All questions of October 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding the newly launched Kisan Rin Portal and Weather Information Network Data Systems (WINDS) portal.
  1. The Kisan Rin Portal is not part of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme.
  2. The Kisan Rin Portal acts as a digital platform that offers a comprehensive view of farmer data on agriculture credit.
  3. WINDS leverages advanced weather data analytics to provide actionable insights for informed weather-related decisions in agriculture.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Indian government has launched the “Kisan Rin Portal” as part of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme to revolutionize the agriculture sector.
  • Additionally, the government launched the Weather Information Network Data Systems (WINDS) portal and initiated a door-to-door KCC campaign.
  • The Kisan Rin digital platform will offer a comprehensive view of farmer data, scheme utilization progress, loan disbursement specifics, and interest subvention claims, enhancing integration with banks for more efficient agriculture credit.
  • WINDS leverage advanced weather data analytics to provide stakeholders with actionable insights for informed weather-related decisions in agriculture.

Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
  1. All animals that are in the wildlife trade are protected by CITES.
  2. If a party violates the convention, CITES can respond with sanctions, which prevent a country from trading in CITES-listed species.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Incorrect Statement in CITES:

1. All animals that are in the wildlife trade are protected by CITES:
This statement is incorrect. CITES does not protect all animals in the wildlife trade. It only protects those species that are listed in its appendices. These species are categorized based on the level of protection they require, with Appendix I listing species that are most endangered and Appendix III listing species that are protected in at least one country.

2. If a party violates the convention, CITES can respond with sanctions, which prevent a country from trading in CITES-listed species:
This statement is correct. CITES has mechanisms in place to respond to violations of the convention. If a party is found to be in violation, CITES can impose sanctions such as suspending trade in CITES-listed species with that country. This is done to ensure compliance and conservation of endangered species.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 'A', as the first statement is incorrect while the second statement is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics.
  1. The UPAg Portal is part of the Digital Public Infrastructure for Agriculture.
  2. The portal aims to provide real-time, reliable, and standardized information, thereby facilitating more responsive and efficient agricultural policies.
  3. It aims to enhance data-driven decision-making for policymakers, researchers, and stakeholders in the agriculture domain.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • The Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics(UPAg Portal – www.upag.gov.in) was officially launched recently.
  • The portal aims to provide real-time, reliable, and standardized information, empowering stakeholders and facilitating more responsive and efficient agricultural policies.
  • The UPAg Portal is part of the Digital Public Infrastructure for Agriculture, focusing on harnessing data for growth, transparency, and agility in India’s agriculture sector.
  • This initiative aligns with e-governance principles and aims to enhance data-driven decision-making for policymakers, researchers, and stakeholders in the agriculture domain.

Recently which of the following state organized a campaign called “Amrit Brikshya Andolan” aimed at increasing the state’s green cover by planting one crore saplings, primarily of commercial trees. 
  • a)
    Gujarat 
  • b)
    Uttar Pradesh 
  • c)
    Assam 
  • d)
    Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
  • The Assam Government organized a campaign called “Amrit Brikshya Andolan” aimed at increasing the state’s green cover by planting saplings, primarily of commercial trees.
  • The campaign set out to achieve nine world records during this massive tree-planting drive.
  • The primary objective of the campaign was to plant one crore saplings across Assam, involving thousands of people from various regions of the state. Assam government intends to plant eight crore saplings in 2024 and an additional 10 crore saplings in 2025.

Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala architecture.
  1. It was developed between the 11th and 14th centuries in southern Karnataka.
  2. It has a unique style of blending elements of Dravida and Nagara architectures.
  3. ‘Hoysala Temple’ form includes multiple shrines around a central pillared hall in a star-shaped layout.
  4. They typically used Red Sandstone that allowed intricate carving of sculptures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Hoysala architecture, developed between the 11th and 14th centuries in southern Karnataka under the Hoysala Empire, is characterized by:
  • A unique style blending elements of Dravida and Nagara architectures.
  • Influences from Bhumija, Nagara, and Karntata Dravida architectural traditions.
  • Distinctive ‘Hoysala Temple’ form with multiple shrines around a central pillared hall in a star-shaped layout.
  • The use of soapstone, allowed intricate carving of sculptures, especially in the jewelry adorning temple walls.

Libya is bordered by
  1. Egypt
  2. Mediterranean Sea
  3. Chad
  4. Niger
  5. Red Sea
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Libya is bordered by four countries and two bodies of water. The correct answer is option 'C' which states that only four of the given options are correct.

- Bordering Countries:
1. Egypt: Libya shares a border with Egypt to the east. The border between the two countries stretches for about 1,115 kilometers.
2. Chad: Libya shares a border with Chad to the south. The border between Libya and Chad is approximately 1,050 kilometers long.
3. Niger: Libya also shares a border with Niger to the southwest. The border between the two countries spans for around 354 kilometers.
4. Sudan: Libya has a shared border with Sudan to the southeast. The border between Libya and Sudan is about 382 kilometers long.

- Bodies of Water:
1. Mediterranean Sea: Libya has a coastline along the Mediterranean Sea to the north. The length of the coastline is approximately 1,770 kilometers.
2. Red Sea: Libya does not share a border with the Red Sea. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' which states that only four of the given options are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Vidya Samiksha Kendras (VSKs).
  1. Vidya Samiksha Kendras (VSKs) are data repositories under the National Digital Education Architecture.
  2. These centres will collect data from various educational schemes run by the Ministry of Education.
  3. They are managed by National Informatics Centre and aligned with the National Education Policy of 2020.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Vidya Samiksha Kendras (VSKs) are data repositories under the National Digital Education Architecture.
This statement is incorrect. Vidya Samiksha Kendras (VSKs) are not data repositories under the National Digital Education Architecture. They are actually physical centers established by the Ministry of Education to monitor the implementation of various educational schemes.

Statement 2: These centres will collect data from various educational schemes run by the Ministry of Education.
This statement is correct. Vidya Samiksha Kendras (VSKs) are responsible for collecting data from various educational schemes run by the Ministry of Education. These schemes include initiatives like Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Mid-Day Meal Scheme, and Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan, among others.

Statement 3: They are managed by National Informatics Centre and aligned with the National Education Policy of 2020.
This statement is incorrect. Vidya Samiksha Kendras (VSKs) are not managed by the National Informatics Centre. They are managed by the Ministry of Education itself. However, it is true that these centers are aligned with the National Education Policy of 2020, which aims to transform the education system in India.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Public Distribution System (PDS).
  1. The Central Government takes the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains, at subsidised prices.
  2. The responsibility of distribution to consumers including target groups through a network of fair price shops (FPSs) rests with the State Governments.
  3. The concept of a buffer stock was first introduced during the Second Five Year Plan.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Sarkar answered
Statement 1: The Central Government takes the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains, at subsidised prices.

This statement is correct. The Public Distribution System (PDS) is a government scheme in India aimed at providing food security to the poor and vulnerable sections of society. Under this system, the Central Government is responsible for procuring food grains from farmers at minimum support prices, storing them in warehouses, and transporting them to different states. The food grains are then allocated in bulk to the State Governments at subsidised prices.

Statement 2: The responsibility of distribution to consumers including target groups through a network of fair price shops (FPSs) rests with the State Governments.

This statement is correct. After the food grains are allocated to the State Governments, it becomes their responsibility to distribute them to the beneficiaries. This is done through a network of fair price shops (FPSs) which are operated by the State Governments. These FPSs sell essential commodities like rice, wheat, sugar, and kerosene at heavily subsidized prices to eligible households.

Statement 3: The concept of a buffer stock was first introduced during the Second Five Year Plan.

This statement is incorrect. The concept of a buffer stock was first introduced in India during the Third Five Year Plan (1961-66). The main objective of creating a buffer stock is to ensure food security and stabilize prices in the market. The government procures food grains during the harvest season and maintains a reserve stock to meet any shortage in the future.

Therefore, out of the three given statements, only statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Black Carbon.
  1. Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter, formed through the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass.
  2. In the tropics, black carbon in soils significantly contributes to the soil fertility.
  3. Black carbon significantly increases the albedo when deposited on snow and ice.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter, formed through the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass.

Statement 2: In the tropics, black carbon in soils significantly contributes to soil fertility.

Statement 3: Black carbon significantly increases the albedo when deposited on snow and ice.

Explanation:

Statement 1: Black carbon is indeed a component of fine particulate matter. It is formed as a result of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. When these fuels are burned, they release black carbon particles into the atmosphere, which contribute to air pollution. These particles are extremely small in size and can easily penetrate deep into the respiratory system, causing adverse health effects.

Statement 2: Black carbon in soils does not significantly contribute to soil fertility. In fact, excessive deposition of black carbon in soils can have negative impacts on soil health and fertility. Black carbon can alter soil properties, including pH, nutrient availability, and microbial activity, which can negatively affect plant growth and overall soil fertility. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 3: Black carbon does indeed significantly increase the albedo when deposited on snow and ice. Albedo refers to the ability of a surface to reflect sunlight. When black carbon particles are deposited on snow and ice, they darken the surface, reducing its albedo. This leads to increased absorption of sunlight and accelerated melting of snow and ice. This phenomenon contributes to the warming of the Arctic and other snow and ice-covered regions. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

Conclusion: Out of the three statements given, only statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option B - Only two.

Consider the following statements regarding Oblique-Reverse Fault.
  1. An oblique-reverse fault is a geological fault characterized by only horizontal movement along the fault plane.
  2. This type of faulting is common in areas of compressionalong the convergent plate boundaries.
  3. The stress along these fault lines does not induce any earthquakes.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Roy answered
Oblique-Reverse Fault is a type of geological fault characterized by both horizontal and vertical movement along the fault plane. Let's evaluate each statement given in the question:

Statement 1: An oblique-reverse fault is a geological fault characterized by only horizontal movement along the fault plane.
This statement is incorrect. Unlike normal faults where there is only vertical movement, and strike-slip faults where there is only horizontal movement, oblique-reverse faults involve both vertical and horizontal movement along the fault plane. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: This type of faulting is common in areas of compression along the convergent plate boundaries.
This statement is correct. Oblique-reverse faults are indeed common in areas of compression along convergent plate boundaries. When two tectonic plates collide, the compressional forces can cause the rocks to be pushed together and uplifted, resulting in the formation of oblique-reverse faults.

Statement 3: The stress along these fault lines does not induce any earthquakes.
This statement is incorrect. The stress along oblique-reverse faults can induce earthquakes. Earthquakes occur when the accumulated stress along a fault exceeds the strength of the rocks, causing them to rupture and release energy. Since oblique-reverse faults involve significant movement along the fault plane, they can generate earthquakes of varying magnitudes.

In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct, while statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Oblique-reverse faults are characterized by both horizontal and vertical movement, they are common in areas of compression along convergent plate boundaries, and they can induce earthquakes due to the accumulated stress along the fault lines.

The concept of ‘fall-back liability’ sometimes seen in news is related to 
  • a)
    Merger of Public Sector Banks 
  • b)
    Central Government grants to states 
  • c)
    E-commerce Rules 
  • d)
    Recapitalisation of Banks
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Datta answered
"concept" refers to an abstract idea or general notion. It is a way of understanding or categorizing something based on its fundamental principles or characteristics. Concepts are often used in various disciplines, such as philosophy, science, mathematics, and art, to provide a framework for understanding complex phenomena or to explain theories and models. They can be simple or complex and can be applied to different contexts and situations. Concepts help us organize and make sense of the world around us and provide a basis for communication and knowledge sharing.

Consider the following statements regarding National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF).
  1. The NHEQF which is meant to streamline higher education qualifications, draws heavily from the European Bologna process.
  2. NHEQF coexists with other frameworks, such as the National Credit Framework and the Academic Bank of Credits.
  3. It gives equal importance to disciplines like agriculture, law, medicine, and pharmacy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Menon answered
Statement Analysis:

Statement 1: The NHEQF draws heavily from the European Bologna process.
- This statement is correct as the NHEQF is indeed influenced by the European Bologna process, which aims to standardize higher education qualifications across Europe.

Statement 2: NHEQF coexists with other frameworks like the National Credit Framework and the Academic Bank of Credits.
- This statement is correct as the NHEQF does coexist with other frameworks such as the National Credit Framework and the Academic Bank of Credits, each serving different purposes in the higher education sector.

Statement 3: NHEQF gives equal importance to disciplines like agriculture, law, medicine, and pharmacy.
- This statement is incorrect as the NHEQF does not give equal importance to all disciplines. Instead, it aims to standardize qualifications across different disciplines while recognizing the unique requirements and characteristics of each field.
Therefore, only two statements are correct out of the three provided options.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Cold water corals, in general, have greater amount of zooxanthellae than warm water corals and does not build reef-like structures.
  2. Cold-water corals differ from warm water corals because the former does not contain symbiotic algae for photosynthesis and grow more slowly.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
  • Corals that inhabit the colder deep waters of continental shelves and offshore canyons, ranging from 50 to over 1000m depths lack zooxanthellae and may build reef-like structures or occur solitarily.
  • Cold-water corals are different from their warm-water counterparts because they do not contain symbiotic algae for photosynthesis and grow more slowly. Cold-water corals obtain all their energy from organic matter and zooplankton, which they catch from the currents drifting past.
  • Cold-water corals can be found over a wide range of latitudes, from tropical to Polar Regions, and from the shallow to the deep seas.

In economics, which of the following explains Gresham’s law? 
  • a)
    It is a monetary principle stating that "good money drives out bad". 
  • b)
    The relationship between rising household incomes and total food spending. 
  • c)
    It is a monetary principle stating that "bad money drives out good". 
  • d)
    the bulk of public programs are designed primarily to benefit the lower and middle classes, but are financed by taxes paid primarily by the upper class.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Gresham’s Law, named after Thomas Gresham, states that “bad money drives out good” when the government fixes the exchange rate between two currencies at a level different from the market rate.
Impact:
  • This leads to the undervalued currency going out of circulation, while the overvalued currency remains but lacks buyers.
  • The law can result in a currency shortage when demand exceeds supply due to the fixed price.
  • Gresham’s law applies not only to paper currencies but also to commodities. It can cause goods to disappear from the formal market when their prices are forcibly undervalued by governments.
  • Thers’ law, on the other hand, states that “good money drives out bad” when people have the freedom to choose between currencies, and they prefer higher-quality currencies.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Monoclonal antibodies are natural proteins that mimic the behaviour of antibodies produced by the immune system.
  2. Monoclonal antibodies are designed to target certain antigens.
  3. Glycoproteins are one of the major components of viruses that cause diseases in humans.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Monoclonal antibodies are natural proteins that mimic the behaviour of antibodies produced by the immune system.
This statement is incorrect. Monoclonal antibodies are not natural proteins. They are laboratory-produced molecules that are designed to mimic the behavior of antibodies. Monoclonal antibodies are made by cloning a single type of immune cell, called a B cell, to produce large quantities of identical antibodies. These antibodies are then used for various medical and research purposes.

Statement 2: Monoclonal antibodies are designed to target certain antigens.
This statement is correct. Monoclonal antibodies are specifically designed to recognize and bind to specific antigens. An antigen is a foreign substance that can stimulate an immune response in the body. Monoclonal antibodies can be engineered to target specific antigens, such as those present on cancer cells or viruses. By targeting these antigens, monoclonal antibodies can help to diagnose, treat, or prevent certain diseases.

Statement 3: Glycoproteins are one of the major components of viruses that cause diseases in humans.
This statement is correct. Glycoproteins are indeed one of the major components of many viruses that cause diseases in humans. Glycoproteins are proteins that have attached carbohydrate molecules. They play a crucial role in viral entry into host cells. The glycoproteins on the surface of viruses help them to attach to and enter host cells, allowing the virus to replicate and cause infection. Examples of viruses with glycoproteins include the influenza virus, HIV, and the coronavirus.

In summary, statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct, and statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option B) Only two.

Consider the following statements regarding Paris Agreement.
  1. It is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
  2. Its primary goal is to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
  3. It includes a mechanism known as the Global Stocktake (GST), which aims to assess the global response to the climate crisis every five years.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
About the Paris Agreement:
It is a legally binding international treaty on climate change that was adopted by 196 countries. Its primary goal is to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels. It includes a mechanism known as the Global Stocktake (GST), which aims to assess the global response to the climate crisis every five years.

Oil spills can be treated with bioremediation by using some species of
  1. Fungi
  2. Plants
  3. Bacteria
  4. Archea
  5. Algae
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Bioremediation is a process that uses living organisms to degrade, remove, or neutralize pollutants from contaminated environments. It is an effective and environmentally friendly method for treating oil spills. In the case of oil spills, bioremediation can be achieved using various species, including fungi, plants, bacteria, archaea, and algae.

Fungi: Fungi are a type of microorganism that can break down and utilize oil as a carbon source. They produce enzymes that can degrade hydrocarbons present in oil. Certain species of fungi, such as Aspergillus, Penicillium, and Trichoderma, have been found to be effective in bioremediation of oil spills.

Plants: Some plant species have the ability to absorb and accumulate oil contaminants from the soil or water. They can either metabolize the oil or store it in their tissues. Plants, such as cattails, salt marsh grasses, and mangroves, have been used in bioremediation projects to treat oil spills.

Bacteria: Bacteria are the most commonly used organisms in bioremediation of oil spills. They have the ability to break down hydrocarbons present in oil through a process called microbial degradation. Some well-known oil-degrading bacteria include Pseudomonas, Bacillus, and Alcanivorax species.

Archaea: Archaea are a group of microorganisms that are often found in extreme environments, such as oil reservoirs. They have been found to play a role in the biodegradation of hydrocarbons, including oil. Methanogenic archaea, in particular, have been shown to degrade hydrocarbons present in oil spills.

Algae: Algae are photosynthetic organisms that can use oil as a carbon source. They can absorb and metabolize various hydrocarbons present in oil spills. Certain species of algae, such as Chlorella and Dunaliella, have been used in bioremediation projects to treat oil-contaminated water.

In conclusion, all five options (fungi, plants, bacteria, archaea, and algae) are correct when it comes to treating oil spills using bioremediation. Each of these organisms has unique abilities to degrade or absorb oil contaminants, making them valuable tools in environmental cleanup efforts.

Which of the following provisions is/are part of Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India?
  1. Any section of the citizens residing in India having a distinct culture, language and script have the right to conserve their culture and language.
  2. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Khanna answered
Fundamental Rights are a set of rights guaranteed to the citizens of India under Part III of the Constitution. These rights ensure the protection of individual liberties and promote equality among the citizens. The two provisions mentioned in the question are indeed part of the Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India.

1. Right to conserve culture and language:
- Article 29 of the Constitution guarantees the right to conserve the culture, language, and script of any section of citizens residing in India. This provision ensures the preservation and promotion of diverse cultural and linguistic identities in the country.
- It recognizes the importance of cultural and linguistic diversity and prohibits any discrimination or imposition that may threaten the distinctiveness of a particular culture, language, or script.
- This provision is significant in maintaining social harmony and preserving the rich heritage of India's various communities.

2. Right to non-discrimination in educational institutions:
- Article 15(1) of the Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. It ensures equal access to educational institutions maintained by the State for all citizens.
- No citizen can be denied admission solely on the basis of religion, race, caste, language, or any combination thereof.
- This provision promotes inclusivity and ensures equal opportunities for all citizens in the field of education, regardless of their background.

Both these provisions aim to protect and promote the rights and interests of different sections of society. They emphasize the importance of cultural diversity, non-discrimination, and equal access to education.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2. These provisions are essential components of the Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India, reflecting the commitment of the Constitution-makers towards preserving cultural diversity and ensuring equal opportunities for all citizens.

Consider the following statements regarding International Court of Justice (ICJ).
  1. The International Court of Justice is the only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations not located in New York.
  2. The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of six years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.
  3. It gives advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. Its seat is at the Peace Palace in the Hague (Netherlands). It is the only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations not located in New York (United States of America). The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The International Court of Justice functions in accordance with its Statute.
  • The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.
  • In order to ensure a measure of continuity, one third of the Court is elected every three years.

Consider the following statements.
  1. A semiconductor is a material which has an electrical conductivity value falling between that of a conductor and an insulator.
  2. Quantum computing and enhanced wireless networks rely on semiconductors.
  3. The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) and Design Linked Incentive (DLI) schemes encourage building a semiconductor ecosystem in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • A semiconductor is a material which has an electrical conductivity value falling between that of a conductor, such as copper, and an insulator, such as glass. 
  • All modern-era digital devices, as well as future innovations, rely on the semiconductor sector. These discrete, yet very sophisticated elements drive almost all upcoming technologies, including AI, cloud computing, quantum computing, enhanced wireless networks, blockchain applications, bitcoin mining, 5G, IoT, self-driving vehicles, drones, robots, gaming, and wearables.
  • The Centre has sanctioned the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) and Design Linked Incentive (DLI) schemes to encourage the manufacturing of various semiconductor goods within India.

Consider the following statements regarding solid-state battery.
  1. A solid-state battery uses solid electrodes and a solid electrolyte, instead of the liquid electrolytes found in lithium-ion batteries.
  2. Energy density in lithium-ion battery is higher than solid-state battery.
  3. Solid-state batteries are used in pacemakers, RFID and wearable devices.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Solid-state battery:
- A solid-state battery uses solid electrodes and a solid electrolyte, instead of the liquid electrolytes found in lithium-ion batteries.

Energy density:
- Energy density in solid-state batteries is higher than in lithium-ion batteries. Solid-state batteries have the potential to offer higher energy density due to the use of solid materials.

Applications:
- Solid-state batteries are used in pacemakers, RFID, and wearable devices due to their compact size, improved safety, and potential for higher energy density.
Therefore, only statement 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect as it states that energy density in lithium-ion batteries is higher than in solid-state batteries, which is not accurate.

Consider the following statements regarding Narmada River.
  1. The Narmada is the second largest west-flowing river in India.
  2. It flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before reaching the Gulf of Cambay.
  3. It is situated between the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges.
  4. The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shilpa Chavan answered
The correct answer is option 'C', i.e., only three of the statements are correct. Now let us analyze each statement in detail to understand why this is the correct answer.

Statement 1: The Narmada is the second largest west-flowing river in India.
This statement is incorrect. The Narmada River is not the second largest west-flowing river in India. It is actually the fifth largest river in India, with a length of about 1,312 kilometers.

Statement 2: It flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before reaching the Gulf of Cambay.
This statement is correct. The Narmada River indeed flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before it empties into the Gulf of Cambay (also known as the Gulf of Khambhat) in the Arabian Sea.

Statement 3: It is situated between the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges.
This statement is correct. The Narmada River flows between the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges, which are parallel mountain ranges in central India. These ranges act as natural boundaries for the river.

Statement 4: The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River.
This statement is correct. The Sardar Sarovar Dam is indeed a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River. It is one of the largest dams in India and is located in Gujarat. The dam serves various purposes, including irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and water supply.

In conclusion, out of the four given statements, only three are correct. The first statement is incorrect, while the rest are accurate.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The mantle is a thick layer of solid rock sandwiched between the Earth’s upper crust and lower core.
  2. Mantle makes up the largest part of Earth.
  3. The viscosity of the rocks in the transition zone between the upper and the lower mantle determines whether a plate sinks below another one through it.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The mantle — a 2,900 km thick layer of solid rock sandwiched between the Earth’s upper crust and lower core.
The mantle makes up the largest part of Earth.
  • The mantle’s viscous properties govern convection — the transfer of heat between areas of different temperatures. This enables plate tectonics.
Mantle convection results in the transport of rocks and heat.
The viscosity of the rocks in the transition zone between the upper and the lower mantle determines whether a plate sinks below another one (subduction) through it.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The use of burnt bricks in the Harappan cities is remarkable because in the contemporary buildings of Egypt dried bricks were primarily used. We find the use of baked bricks in contemporary Mesopotamia, but they were used to a much larger extent in the Harappan cities.
  • The Indus people produced wheat, barley, rai, peas, and the like. Two types of wheat and barley were grown. A substantial quantity of barley was discovered at Banawali. In addition, sesamum and mustard were grown.
  • Although the Harappans practised agriculture, animals were raised on a large scale. Oxen, buffaloes, goats, sheep, and pigs were domesticated. Humped bulls were favoured by the Harappans. There is evidence of dogs and cats from the outset, and asses and camels were bred. Elephants were well known to the Harappans, who were also acquainted with the rhinoceros.

Consider the following statements about Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India:
  1. It is a regulatory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance , Government of India.
  2. It is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and reinsurance industries in India.
  3. It was constituted by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • An employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) is a type of employee benefit plan which is intended to encourage employees to acquire stocks or ownership in the company.
  • Under these plans, the employer gives certain stocks of the company to the employee for negligible or less costs which remain in the ESOP trust fund, until the options vests and the employee exercises them or the employee leaves/retires from the company or institution.
  • These plans are aimed at improving the performance of the company and increasing the value of the shares by involving stock holders, who are also the employees, in the working of the company. The ESOPs help in minimizing problems related to incentives.

The recent Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Awards ceremony honoured 
  • a)
    Tribal artists in the field of performing arts 
  • b)
    Performing artists with physical disability 
  • c)
    Women artists in the field of performing arts 
  • d)
    Artists aged above 75 years who have not been accorded any national honour in their career so far.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
  • Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar presented the one-time Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Awards to 84 artists from varied fields of performing arts.
  • The award was constituted to honour the Indian artists aged above 75 years who have not been accorded any national honour in their career so far.
  • This is the first time in the nation’s history that these artists are being recognised for their work.

Consider the following statements regarding Drip Method of Irrigation (DMI).
  1. Unlike Flood Method of irrigation (FMI), the drip method supplies water directly to the root zone of a crop through a network of pipes and emitters.
  2. DMI reduces leaching of water and nutrients below the root zone.
  3. It prevents disease by minimizing water contact with the leaves, stems, and fruit of plants.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Unlike Flood Method of irrigation (FMI), the drip method (DMI) supplies water directly to the root zone of a crop through a network of pipes and emitters. Since it supplies water directly to the crop, rather than the land around, water losses occurring through evaporation and distribution are significantly reduced.
Drip irrigation is most suitable for row crops (vegetables, soft fruit), tree and vine crops.
Other Benefits:
  • Prevents disease by minimizing water contact with the leaves, stems, and fruit of plants.
  • Allows the rows between plants to remain dry, improving access and reducing weed growth.
  • Saves time, money, and water because the system is so efficient.
  • Decreases labor.
  • Increases effectiveness on uneven ground.
  • Reduces leaching of water and nutrients below the root zone.

Consider the following statements regarding Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs).
  1. LGDs have basic properties similar to natural diamonds, including their optical dispersion.
  2. LGDs are most often used for industrial purposes because of their hardness and extra strength.
  3. Like natural diamonds, LGDs do not require any polishing and cutting to provide diamonds their characteristic lustre.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • LGDs have basic properties similar to natural diamonds, including their optical dispersion, which provide them the signature diamond sheen. However, since they are created in controlled environments, many of their properties can be enhanced for various purposes.
  • For instance, LGDs are most often used for industrial purposes, in machines and tools. Their hardness and extra strength make them ideal for use as cutters. Furthermore, pure synthetic diamonds have high thermal conductivity, but negligible electrical conductivity. This combination is invaluable for electronics where such diamonds can be used as a heat spreader for high-power laser diodes, laser arrays and high-power transistors.
  • Lastly, as the Earth’s reserves of natural diamonds are depleted, LGDs are slowly replacing the prized gemstone in the jewelry industry. Crucially, like natural diamonds, LGDs undergo similar processes of polishing and cutting that are required to provide diamonds their characteristic lustre.

The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi has executive control over the reserved subjects which include
  1. Land
  2. Agriculture
  3. Police
  4. Excise
  5. Education
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 3, 4, 5 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    2, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.

Explanation:
The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi has executive control over the reserved subjects, which include Land, Agriculture, Police, Excise, and Education. Let's discuss each of these subjects in detail:

1. Land: The Lieutenant Governor has executive control over land-related matters in Delhi. This includes the administration, management, and development of land in the union territory. The Lieutenant Governor plays a crucial role in decisions related to land acquisition, land use planning, and land development.

2. Agriculture: Agriculture is not a reserved subject under the control of the Lieutenant Governor. It is a state subject, and the Delhi government has jurisdiction over agricultural activities in the union territory. The Delhi government is responsible for implementing policies related to agriculture, providing support to farmers, and promoting agricultural development.

3. Police: The Lieutenant Governor has executive control over the police force in Delhi. This includes the maintenance of law and order, crime prevention, and investigation of criminal cases. The Lieutenant Governor exercises administrative control over the police force and is responsible for the overall functioning and management of the police department in the union territory.

4. Excise: The Lieutenant Governor also has executive control over excise-related matters in Delhi. This includes the regulation and control of the production, sale, and consumption of alcoholic beverages and other intoxicants. The Lieutenant Governor plays a crucial role in formulating and implementing excise policies and ensuring compliance with excise laws and regulations.

5. Education: Education is not a reserved subject under the control of the Lieutenant Governor. It is a concurrent subject, and both the Delhi government and the Lieutenant Governor have jurisdiction over education in the union territory. The Delhi government is responsible for the administration and management of schools, colleges, and other educational institutions in Delhi.

In conclusion, the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi has executive control over the reserved subjects, which include Land, Police, Excise, and Education. Agriculture is not a reserved subject under the control of the Lieutenant Governor.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Under Article 105 of the Constitution of India, no Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said in Parliament or any committee thereof.
  2. According to Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, If the Speaker is of opinion that the words used by MPs in debate are defamatory or unparliamentary, the Speaker may, while exercising discretion order that such words be expunged from the proceedings of the House.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Sarkar answered
Statement 1: Under Article 105 of the Constitution of India, no Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said in Parliament or any committee thereof.

Under Article 105 of the Indian Constitution, Members of Parliament (MPs) are granted certain privileges and immunities to enable them to perform their parliamentary duties effectively. One such privilege is the freedom of speech and expression in Parliament. According to Article 105, no MP shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in Parliament or any committee thereof.

This privilege is crucial for the functioning of a democratic system as it allows MPs to express their opinions freely without fear of legal repercussions. It ensures that MPs can speak without restraint and represent the interests of their constituents.

Statement 2: According to Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, if the Speaker is of the opinion that the words used by MPs in debate are defamatory or unparliamentary, the Speaker may, while exercising discretion, order that such words be expunged from the proceedings of the House.

The Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament, has its own set of rules known as the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. According to these rules, if the Speaker of Lok Sabha believes that the words used by MPs during a debate are defamatory or unparliamentary, the Speaker has the authority to order the expunction of such words from the proceedings of the House.

This provision allows the Speaker to maintain decorum and uphold the dignity of the Parliament. The Speaker acts as the custodian of the House and has the responsibility to ensure that parliamentary debates are conducted in a respectful manner. By expunging defamatory or unparliamentary words, the Speaker ensures that the proceedings of the House maintain a certain level of civility and respect.

Conclusion:

Both statements are correct. The first statement highlights the constitutional provision of parliamentary privilege granted to MPs, protecting them from legal proceedings in relation to their speech in Parliament. The second statement refers to the Rules of Procedure in Lok Sabha, granting the Speaker the power to expunge defamatory or unparliamentary words from the proceedings of the House. These provisions are essential for the smooth functioning of parliamentary democracy and maintaining the integrity of parliamentary debates.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Sometimes record-high temperatures observed globally can be due to underwater volcanic eruption.
  2. Most volcanic eruptions release a significant amount of water vapour and Sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere, which is a natural greenhouse gas that traps heat.
  3. Tonga island is part of a volcanic arc formed due to the subduction of the Pacific Plate under the Indo-Australian Plate.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Sometimes record-high temperatures observed globally can be due to underwater volcanic eruption.
This statement is incorrect. While volcanic eruptions can release large amounts of heat and gases into the atmosphere, underwater volcanic eruptions do not directly contribute to record-high temperatures observed globally. The primary reason for global temperature variations is the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide and methane.

Statement 2: Most volcanic eruptions release a significant amount of water vapor and sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere, which is a natural greenhouse gas that traps heat.
This statement is correct. Volcanic eruptions can release a substantial amount of water vapor and sulfur dioxide into the atmosphere. Sulfur dioxide can be converted into sulfate aerosols, which reflect sunlight back into space, cooling the Earth's surface. However, water vapor and sulfur dioxide are not long-lasting greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide. Their effects on global temperatures are temporary and localized.

Statement 3: Tonga island is part of a volcanic arc formed due to the subduction of the Pacific Plate under the Indo-Australian Plate.
This statement is correct. Tonga is located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean and is part of the Tonga-Kermadec volcanic arc. This arc is formed due to the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Indo-Australian Plate. Subduction occurs when one tectonic plate slides beneath another, leading to volcanic activity and the formation of volcanic arcs.

In conclusion, out of the three given statements:
- Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that only two of the statements are correct.

 Consider the following statements regarding Irrawaddy dolphins.
  1. Irrawaddy dolphins are euryhaline species of oceanic dolphin endemic to Indian Ocean.
  2. The protection of these dolphins is crucial to Ganga river system.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • The Irrawaddy dolphin is a euryhaline species of oceanic dolphin found in scattered subpopulations near sea coasts and in estuaries and rivers in parts of the Bay of Bengal and Southeast Asia.
  • The protection of the Irrawaddy dolphin is crucial for the overall health of the Mekong River.

Consider the following statements regarding Project ‘Mausam’.
  1. Project ‘Mausam’ is an initiative led by the Ministry of Culture and implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA).
  2. It aims to showcase a Transnational Mixed Route on the World Heritage List.
  3. The project explores monsoon patterns and maritime landscapes in the Indian Ocean region.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Project ‘Mausam’ is a cultural initiative led by the Ministry of Culture and implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), New Delhi. It aims to showcase a Transnational Mixed Route (Natural and Cultural Heritage) on the World Heritage List. The project explores monsoon patterns, cultural routes, and maritime landscapes in the Indian Ocean region.
  • Its goals include understanding the historical impact of monsoon winds on interactions, shared knowledge systems, and cultural exchanges among coastal centres.
  • The project fosters cross-cultural linkages with 39 Indian Ocean countries and focuses on cultural routes and maritime landscapes connecting different parts of the Indian Ocean littoral.

Consider the following statements regarding CPGRAMS.
  1. CPGRAMS is an online platform available to the citizens 24×7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to public service delivery.
  2. It is the initiative of Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
  3. It does not provide any appeal facility to the citizens if they are not satisfied with the resolution.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online platform available to the citizens 24×7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery. It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of Government of India and States.
  • The status of the grievance filed in CPGRAMS can be tracked with the unique registration ID provided at the time of registration of the complainant. CPGRAMS also provides appeal facility to the citizens if they are not satisfied with the resolution by the Grievance Officer.
  • The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) informed the parliamentary panel that in 2016, all Ministries, organisations and departments were requested to regularly examine the grievances column of newspapers to pick up the cases coming under their purview and take expeditious action to redress them in a time bound manner.

Consider the following statements regarding the use of Mulberry trees in Sericulture.
  1. Mulberry is a perennial crop with good foliage.
  2. Dried mulberry twigs and branches can be used as fuel in place of firewood.
  3. Mulberry being a deep-rooted plant cannot be raised on hill slopes.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • As a perennial crop with good foliage and root-spread, mulberry contributes to soil conservation and provides green cover.
  • Waste from silkworm rearing can be recycled as inputs to garden.
  • Dried mulberry twigs and branches are used as fuel in place of firewood and therefore reduce the pressure on vegetation/forest.
  • Being a labour intensive and predominantly agro-based activity, involvement of smoke-emitting machinery is minimal.
  • Developmental programmes initiated for mulberry plantation are mainly in upland areas where un-used cultivable land is made productive.
  • Mulberry can also be cultivated as intercrop with numerous plantations.
  • Mulberry being a deep-rooted perennial plant can be raised in vacant lands, hill slopes and watershed areas.

Operation Sajag, that was recently in news was conducted by
  • a)
    Indian Army 
  • b)
    Indian Air Force 
  • c)
    Indian Coast Guard 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • The Indian Coast Guard conducted a coastal security drill named ‘Operation Sajag’ along the west coast.
  • This drill aimed to involve all stakeholders in the coastal security system, reaffirm the effectiveness of coastal security measures, and raise awareness among fishermen at sea.
  • To enhance coastal security, several measures have been implemented, including the issuance of biometric cards for fishermen, color-coding of fishing boats according to each state, manned fish landing centres, access control at entry/exit points, coastal mapping, allocation of specific marine band frequencies for security agencies, and training of marine police personnel by the Indian Coast Guard.

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, provides which of the following rights to the consumers?
  1. Right to be informed of the quality, quantity, purity, standard and price of goods or services
  2. Right to be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices
  3. Right to seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.
  4. Right to be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Geetika Chavan answered
The correct answer is option D: 1, 2, 3, 4.

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, provides several important rights to consumers. Let's discuss each of these rights in detail:

1. Right to be informed:
Consumers have the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, purity, standard, and price of goods or services they are purchasing. This means that businesses are obligated to provide accurate and transparent information to consumers regarding the products or services they offer. Consumers have the right to make informed decisions based on complete and truthful information.

2. Right to choice:
Consumers have the right to be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices. This means that consumers should have the freedom to choose from a range of options available in the market, and businesses should not engage in anti-competitive practices that limit consumer choice or artificially inflate prices.

3. Right to seek redressal:
Consumers have the right to seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices. This means that if consumers face any issues or grievances related to the goods or services they have purchased, they have the right to file complaints and seek appropriate resolution. The Act establishes consumer courts and provides a mechanism for consumers to seek compensation or resolution of disputes.

4. Right to be protected:
Consumers have the right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services that are hazardous to life and property. This means that businesses cannot sell products or provide services that pose a risk to the health, safety, or property of consumers. The Act empowers consumers to take legal action against such practices and seek appropriate remedies.

In summary, the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, provides consumers with the right to be informed, the right to choice, the right to seek redressal, and the right to be protected. These rights aim to empower consumers and ensure fair and transparent practices in the marketplace.

Consider the following statements regarding Ocean deoxygenation.
  1. Ocean deoxygenation is the maximum reduction of oxygen minimum zones in the world’s oceans as a consequence of anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide.
  2. The areas of Sea water that is depleted of dissolved oxygen is called Anoxic waters.
  3. Oxygen is less soluble in warmer water.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Ocean deoxygenation is the expansion of oxygen minimum zones in the world’s oceans as a consequence of anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide. The change has been fairly rapid and poses a threat to fish and other types of marine life, as well as to people who depend on marine life for nutrition or livelihood.
  • Ocean deoxygenation poses implications for ocean productivity, nutrient cycling, carbon cycling, and marine habitats.
  • Most of the excess heat from CO2 and other greenhouse gas emissions is absorbed by the oceans. Warmer oceans cause deoxygenation both because oxygen is less soluble in warmer water, and through temperature driven stratification of the ocean which inhibits the production of oxygen from photosynthesis.
  • Anoxic waters are areas of sea water, fresh water, or groundwater that are depleted of dissolved oxygen and are a more severe condition of hypoxia.

Consider the following statements regarding HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus).
  1. The drugs for HIV suppress the number of CD4 immune cells in the body.
  2. Even when the viral levels are low, the likelihood of a person transmitting the infection is very high.
  3. If left untreated, the virus destroys a person’s immune system and they are said to be in the Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome stage (AIDS).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Only Statement 3 is correct.
  • The medicines suppress the replication of the virus within the body, allowing the number of CD4 immune cells to bounce back. Although earlier the drugs were given only to those with low CD4 count under the government’s programme, now the programme supports anyone who has been diagnosed with HIV.
  • The drugs have to be taken for life because the virus continues to persist in reservoirs across the body. If the drugs are stopped, the virus can again start replicating and spreading. When the viral levels are low, the likelihood of a person transmitting the infection is also low.
  • If left untreated, the virus destroys a person’s immune system and they are said to be in the Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome stage (AIDS) where they get several opportunistic infections that may result in death.
  • Although there is no vaccine for HIV, there are Pre-exposure prophylaxis (or PrEP) medicines that can be taken by people at high risk of contracting the infection. PrEP reduces the risk of getting HIV from sex by about 99 per cent.

Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM).
  1. Jal Jeevan Mission, is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in India.
  2. The programme includes recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation and rain water harvesting.
  3. It is based on a community approach to water and include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Jal Jeevan Mission, is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
  • The programme will also implement source sustainability measures as mandatory elements, such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation, rain water harvesting.
  • The Jal Jeevan Mission will be based on a community approach to water and will include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission.

Indexation is a method that use can be associated with which of the following? 
  • a)
    Measurement of savings rate 
  • b)
    Fixing of wage compensation 
  • c)
    Nominal GDP estimation 
  • d)
    Adjust for the effects of inflation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
  • Indexation means adjusting a price, wage, or other value based on the changes in another price or composite indicator of prices.
  • Indexation can be done to adjust for the effects of inflation, cost of living, or input prices over time, or to adjust for different prices and costs in different geographic areas.
  • Indexation is often used to escalate wages in inflationary environments where failure to negotiate regular wage increases would lead to ongoing real wage cuts for workers.

Consider the following statements regarding National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG).
  1. National Judicial Data Grid is a database of orders, judgments and case details of District and subordinate Courts.
  2. Supreme Court of India is not part of the National Judicial Data Grid.
  3. The NJDG was built as part of Phase II of the e-Courts project.
  4. NJDG aims to manage & reduce pendency of cases.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Supreme Court of India has now joined the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) portal, which serves as a national repository of case-related data from courts across the country.
  • NJDG is a database of orders, judgments and case details of 18,735 District and subordinate Courts and High Courts created as an online platform under the eCourts Project. Its key feature is that the data is updated in real-time and has granular data up to the Taluka level.
  • The NJDG was built as part of Phase II of the e-Courts project, which is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. With over 18,735 courts computerised across the country, the data is integrated with the NJDG. The platform has been developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in close coordination with the in-house software development team of the Computer Cell, Registry of the Supreme Court with an interactive interface and analytics dashboard.
  • NJDG works as a monitoring tool to identify, manage & reduce pendency of cases. Take, for instance, the Supreme Court data.

Consider the following statements regarding Wildlife Crime Control Bureau.
  1. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory body under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change that is especially meant to combat organised wildlife crime in the country.
  2. It assists and advises the customs authorities in the inspection of the consignments of flora and fauna.
  3. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory body under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change that is especially meant to combat organised wildlife crime in the country.

Statement 2: It assists and advises the customs authorities in the inspection of the consignments of flora and fauna.

Statement 3: It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

The correct answer is Option B: Only two as only the first two statements are correct.

Explanation:
The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. It is not headed by the Prime Minister of India, but by a senior officer from the Indian Forest Service.

The WCCB's primary objective is to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. It works in close collaboration with various enforcement agencies, including the customs authorities, to prevent illegal trade in wildlife and their products. It assists and advises the customs authorities in inspecting consignments of flora and fauna to ensure compliance with wildlife protection laws.

The WCCB also plays a crucial role in intelligence gathering, investigation, and prosecution of wildlife-related crimes. It works towards strengthening the enforcement of wildlife laws and promoting coordination among different agencies involved in wildlife conservation and protection.

Since its establishment, the WCCB has made significant contributions in curbing wildlife crimes such as smuggling of endangered species, illegal trade in wildlife products, poaching, and habitat destruction. Its efforts have led to the arrest of numerous wildlife criminals and the seizure of contraband items.

In conclusion, the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory body under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. It is primarily responsible for combating organized wildlife crime in the country and assisting customs authorities in inspecting consignments of flora and fauna. However, it is not headed by the Prime Minister of India.

Maitri Setu, sometimes seen in news is a bridge between 
  • a)
    Tripura and Bangladesh 
  • b)
    Arunachal Pradesh and Myanmar 
  • c)
    Assam and Bangladesh 
  • d)
    Mizoram and Myanmar
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Sarkar answered
Maitri Setu: A Bridge Between Tripura and Bangladesh

The correct answer is option A) Tripura and Bangladesh.

Maitri Setu, also known as the 'Friendship Bridge', is a bridge that connects Tripura, a state in India, with Bangladesh. It is a significant infrastructure project that aims to strengthen connectivity and enhance bilateral trade between the two neighboring countries.

Key Points:
- Maitri Setu is located over the Feni River, which acts as a natural boundary between Tripura and Bangladesh.
- The bridge is around 1.9 kilometers long and connects Sabroom in Tripura with Ramgarh in Bangladesh.
- It provides a direct road link between the Indian state of Tripura and the Chittagong port in Bangladesh, which is the nearest and most convenient sea route for Tripura's trade.
- The bridge plays a crucial role in reducing the distance and time taken for transporting goods between the two regions.
- It is expected to boost economic activities, promote tourism, and facilitate people-to-people contact between Tripura and Bangladesh.
- The construction of Maitri Setu was funded by the Government of India as part of its efforts to improve regional connectivity and strengthen ties with neighboring countries.
- The bridge was inaugurated on March 9, 2021, by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina, symbolizing the strong friendship and cooperation between the two nations.
- Maitri Setu is not only a physical bridge but also a symbol of the close cultural, historical, and economic ties that India shares with Bangladesh.
- It is expected to have a positive impact on the socio-economic development of Tripura by facilitating trade, investment, and tourism opportunities.

Conclusion:
Maitri Setu, the bridge between Tripura and Bangladesh, is a significant infrastructure project that enhances connectivity and trade between the two regions. It plays a crucial role in boosting economic activities, promoting tourism, and strengthening the bilateral relationship between India and Bangladesh.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Dhokra art is mainly a ferrous metal casting art that uses the lost-wax casting technique.
  2. The lost-wax casting technique has been in use for over 4,000 years in India, and is still practised by artisans in central and eastern India.
  3. One of the earliest known lost wax artefacts is the dancing girl of Mohenjodaro.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Dhokra art is non-ferrous metal casting art that uses the lost-wax casting technique. This technique has been in use for over 4,000 years in India, and is still practised by artisans in central and eastern India. It is in great demand in domestic and foreign markets because of its primitive simplicity, folk motifs and forceful form.
  • One of the earliest known lost wax artefacts is the dancing girl of Mohenjodaro.
  • The lost wax technique for casting of copper-based alloys has also been found in China, Egypt, Malaysia, Nigeria, Central America, and other places.

‘MATSYA 6000’, recently seen in news is a 
  • a)
    Medium tactical transport aircraft 
  • b)
    Indigenously developed anti-tank mines 
  • c)
    Domestically developed submersible 
  • d)
    Armoured Recovery Vehicles
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
  • Indian scientists are gearing up for an ambitious project called Samudrayaan, which involves sending three people 6,000 meters underwater in a domestically developed submersible named Matsya 6000.
  • This mission aims to explore the ocean depths of precious metals and minerals such as cobalt, nickel, and manganese.

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