained from the processing of sugar from sugarcane, but also from other sources such as rice husk or maize.
  • Since ethanol is produced from plants that harness the power of the sun, it is also considered as renewable fuel.
  • In India, ethanol is mainly produced from sugarcane molasses by fermentation process.
  • Ethanol blending is the process of combining ethanol and petrol to use less fossil fuel while driving a vehicle.
  • To supplement ethanol supplies, the Government of India has permitted the procurement of ethanol produced from sources other than molasses, which is known as first generation ethanol or 1G.
  • Aside from molasses, ethanol can be derived from rice straw, wheat straw, maize cobs, corn stover, bagasse, bamboo and woody biomass, which are known as second generation ethanol sources or 2G.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Letter of Comfort (LoC):
  1. It is issued to a lending institution by a stakeholder of a company in support of the financing asked by that company.
  2. It is a legally binding document and provides a credit guarantee to the lending institution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Finance Ministry recently asked central public sector undertakings (CPSUs) to issue letters of comfort (LoCs) based on their own financial strength.
About Letter of Comfort (LoC):
  • What is it? An LoC is a letter issued to a lending institution by a stakeholder of the company acknowledging the support of the attempt for financing asked by that company.
  • They are usually issued by a third party or a stakeholder in the transaction.
  • For instance, a holding company can give an LoC on behalf of its subsidiary, or a government can issue a letter of comfort for PSUs.
  • It is not legally binding and does not imply that the parent company guarantees repayment of the loan being sought by the subsidiary company.
  • It merely gives reassurance to the lending institution that the parent company is aware of the credit facility being sought by the subsidiary company and supports its decision.
  • This provides some comfort to the financial institution to lend money for the short term or long term.
  • It, thus, is a moral rather than a legal obligation for the borrower.
  • It can also be issued by banksNBFCs, and auditors.
  • It lays down the contract conditions and steps to complete the transaction successfully.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Urban 20(U20) initiative, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a city diplomacy initiative launched in 2017 during the one Planet Summit in Paris.
  2. The 2023 event of U20 was chaired by the City of Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mehul Sengupta answered
Explanation:

Urban 20 (U20) Initiative:

The Urban 20 (U20) initiative was launched in 2017 during the One Planet Summit in Paris. It is a city diplomacy initiative that brings together the mayors of the world's largest cities, alongside networks of urban stakeholders, to help shape global discussions and decision-making on urban-relevant issues.

Objective:

The objective of the U20 initiative is to promote sustainable urban development and support the implementation of the United Nations' 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, with a particular focus on SDG 11 - Sustainable Cities and Communities.

Chaired by the City of Buenos Aires:

The 2023 event of U20 will be chaired by the City of Buenos Aires. Therefore, the statement "The 2023 event of U20 was chaired by the City of Bengaluru" is incorrect.

Correct Answer:

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 Only.

With reference to Macquarie Island, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located to the southeast of Tasmania.
  2. It is designated as UNESCO’s World Heritage site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Singh answered
World Heritage Site.
It is home to a variety of wildlife, including penguins, seals, and albatrosses.

All three statements are correct. Macquarie Island is indeed located to the southeast of Tasmania, and it has been designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its exceptional geological and ecological features. The island is also home to a diverse array of wildlife, including several species of penguins, seals, and albatrosses.

With reference to the REACHOUT scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. It aims to develop skilled and trained manpower in Earth Sciences.
  2. It is implemented under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Amit Kumar answered
Recently, the Union Minister of Earth Sciences said that an umbrella scheme Research, Education and Training Outreach (REACHOUT) is being implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences for capacity building.
  • The Research, Education and Training Outreach (REACHOUT) scheme consists of
    • R&D in Earth System Science (RDESS)
    • International Training Centre for Operational Oceanography (ITCOocean)
    • Program for Development of Skilled manpower in Earth System Sciences (DESK)
  • This scheme is being implemented for the entire country and not State/UT-wise.
  • The main objectives of the above sub-schemes are
    • Supporting various R &D activities in the thrust areas of different components of Earth System Sciences that are theme and need-based and that would help in attaining the National goals set up for MoES.
    • Develop useful collaborations with international organizations for the mutual transfer of advanced knowledge in science and technology in Earth Sciences and to provide services to developing countries.   
    • Develop skilled and trained manpower in Earth Sciences with the support of academic institutions in the country and abroad.
 Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO):
  1. It is an intergovernmental specialized agency associated with the United Nations (UN). 
  2. It was established in 1947 by the Chicago Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
India recently announced that it will start participating in the International Civil Aviation Organisation's (ICAO) Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) and the Long-Term Aspirational Goals (LTAG) from 2027.
About International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO):
  • ICAO is an intergovernmental specialized agency associated with the United Nations (UN). 
  • It was established in 1947 by the Convention on International Civil Aviation (1944) known as Chicago Convention.
  • Headquarters: Montreal, Canada
  • Functions:
  • ICAO is dedicated to developing safe and efficient international air transport for peaceful purposes and ensuring a reasonable opportunity for every state to operate international airlines. 
  • It sets standards and regulations necessary for aviation safety, security and facilitation, efficiency, and economic development of air transport as well as to improve the environmental performance of aviation. 
  • It also serves as a clearinghouse for cooperation and discussion on civil aviation issues among its 193 member states.
  • It also promotes regional and international agreements aimed at liberalizing aviation markets.
  • It helps to establish legal standards to ensure that the growth of aviation does not compromise safety, and encourages the development of other aspects of international aviation law.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the JUICE (Jupiter Icy Moon Explorer) Mission:
  1. It is a NASA mission to explore Jupiter and three of its icy moons.
  2. It will become the first probe to orbit a planetary moon other than Earth's. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Chopra answered
Statement 1: It is a NASA mission to explore Jupiter and three of its icy moons.

This statement is incorrect. The JUICE (Jupiter Icy Moon Explorer) mission is not a NASA mission, but rather a European Space Agency (ESA) mission. The mission was selected by ESA in 2012 as the first Large-class mission in its Cosmic Vision 2015-2025 program. The JUICE mission aims to study Jupiter and its three icy moons - Ganymede, Europa, and Callisto - to investigate their potential habitability and to better understand the formation and evolution of the gas giant and its moons.

Statement 2: It will become the first probe to orbit a planetary moon other than Earth's.

This statement is correct. The JUICE mission is planned to become the first spacecraft to orbit a planetary moon other than Earth's. It is specifically designed to orbit Jupiter's largest moon, Ganymede, and will conduct detailed observations of the moon's surface, subsurface, and internal structure. The mission will provide valuable insights into the moon's geology, composition, and potential for hosting a subsurface ocean, which could harbor conditions suitable for life.

Conclusion:

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct. The JUICE mission is an ESA mission to explore Jupiter and its icy moons, and it will become the first probe to orbit a planetary moon other than Earth's.

Consider the following statements regarding Cellular Senescence:
  1. It refers to a state of stable cell cycle arrest.
  2. The cell does not undergo any metabolic changes during this phase.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishika Basak answered
Cellular senescence refers to a state of stable cell cycle arrest, where cells are no longer able to divide and proliferate. This process is characterized by various changes in cellular morphology, gene expression, and metabolism. Let's analyze the given statements:

1. It refers to a state of stable cell cycle arrest.
- This statement is correct. Cellular senescence is a state in which cells enter a permanent growth arrest, meaning they are no longer able to proceed through the cell cycle and divide. This arrest can be induced by various cellular stressors such as DNA damage, telomere shortening, or oncogene activation.

2. The cell does not undergo any metabolic changes during this phase.
- This statement is incorrect. Cellular senescence is associated with significant metabolic alterations. Senescent cells undergo a phenomenon called the senescence-associated secretory phenotype (SASP), where they secrete numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines, growth factors, and proteases. This altered secretome can affect neighboring cells and contribute to tissue dysfunction and age-related pathologies. Additionally, senescent cells exhibit changes in energy metabolism, including decreased mitochondrial function and altered nutrient sensing pathways.

In summary, the correct answer is option 'A' - only statement 1 is correct. Cellular senescence refers to a state of stable cell cycle arrest, but it is also associated with significant metabolic changes. Senescent cells exhibit altered secretome and changes in energy metabolism, contributing to tissue dysfunction and age-related pathologies.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC):
  1. It is an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
  2. It undertakes evaluation, assessment, and accreditation of Higher Education Institutions in the country. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

NAAC is an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC) and is responsible for evaluating, assessing, and accrediting Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country.

Statement 1: It is an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC).

This statement is correct. NAAC is an autonomous institution of the UGC and operates independently. It was established in 1994 and is headquartered in Bengaluru.

Statement 2: It undertakes evaluation, assessment, and accreditation of Higher Education Institutions in the country.

This statement is also correct. NAAC is responsible for assessing and accrediting HEIs in the country. This process helps in promoting quality assurance in higher education and in developing a culture of continuous improvement in HEIs.

Conclusion:

Both the statements given above are correct. NAAC is an important institution in the field of higher education as it helps in enhancing the quality of education provided by HEIs in the country. Its assessment and accreditation process is used to evaluate the performance of HEIs based on various parameters such as curriculum, research, infrastructure, governance, and student support services. The accreditation process helps in improving the quality of education provided by HEIs and also helps in promoting transparency and accountability in the education sector.

Consider the following statements regarding NOTA (None of the Above):
  1. It was introduced into the Indian electoral process following a Supreme Court directive.
  2. The NOTA option in the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) is given at the top of the candidates' list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Palak Pillai answered
Introduction:
NOTA (None of the Above) is a provision in India's electoral process, which allows voters to reject all candidates contesting in an election.

Explanation:
1. Statement 1 - True: NOTA was introduced into the Indian electoral process following a Supreme Court directive in September 2013. The court directed the Election Commission to provide an option of NOTA on the EVMs and ballot papers to the voters.

2. Statement 2 - False: The NOTA option in the EVMs is given at the bottom of the candidates' list and not at the top. The option is placed after the names of all the candidates in the fray.

Conclusion:
Hence, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. NOTA is an essential provision in the Indian electoral process that encourages voters to participate in the election process and express their dissatisfaction with the available candidates by rejecting them. However, it is crucial to note that NOTA does not have any impact on the election result, and the candidate with the most votes still wins the election.

Consider the following statements regarding Harit Sagar Guidelines, recently seen in the news:
  1. They have been formulated to promote environmentally friendly practices across all Indian Ports.
  2. It lays emphasis on the use of Clean / Green energy in Port operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways recently launched ‘Harit Sagar’, the Green Port Guidelines. 
About Harit Sagar Guidelines:
  • Objective: To minimize waste through Reduce, Reuse, Repurpose and Recycle to attain zero waste discharge from port operations and promote monitoring based on Environmental Performance Indicators.
  • These guidelines have been formulated with the aim of promoting environmentally friendly practices across all Indian Ports.
  • It envisages ecosystem dynamics in port development, operation and maintenance while aligning with the working with Nature concept and minimizing the impact on biotic components of the harbour ecosystem.
  • It lays emphasis on the use of Clean / Green energy in Port operation, developing Port capabilities for storage, handling and bunkering Greener Fuels, viz., Green Hydrogen, Green Ammonia, Green Methanol / Ethanol etc.
  • This also covers aspects of the National Green Hydrogen Mission pertaining to ports, development of green hydrogen facilities, LNG bunkering, Offshore Wind Energy etc. and provides provision for adopting global Green Reporting Initiative (GRI) standards.
  • These Guidelines provide a framework for the Major Ports to draw out a comprehensive action plan for achieving targeted outcomes in terms of quantified reduction in carbon emission over defined timelines through focused implementation and close monitoring of Green Initiatives and to achieve Sustainable Developmental Goals (SDG).
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Peptide, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a chain of amino acid monomers connected by amide bonds.
  2. Aspartame is a synthesized peptide which is used in anti-ageing creams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Recently, researchers from the Institute of Advanced Studies in Science and Technology (IASST), Guwahati, revealed that peptides derived from snake venom nerve growth factors can impede the progression of Parkinson's disease.
  • Researchers have developed two novel custom peptides (commercially produced peptides for use in biomedical laboratories) ---TNP and HNP inspired by snake venom neurotrophin that regulate the development, maintenance, and function of vertebrate nervous systems.
  • Peptides are naturally occurring short chains of amino acid monomers connected by amide bonds.
  • They include many antibiotics, hormones and other substances that involve in the biological functions of living beings.
  • Peptide is used in many anti-ageing creams. The most commonly used peptides are those that are obtained from ocean plants like sea jasmine, sea fennel and sea beet.
  • It is used in treating the skin that is affected by injury, sun damage or acne lesions.
  • Aspartame which is a synthesized peptide used as an artificial sweetener with zero calories found in many diet foods is produced in labs and is 200 times sweeter than sugar.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the ceramics, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an excellent insulator which can withstand high temperatures.
  2. It is used as a fabrication material in the development of missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tarun Basu answered
Explanation:

Ceramics are non-metallic and inorganic materials that are generally strong, brittle and stable to high temperatures. They have a wide range of applications in industries such as aerospace, electronics, defense, and energy. The two given statements about ceramics are:

1. It is an excellent insulator which can withstand high temperatures.

Ceramics are good insulators of heat and electricity. This property makes them useful in electrical and electronic applications where insulation is required. Also, ceramics have high melting points and can withstand temperatures up to 3000°C, which allows them to be used in high-temperature applications such as furnace linings, kiln components, and heat exchangers.

2. It is used as a fabrication material in the development of missiles.

Ceramics are used in the fabrication of missile components because of their high strength, wear resistance, and thermal stability. They can withstand extreme conditions such as high temperature, pressure, and stress. Ceramic materials such as silicon nitride, aluminum oxide, and zirconium oxide are used in missile components such as nose cones, heat shields, and insulators.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is option (c) - Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015:
  1. Undisclosed foreign income or assets shall be taxed at a flat rate of 30 percent under the Act.
  2. There are also prosecution provisions under the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aniket Nair answered
Statement 1: Undisclosed foreign income or assets shall be taxed at a flat rate of 30 percent under the Act.
The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 is an Indian legislation aimed at curbing black money and undisclosed foreign income and assets. Under this Act, any undisclosed foreign income or assets are subject to taxation.

The Act specifies that undisclosed foreign income or assets shall be taxed at a flat rate of 30 percent. This means that regardless of the amount or nature of the undisclosed income or assets, a fixed rate of 30 percent tax is imposed on them. This provision ensures a uniform tax rate for all undisclosed foreign income and assets, simplifying the tax calculation process.

Statement 2: There are also prosecution provisions under the Act.
In addition to taxation, the Act also includes provisions for prosecution. These provisions empower the authorities to take legal action against individuals who have undisclosed foreign income or assets. The Act allows for the initiation of prosecution proceedings in cases where tax evasion is detected.

The prosecution provisions of the Act aim to deter individuals from engaging in tax evasion and undisclosed foreign transactions. By imposing penalties and potential legal consequences, the Act serves as a deterrent and encourages compliance with tax laws.

Explanation:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 imposes a flat rate of 30 percent tax on undisclosed foreign income or assets. Additionally, the Act includes provisions for prosecution, allowing legal action to be taken against individuals involved in tax evasion and undisclosed foreign transactions.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Securities Transaction Tax (STT):
  1. It is an indirect tax charged on the purchase and sale of securities listed on the recognized stock exchanges in India.
  2. The rate of STT is different for different types of securities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
The government recently hiked the securities transaction tax (STT) by 23.52 percent on the sale of options and 25 percent on the sale of futures contracts.
About Securities Transaction Tax (STT):
  • What is it? It is a direct tax charged on the purchase and sale of securities listed on the recognized stock exchanges in India.
  • It is levied and collected by the central government of India.
  • STT is governed by Securities Transaction Tax Act (STT Act), and STT Act has specifically listed various taxable securities transactions, i.e., transactions on which STT is leviable.
  • Taxable securities include equities, derivatives, or equity-oriented mutual funds investment units (excluding commodities and currency).
  • The rate of taxation is different for different types of securities.
  • STT is not applicable to off-market transactions or to commodity or currency transactions. 
  • The liability of applying the STT is on the broker when the client undertakes transactions in the stock market. The collected amount is then paid to the government.
  • The charges and rate of STT are reflected on the contract notes which a broker provides to its clients for every execution of trades. 
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA):
  1. The act enables the Central Government to designate individuals as terrorists.
  2. It also applies to citizens of India who are abroad and persons on ships and aircraft registered in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The Supreme Court of India recently ruled that mere membership in an unlawful association is sufficient to constitute an offense under the stringent provisions of the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), 1967.
About Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA):
  • The UAPA was enacted in 1967.
  • It lays down the definitions and rules for designating an organization as an "unlawful association" if it is engaged in certain types of activities.
  • ‘Unlawful activity’ is defined as any action taken by an individual or association – through an act, words, spoken or written, or by signs or visible representation – which is intended to, or supports a claim to, bring about the cession of a part of the territory of India, or the secession of a part of the territory of India from the Union, or which incites any individual or group of individuals to bring about such cession or secession.
  • It covers activities which disclaim, question, disrupt or are intended to disrupt the sovereignty and territorial integrity of India, and which cause or intend to cause disaffection against India.
  • In 2004, the UAPA was amended, and 'terrorist activities' were brought within its fold, under which 34 outfits, including the Lashkar-e-Taiba and the Jaish-e-Mohammad, were banned.
  • Under the Act, the central government may designate an organization as a terrorist organization if it:
  • commits or participates in acts of terrorism;
  • prepares for terrorism;
  • promotes terrorism;
  • is otherwise involved in terrorism;
  • The 2019 Amendment gave the Home Ministry the power to designate individuals as terrorists.
  • The Act extends to the whole of India.
  • It also applies to citizens of India who are abroad, persons in service of the Indian government, and persons on ships and aircraft registered in India.
Hence both statements are correct.

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