All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Trichoderma, which was recently in news, is a:
  • a)
    vaccine
  • b)
    fruit ripening agent
  • c)
    photosynthetic bacteria
  • d)
    bio-pesticide
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) Kozhikode have successfully developed a new granular lime-based Trichoderma formulation.
  • The formulation named ‘Tricholime’, integrates Trichoderma and lime into a single product, making the application easier for farmers. 
  • Trichoderma is a fungal biocontrol agent, has proven effective in suppressing several soil-borne plant pathogens and serves as a successful bio-pesticide and bio-fertilizer in crop production.
  • Recognizing the importance of Trichoderma and the challenges posed by traditional lime applications, the scientists at IISR developed ‘Tricholime’ to integrate lime and Trichoderma.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Mount Etna, recently seen in the news, is located in:
  • a)
    Arctic
  • b)
    Asia
  • c)
    Africa
  • d)
    Europe
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Mount Etna which is one of the world’s most active volcanoes was causing public concern as well it started erupting recently.
  • It is Europe’s most active volcano and one of the largest in the world.
  • Its recorded volcanic activity dates back to 1500 B.C.
  • It is on the eastern coast of Sicily.
  • It is the highest Mediterranean island mountain and the most active stratovolcano in the world. 
  • It is about 3,326 metres high and is the highest peak in Italy South of the Alps.
What are volcanoes?
  • Volcanoes are openings, or vents where lava, tephra (small rocks), and steam erupt onto the Earth’s surface.
  • These can be on land and in the ocean.
  • They are, in part, a result of their own eruptions but also the general formation of our planet, as tectonic plates move.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Direct-to-Mobile (D2M) technology:
  1. It is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals.
  2. It can be used in emergency alert warning purposes without depending on internet/cellular networks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services. 
  • The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies.
  • This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals.
  • Using D2M, multimedia content, including live TV matches, can be streamed to phones directly without using the internet. 
  • D2M can ensure-
  • Emergency alerts are delivered directly, reliably and without dependence on internet/cellular networks. 
  • Disaster Management audio content is delivered directly and authentically in a targeted manner.
  • With D2M, governments can broadcast citizen-centric information.
  • This approach benefits consumers by reducing their reliance on internet data consumption for staying informed and entertained.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gemini AI model:
  1. It is an Artificial Intelligence model launched by the Google.
  2. It has a capability to generate programming languages like Python and Java.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Correct Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: It is an Artificial Intelligence model launched by the Google.
- This statement is correct. Gemini is an AI model developed by Google.

Statement 2: It has a capability to generate programming languages like Python and Java.
- This statement is also correct. Gemini AI model has the ability to generate code in programming languages like Python and Java.
Therefore, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is option C.

Consider the following statements about Kalaram Temple
  1. It is built in 1720 by Bajirao I, Peshwa of the Maratha Confederacy.
  2. It is located on the banks of the River Godavari in the Panchavati area of the Nashik in Maharashtra.
  3. It is also the site of a landmark agitation led by Babasaheb Ambedkar demanding temple entry rights for Dalits.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Statement 1 is incorrect:
  • Built in – 1792, with the efforts of one Sardar Rangarao Odhekar.
  • Name – It derives its name from a black statue of the Lord Kala Ram translates literally to “Black Ram.”
Statement 2 is correct
  • Location – On the banks of the River Godavari in the Panchavati area of the Nashik in Maharashtra.
  • Features – It has 14 steps, which represent the 14 years of Ram’s exile and has 84 pillars, which represents the cycle of 84 lakh species that one must complete to be born as a human.
  • Sanctum sanctorum – Statues of Ram, Sita, and Lakshman, and a black idol of Hanuman at the main entrance.
Statement 3 is correct
  • Historical importance – It is also the site of a landmark agitation led by Babasaheb Ambedkar demanding temple entry rights for Dalits more than 90 years ago.
  • Nashik Satyagraha in 1930
  • Lead by – B R Ambedkar along with the Marathi teacher and social activist Pandurang Sadashiv Sane, known as Sane Guruji.
  • Aim – To demand access for Dalits to Hindu temples.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fog Pass Devices:
  1. It is a GPS based navigation device which provides on-board real-time information.
  2. It is suitable only to diesel locomotives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Desai answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - Statement 1 only.

Explanation:
Fog Pass Devices are not GPS based navigation devices, and they are not limited to diesel locomotives only. Let's understand each statement in detail:

1. It is a GPS based navigation device which provides on-board real-time information.
Fog Pass Devices are not GPS based navigation devices. Instead, they are specialized devices used in the railway industry to improve visibility during foggy weather conditions. These devices use ultrasound technology to detect the presence of obstacles such as other trains, vehicles, or any obstructions on the railway tracks. They provide real-time information about the presence of obstacles and help the train operators make informed decisions while driving in foggy conditions. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

2. It is suitable only to diesel locomotives.
Fog Pass Devices are not limited to diesel locomotives only. They can be used with both diesel and electric locomotives. The purpose of using Fog Pass Devices is to enhance safety and visibility during foggy weather conditions, regardless of the type of locomotive. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary, which was recently in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • b)
    Uttarakhand
  • c)
    Tripura
  • d)
    Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Researchers from the National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS) found a new butterfly species in Karnataka’s Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary, Kodagu. 
  • The butterfly species -- Conjoined Silverline (Cigaritis conjuncta) found from the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot, India. 
  • Features
  • The new butterfly is the size of a one rupee coin but is invaluable to conservationists.
  • It is endemic to mid-elevation evergreen forests of the Western Ghats.
  • It has fused spots and bands on the underside of wings, and shiny silver lines in the centre of those bands.
  • The two sites where they have been located are at an elevation of 900 meters (Iruppu Falls) and 1,300 meters (Honey Valley).
  • India houses more than 1,400 species of butterflies, but very few new ones have been discovered in the last few decades.
Key points about the Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary
  • It is situated in southern side in Kodagu district of Karnataka.
  • It is named after the highest peak of the sanctuary is called Brahmagiri Hill.
  • River: River Laxmantirtha, a very important tributary of river Cauvery originates in it.
  • Vegetation: It is covered with semi evergreen to wet evergreen forests with high altitude grassland shoal forests.
  • Flora: Rosewood, Nandi, Mathi, Honne, Sura Honne, White Cedar, Red Cedar and Saldhupa etc.
  • Fauna: Tiger, Elephants, and Indian Gaur are the big mammals commonly found here.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP):
  1. It is a voluntary movement of followers of Buddhism with both monastic (monks) and lay members. 
  2. It is headquartered in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Dey answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. The Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP) is indeed a voluntary movement of followers of Buddhism with both monastic (monks) and lay members. It aims to promote peace and harmony through Buddhist teachings and practices.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is incorrect. The headquarters of the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP) is not in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh. The actual headquarters of the ABCP may vary, but it is often associated with the location of the current leader or organizer of the conference.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A) 1 only.

Senna spectabilis, recently in news, is a/an:
  • a)
    Invasive plant
  • b)
    Virus
  • c)
    Fungus
  • d)
    Salt tolerant plant
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The Forest Department of Tamil Nadu has cleared 356.50 hectares of invasive growth of Senna spectabilis that posed a threat to biodiversity conservation in Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR).
  • It is a species of the legume family.
  • It is native to South and Central America and is grown as an ornamental plant as it has bright yellow flowers. 
  • It was introduced as shade trees for coffee and firewood in the country; it soon became a threat to native tree species as its dense foliage prevented the growth of other indigenous trees and grass species.
  • It is considered as Least Concern under the IUCN Red List.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian grey wolf:
  1. It is mainly found in grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems.
  2. It is placed under the schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Pillai answered
Indian grey wolf is a species of wolf that is native to the Indian subcontinent. Let us analyze the given statements to determine their correctness:

1. It is mainly found in grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems.
This statement is correct. Indian grey wolves primarily inhabit grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems. They are well adapted to these habitats and can also be found in scrublands, deserts, and forested areas. They are known to inhabit regions such as Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh in India.

2. It is placed under the Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
This statement is also correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 is a comprehensive legislation enacted in India for the protection of wildlife and conservation of biodiversity. The Act categorizes different species based on their conservation status and provides legal provisions for their protection. Schedule I of the Act includes species that are considered highly endangered and are provided with the highest level of legal protection. Indian grey wolf is indeed listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972, highlighting its conservation significance.

Therefore, both the statements given above are correct.

In conclusion, the Indian grey wolf is mainly found in grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems, and it is placed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. These facts highlight the ecological importance and conservation status of this species.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gir cattle breed:
  1. It has tolerant to stress conditions and resistant to various tropical diseases.
  2. It is a native cow breed from the state of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

India has imported 40,000 doses of bull semen from Brazil for the first time to boost milk output via artificial insemination of Gir and Kankrej cattle breeds.
  • It is a famous Indian-born dairy cattle breed.
  • It is also known as “Bhodali”, “Desan”, “Gujarati”, “Kathiawari”, “Sorthi”, and “Surati”. 
  • Its native tract is Gir hills and forests of Kathiawar in Gujarat.
  • It is a world-renowned breed known for its tolerance to stress conditions and resistant to various tropical diseases.
  • This breed has been imported by countries like Brazil, USA, Venezuela and Mexico.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Rythu Bandhu Scheme is an investment support scheme for farmers started by which one of the following states?
  • a)
    Uttar Pradesh
  • b)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • c)
    Telangana
  • d)
    Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Nair answered
Rythu Bandhu Scheme - Andhra Pradesh


The Rythu Bandhu Scheme is an investment support initiative for farmers launched by the state of Andhra Pradesh. Here is a detailed explanation of the scheme:

Objective:

- The main aim of the Rythu Bandhu Scheme is to provide financial assistance to farmers to support their agricultural activities and ensure their economic stability.

Implementation:

- Under this scheme, eligible farmers receive financial assistance in the form of investment support twice a year, before the Kharif and Rabi seasons.
- The financial assistance is directly credited to the bank accounts of the farmers through a transparent process.

Beneficiaries:

- Small and marginal farmers are the primary beneficiaries of the Rythu Bandhu Scheme.
- The scheme covers various categories of farmers, including tenant farmers and those engaged in horticulture.

Benefits:

- The scheme helps farmers meet their agricultural expenses such as purchasing seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and other inputs.
- It reduces the dependency of farmers on moneylenders and provides them with financial security.

Success:

- The Rythu Bandhu Scheme has been successful in improving the economic condition of farmers in Andhra Pradesh and has received appreciation for its effective implementation.

In conclusion, the Rythu Bandhu Scheme in Andhra Pradesh has been instrumental in supporting farmers and enhancing agricultural productivity in the state.

Consider the following statements regarding Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR):
  1. It lies in Bihar and consists of the Terai Eco-System.
  2. It serves as an international corridor for elephant migration between India and Nepal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Raksha Datta answered
Explanation:

Incorrect Statements:
- Statement 1: Buxa Tiger Reserve is not located in Bihar. It is actually situated in West Bengal.
- Statement 2: While Buxa Tiger Reserve does serve as a corridor for elephant migration, it is not between India and Nepal. Instead, it is a corridor for elephant movement between India and Bhutan.

Correct Answer:
- Thus, both the statements given in the question are incorrect.
- The Buxa Tiger Reserve is an important wildlife sanctuary located in the Alipurduar district of West Bengal, India.
- It is known for its diverse flora and fauna, including the Royal Bengal Tiger, Asian elephant, and several species of birds and butterflies.
- Buxa Tiger Reserve is part of the Terai-Duar savanna and grasslands ecoregion, which is characterized by tall grasslands and dense forests.
- The reserve serves as a crucial elephant corridor connecting the forests of Buxa in India with the forests of Bhutan, facilitating the movement of elephants across international borders.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Exercise Ayutthaya’ is conducted between India and:
  • a)
    Bangladesh
  • b)
    Nepal
  • c)
    Sri Lanka
  • d)
    Thailand
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Recently, the maiden Bilateral Maritime Exercise -Ayutthaya’ between the Indian Navy (IN) and Royal Thai Navy (RTN) was conducted.
  • The India-Thailand Bilateral Exercise is being named as ‘Ex-Ayutthaya’, which literally translates to ‘The Invincible One’ or ‘Undefeatable’.
  • It symbolises the significance of two of the oldest cities Ayodhya in India and Ayutthaya in Thailand, the historic legacies, rich cultural ties and shared historical narratives dating back to several centuries.
  • Indigenously built Indian Naval ships Kulish and IN LCU 56 participated in the inaugural edition of the exercise.
  • With the institution of a Bilateral Exercise, both navies have taken a step towards strengthening operational synergy and progressively increasing the exercise complexity.
  • During the maiden edition of the exercise, participating units from both navies conducted surface and anti-air exercises including weapon firing, seamanship evolutions and tactical manoeuvres.
  • The 36th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol (Indo-Thai CORPAT) was also conducted along with the maiden bilateral exercise.
  • Maritime Patrol Aircraft from both navies participated in the Sea Phase of the exercise.
  • As part of Government of India's vision of SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region), the Indian Navy has been proactively engaging with countries in the Indian Ocean Region towards enhancing regional maritime security.
  • The Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy have maintained a close and friendly relationship which has strengthened over the years.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Auroras:
  1. It results when the sun’s electrically-charged particles interact with Earth's magnetosphere.
  2. Earth is the only planet in the Solar system that experiences Auroras.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mahi Banerjee answered
Emits a stream of charged particles, also known as solar wind, towards the Earth's magnetic field.
It is most commonly observed in regions near the Earth's poles, such as the Arctic and Antarctic.
The charged particles from the sun interact with the Earth's magnetic field and create colorful light displays in the sky.
It is also known as the Northern Lights in the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Lights in the Southern Hemisphere.
They are typically green in color, but can also appear as red, yellow, blue, or purple, depending on the type of gas in the atmosphere.

‘Amaterasu’, that was in the news recently, is:
  • a)
    A newly discovered exoplanet in a distant galaxy
  • b)
    A high energy cosmic ray
  • c)
    A rare species of deep-sea fish
  • d)
    An advanced artificial intelligence system
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Scientists recently detected the most powerful cosmic ray seen in more than three decades, which has been named ‘Amaterasu’.
About Amaterasu:
  • It is one of the highest-energy cosmic rays ever detected.
  • It has been named Amaterasu after the Japanese sun goddess.
  • It has an energy exceeding 240 exa-electron volts (EeV). That is millions of times more than particles produced in the Large Hadron Collider, the most powerful accelerator ever built, and equivalent to the energy of a golf ball travelling at 95mph. 
  • It comes only second to the Oh-My-God particle, another ultra-high-energy cosmic ray that came in at 320 EeV, detected in 1991.
  • Amaterasu appears to have emerged from the Local Void, an empty area of space bordering the Milky Way galaxy.
What are Cosmic Rays?
  • They are echoes of violent celestial events that have stripped matter of its subatomic structures and hurled it through the universe at nearly the speed of light.
  • Essentially, cosmic rays are charged particles with a wide range of energies consisting of positive protons, negative electrons, or entire atomic nuclei that travel through space and rain down onto Earth nearly constantly.
  • They hit Earth’s upper atmosphere and blast apart the nucleus of oxygen and nitrogen gas, generating many secondary particles.
  • These travel a short distance in the atmosphere and repeat the processbuilding a shower of billions of secondary particles that scatter to the surface. 
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Constitution:
  1. It came into force on November 26, 1949.
  2. Sh. Nand Lal Bose singlehandedly handwrote the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Indian Constitution:

The Indian Constitution is the supreme law of India, which governs the structure and functioning of the country. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, and came into force on January 26, 1950, marking the birth of the Republic of India.

Statement 1: It came into force on November 26, 1949.
This statement is incorrect. The Indian Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, not on November 26, 1949. November 26 is celebrated as Constitution Day in India to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly.

Statement 2: Sh. Nand Lal Bose single-handedly handwrote the Constitution.
This statement is incorrect. The Indian Constitution was not single-handedly written by Sh. Nand Lal Bose. The drafting of the Constitution was a collective effort of the Constituent Assembly, which consisted of 299 members. The drafting committee was chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who played a key role in drafting the Constitution.

Explanation:
- The Indian Constitution was primarily drafted by the drafting committee, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. The committee consisted of seven members who worked together to draft the Constitution.
- The drafting process involved extensive consultations and debates among the members of the Constituent Assembly. Various provisions were discussed and deliberated upon before being incorporated into the final draft.
- The Constituent Assembly took two years, eleven months, and seventeen days to complete the drafting of the Constitution. It involved rigorous debates on various aspects, including fundamental rights, the structure of government, and the distribution of powers.
- The final draft of the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, and it came into force on January 26, 1950.
- The Constitution of India is a comprehensive document that outlines the fundamental rights and duties of citizens, the structure and powers of the government, and the procedures to be followed for governance.
- It is important to note that the Indian Constitution is a living document that can be amended to meet the changing needs of society. Several amendments have been made to the Constitution since its adoption to reflect the evolving aspirations of the people.

In conclusion, neither of the given statements is correct. The Indian Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, and it was not single-handedly written by Sh. Nand Lal Bose. It was a collective effort of the Constituent Assembly, with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar playing a pivotal role in its drafting.

Consider the following statements regarding Dudhwa Tiger Reserve:
  1. It is located at the Indo-Nepal border in Uttar Pradesh.
  2. It has a moist deciduous type of vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanaya Ahuja answered
Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is a protected area located at the Indo-Nepal border in Uttar Pradesh, India. It is one of the most important and well-known wildlife reserves in the country. Let's examine the given statements to determine their accuracy:

1) It is located at the Indo-Nepal border in Uttar Pradesh.
- This statement is correct. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is indeed situated on the Indo-Nepal border in the state of Uttar Pradesh. The reserve shares its boundary with Nepal's Bardia National Park.

2) It has a moist deciduous type of vegetation.
- This statement is also correct. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is predominantly covered by moist deciduous forests. These forests are characterized by trees that shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water. Moist deciduous forests are typically found in areas with a moderate climate and a distinct dry period.

Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is renowned for its diverse flora and fauna. The vegetation in the reserve includes Sal, Asna, Shisham, and Jamun trees, among others. The moist deciduous forests provide an ideal habitat for various species of animals, including tigers, leopards, elephants, rhinoceros, swamp deer, sloth bears, and many more.

Apart from the moist deciduous forests, Dudhwa Tiger Reserve also consists of grasslands, marshes, and wetlands. These different ecosystems support a wide range of wildlife and avian species. The reserve is particularly famous for its population of the endangered swamp deer, also known as the barasingha. Dudhwa is one of the last remaining strongholds for this species.

The reserve also serves as an important corridor for the movement of wildlife between India and Nepal. It plays a vital role in maintaining the genetic diversity and overall conservation of the region's flora and fauna.

In conclusion, both the given statements about Dudhwa Tiger Reserve are correct. It is located at the Indo-Nepal border in Uttar Pradesh and has a moist deciduous type of vegetation.

The MQ-4C Triton, recently seen in the news, is related to:
  • a)
    Genetic engineering
  • b)
    Agricultural crop monitoring
  • c)
    Space exploration
  • d)
    Maritime intelligence and surveillance
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Northrop Grumman Corporation recently announced the successful maiden flight of Australia's multi-intelligence MQ-4C Triton uncrewed aircraft.
About MQ-4C Triton:
  • Built for both the U.S. Navy and the Royal Australian Air Force, the MQ-4C Triton stands as the sole uncrewed, high-altitude, long-endurance aircraft designed for persistent maritime intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance, and targeting.
  • It was developed by the Northrop Grumman Corporation, an American multinational aerospace and defense technology company. 
  • Features:
  • Its autonomous operations are supported by land-based command and control mission planners and sensor operators. 
  • The aircraft can fly over 24 hours at a time, at altitudes higher than 10 miles, with an operational range of 8,200 nautical miles.
  • It has a length of 14.5m, a height of 4.7m, and a wingspan of 39.9m.
  • It can hold a maximum internal payload of 1,452kg and an external payload of 1,089kg.
  • It has a maximum speed of 600 km/hr.
  • Triton will be equipped with a unique and robust mission sensor suite that provides 360-degree coverage on all sensors.
  • Triton also incorporates a reinforced airframe for increased internal payload and a wing for hail, bird strike, and gust load protection.
  • These features allow the aircraft to descend and ascend through harsh maritime weather environments to gain a closer view of ships and other targets at sea when needed.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Sohagibarwa Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in:
  • a)
    Manipur
  • b)
    Gujarat
  • c)
    Maharashtra
  • d)
    Uttar Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the Chief minister of Uttar Pradesh directed officials to conduct archaeological excavation in the Sohagibarwa Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • It is located in the Maharajganj district of Uttar Pradesh. 
  • It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in June 1987.
  • Borders: On the northern side, it shares the international boundary with Nepal, and on the eastern border is Bihar’s Valmiki Tiger Reserve.
  • Vegetation: The vegetation of this area is of North Indian Moist Deciduous type.
  • Rivers: It is drained by the great Gandak, the little Gandak, Pyas and Rohin rivers.
  • Topography
  • It is almost flat with an average height of 100mtrs above mean sea level.
  • The area gently slopes from North–West to South–East.
  • The area of the Sanctuary is a vast alluvial plain. The underlying soil of the area consists of alluvial formation, showing a succession of beds of clay, silt and sands.
  • Flora:
  • Nearly 75% of the area consists of Sal forest, and other humid areas are covered with Jaamun, Gutal, Semal, KhairTrees, etc.
  • Lower region of the sanctuary, which is water logged during rains, consists of Grasslands and patches of Cane forests.
  • Fauna:
  • It is inhabited by a variety of animals which mainly includes Leopard, Tiger, Jungle Cat, Small Indian Civet, Langur, etc.
  • The Avifauna is varied with Little Cormorant, Snake Bird, Brahimini Duck, Common Teal, Little Egret, Cattle Egret, Paddy Bird etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Methotrexate, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    anti-cancer drug
  • b)
    genetically modified plant
  • c)
    invasive plant species
  • d)
    newly discovered mineral
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Recently, a new highly fluorescent material with exceptional optical properties has been developed using phosphorene, cystine, and gold (Ph-Cys-Au) which can be used as a visual sensing platform for detecting anti-cancer drug Methotrexate.
  • It is a widely used anti-cancer drug.
  • The MTX value of more than 10 µM in blood plasma is hazardous.
  • If it remains in the system for more than 10 hours, resulting in poisoning effects on the lungs, ulcers of the stomach, and heart stroke.
  • MTX is highly expensive, and the detection of unwanted overdoses using traditional procedures is time-consuming and involves complex instrumentation.
Hence option a is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project:
  1. It is located on the island of Hawaii.
  2. It is an optical and infrared telescope which enables observations into deep space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Recently, an official delegation from the Department of Science and Technology visited Mauna Kea to discuss “challenges” to the Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project. 
  • It has been conceived as a 30-metre diameter primary-mirror optical and infrared telescope that will enable observations into deep space.
  • It is proposed as a joint collaboration involving institutions in the U.S., Japan, China, Canada, and India.
  • It will be the world’s most advanced and capable ground-based optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared observatory.
  • It will integrate the latest innovations in precisions control, segmented mirror design, and adaptive optics.
  • At the heart of the telescope is the segmented mirror, made up of 492 individual segments. Precisely aligned, these segments will work as a single reflective surface of 30m diameter.
  • Location: Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano on the island of Hawai’i in the United States.
Hence both statements are correct.

Exercise Sada Tanseeq is conducted between India and:
  • a)
    Australia
  • b)
    Bhutan
  • c)
    Iran
  • d)
    Saudi Arabia
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Exercise Sada Tanseeq is conducted between India and Saudi Arabia. It is a bilateral military exercise aimed at enhancing cooperation and interoperability between the armed forces of both countries. The exercise focuses on various aspects of counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations.

The exercise is conducted in multiple phases, including a joint training phase and a field training phase. During the joint training phase, the armed forces of both countries engage in discussions and workshops to exchange knowledge and share best practices in areas such as intelligence sharing, special operations, and tactical operations.

During the field training phase, the armed forces participate in simulated combat scenarios to practice and improve their operational capabilities. This includes joint exercises involving infantry, armored units, and special forces. The exercises also involve the use of advanced weapons and equipment, aimed at enhancing the combat effectiveness of the armed forces.

The exercise provides an opportunity for the armed forces of India and Saudi Arabia to learn from each other's experiences and enhance their operational capabilities. It also helps in strengthening the defense cooperation and mutual understanding between the two countries.

The exercise is significant in the context of the strategic partnership between India and Saudi Arabia. Both countries have been working closely on various fronts, including defense and security cooperation. Exercise Sada Tanseeq serves as a platform to further deepen this cooperation and strengthen the bilateral relationship.

In conclusion, Exercise Sada Tanseeq is a bilateral military exercise conducted between India and Saudi Arabia. It aims to enhance cooperation and interoperability between the armed forces of both countries through joint training and field exercises. The exercise plays a crucial role in strengthening the defense cooperation and mutual understanding between India and Saudi Arabia.

What is Glyptothoa sagara, recently seen in news?
  • a)
    Crustacean
  • b)
    Bacteria
  • c)
    Fungus
  • d)
    Algae
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, research conducted at the University of Kerala has led to the unprecedented discovery of a new crustacean family off the Indian coast. 
  • Researchers have named the new family Uranoscopicolaidae.
  • This is also the first discovery and description of a new crustacean family from India.
  • This parasitic copepod was found to depend upon the Dollfus’ Stargazer (Uranoscopus guttatus), a fish dwelling in depths ranging from 300-550 m off the southwest Indian coast.
  • The discovery of the new family has also led to the creation of a new genus and species, Hirodai ohstukai under it.
  • These parasitic copepods are known to infest a wide range of hosts, from sponges to marine mammals.
  • New isopod species which has been named Glyptothoa sagara; ‘Glypto’ as the fish parasite was found in the deep sea fish Glyptophidium macropus, and ‘sagara’ for ocean.
  • Another new isopod crustacean parasite species named Elthusa aquabio was collected from an unknown fish. 
  • The fourth new species is a 11-12 mm “flesh-penetrating parasitic copepod,” which has been named as Cardiodectes vampire.
  • It was found to infest the deep-sea fish Chlorophthalmus corniger. 
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding chess Grandmaster title:
  1. It is the highest title given to a chess player.
  2. It cannot be taken back from the player once it is awarded.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Recently, Vaishali Rameshbabu and her younger brother Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa have become the first-ever Grandmaster brother-sister duo in history.
  • Grandmaster is the highest title or ranking that a chess player can achieve.
  • The Grandmaster title and other chess titles is awarded by the International Chess Federation, FIDE (acronym for its French name FédérationInternationale des Échecs),
  • The title is the badge of the game’s super-elite, recognition of the greatest chess talent on the planet, which has been tested and proven against a peer group of other similarly talented players in the world’s toughest competitions.
  • Besides Grandmaster, the Qualification Commission of FIDE recognises and awards seven other titles: International Master (IM), FIDE Master (FM), Candidate Master (CM), Woman Grandmaster (WGM), Woman International Master (WIM), Woman FIDE Master (WFM), and Woman Candidate Master (WCM) are also be given.
  • All the titles, including that of Grandmaster, are valid for life, unless a player is stripped of the title for a proven offence such as cheating.
  • Revocation of title
  • The “use of a FIDE title or rating to subvert the ethical principles of the title or rating system may subject a person to revocation of his title”.
  • In case it is found after a title has been awarded that the player was in breach of the Anti-Cheating Regulations in one or more of the tournaments on which the title application was based, then the title may be removed by the Qualification Commission”.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Insat-3DS satellite:
  1. It is developed by the ISRO and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
  2. It is part of a series of climate observatory satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Singh answered
Explanation:

Development:
- The statement that the Insat-3DS satellite is developed by the ISRO and the India Meteorological Department (IMD) is correct.
- The Insat-3DS satellite is a joint initiative between the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD) to enhance weather forecasting capabilities in India.

Series of climate observatory satellites:
- The statement that the Insat-3DS satellite is part of a series of climate observatory satellites is also correct.
- The Insat-3DS is part of the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) series of satellites, which are primarily used for meteorological purposes such as weather forecasting, disaster management, and climate monitoring.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian vulture:
  1. It is an old world vulture native to Asia.
  2. It is usually found in savannas and other open habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjana Basak answered
Indian Vulture

Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: It is an old world vulture native to Asia.

  • Explanation: This statement is correct. The Indian vulture, also known as the Oriental white-backed vulture, is indeed an old world vulture native to Asia. It is commonly found in India, Pakistan, Nepal, and other Asian countries.


  • Statement 2: It is usually found in savannas and other open habitats.

  • Explanation: This statement is also correct. Indian vultures are primarily found in savannas, grasslands, and other open habitats. They prefer these areas for foraging and nesting.


Therefore, both statements are accurate, and the correct answer is option c) Both 1 and 2.

Which among the following best describes Photocatalyst?
  • a)
    A substance that emits light upon exposure to photons
  • b)
    A material that only reacts to specific wavelengths of light
  • c)
    A substance that changes the rate of a chemical reaction upon exposure to light
  • d)
    A catalyst that requires extreme temperatures for activation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Photocatalyst is a substance that changes the rate of a chemical reaction upon exposure to light. It is an important field of study in chemistry and materials science. Let's understand the concept of photocatalysis and its significance in various applications.

Photocatalysis:

Photocatalysis is a process in which a substance, known as a photocatalyst, is used to accelerate a chemical reaction by absorbing light energy. When a photocatalyst absorbs photons of light, it undergoes a photoexcitation process, leading to the generation of electron-hole pairs. These excited charge carriers can then participate in various chemical reactions, either directly with reactants or through the formation of reactive species.

Key points:
- Photocatalysts are typically semiconductors, such as titanium dioxide (TiO2) and zinc oxide (ZnO). These materials possess a bandgap, which allows them to absorb specific wavelengths of light and create electron-hole pairs.
- The excited electrons and holes can participate in redox reactions and transfer their energy to reactant molecules, thus promoting chemical transformations.
- Photocatalysis is often used in environmental applications, such as air and water purification, where the photocatalyst can degrade pollutants and harmful substances.
- It is also employed in energy conversion processes, such as solar cells and artificial photosynthesis, where the photocatalyst plays a crucial role in capturing and converting solar energy into useful forms.
- The efficiency of a photocatalyst depends on factors like its bandgap energy, surface area, and catalytic activity.

Significance of Photocatalysis:

1. Environmental Remediation:
Photocatalysts can be used to remove organic pollutants, volatile organic compounds (VOCs), and even toxic heavy metals from air and water. The photocatalytic reactions can break down these pollutants into harmless substances.

2. Solar Energy Conversion:
Photocatalysts are utilized in solar cells and solar fuel production. They can absorb sunlight and convert it into electricity or store it in the form of chemical fuels like hydrogen or hydrocarbons.

3. Self-Cleaning Surfaces:
Photocatalytic coatings are used on surfaces like glass and ceramics to create a self-cleaning effect. These coatings can break down organic matter, preventing the accumulation of dirt and grime.

4. Antibacterial Applications:
Certain photocatalysts, like titanium dioxide, have antibacterial properties. They can kill bacteria and other microorganisms when exposed to light, making them useful in medical devices, water treatment, and sterilization.

Conclusion:

Photocatalysts are substances that change the rate of a chemical reaction upon exposure to light. They find wide-ranging applications in environmental remediation, solar energy conversion, self-cleaning surfaces, and antibacterial applications. The ability of photocatalysts to utilize light energy for chemical transformations has immense potential for sustainable technologies and addressing global challenges.

Consider the following statements regarding the Willingdon Island:
  1. It is a man-made island.
  2. It is located on the Eastern coast of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Devansh Yadav answered
Willingdon Island is a man-made island located in Kochi, Kerala, on the southwestern coast of India. The correct statement among the given options is statement 1, which states that it is a man-made island.

- Willingdon Island is a Man-made Island:
Willingdon Island is indeed a man-made island. It was created by dredging the seabed and reclaiming land from the backwaters of Kochi. The island was constructed during the British Raj in the early 20th century and was named after Lord Willingdon, the then Viceroy of India. The dredged soil was used to create the island, which was primarily intended to serve as a major port and harbor for the city.

- Located on the Southwestern Coast of India:
The second statement is incorrect. Willingdon Island is not located on the eastern coast of India, as mentioned in statement 2. Instead, it is situated on the southwestern coast of India, specifically in Kochi (also known as Cochin), a major port city in Kerala.

- Significance and Features of Willingdon Island:
Willingdon Island is an important commercial and industrial hub in Kochi. It is home to the Kochi Port, which is one of the largest and busiest ports in India. The island is well-connected to the mainland by road and rail bridges. It houses various important establishments, including government offices, hotels, offices of shipping companies, and warehouses.

- Role in Maritime Trade and Tourism:
Due to its strategic location and excellent harbor facilities, Willingdon Island plays a crucial role in maritime trade and commerce. It serves as a major transit point for cargo and passenger ships. The island also attracts tourists with its scenic beauty, waterfront promenades, and luxury hotels.

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as Willingdon Island is indeed a man-made island. However, statement 2 is incorrect as it is located on the southwestern coast of India, not the eastern coast.

Consider the following statements regarding the Genocide Convention 1948:
  1. Under it, an act of imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group is called as genocide.
  2. India has not ratified this convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Desai answered
The correct answer is option 'A': 1 only.

Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement one by one:

1) Under the Genocide Convention 1948, an act of imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group is called as genocide.
The Genocide Convention, formally known as the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 9 December 1948. It defines genocide as any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial, or religious group:
- Killing members of the group
- Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group
- Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part
- Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group
- Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group

Therefore, the statement is correct as it correctly identifies that under the Genocide Convention, imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group is considered an act of genocide.

2) India has not ratified this convention.
Ratification is the formal process by which a country becomes legally bound by an international treaty. As of 2021, India has indeed ratified the Genocide Convention. India ratified the convention on 27 August 1959, making it legally bound by its provisions.

Therefore, the statement is incorrect as India has ratified the Genocide Convention.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Gut Microbiota:
  1. It refers to bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites that live in the human gut.
  2. Infants inherit their first gut microbes during birth or breastfeeding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
     1 only
  • b)
     2 only
  • c)
     Both 1 and 2
  • d)
     Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Palak Patel answered
Gut Microbiota
The gut microbiota refers to the complex community of microorganisms that reside in the human gastrointestinal tract. It includes bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. These microorganisms play a crucial role in various aspects of human health, including digestion, immune function, and metabolism.

Statement 1: It refers to bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that live in the human gut.
This statement is correct. Gut microbiota consists of a diverse range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. These microorganisms colonize the gut and form a complex ecosystem, collectively known as the gut microbiota.

- The bacteria in the gut microbiota are the most abundant and diverse. They play a key role in various physiological processes, such as the breakdown of dietary fiber, production of vitamins, and regulation of the immune system.
- Viruses, known as bacteriophages, are also present in the gut microbiota. They infect and replicate within bacterial cells, influencing the composition and functions of the bacterial community.
- Fungi, such as yeasts and molds, are found in the gut microbiota as well. They contribute to the breakdown of complex carbohydrates and have interactions with other microorganisms in the gut.
- Although parasites are less common in the gut microbiota compared to bacteria, viruses, and fungi, they can still be present in certain individuals. Parasitic infections in the gut can have significant health implications.

Statement 2: Infants inherit their first gut microbes during birth or breastfeeding.
This statement is correct. The initial colonization of an infant's gut begins during birth and continues through breastfeeding. During a vaginal delivery, the newborn is exposed to the maternal vaginal and fecal microbiota, which serve as the primary source of early gut colonization. This exposure helps establish a diverse and healthy gut microbiota in the infant.

- Breastfeeding further contributes to the colonization of the infant's gut. Breast milk contains various beneficial components, such as prebiotics and antibodies, which promote the growth of beneficial bacteria and provide protection against pathogens.
- The composition of the gut microbiota in early life is influenced by several factors, including the mode of delivery (vaginal vs. cesarean), maternal health, diet, and environment.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The gut microbiota consists of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, and infants acquire their first gut microbes during birth and breastfeeding.

Picocystis Salinarum, which is adapted to highly saline conditions, is a:
  • a)
    Bacteria
  • b)
    Algae
  • c)
    Virus
  • d)
    Fungi
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Patel answered
Picocystis Salinarum, which is adapted to highly saline conditions, is an Algae.

Explanation:

Picocystis Salinarum is a type of algae that is adapted to highly saline conditions, specifically in hypersaline environments such as salt flats, salt pans, and salt lakes. This unique adaptation allows it to thrive in extreme conditions that would be inhospitable to most other organisms.

Characteristics of Picocystis Salinarum:

- Picocystis Salinarum is a unicellular organism belonging to the group of picoplanktonic algae.
- It is characterized by its small size, typically ranging from 0.5 to 2.5 micrometers in diameter.
- It has a spherical or oval shape and is often found in large colonies or aggregates.
- The cell wall of Picocystis Salinarum is relatively thick and robust, providing protection against the high salinity of its environment.
- It contains a photosynthetic pigment called chlorophyll a, which enables it to carry out photosynthesis and produce energy from sunlight.
- Despite its small size, Picocystis Salinarum can play a significant role in the ecosystem as a primary producer, serving as a food source for other organisms.

Adaptations to Highly Saline Conditions:

- Picocystis Salinarum has developed several adaptations to survive and thrive in highly saline conditions:
- It possesses specialized ion channels and transporters in its cell membrane that allow it to regulate the movement of ions, such as sodium and chloride, to maintain osmotic balance.
- The cell wall of Picocystis Salinarum is composed of a unique combination of polysaccharides, proteins, and lipids that provide structural integrity and protect against desiccation and osmotic stress.
- It has a high intracellular concentration of compatible solutes, such as glycine betaine and proline, which help maintain cellular hydration and protect against the denaturation of proteins.
- Picocystis Salinarum has a high photosynthetic efficiency and can use a wide range of light wavelengths, allowing it to maximize its energy production even in highly saline environments.

Significance:

- Picocystis Salinarum and other salt-adapted algae play a vital role in hypersaline ecosystems by contributing to primary production and nutrient cycling.
- They are often the dominant primary producers in these environments, supporting the food web and providing a source of energy for other organisms, such as brine shrimp and other algae-eating organisms.
- Understanding the adaptations of Picocystis Salinarum to highly saline conditions can provide insights into the limits of life on Earth and the potential for life in extreme environments elsewhere in the universe.

Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Community of West African States:
  1. It was established through the Lagos Treaty in 1975.
  2. It aims to create a borderless region that is governed on the principles of democracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Recently, the military regimes in Burkina Faso, Mali and Niger announced their immediate withdrawal from the West African bloc ECOWAS.
  • Economic Community of West African States is also known as CEDEAO in French.
  • It is the regional group which was established in 1975 through the Lagos Treaty.
  • Mandate: Promoting economic integration among its members.
  • The vision of ECOWAS is the creation of a “borderless region” that is well-integrated and governed in accordance with the principles of democracy, rule of law and good governance.
  • Members: Benin, Cape Verde, Cote d’ Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea Bissau, Liberia, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Senegal and Togo.
  • ECOWAS’ larger aims are to have a single common currency and create a single, large trading bloc in areas of industry, transport, telecommunications, energy, financial issues, and social and cultural matters.
  • Along with the goals of economic cooperation, it has attempted to quell military conflicts in the region. 
  • It also operated a regional peacekeeping operation known as ECOMOG, led by Nigeria in the 1990s and early 2000s.
  • Headquarter: Abuja, Nigeria.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Eurasian Otter:
  1. It is a semi-aquatic carnivorous mammal.
  2. It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
A team of researchers recently discovered a Eurasian otter in the Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary in Idukki, a first in Kerala. 
About Eurasian Otter:
  • It is a semi-aquatic carnivorous mammal native to Eurasia.
  • Scientific Name: Lutra lutra
  • Distribution:
  • It has one of the widest distributions of all Palearctic mammals, from Ireland to China and down to Southeast Asia.
  • It lives throughout Europe, North Africa, and Asia.
  • In India, it occurs in northern, northeastern, and southern India.
  • Habitat:
  • It inhabits streams, rivers, lakes, freshwater and peat swamp forests, ocean shores, rice fields, fjords, caves, and other terrestrial habitats close by waterways.
  • In the Indian subcontinent, it is found in cold hills and mountain streams.
  • Features:
  • It has a long body with a thick tail and short legs.
  • It is brown above and cream below.
  • It has sensitive whiskers around the snout to help detect prey.
  • It has two layers of fur: a thick, waterproof outer one and a warm inner one.
  • It has an acute sense of sight, smell, and hearing.
  • It is an elusive, solitary otter, but sometimes it is seen in family groups, composed of a mother and her offspring.
  • It has a varied diet, which includes fish, crustaceans, amphibians, and sometimes reptiles, birds, eggs, insects, and worms.
  • Conservation Status:
  • IUCN: Near threatened
  • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule II
  • CITES:  Appendix I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Halwa Ceremony, recently seen in the news:
  1. It is a tradition performed every year to celebrate a successful budget presentation.
  2. It takes place every year in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Union Finance Minister participated in the 'Halwa Ceremony' on recently, a tradition observed before the annual budget presentation.
About Halwa Ceremony:
  • It is a tradition performed every year ahead of the budget and signifies the official initiation of the printing process of various documents related to the budget.
  • It involves the preparation of the traditional dessert 'halwa' in a massive kadhai (wok), which is then served to all those who are directly associated with the budget-making process.
  • The finance minister gives the go-ahead by stirring the kadhai and serving the sweet to officials.
  • It takes place in the basement of the Finance Ministry's North Block in Central Delhi, where a special printing press is located.
  • It serves as a formal ‘send-off’ for the ministry officials and staff engaged in preparing the Union government's annual financial statement.
  • Subsequently, the top officials involved with the budget enter a designated ‘lock-in’ periodisolating themselves within the ministry premises and cutting off from their families to preserve the confidentiality surrounding the final budget document.
  • The officials are required to stay in the Finance Ministry till the finance minister finally presents the budget.
Hence both statements are not correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Panama Canal:
  1. It is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
  2. The United States has full authority regarding the administration and operation of the canal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Juhi Basak answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. Let's understand why.

Statement 1: It is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
This statement is correct. The Panama Canal is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean. It is located in Panama and provides a shortcut for ships traveling between the two oceans, eliminating the need to sail around South America. The canal consists of a series of locks that raise and lower ships as they pass through the canal, allowing them to navigate through the mountainous terrain of Panama.

Statement 2: The United States has full authority regarding the administration and operation of the canal.
This statement is incorrect. The United States used to have full authority over the administration and operation of the Panama Canal. However, this changed on December 31, 1999, when the canal was handed over to Panama as per the Torrijos-Carter Treaties signed in 1977. The treaties outlined a gradual transfer of control from the United States to Panama, with the Panamanian government assuming full authority and responsibility for the canal's operation and administration.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the Panama Canal is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the United States no longer has full authority over the administration and operation of the canal. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Consumer Protection Authority:
  1. It is empowered to order the discontinuation of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements.
  2. It is administered by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
About Central Consumer Protection Authority:
  • As provided in the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has been established w.e.f. 24th July, 2020. 
  • Objective:  To promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class. 
  • Composition:
  • It will have a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services.
  • It will be empowered:
  • To conduct investigations into violations of consumer rights and institute complaints/prosecution,
  • Order recall of unsafe goods and services, 
  • Order discontinuation of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements, 
  • Impose penalties on manufacturers/endorsers/publishers of misleading advertisements.
  • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Barda Wildlife Sanctuary (BWLS) is located in which state?
  • a)
    Maharashtra
  • b)
    Assam
  • c)
    Gujarat
  • d)
    Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Gujarat Forest Department recently presented its proposal to make Barda Wildlife Sanctuary (BWLS) the second home to lions before the national steering committee meeting held as part of "Project Lion @ 2047".
About Barda Wildlife Sanctuary (BWLS):
  • Location:
  • It is located in the state of Gujarat.
  • It lies roughly 15 kilometers from Porbandar and 100 kilometers west of Gir Forest National Park.
  • It has a hilly landscape, and the sanctuary sprawls over an area of 192.31 square kilometers.
  • It lies at an altitude that ranges from 79.2 meters to 617.8 meters above the sea level.
  • There are two waterways, the Bileshvary River and the Joghri River, and two dams, Khambala and Fodara.
  • Ethnic races such as Maldharis, Bharvads, Rabaris, and Gadhvis live in this region.
  • To develop Barda as the second home for the Asiatic lion, the State Government implemented the 'Gir-Barda Project' in 1979.
  • Flora
  • It is characteristically abundant in floral diversity, which consists of a good number of medicinal plants.
  • The sanctuary boasts about 650 plant species, which comprise Rayan, Babul, Ber, Jamun, Amli, Gorad, Bamboo, Dhav, Dhudhlo, etc
  • FaunaLeopard, Hyena, Wild boar, wolf, Jackal, blue bull, rare and endangered spotted eagle, crested hawk eagle, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Saurauia Punduana, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    Snake
  • b)
    Butterfly
  • c)
    Frog
  • d)
    Plant
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nitya Chavan answered
Introduction:
Saurauia Punduana is a plant species that has recently been in the news. It is important to understand the characteristics and significance of this plant in order to explain why the correct answer is option 'D'.

Characteristics of Saurauia Punduana:
Saurauia Punduana is a flowering plant that belongs to the family Actinidiaceae. It is endemic to the Pundaluoya region in Sri Lanka. This plant species is known for its unique features and distinct appearance. Some of its key characteristics include:

1. Growth Habit: Saurauia Punduana is a small evergreen shrub that typically grows up to 2-3 meters in height.

2. Leaves: The leaves of this plant are simple, alternate, and have a glossy texture. They are elliptical or lanceolate in shape and have a prominent midrib.

3. Flowers: The flowers of Saurauia Punduana are small, white, and appear in clusters. They have a pleasant fragrance and attract pollinators such as bees and butterflies.

4. Fruits: After pollination, this plant produces small, round fruits that are green when unripe and turn purple-black when ripe. The fruits are edible and have a sweet taste.

Significance of Saurauia Punduana:
Saurauia Punduana is of significant ecological importance due to its endemic nature and restricted distribution. It plays a crucial role in maintaining biodiversity and providing habitat for various organisms. The plant is also valuable in traditional medicine and has been used for its medicinal properties by local communities.

Furthermore, Saurauia Punduana is a symbol of conservation as it is considered a threatened species. Its habitat is under threat due to deforestation, land conversion, and other human activities. Efforts are being made to protect and conserve this plant species to ensure its survival.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, Saurauia Punduana is a plant species that has recently gained attention in the news. It is an endemic shrub found in Sri Lanka, known for its distinct features and ecological significance. Understanding the characteristics and significance of this plant helps us identify the correct answer as option 'D' - Plant.

Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
  • a)
    Himachal Pradesh
  • b)
    Odisha
  • c)
    Assam
  • d)
    Meghalaya
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
As a first, the Forest Department in Odisha has planned a ‘nocturnal trail’ for people, especially students and researchers, in the Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary:
  • Location: It lies partly within Khurda and partly in Cuttack Districts of Odisha State, and is in close proximity to the state capital, Bhubaneswar.
  • It is nestled in the Khordha uplands of the ‘North-Eastern Ghats’ biotic region.
  • Spread over 193.39 sq.km of rolling table land and small sprawling hillocks, it is a wildlife sanctuary since August 1982.
  • It is known for the successful conservation of elephants, which is the principal species here.
  • Vegetation: The floral diversity of the sanctuary is distributed in six types, which include secondary moist miscellaneous semi-evergreen forestsmoist Kangada (Xyliaxylocarpa) forests, Coastal Sal forests, thorny bamboo brakesplanted Teak, and Eupatorium scrub.
  • There are two water reservoirs, Deras Dam and Jhumka Dam, situated within the sanctuary.
  • Flora: The main tree species are Kochila, Kalicha, Belo, Kangada, Giringa, Sunari, Sal, Kumbhi, Jamu, Karanja, Teak, and Sidha.
  • Fauna:
  • Apart from elephants, other mammals include Leopard, Chital, Barking deer, Mouse deer, Wild pig, Common langur, Rhesus monkey, small Indian civet, etc.
  • Prominent birds of the sanctuary are Peafowl, Red jungle fowl, Crested serpent eagle, Great horned owl, Black headed oriole, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Snow Leopard:
  1. It is found only in the western Himalayan region.
  2. It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The first scientific survey of the snow leopard in India shows the country is home to 718 of the elusive cats, the government said recently.
About Snow Leopard:
  • It is a large, long-haired Asian cat, classified as either Panthera uncia or Uncia uncia in the family Felidae. 
  • Geographic Range:
  • Snow leopards live across a vast area in northern and central Asia's high mountains, including the Himalayan region.
  • In the Himalayas, they live in high alpine areas, mostly above the tree line and up to 18,000 feet in elevation.
  • They are found in 12 countries, including China, Bhutan, Nepal, India, PakistanRussia, and Mongolia.
  • In India, it is seen in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Features:
  • Measuring from nose to tail, the length of an average adult is 1000 to 1300 mm.
  • They have thick grey and yellow-tinged fur, with solid spots on their headneck, and lower limbs and rosettes over the rest of the body.
  • They also have very long, thick tails that they use for balancing on rocks and wrapping around their bodies for protection from the cold. 
  • Their short forelimbs and long hind limbs make them very agile, and they can jump as much as 50 feet in length.
  • They are solitary, and the only prolonged social contact occurs while females are raising their cubs.
  • Conservation status:
  • IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
  • CITES: Appendix I 
  • Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule I
Hence both statements are not correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Loss and damage fund:
  1. It aims to ensure the rescue and rehabilitation of countries facing the effects of climate change.
  2. It is managed by the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, on the opening day of the Conference of the Parties (COP28) climate conference in Dubai, a loss and damage fund to help vulnerable countries cope with the impact of climate change has been officially launched.
  • It was first announced during COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt.
  • It is a global financial package to ensure the rescue and rehabilitation of countries facing the cascading effects of climate change.
  • The term refers to the compensation that rich nations, whose industrial growth has resulted in global warming and driven the planet into a climate crisis, must pay to poor nations, whose carbon footprint is low but are facing the brunt of rising sea levels, floods, crippling droughts, and intense cyclones, among others.
  • The changing climate has impacted lives, livelihoods, biodiversity, cultural traditions, and identities.
  • Loss and damage is often categorised as either economic or non-economic.
  • Economic loss and damage are negative impacts that one can assign a monetary value to. These are things such as the costs of rebuilding infrastructure that has been damaged due to a flood, or the loss of revenue from agricultural crops that were destroyed due to drought.
  • Non-economic loss and damage are negative impacts where it is difficult or infeasible to assign a monetary value.
  • These are things such as trauma from experiencing a tropical cyclone, loss of community due to displacement of people, or loss of biodiversity,”
  • The World Bank will oversee the loss and damage fund in the beginning, with the source of funds being rich nations, such as the US, the UK and the EU, as well as some developing countries.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
  • a)
    Maharashtra
  • b)
    Gujarat
  • c)
    Bihar
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Kumar answered
The Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Odisha, which makes option 'D' the correct answer.

Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary:
The Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area situated in the state of Odisha, India. It is located near the capital city Bhubaneswar, about 20 kilometers away. The sanctuary encompasses an area of about 175 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity and varied flora and fauna.

Flora:
The sanctuary is home to a diverse range of plant species, including dry deciduous forests, moist deciduous forests, and bamboo forests. The vegetation is characterized by species like sal, asan, bonsum, and bamboo. These forests provide a suitable habitat for various animal species.

Fauna:
The Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is known for its diverse wildlife. It is home to several endangered species, including the Asian elephant and the Indian pangolin. Other animal species found in the sanctuary include deer, wild boar, sambar, leopard, jungle cat, and hyena. The sanctuary is also a paradise for birdwatchers, with over 200 species of birds recorded in the area.

Conservation Efforts:
The Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1982 with the aim of protecting the region's flora and fauna. The sanctuary is managed by the Odisha Forest Department and various conservation measures have been implemented to preserve the biodiversity of the area.

Tourism:
The sanctuary attracts a significant number of tourists and nature enthusiasts. It offers opportunities for wildlife safaris, birdwatching, and nature walks. The serene environment and beautiful landscapes make it an ideal destination for nature lovers.

Conclusion:
The Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary in Odisha is an important protected area known for its diverse flora and fauna. It serves as a crucial habitat for several endangered species and offers a range of recreational activities for visitors.

How does Generative AI differ from traditional AI systems?
  • a)
    It focuses only on recognizing patterns in data
  • b)
    It is designed only for specific, narrow tasks
  • c)
    It produces new content rather than making predictions
  • d)
    It relies only on human input for decision-making
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

A new report predicts that Generative AI (genAI) is poised to become a $100 billion industry by 2026. 
About Generative AI:
  • Generative AI, or generative artificial intelligence, is a form of artificial intelligence (AI) in which algorithms automatically produce content in the form of textimages, audio, and video.
  • Unlike traditional AI systems that are designed to recognize patterns and make predictions, generative AI creates new content.
  • Generative AI is powered by foundation models (large AI models) that can multi-task and perform out-of-the-box tasks, including summarization, Q&A, classification, and more. 
  • These systems have been trained on massive amounts of data.
  • It works by using a Machine Learning (ML) model to learn the patterns and relationships in a dataset of human-created content. It then uses the learned patterns to generate new content. 
  • Typically, it starts with a simple text input, called a prompt, in which the user describes the output they want. Then, various algorithms generate new content according to what the prompt is asking for.
  • Popular Generative AI Tools:
  • ChatGPT: ChatGPT is an AI-powered chatbot developed by OpenAI, with a unique ability to not only generate written content but also converse with users fluently.
  • Bard: Bard is a generative AI chatbot created by Google, based on LaMDA language model technology. It can answer questions asked by users or create new content from text or image prompts.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

What is FjordPhantom, recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    cryptocurrency
  • b)
    augmented reality technology
  • c)
    malware
  • d)
    geoengineering technique
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Basak answered
FjordPhantom: A New Malware in the News
FjordPhantom has recently been making headlines as a new type of malware that is causing concern among cybersecurity experts. Here is a detailed explanation of what FjordPhantom is and why it has garnered attention:

What is FjordPhantom?
FjordPhantom is a type of malware that is designed to infiltrate computer systems and steal sensitive information. It is known for its stealthy behavior, making it difficult for traditional antivirus programs to detect and remove.

How does FjordPhantom work?
FjordPhantom typically enters a system through phishing emails or malicious websites. Once inside, it can collect data such as login credentials, financial information, and personal details. This stolen information can then be used for identity theft, financial fraud, or other malicious activities.

Why is FjordPhantom concerning?
FjordPhantom is concerning because of its sophisticated design and ability to evade detection. It poses a significant threat to both individuals and organizations, as it can cause financial losses, reputational damage, and other serious consequences.

How can you protect against FjordPhantom?
To protect against FjordPhantom and other malware, it is essential to practice good cybersecurity hygiene. This includes regularly updating software, using strong and unique passwords, being cautious of suspicious emails and links, and using reputable antivirus programs.
In conclusion, FjordPhantom is a dangerous malware that is causing alarm in the cybersecurity community. By staying informed about the latest threats and taking proactive measures to protect against them, individuals and organizations can reduce the risk of falling victim to FjordPhantom and other malicious software.

Samavesha project, sometimes in news is related to which of the following? 
  • a)
    Aims to enhance research collaboration in India by improving accessibility to facilities and labs 
  • b)
    Aims to expand and enhance the country's rural internet connectivity 
  • c)
    To promote self-employment in rural areas through formation and skilling of SHGs 
  • d)
    To promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST communities
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jatin Chavan answered
Samavesha project is related to aims to enhance research collaboration in India by improving accessibility to facilities and labs.

The Samavesha project is a government initiative aimed at promoting research collaboration in India by improving accessibility to facilities and labs. It is a part of the larger effort to strengthen the country's research and innovation ecosystem and promote scientific advancements.

The project focuses on creating a network of research facilities and labs that are easily accessible to researchers from various institutions and organizations across the country. It aims to address the challenges faced by researchers in terms of infrastructure, equipment, and resources, which often hinder their ability to carry out high-quality research.

The Samavesha project aims to achieve its objectives through the following key initiatives:

1. Creating a network of research facilities: The project aims to identify and establish research facilities in different parts of the country. These facilities will be equipped with state-of-the-art equipment and resources to support research in various fields.

2. Improving accessibility: The project aims to ensure that these research facilities are easily accessible to researchers from different institutions and organizations. This includes providing logistical support such as transportation, accommodation, and other facilities to ensure that researchers can make use of these facilities without any hindrances.

3. Collaboration and knowledge sharing: The project aims to promote collaboration and knowledge sharing among researchers from different institutions and organizations. It will facilitate the exchange of ideas, expertise, and resources, thereby enhancing the quality and impact of research in India.

4. Training and capacity building: The project also focuses on training and capacity building of researchers. It aims to provide them with the necessary skills and knowledge required to carry out high-quality research. This includes organizing workshops, seminars, and training programs on various research methodologies and techniques.

Overall, the Samavesha project is a significant step towards enhancing research collaboration in India. By improving accessibility to facilities and labs, it aims to promote scientific advancements and contribute to the overall development of the country.

Klyuchevskoy volcano, recently seen in the news, is located in:
  • a)
    Kamchatka Peninsula
  • b)
    Yucatan Peninsula
  • c)
    Iberian Peninsula
  • d)
    Crimean Peninsula
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Recently, Klyuchevskoy volcano erupts on Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula.
  • It is one of the most famous volcanoes in Kamchatka.
  • It is one of the highest active volcanoes in the world with a height of 4,750 meters.
  • The volcano consists of a truncated cone with a central crater.
  • It is a stratovolcano.
  • It has been erupted more than 50 times since 1700.
Hence option a is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Peregrine Lander:
  1. It was launched by the European Space Agency.
  2. It is designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon's surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Gupta answered
Statement 1: The Peregrine Lander was launched by the European Space Agency.

Statement 2: The Peregrine Lander is designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon's surface.

Explanation:

The Peregrine Lander is a lunar lander developed by Astrobotic, a private space company based in the United States. It is not associated with the European Space Agency (ESA). Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Peregrine Lander is indeed designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon's surface. It has the capacity to carry up to 265 kilograms (584 pounds) of payloads, including scientific instruments, technology demonstrations, and commercial payloads. The lander is equipped with a payload delivery system that allows for precise and safe delivery of these payloads to the Moon's surface. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:

Only statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

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